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RAC and Power Plant Part-IV Study Notes and QuestionsMechani

The document contains a series of questions and solutions related to power plants, specifically focusing on the Rankine cycle, steam engines, and boiler operations. It includes multiple-choice questions covering topics such as thermal efficiency, steam properties, and boiler types. Additionally, it provides information on purchasing online test series and video courses related to the subject matter.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
3 views

RAC and Power Plant Part-IV Study Notes and QuestionsMechani

The document contains a series of questions and solutions related to power plants, specifically focusing on the Rankine cycle, steam engines, and boiler operations. It includes multiple-choice questions covering topics such as thermal efficiency, steam properties, and boiler types. Additionally, it provides information on purchasing online test series and video courses related to the subject matter.

Uploaded by

vavela2123
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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CONTENTS

Power Plant
Questions and Solutions. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .4

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Power Plant
Questions and Solutions

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Q1. For the same maximum temperature in the cycle the average
temperature of heat addition of a Rankine cycle compared to that
of Carnot cycle is-
(a) Same (b) Not related
(c) higher (d) lower

Q2. If a re-heater is added to a Rankine cycle, then usually:


(a) the net work and efficiency decreases
(b) the net work increases and efficiency remains same
(c) the net work and efficiency increases
(d) the net work remains same and efficiency increases

Q3. In a cross compound steam engine -


(a) one high and one low pressure cylinder are set side by side,
driving the same shaft, cranks being set 90° apart
(b) two cylinders are centered on the same piston rod, the L.P.
cylinder being placed nearest the crankshaft
(c) two cylinders are set at 90°, usually to save floor space
(d) None of these

Q4. Which combination of the following statements is correct? The


incorporation of re-heater in a steam power plant
A. Always increases the thermal efficiency of the plant
B. Always increases the dryness fraction of steam at condenser
inlet

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C. Always increases the mean temperature of heat addition
D. Always increases the specific work output
(a) A and D only (b) B and D only
(c) A, C and D only (d) A, B, C and D

Q5. The overall efficiency of thermal power plant is ________.


(a) Boiler efficiency, turbine efficiency and generator efficiency
(b) Boiler efficiency, turbine efficiency, generator efficiency and
gas cycle efficiency
(c) Carnot cycle efficiency
(d) Regenerative cycle efficiency
Q6. What value of the dryness fraction (in%) represents the dry
saturated state of vapor?
(a) 0 (b) 25
(c) 50 (d) 100
Q7. In cooling tower, water is cooled by the process of
(a) condensation (b) fusion
(c) evaporation (d) sublimation
Q8. The dry saturated steam at very low pressure, (5-10 kg/cm²)
when throttled to atmosphere will become
(a) wet (b) super – heated
(c) remain dry saturated (d) dry
Q9. Filling or decking in a cooling tower increases the rate of heat
transfer by providing
(a) increased flow of water
(b) increased flow of air
(c) increased flow of water and air
(d) a large amount of wetted surface

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Q10. Steam engine operates on
(a) Carnot cycle (b) Joule cycle
(c) Stirling cycle (d) None of theses
Q11. Identify the incorrect statement, from the following options
related to the below statement. Superheated steam is used in a
Ranking power cycle _______.
(a) because it increases work output of the cycle for same
pressure limit
(b) because it increases cycle efficiency for same pressure limit
(c) because steam at the exit of turbine will be less wet,
preventing erosion of turbine blades
(d) to reduce the work of pumping
Q12. m kg of steam at state 1 is admitted to a turbine and expands
isentropically down to a lower pressure of state 2. Its work
output is:
Where ℎ1 = enthalpy of steam entering in turbine. ℎ2 =
enthalpy of steam leaving from turbine.
(a) 𝑚(ℎ1 + ℎ2 ) (b) 𝑚(ℎ1 /ℎ2 )
(c) 𝑚(ℎ1 − ℎ2 ) (d) (1/𝑚)(ℎ1 + ℎ2 )
Q13. The steam which contains moisture or particles of water in
suspension is known as:
(a) Dry saturated steam (b) Super wet steam
(c) Wet steam (d) superheated steam
Q14. Rankine cycle consist of:
(a) Two isobaric & two isothermal processes
(b) Two isothermal & two isochoric processes
(c) Two isobaric &two isentropic processes
(d) Tow isothermal & two isentropic processes

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Q15. In a Rankine cycle, the work output from a turbine is a change;
(a) in internal energy between the inlet and outlet
(b) in volume between the inlet and outlet
(c) in entropy between the inlet and outlet
(d) of enthalpy between the inlet and outlet

Q16. If 𝑚𝑤 is the mass of water changing the enthalpy from ℎ1 𝑡𝑜 ℎ2


in a boiler and L is the latent heat at steam at 100°C, then the
equivalent evaporation is defined as:
(a) [𝑚𝑤 (ℎ2 − ℎ1 )]/𝐿 (b) (𝑚𝑤 ℎ1 ℎ2 )/𝐿
(c) [𝑚𝑤 (ℎ2 + 𝐿)]/ℎ1 (d) [𝑚𝑤 (ℎ2 + ℎ1 )]/𝐿

Q17. Locomotive type of boiler is


(a) horizontal multi-tubular water tube boiler
(b) water wall enclosed furnace type
(c) vertical tubular fire tube type
(d) horizontal multi-tubular fire tube type

Q18. Lancashire Boiler is a:


(a) Water tube boiler (b) Fire tube boiler
(c) Locomotive boiler (d) High pressure boiler

Q19. Water tube boiler are those in which:


(a) Flue gases pass through tubes and water around it
(b) water passes through the tubes
(c) work is done during adiabatic expansion
(d) there is change in enthalpy

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Q20. Cochran boiler is a:
(a) Horizontal fire-tube boiler
(b) Horizontal water – tube boiler
(c) Vertical water – tube boiler
(d) Vertical fire – tube boiler

Q21. Function of below – down cock of a boiler of


(a) a maintain water level by draining excess water
(b) to empty the water drum of the boiler
(c) to remove sludge and sediments collected in drum
(d) to blow off steam to maintain safe pressure

Q22. Lancashire boiler is a


(a) Vertical fire tube boiler (b) horizontal fire tube boiler
(c) vertical water tube boiler (d) horizontal water tube boiler

Q23. The steam in boiler drum is always


(a) saturated (b) dry
(c) superheated (d) wet or dry

Q24. In a water – tube boiler, the flue gas flows through the following
accessories:
1. Superheater 2. ID Fan
3. Air heater 4. Economizer
Which of the following gives the correct sequence of the flue gas
through these accessories?
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 3, 1, 4, 2
(c) 1, 4, 3, 2 (d) 1, 3, 2, 4

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Q25. In a boiler, the feed check valve is used to-
(a) control the feed water flow rate
(b) check the water level in drum
(c) ensure unidirectional feed flow to drum
(d) check quality of feed water

Q26. A device used to increase the temperature of saturated steam


without raising its pressure is called:
(a) fusible plug (b) blow off cock
(c) economizer (d) superheater

Q27. The equivalent evaporation (kg/hr.) of a boiler producing 2000


kg/hr. of steam with enthalpy content of 2426 kJ/kg from feed
water at temp. 40°C (liquid enthalpy = 168kJ/kg; enthalpy of
vaporization of water at 100°C = 2258 kJ/kg) is -
(a) 1649 (b) 2000
(c) 2149 (d) 1682

Q28. Which one of the following safety device is used to protect the
boiler when the water level falls below minimum level?
(a) Safety valve (b) Water level indicator
(c) Fusible plug (d) Blow off cock

Q29. Boiler accessories are used to ensure:


(a) improved performance (b) safe operation
(c) automatic control (d) easy maintenance

Q30. The valves mounted on the boiler which change the direction of
flow of steam by 90° and valves fitted in the pipelines which
allow the steam in the same direction are respectively called as
______.

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(a) Stop valves and junction valves
(b) Junction valves and stop valves
(c) Junction valves and safety valves
(d) Feed safety valves and stop valves
Q31. Which of the following are boiler mounting and not boiler
accessories?
A. Pressure gauge B. Air preheater
C. Superheater
(a) B and C only (b) A only
(c) A, B and C (d) A and C only
Q32. What are the advantages of water tube boilers over fire tube
boilers?
A. Steam at higher pressures can be produced.
B. More effective heat transfer.
C. Sediment deposition is more.
(a) A only (b) A and C only
(c) A, B and c (d) A and B only
Q33. What is the primary function of a steam trap in a boiler?
(a) Recover heat from exit gases
(b) Increase temperature of steam above saturated temperature
(c) Separate the water particles from the steam
(d) Drain off condensed water accumulating in the steam
pipelines
Q34. Heat is transferred by conduction convection and radiation in
_______
(a) Boiler furnaces
(b) Melting of ice
(c) Condensation Of steam in condenser
(d) None of these

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Q35. The diameter of tubes for natural circulation boiler as compared
to controlled circulation boilers is
(a) More
(b) Less
(c) Same
(d) Could be more or less depending on other factors

Q36. The diameter (in cm) of Cornish boiler is of the order of


(a) 1 to 2 (b) 1.5 to 2.5
(c) 2 to 3 (d) 2.5 to 3.5

Q37. The evaporation of 15.653 kg of water per hour from and at


100°C is called
(a) evaporative capacity (b) factor of evaporation
(c) equivalent evaporation (d) one boiler h.p.

Q38. If H is the total heat of steam in kcal/kg and h is the sensible heat
of feed water in kcal/kg. Then factor of evaporation is
(𝐻−ℎ) (𝐻−ℎ)
(a) (b)
539 427
(𝐻−ℎ)
(c) (d) (H–h)75
102

Q39. which of the following is not true with regard to an economizer


in a steam boiler?
(a) It is used for recovery of heat from flue gases
(b) It gives increased boiler efficiency
(c) It produces superheated steam
(d) It preheats feed-water
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Q40. Identify the incorrect statement, from the following options:
The measurement of temperature, flow rate, and CO and 𝐶𝑂2
content in a boiler chimney gases helps one to calculate
(a) heat carried away by flue gases
(b) possibility of condensation of moisture in flue gas lines
(c) energy lost as by partial combustion of fuel
(d) loss due to incomplete combustion of fuel on grate

Q41. The enthalpies of feed—water and steam at exit of a boiler are


73 kJ/kg and 2800 kJ/kg respectively. Steam output is 1128.5
kg/hr. The equivalent evaporation is:
(a) 1363.5 kg/hr (b) 1301.4 kg/hr
(c) 11 kg/hr fuel (d) 900 kg/hr

Q42. Identify the incorrect statement, from the following options in an


injector in a boiler________.
(a) steam is used to pump feed-water into the boiler
(b) the steam used is exhausted to atmosphere
(c) steam used in locomotive boilers
(d) steam form the boiler is accelerated in a nozzle, which
entrains feed-water due to the low pressure at its exit

Q43. A boiler produces 9 kg steam/kg of coal burnt, which has the


calorific value 27 MJ/kg. The enthalpy of feed water and steam
at the exit are 300 kJ/kg and 3000 kJ/kg respectively. Its thermal
efficiency is
(a) 94.2% (b) 55%
(c) 83.57% (d) 90%

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Q44. Which of the following devices is used to preheat the feed water
before being supplied to the boiler?
(a) Economizer (b) Steam trap
(c) Superheater (d) Air preheater

Q45. The pressure of steam produced in a supercritical boiler is in the


range of:
(a) 100 bar to 130 bar (b) 180 bar to 190 bar
(c) 200 bar to 240 bar (d) 150 bar to 180 bar

Q46. Which boiler has a relatively large storage of team and water?
(a) Lancashire boiler (b) Cornish boiler
(c) Simple vertical boiler (d) Cochran boiler

Q47. Biggest loss in the boiler is:


(a) Moisture in fuel (b) Steam formation
(c) Dryness in flue gasses (d) Unburnt carbon

Q48. The furnace is situated outside the boiler shell in case of a:


(a) Cornish boiler (b) Babcock and Wilcox boiler
(c) Locomotive boiler (d) Cochran boiler

Q49. Which of the following is a type of high-pressure boiler?


(a) Velox boiler (b) Locomotive boiler
(c) Cornish boiler (d) Lancashire boiler

Q50. A boiler produces 1000 kg/hr steam with rise in enthalpy of


steam of 2500 kJ/kg. The calorific value of coal used is 30000
kJ/kg and its consumption is 100 kg/hr. What would be the
boiler efficiency?
(a) 73.33% (b) 18.33%
(c) 8.33% (d) 83.33%
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Q51. Which of the following is a single tube boiler?
(a) Cornish boiler (b) Locomotive boiler
(c) Cochran boiler (d) Babcock and Wilcox boiler
Q52. Which of the following is NOT a factor for selecting a type of a
boiler for a particular application?
(a) Fuel and water available (b) Climate of the region
(c) Steam generation rate (d) Floor area available
Q53. Usually, boiler rating is defined in terms of _______.
(a) Heat transfer are in m²
(b) Steam output in kg/hr
(c) Rate of heat transfer in kJ/hr
(d) Calorific value of the fuel used for combustion
Q54. Curtis turbines is an example of
(a) Velocity compounded impulse steam turbine
(b) Pressure compounded impulse steam turbine
(c) Pressure – Velocity compounded impulse steam turbine
(d) reaction steam turbine
Q55. In impulse turbine, pressure on the two side of the moving
blades -
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains same
(d) may decreases or remain constant
Q56. Compounding of steam turbine is done to-
(a) balance the rotor
(b) reduce the blade friction
(c) reduce the rotor speed
(d) connect the shaft of one turbine to that of another

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Q57. If 𝑉𝑖 be the inlet absolute velocity to blades, 𝑉𝑏 be the tangential
blade velocity and α be the nozzle angle, then for the maximum
blade efficiency for single – stage impulse turbine:
𝑉𝑏 𝑉𝑏 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝛼
(a) = 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝛼 (b) =
𝑉𝑖 𝑉𝑖 2
𝑉𝑏 𝑉𝑏 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝛼
(c) = 𝑐𝑜𝑠²𝛼 (d) =
𝑉𝑖 𝑉𝑖 2

Q58. Maximum diagram efficiency for Parson’s reaction turbine is


given by:
2 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝛼 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝛼
(a) (b)
1+𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝛼 1+2 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝛼
𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝛼 2 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝛼
(c) (d)
1+2 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝛼 1+2𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝛼

Q59. In a reaction turbine, the heated drop in fixed blade is 8KJkg and
total heat drop per stage is 20 kJ/kg. the degree of reaction is:
(a) 40% (b) 60%
(c) 66.7% (d) 80%

Q60. Maximum efficiency for a single stage pure impulse blading


(symmetric) with nozzle angle ‘α’ is-
𝛼
(a) 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 ( ) (b) 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝛼
2
𝛼
(c) 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝛼 (d) 𝑐𝑜𝑠 ( )
2

Q61. The term bleeding in a steam turbine refer to -


(a) removal of west steam in the low pressure stages of turbine
(b) leakage of steam
(c) steam extracted for preheating feed water
(d) steam doing no useful work

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Q62. The degree of reaction of a steam turbine is the ratio between
the enthalpy drops in-
(a) in the nozzle and that in the stage
(b) moving blades and that in the stage
(c) moving blades and that in the nozzle
(d) in the nozzle and that in the moving blades

Q63. In reaction turbine


(a) kinetic energy is appreciable as the fluid
(b) the vanes are partly filled
(c) total energy of fluid converted to kinetic energy in the runner
(d) it is not exposed to atmosphere

Q64. On mollier chart, flow through turbine is represented by


(a) horizontal straight line (b) vertical straight line
(c) straight inclined line (d) curved line

Q65. If a dry saturated steam is admitted to a steam turbine following


an isentropic process, at the exit of the turbine. It will be a:
(a) wet steam (b) superheated steam
(c) dry saturated steam (d) liquid condensate

Q66. The degree of reaction for parson’s reaction turbine is _________.


(a) 0 (b) 0.75
(c) 0.5 (d) 0.25

Q67. Brayton cycle is a reversed -


(a) Carnot cycle (b) Rankine cycle
(c) Joule cycle (d) Dual cycle
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Q68. For maximum work output in a two stage expansion gas turbine
with perfect gas intercooling, the intermediate pressure (P) has
the following relationship with maximum pressure (𝑃1 ) and
minimum pressure (𝑃2 ) of the cycle -
𝑃 +𝑃
(a) 𝑃 = √ 1 2 (b) 𝑃 = √𝑃1 𝑃2
𝑃 −𝑃 1 2

𝑃1 1/2 𝑃1 +𝑃1 1/2


(c) 𝑃 = ( ) (d) 𝑃 = ( )
𝑃2 4

Q69. The compressor used in a gas turbine are typically of which type?
(a) Centrifugal (b) Centripetal
(c) Reciprocating (d) Axial

Q70. Gas turbine cycle consists of _______.


(a) two isothermals and two isentropic
(b) two isentropic and two constant volumes
(c) two isentropic, one constant volume and one constant
pressure
(d) two isentropic and two constant pressure

Q71. For air compressor, least work input will be needed if the
compressor is:
(a) Hyperbolic (b) Isentropic
(c) Polytropic (d) Isothermal

Q72. What is the unsteady to and fro motion of the fluid that causes
pulsation in the engine compressor known as?
(a) Pulsing (b) Compressing
(c) Chocking (d) Surging
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Q73. The water jacketing the cylinder of a reciprocating piston-
cylinder air compressor leads to the:
(a) Preventing of seizure of piston due to high temperature
(b) increase in mass of air taken in during the intake stroke
(c) prevention of damage to compressor valves due to high
temperature of compression
(d) reduction in the work required for compression

Q74. Select the incorrect statement with regard to rotary


compressors.
(a) They have more vibration and pulsation in the flow that
piston – cylinder compressors
(b) They Operate at a higher speed than piston – cylinder
compressors, and are used when large Dow rates are needed
(c) They can be centrifugal compressors
(d) They can be flow compressors

Q75. If the compression of air is carried out in a large number of stages


with perfect intercooling between the stage, then the overall
compression approaches an:
(a) isenthalpic process (b) isentropic process
(c) isothermal process (d) isochoric process

Q76. Volumetric efficiency of a reciprocating compressor is NOT


dependent on which of the following factors?
(a) Clearance ratio
(b) Pressure ratio
(c) Air receiver
(d) Polytropic index of compression

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Q77. What will be the specific enthalpy of steam at pressure of 2 MPa
and dryness fraction of 0.9?
(a) 2610 kJ/kg (b) 2500 kJ/kg
(c) 2680 kJ/kg (d) 2570 kJ/kg
Q78. For a centrifugal blower, power consumption is proportional to-
(a) cubic power of r.p.m. (b) r.p.m.
(c) square of r.p.m. (d) square root of r.p.m.
Q79. Rotary compressors are suitable for ___________.
(a) large discharge at high pressure
(b) low discharge at high pressure
(c) large discharge at low pressure
(d) low discharge at low pressure
Q80. Which of the following is a non – positive displacement type of
compressor?
(a) Roots blower compressor (b) Screw compressor
(c) Sliding vane compressor (d) Axial flow compressor
Q81. Which of the following is not a component of a centrifugal
compressor?
(a) Radial vanes (b) Impeller
(c) Piston (d) Casing
Q82. Behavior of which of the following steam qualities is closest to
that of a gas?
(a) Dry (b) Wet or Dry
(c) Superheated (d) Wet
Q83. Flow through a supersonics nozzle is an example of:
(a) Open system (b) Isolated System
(c) Insulated System (d) Closed System
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Q84. For a convergent nozzle, if the exit pressure is less than critical
pressure, the mass rate of flow will be -
(a) increasing (b) decreasing
(c) zero (d) constant

Q85. For a nozzle to convert subsonic flow into a supersonic flow, it


must be-
(a) convergent type
(b) divergent type
(c) convergent divergent type
(d) of uniform cross-sectional area

Q86. Steam Nozzle converts -


(a) Heat energy to Kinetic energy
(b) Heat energy to potential energy
(c) Kinetic energy to Heat energy
(d) Potential energy to Heat energy

Q87. For a compressible flow, Mach number (M) is given by which of


the following expression? Where V = velocity of fluid in
compressible flow C = speed of sound in air
(a) 𝑀 = 𝑉/√𝑐 (b) M = V/C
(c) M = c/v (d) M = v/c²

Q88. For an ideal diffuser in steady flow, if 𝑚𝑐𝑣 is the mass of air in its
control volume (cv). Then:
(a) ∆𝐸𝑐𝑣 < 0, where, ∆𝐸𝑐𝑣 = change in total energy
(b) the velocity of the air at exit is higher than at inlet of diffuser
(c) the specific enthalpy of the air reduces from inlet to exit
(d) ∆𝑚𝑐𝑣 = 0, ∆𝑚𝑐𝑣 = change in mass
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Q89. The smallest section of a nozzle is known as the
(a) diffuser (b) convergent
(c) divergent part (d) throat
Q90. The critical pressure ratio of a convergent nozzle is defined as
the ratio of the:
(a) inlet pressure to the outlet pressure of the nozzle.
(b) outlet pressure to the inlet pressure of the nozzle only when
mass flow rate per unit area is minimum.
(c) outlet pressure to the inlet pressure of the nozzle.
(d) outlet pressure to the inlet pressure of the nozzle only when
mass flow rate per unit area is maximum.
Q91. Which of the following is incorrect for Rankine vapor power
cycle?
(a) If has two reversible adiabatic and two reversible isobaric
process.
(b) Its efficiency is dependent on mean temperature of addition
and temperature of heat rejection.
(c) Constant pressure heat rejection takes place in the turbine.
(d) The efficiency of Rankine cycle can be increased by
increasing the degree of superheat at constant pressure.
Q92. In thermal power plant, the deaerator is used mainly to
(a) Remove air from condenser
(b) Reduce steam pressure
(c) Increase feed water temperature
(d) Remove dissolved gases from feed water
Q93. Steam flow is controlled by using:
(a) Drum level sensor (b) Feedwater flow sensor
(c) Steam flow sensor (d) All of these
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Q94. Attemperation is done:
(a) Just after the secondary superheater
(b) Just before the primary superheater
(c) Between the primary and secondary superheater
(d) At the entry of steam from boiler

Q95. Plants A, B and C require 3 kg/s, 8 kg/s and 28 kg/s of saturated


water flow in the down comer to produce 1 kg/s steam
respectively. The most feasible plant will be:
(a) Plant B (b) Plant A
(c) Plant C (d) Plant A and B

Q96. The locomotive boiler has


(a) 137 fire tubes and 44 super-heated tubes
(b) 147 fire tubes and 34 super-heated tubes
(c) 157 fire tubes and 24 super-heated tubes
(d) 167 fire tubes and 14 super-heated tubes

Q97. In a boiler, various heat losses take place. The biggest loss is due
to
(a) moisture in fuel (b) dry flue gases
(c) steam formation (d) unburnt carbon

Q98. The maximum percentage gain in regenerative feed heating


cycle, the thermal efficiency
(a) increases with number of feed heaters increasing
(b) decreases with number of feed heaters increasing
(c) remains same unaffected by number of feed heaters
(d) None of the above

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Q99. The reheat factor depends upon
(a) initial pressure and super-heat
(b) exit pressure
(c) turbine stage efficiency
(d) All of the above

Q100. The function of a condenser in thermal power plant is


(a) to act as reservoir to receive steam for turbine
(b) to condense steam into condensate to be reused again
(c) to create vacuum (d) all of the above

Q101. After turbine trip, the cooling water to condenser


(a) is stopped immediately
(b) is stopped after 15-30 minutes
(c) is never stopped
(d) may be stopped anytime

Q102. One kg steam sample contains 0.4 kg water vapor. Its dryness
fraction is
(a) 0.4 (b) 0.6
0.4
(c) (d) 0.4 × 0.6
1.4

Q103. Reheat cycle is essential in a steam power plant to


(a) utilize the heat of flue gases
(b) heat the feed water on its way to boiler
(c) increase the plant efficiency
(d) to reduce the moisture content at the low pressure stages of
turbines so that erosion and corrosion problems can be
eliminated

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Q104. The ratio of energy produced by a power plant to the installed
capacity of plant is called as:
(a) Load factor (b) Use factor
(c) average load factor (d) Demand factor

Q105. Draught in a boiler is important for:


(a) Removing combustible gases from boiler
(b) For proper combustion of fuel
(c) Both (A) and (B)
(d) None of these

Q106. On a boiler one end of the water indicator (Glass Tube Type) is
connected to water space in boiler and other end is connected
to:
(a) Open to atmosphere (b) Steam space of boiler
(c) Superheater (d) Another part of water space

Q107. A steam jet issuing from a nozzle placed under the fire grate, in
the ash pit of the furnace is used to produce which type of
draught?
(a) Natural (b) Induced
(c) Forced (d) None of the options

Q108. In a locomotive and marine boilers the safety valve used are
mainly:
(a) Leaver operated safety valve
(b) High steam and low water safety valve
(c) Spring loaded safety valve
(d) Dead weight safety valve

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Q109. Low grade waste heat in bottoming cycle of cogeneration is used
for:
(a) Feed water heating (b) Processing
(c) Power generation (d) Not for any use
Q110. In a thermal power plant feed water heater is used to pre heat
the feed water by:
(a) Hot gases from boiler furnace
(b) Steam from boiler
(c) Hot air from air pre heater
(d) Turbine exhaust steam
Q111. An economizer in a steam generator performs the unction of
preheating the
(a) Combustion air (b) Feed water
(c) Input fuel (d) Combustion air as well as
input fuel
Q112. In a power plant, the efficiency of the electric generator, turbine,
boiler, cycle and the overall plant are 0.97, 0.95, 0.92, 0.42 and
0.33 respectively. In the generated electricity, the auxiliaries will
consume nearly
(a) 7.3 % (b) 6.5%
(c) 5.7% (d) 4.9%
Q113. A steam power plant is a classic example of _________.
(a) Heat reservoir (b) Heat pump
(c) Heat engine (d) Refrigerator

Q114. Which is not a boiler accessory?


(a) Economizer (b) Fusible plug
(c) Superheater (d) Air Preheater

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Q115. Complete the sentence: “The function of the _________ is to
increase the temperature for air before it enters the furnace”.
(a) Air preheater (b) Super heater
(c) Injector (d) Economizer

Q116. Steam enters a condenser at 35°C [𝑃sat@35°C = 42.21 mm of Hg].


Barometer reading is 760 mm of Hg and vacuum of 690 mm Hg
is recorded in the condenser. The vacuum efficiency will be given
by:
(a) 86.01% (b) 82.30%
(c) 96.10% (d) 80.23%

Q117. Thermal efficiency of Rankine cycle can be enhanced by


(a) Decreasing the average temperature of heat addition
(b) Increasing the superheat of constant pressure
(c) Increasing the average temperature of heat rejection
(d) The efficiency of Rankine cycle does not depend on average
temperature of heat addition

Q118. Use of modified Rankine cycle causes the


(a) Reduction of the bore of cylinder
(b) Reduction of the stroke of cylinder
(c) Increase the work output of an engine
(d) Increase the efficiency of an engine

Q119. “Sinking fund method” is used to calculate the


(a) Initial cost of the power plant
(b) Installation cost of the power plant
(c) Depreciation cost of the power plant
(d) Interest on the loan borrowed to install the power plant
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Q120. The degree of collection for a given ash collector in which 75
kg/s of ash is entering and 25 kg/s of ash leaving is
(a) 0.67 (b) 0.75
(c) 0.52 (d) 0.93

Q121. Steam super heating is done at constant


(a) Pressure (b) Mass flow rate
(c) Entropy (d) Temperature

Q122. A curve showing the variation of load on a power station with


respect to time is known as-
(a) Load curve (b) Load duration curve
(c) Diversity factor (d) Performance curve

Q123. Degree of superheating obtained using a liquid-to suction heat


exchanger is:
(a) Always greater than the degree of sub cooling
(b) Always less than degree of sub cooling
(c) Always equal to degree of sub cooling
(d) Depends on the effectiveness of heat exchanger

Q124. At ideal condition of vapour power cycle heat rejection at


revesrsible constant pressure occurs at
(a) turbine (b) pump
(c) condenser (d) boiler

Q125. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding


superheater in boilers?
1. It is heat exchanger in which heat is transformed to the
saturated steam to increase its temperature.

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2. It raises the overall efficiency.
3. It reduces turbine internal efficiency.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 only

Q126. The efficiency of superheat Rankine cycle is higher than that of


simple Rankine cycle because
(a) the enthalpy of main steam is higher for superheat cycle
(b) the mean temperature of heat addition is higher for
superheat cycle
(c) the temperature of steam in the condenser is high
(d) the quality of steam in the condenser is low
Q127. Consider the following statements in respect of regenerative
Rankine cycle:
1. Regeneration increases the efficiency of the cycle.
2. The boiler capacity is increased for a given output
3. The capacity of the condenser is reduced.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
Q128. Efficiency of chimney draught is of the order of
(a) less than 1% (b) 2 – 3%
(c) 5 – 6% (d) 8 – 10%
Q129. Which of the following indicates the correct order in the path of
the flue gas?
(a) Superheater, economizer, air preheater
(b) Air preheater, economizer, superheater
(c) Air preheater, superheater, economizer,
(d) No definite order
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Q130. If the dryness fraction of a sample by throttling calorimeter is 0.8
and that by separating calorimeter is also 0.8, then the actual
dryness fraction of sample will be taken as
(a) 0.8 (b) √0.8
(c) 0.64 (d) 0.5

Solutions

S1. Ans.(d);
Sol.
Rankine Carnot

from the diagrams we can conclude that even the maximum


temperature is same for both the cycle but the average temperature of
heat addition is lower in Rankine cycle than cannot cycle. We can see
that in Carnot cycle heat addition is in between 2 and 3 so, its average
also equal to the same. But in Rankine it is in between 2 and 4, so its
average is definitely lower than the Carnot.
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S2. Ans.(c);
Sol. Reheating increases the work output and efficiency. Reheating is
employed generally to improve the quality of steam at the exit of
turbine, but when we are employing the reheating in Rankine cycle it
also increases the efficiency and net work output.

From diagram we can see that there is increment in mean temperature


of heat addition which causes the increment in efficiency and by
Reheating net output also increase.

S3. Ans.(a);
Sol. in cross compound steam engine steam is expanded in two or more
stages one high pressure and one low pressure cylinder are set side by
side, driving the same shaft. Exhaust from high pressure cylinder
passes directly into low pressure cylinder.

S4. Ans.(b);
Sol. Reheating increases the work output and efficiency. Reheating is
employed generally to improve the quality of steam at the exit of
turbine, but when we are employing the reheating in Rankine cycle it
also increases the efficiency and net work output.
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From diagram we can see that there is increment in mean temperature
of heat addition which causes the increment in efficiency and by
Reheating net output also increase.
But it not necessary that always mean temperature of heat addition is
increased so, we can say that it is also not pre-assumption that
efficiency is increases always but work out and quality of steam at exit
of turbine or at inlet of is improved always.

S5. Ans.(a);
Sol. we know that the cycle is completed by boiler turbine and
generator so overall efficiency is
𝜂𝑜𝑣𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑙𝑙 = 𝜂𝐵𝑜𝑖𝑙𝑒𝑟 × 𝜂𝑡𝑢𝑟𝑏𝑖𝑛𝑒 × 𝜂𝑔𝑒𝑛𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑜𝑟 .

S6. Ans.(d);
Sol. dry saturated state of vapour is that there is no moisture content,
and we know that
𝑚𝑣
𝑑𝑟𝑦𝑛𝑒𝑠𝑠 𝑓𝑟𝑎𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 (𝑋) =
𝑚𝑣 +𝑚𝑙
So, 𝑚𝑙 = 0 (𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑒 𝑖𝑠 𝑛𝑜 𝑚𝑜𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑢𝑟𝑒)
Therefore x = 100%

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S7. Ans.(c);
Sol. in cooling tower water is cooled by the process of evaporation. In
this process we remove the process heat and cool the working fluid to
near the wet bulb air temperature or, in the case of closed circuit dry
cooling towers, rely solely on air to cool the working fluid to near dry
bulb air temperature.

S8. Ans.(a);
Sol.

Throttling means enthalpy will be same in both the states atmospheric


pressure is greater than (5-10 kg/(cm)²).
So, dry saturated steam becomes wet.

S9. Ans.(d);
Sol. it is the process in cooling tower in which to increases the wetted
surface area of the lower a medium is employed is known as fill or deck.
Increased wetted surface area allows for maximum contact between
the air and water which causes a higher evaporation rate.

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S10. Ans.(d);
Sol. Steam engine operates on Rankine cycle in Rankine cycle first
water is converted into steam through boiler than it further expand in
turbine to get work output, in Rankine cycle two isentropic process and
two constant pressure processes will take place.

S11. Ans.(d);
Sol. superheated steam used in Rankine cycle
Because –
(1) It increases the work output of cycle for same pressure limit.
(2) It increases the cycle efficiency for same pressure limit.
(3) It improves the quality of steam at the exit of turbine which prevent
the turbine blades to getting eroded.

S12. Ans.(c);
Sol.

Turbine work in steam power plant


𝑊𝑇 = 𝑚 (ℎ1 − ℎ2 )

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S13. Ans.(c);
Sol. the steam which contains the moisture or parts of water
suspension is known as wet steam. Its dryness fraction is always less
than 100%

S14. Ans.(c);
Sol. Rankine cycle consist of two isobaric & two isentropic processes.
(1) Isentropic compression
(2) Isobaric heat addition
(3) Isentropic expansion.
(4) Isobaric heat rejection.

S15. Ans.(d);
Sol. in a Rankine cycle, the work output from a turbine is a change of
enthalpy between inlet and outlet
𝑊𝑇 = (ℎ𝑖𝑛𝑡 − ℎ𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑝𝑢𝑡 )
Where,
ℎ𝑖𝑛𝑒𝑡 = enthalpy at turbine inlet
ℎ𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑢𝑡 = enthalpy at turbine outlet.

S16. Ans.(a);
Sol. Equivalent evaporation might be more simply defined as the
quantity of water at 100°C. that a boiler can convert into dry/saturated
steam at 100°C. from each kJ of energy that is supplied to it. It is defined
in terms of kg (of water/steam) per kJ of energy.

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S17. Ans.(d);
Sol. Features of locomotive type boiler –
(1) Locomotive boiler is horizontal type fire tube boiler with
multitube.
(2) Locomotive boiler has artificial draught and natural circulation.
(3) Locomotive boiler is used in railways, road rollers, haulage engine
etc.

S18. Ans.(b);
Sol. Lancashire boiler is a fire tube boiler it is horizontally straight,
stationary or land – type boiler.
It is an internally fired boiler with two parallel furnace flue tubes.

S19. Ans.(b);
Sol. water tube boilers are those boilers in which water circulates in
tube heated externally by the fire. Fuel is burned inside the furnace,
creating hot gas which heats water in the steam generating tubes. The
heated water then rises into the steam drum.

S20. Ans.(b);
Sol. Cochran boiler is a vertical fire tube boiler with multi-tube. It is an
internally fired boiler and having the feasibility of natural circulation
and it is easily portables from one place to another.

S21. Ans.(c);
Sol. function of the blow off cock or blow down cock is to remove sludge
and sediments collected in a drum.
Blow off cock or blow down cock is in conical in shape and mounted in
mating casing at the bottom of the boiler shell.

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S22. Ans.(b);
Sol. Lancashire boiler is a fire tube boiler it is horizontally straight,
stationary or land – type boiler.
It is an internally fired boiler with two parallel furnace flue tubes.

S23. Ans.(d);
Sol. the steam in boiler drum is always wet or dry. It is not 100%
saturated dry, it contains same water vapour, for which it is passed
through superheater to get superheated,

S24. Ans.(c);
Sol. in a water tube boiler the following sequence will follows by flue
gases.
Superheater

Economizer

Air pre heater

ID fan

S25. Ans.(a);
Sol. Feed check valve is used to control the supply of feed water to the
boiler and to prevent the escaping of water from the boiler when the
pump pressure is less or pump is stopped.

S26. Ans.(d);
Sol. A device used to increase the temperature of saturated steam
without raising its pressure is called superheater.

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S27. Ans.(b);
Sol. equivalent evaporation may be defined as the amount of water
evaporated from water at 100°C to dry and saturated steam at 100°C
𝑚𝑎 (ℎ−ℎ𝑓1 )
𝐸𝑞𝑢𝑖𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑒𝑣𝑎𝑝𝑜𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 (𝑚𝑐 ) =
ℎ𝑓𝑔
2000 (2426−168)
𝑚𝑒 =
2258
= 2000 𝑘𝑔/ℎ𝑟

S28. Ans.(c);
Sol. when level of water falls below a minimum level due to overheating
of water in boiler at this stage for prevention of boiler rupture a device
is used is known as fusible plug. It is made up of low melting point
material (Gun metal). So, at the condition of overheating it is melted
and blow of all flue gases and releases pressure and prevent if from
rupture.

S29. Ans.(a);
Sol. things which is assembled with boiler are classified in two
categories
(1) Accessories
(2) Mounting

(1) Accessories are used to improved performance eg. Economizer,


superheater, air preheater etc.
(2) Mountings are used for safety purposes eg. Fusible plug, pressure
gauge etc.
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S30. Ans.(b);
Sol. Junction valve: - Junction valve may be defined as the valve which
is used to regulate the steam from boiler to the steam pipe.

Steam stop valve: - steam stop valve is defined as the valve which is
used to regulate the steam in pipelines. It is fitted in the pipeline near
to the steam prime mover.

S31. Ans.(b);
Sol. We know that
Boiler mountings-Used for safety purposes.
Boiler accessors- Used for increase the efficiency.
A-Pressure -gauge-Boiler mounting-indicate pressures.
B- Air Preheater- Boiler accessories-Utilize, flue gases to heat air.
C- Superheater - Boiler accessories-Utilize, flue gases to improve steam
quality.

S32. Ans.(a);
Sol. There are some advantage of water tube boiler over fire tube
boilers.
(1) Steam at higher pressure can be produced.
(2) Steam can be raised more quickly.
(3) More effective heat transfer
(4) Higher rate of evaporation.
(5) Sediment deposition is less
(6) Suitable for any type of fuel and method of firing, Even though the
heat transfer is effective in water tube boiler, but it is more efficient in
Fire tube boiler.

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S33. Ans.(d);
Sol. Steam trap is an automatic drain valve which separates steam and
condensate. It holds back steam and discharge condensate under
varying pressure and loads.

S34. Ans.(a);
Sol. We know that the all three modes of heat transfer i.e. conduction,
convection, and Radiation are seen in Boiler furnace. among all three
mode of heat transfer Radiation is predominating mode.

S35. Ans.(a);
Sol. The diameter of tubes for natural circulation boiler as compared
to controlled circulation is more.

S36. Ans.(a);
Sol. The Cornish boiler having the dimension in order of
Length — 4 to 8 m
Diameter — 1.25 to 1.75 m

S37. Ans.(d);
Sol. The evaporation of 15.653 kg of water per hour form and at 100°C
is called one boiler h.p.

S38. Ans.(a);
Sol. Factor of evaporation defined as the ratio of heat received by 1 kg
water under working condition to that heat received by 1 kg of water
evaporated from and at 100°C
𝐻–ℎ
Factor of evaporation =
539

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S39. Ans.(c);
Sol. Economizer a type of heat exchanger which transfer heat from hot
flue gases to feed water. It is not producing the superheated steam it
only transfers heat to feed water upto boiling point of water.
S40. Ans.(d);
Sol. The measurement of temperature, flow rate and CO and CO2
content in a boiler chimney gases does not calculated losses due to
incomplete combustion of fuel on grate.
S41. Ans.(a);
Sol. We know that,
Equivalent evaporation =
𝑀𝑎𝑠𝑠 𝑜𝑓 𝑠𝑡𝑒𝑎𝑚 𝑔𝑒𝑛𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑑 𝑝𝑒𝑟 ℎ𝑜𝑢𝑟×𝐻𝑒𝑎𝑡𝑒 𝑠𝑢𝑝𝑝𝑙𝑖𝑒𝑑 𝑡𝑜 𝑠𝑡𝑒𝑎𝑚𝑒 𝑖𝑛 𝑏𝑜𝑖𝑙𝑒𝑟
𝐿𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑛𝑡 ℎ𝑒𝑎𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑣𝑎𝑝𝑜𝑢𝑟𝑖𝑠𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 (100°𝐶)
1128.5(2800−73)
= = 1363.5 kg/hr.
2257

S42. Ans.(b);
Sol. The injector is the instrument used to feed water into the boiler. It
is usually employed where the space is not available to implement a
feed pump.
It is used in vertical and locomotive boiler.
The steam used is never exhausted to atmosphere Actually the kinetic
energy of water-steam mixture is used to increase to pressure energy.
S43. Ans.(b);
Sol. we know that, thermal efficiency of boiler
∆ℎ
𝜂𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑚𝑎𝑙 =
𝑚𝑓 .𝐶.𝑉
(3000−300)
= 1 ≈ 0.9
×27000
9
𝜂𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑚𝑎𝑙 = 90%

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S44. Ans.(a);
Sol. Economizer is a device which preheat the feed water.

S45. Ans.(c);
Sol. Supercritical boiler operator at super critical pressure i.e. 200 bar
to 240 bar. (20 to 24 MPa).

S46. Ans.(a);
Sol. The modern Lancashire boilers are mode for working pressure
upto 15 bar and having an evaporative capacity upto 8500 kg/hr. They
are upto 9 m in lngth and have a diameter upto 3.5 m. A Lancashire
boiler is a fire-tube type internally fired, naturally circulation
horizontal boiler.

S47. Ans.(c);
Sol. There are two type of Total losses
(1) Dry flue gas losses the sensible heat energy in the flue gas due to
the flue gas temperature.
(2) The flue gas losses due to moisture (the latent heat) energy in the
system in the flue gases stream due to water produced by the
combustion reaction.

S48. Ans.(b);
Sol. In Babcock and Willox boiler, the furnace is situated outside the
boiler shell. Babcock & Willox boiler is natural circulation, externally
fired, medium pressure, stationary horizontal water tube boiler in
which the water flows in the inclined tubes.

S49. Ans.(a);
Sol. Boiler are classified in two categories on basis of operating
pressure.

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(1) High pressure boiler→ operate above 19 Psi eg. LaMont boiler,
Benson boiler, Velux boiler.
(2) Low pressure boiler→ operate below 15 Psi eg. Babcock and
Wilcox, Lancashire boiler and
Cornish boiler.

S50. Ans.(d);
Sol. We know that, efficiency of boiler.
𝑚𝑠.∆ℎ 1000×2500
𝜂𝑏𝑜𝑖𝑙𝑒𝑟 = =
𝑚𝑓. 𝐶.𝑉 100×30000
𝜂𝑏𝑖𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑟 = 83.33%
S51. Ans.(a);
Sol. the boiler having only one fire or water tube for hot gases and
water circulation. Cornish is same as Lancashire boiler but have only
one furnace flue tube. Working capacity and working pressure range
are low as compared to Lancashire.

S52. Ans.(b);
Sol. Fuel and water available, steam generation rate and floor area
available are the factor that are consider in the selection of boiler for
particular application but climate of the region has no impact on
selection criteria.

S53. Ans.(b);
Sol. Boiler rating is defined as the steam generation per unit time. So, it
is expressed in kg/hr.

S54. Ans.(a);
Sol. In Curtis turbine velocity compounding is done. In this
compounding, the velocity is reduced in more than one stages it gives
less speed and low in.

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S55. Ans.(c);
Sol. In impulse turbine there is only drop in K.E from one entry point
to exit point and pressure will remains same throughout the flow.
S56. Ans.(c);
Sol. Compounding of steam turbine is done to reduce the rotor speed
to practical limit.
There are two types of compounding done in steam turbines to reduce
the rotor speed.
(1) Pressure compounding: - Here the pressure is reduced in more than
one stages
(2) velocity compounding: - Here the velocity of steam turbine is
reduced in various stages.
S57. Ans.(b);
Sol. For maximum efficiency of single – stage impulse turbine, the flow
ratio
Tangential blade velocity
P=
Inlet abslute velocity of steam jet
𝑉𝑏 cos α
𝑃= =
𝑉𝑖 25
𝑉𝑏 cos α
∴ =
𝑉𝑖 25
cos2 α
(𝜂𝑏 )𝑚𝑎𝑥 = (1 + 𝑘𝑥)
2
𝑣𝑟2 cos 𝜙
k= ;𝑥=
𝑉𝑟1 cos 𝜃

S58. Ans.(a);
Sol. Maximum diagram efficiency of Parson’s reaction turbine (50%
reaction turbine) is
2 cos2 α
(𝜂𝑏 )max =
(1+cos2 α)
For maximum efficiency,
𝑉
P = 𝑏 = cos α.
𝑉𝑖

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S59. Ans.(b);
Sol. we know that,
heat drop in moving blade
Degree of reaction, R =
Total heat drop per stage
(20−8)
R= = 60%
20

S60. Ans.(c);
Sol. Single stage impulse turbine with symmetrical blading with nozzle
angle α than maximum efficiency.
(𝜂𝑏 )𝑚𝑎𝑥 = cos2 α
cos2 α
∴ (𝜂𝑏 ) = [1 + 𝑘𝑥]
2
Where k = 1 for frictionless blade
𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃
and 𝑥 = = 1 (because 𝜃= 𝜙 for symmetrical blade)
𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜙
∴ (𝜂𝑏 )𝑚𝑎𝑥 = cos2 α

S61. Ans.(c);
Sol. Blading is defined as the term refer to extraction of steam for
Preheating feed water.

S62. Ans.(b);
Sol. Degree of Reaction of turbine defined as the ratio of Enthalpy drop
in moving blade to Enthalpy drop in a stage.
Enthalpy drop in moving blade
R=
Enthalpy drop in the stage
The, degree of reaction for parson’s turbine – 50%
The, degree of reaction for Impulse turbine = 0

S63. Ans.(d);

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Sol. Reaction turbine is not exposed to atmosphere. In reaction turbine,
only a part of total head available at the inlet to the turbine is converted
to velocity head, before the emmer is reached.

S64. Ans.(b);
Sol.

Flow through turbine is represented by vertical straight line, on mollier


chart.

S65. Ans.(a);
Sol.

From the diagram we can see that if steam enters in turbine with dry
saturated condition i.e. 4. Then at the exit of turbine it is in wet
condition i.e. 5.

S66. Ans.(c);
Sol. Degree of Reaction for parson’s turbine = 0.5
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S67. Ans.(c);
Sol. Brayton cycle can also be known as Bell – Coleman cycle and
reversed joule cycle

S68. Ans.(b);
Sol. The intermediate pressure between two stage is
2
𝑇2 2(𝑛−1)
𝑃𝑖 = √𝑃1 𝑃2 ( )
𝑇1
For perfect intercooling T₁ = T₂
∴ 𝑃𝑖 = √𝑃1 𝑃2
For maximum work output two stage expansion turbine used with
perfect intercooling.

S69. Ans.(d);
Sol. Axial compressors are used in gas turbines.

S70. Ans.(d);
Sol. Gas turbine cycle consist of four processes

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(1) Isentropic compression.
(2) constant Pressure heat addition.
(3) Isentropic expansion
(4) Constant Pressure heat rejection.

S71. Ans.(d);
Sol. Isothermal process is preferred for Air compressor because it gives
least work input in compression process.

S72. Ans.(d);
Sol. unsteady to and fro motion of the fluid that causes pulsation in the
engine compressor is known as surging. It is the phenomenon occurs
when the pressure of air delivered by the compressor is higher than the
pressure inside the compressor a reverse flow of air is created towards
the inlet of compressor, which reduces the turbine speed and creates
noise and vibration.

S73. Ans.(d);
Sol. The water jacketing the cylinder of a reciprocating piston cylinder
air compressor leads to the reduction in the work required for
compression because water jacketing reduces the temperature which
reduces the specific volume of air.

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S74. Ans.(a);
Sol. Reciprocating compressor having more moving part which causes
more vibration and pulsation than rotary compressor.

S75. Ans.(c);
Sol.

S76. Ans.(c);
Sol. Volumetric efficiency of reciprocating engine
1
𝑃 𝑛
𝜂 = 1 + C [1 − ( 2) ]
𝑃1

From here we can see that it depends on –


C – Clearance Ratio
P₂/P₁ – Pressure Ratio
n – Polytropic index
So, from here we can see that there is no role of air receiver in
volumetric efficiency.

S77. Ans.(a);
Sol. we can see it from the steam table.

S78. Ans.(a);
Sol. For pump, dimensionless relationship.
𝑃
= constant
𝐷5 𝑁3
P ∝ N³

S79. Ans.(c);
Sol. For low head (Low pressure) or high discharge Rotary
Compressors are preferred.

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S80. Ans.(d);
Sol. Axial flow compressor is dynamic action of gasses compressor.
Compressor which compress the gas by positive displacement of piston
are known as positive displacement compressor.

S81. Ans.(c);
Sol. piston are used in reciprocating engine for positive displacement
while radial vanes, impeller and casing are part of a centrifugal
composer.

S82. Ans.(c);
Sol. there are no particles or very less amount of water vapour in
superheated steam. In superheated steam molecules are for away to
each other and having no attraction forces so behave as an ideal gas.

S83. Ans.(a);
Sol. Energy and mass both are transfer in supersonic nozzle so if is an
example of open system.

S84. Ans.(d);
Sol. Shocking of nozzle is the condition that if exit pressure is less than
critical pressure then the mass flow rate is constant.

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S85. Ans.(c);
Sol. for a nozzle to convert subsonic flow into a supersonic flow, it must
be convergent divergent type. In both convergent and divergent
portion of the nozzle, the flow velocity will keep on increasing from
subsonic to supersonic.
S86. Ans.(a);
Sol. A device which converted heat energy into kinetic energy is known
as steam nozzle.
S87. Ans.(c);
Sol. Mach number is defined as the dimensionless quantity shows the
ratio of flow velocity part a boundary to the local speed of sound.
𝑚 = 𝑉/𝐶
𝑊ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑒 𝐶 − 𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 𝑜𝑓 𝑠𝑜𝑢𝑛𝑑
𝑉 = 𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑤 𝑣𝑒𝑙𝑜𝑐𝑖𝑡𝑦
S88. Ans.(d);
Sol. for an ideal diffuser in steady flow.
(1) The pressure at the entry is lower than at the exit.
(2) The mass of control volume does not change with time or space
therefore ∆𝑚𝑐𝑣 = 0
(3) The velocity of air at the entry is more than that at exit.
S89. Ans.(d);
Sol.
S90. Ans.(d);
Sol. the pressure at the throat at which the flow chokes is called the
critical pressure (𝑃𝐶 ) and the ratio of critical pressure at the choked
plane (throat) to the inlet pressure (𝑃𝑂 ) is known as the critical
pressure ratio
𝑃
( 𝐶)
𝑃𝑂

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The critical pressure ratio indicates the pressure ratio after which mass
flow rate cannot be increased further even if the exit pressure is
reduced. This occurs when Mach number equals 1 at minimum cross
section.
S91. Ans.(c);
Sol. Rankine cycle consist of following processes–
(1) isentropic compression in pump.
(2) Heat addition at constant pressure in boiler.
(3) isentropic expansion in the turbine.
(4) Heat rejection takes place at constant pressure in condenser.
S92. Ans.(d);
Sol. Deaerator in steam power plant removes condensable gases from
water and non-condensable from circulated water. If large No. of close
regenerator are used in cycle at least one should be open type for this
deaeration process. This deaeration process removes some steam with
gases which is make up feed water.
S93. Ans.(d);
Sol. All of the devises given among these options is and to control the
steam flow.
(1) drum level sensor
(2) feed water flow sensor
(3) stream flow sensor.
S94. Ans.(c);
Sol. Attemperators are fitted between the primary and secondary
superheater in the boilers. They help in achieving the right output
temp. of the steam. They do this via a feedback controller which
controls the water inlet into the attemperators thus manipulating the
temp. of steam before it enters in secondary superheater.

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S95. Ans.(b);
Sol. The most feasible plant is plant A because it gives 1 kg/s steam by
3kg/s of saturated water with minimum losses.

S96. Ans.(c);
Sol. The locomotive boiler has 157 fire tubes and 24 superheated tubes.

S97. Ans.(b);
Sol. In the boiler various heat losses take place. The biggest loss is due
to dry flue gases. It is because the temp. of dry flue gases is very high.

S98. Ans.(a);
Sol. In regeneration cycles, the increases in efficiency due to
regeneration is proportional to increases in temperature of feed water
in a feed water heater.

S99. Ans.(d);
Sol. We know that,
Commulative heat drop
The reheat factor =
Isentropic heat drop
If depends on–
(1) Initial pressure and superheat
(2) Exit pressure
(3) Turbine stage efficiency

S100. Ans.(d);
Sol. All the given options are the functions of a condensers
Functions of condensers are –
(1) To act as reservoir to receive steam for turbine.
(2) To create vacuum.
(3) To condensate steam into condensate to be reused again.
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S101. Ans.(b);
Sol. After turbine trip, the cooling water to condenser is stopped after
15-30 minutes.
S102. Ans.(a);
Sol. Given that
mass of steam (mass of vapour + dry air) = 1kg
mass of water vapour = 0.4 kg
mv 0.4
dryness fraction x = =
mv +ma 1
x = 0.4
S103. Ans.(d);
Sol. To reduce the moisture content at the low pressure stage of
turbines, So that erosion and corrosion. Problems can be eliminated.

S104. Ans.(b);
Sol. The ratio of energy produced in a given time to maximum possible
energy that could be produced during actual number of hours of
operation is known as plant use factor.
Annual Production of energy
Plant use factor =
Operational hours in year X Capacity of plant

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S105. Ans.(c);
Sol. Draught in a boiler is important for–
(1) Removing combusting gases from boiler.
(2) For proper combustion of fuel.
(3) To discharge these gases to the atmosphere through the chimney.

S106. Ans.(b);
Sol. On a boiler one end of the water indicator is connected to water
space in boiler and other end is connected to steam space of boiler.

S107. Ans.(c);
Sol. Forced steam jet drought is used when the steam jet issuing from
a nozzle is placed in the ash pit under the fire gate of the furnace, it is
then known as forced steam jet draught.

S108. Ans.(c);
Sol. In the locomotive and marine boilers the safety valve used are
mainly saving loaded safety valve.

S109. Ans.(a);
Sol. Low grade waste heat in bottoming cycle of cogeneration is used
for feed water heating.

S110. Ans.(d);
Sol. In a thermal power plant feed water heater is used to pre heat the
feed water by turbine exhaust steam.

S111. Ans.(b);
Sol. The flue gases from the superheater enter the economizer and heat
up the feed water. Economizer serves as a heat recovery system for the
boiler.
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S112. Ans.(a);
Sol. we know that,
ηo = ηb × ηt × η e × ηg × ηa
0.33 = 0.92 × 0.95 × 0.42 × 0.97 × ηa
0.33
ηa = = 0.9267
0.92×0.95×0.42×0.97
Power consumed (%) = 1 − ηa
= 1–0.9267
= 0.0733
= 7.33%

S113. Ans.(c);
Sol. A steam power plant is a classic example of a heat engine, External
fired heat engines are generally steam engines, and they are different
from external combustion engine in that the heat source is separate
from the fluid that does work.

S114. Ans.(b);
Sol. Boiler accessories are the things which is mounted on the Boiler to
improve its efficiency among all given option fusible plug is a mounting
not a necessary. It is used safety purposes not for improving the
efficiency.

S115. Ans.(a);
Sol. Air preheater is to increase the temperature for air before if enters
the furnace. If takes heat from the not flue gases and transfer to the air.

S116. Ans.(c);
Actual vacuum
Sol. Vacuum efficiency =
Barometer−Absolute pressuer of steam
690 690
ηvacuum = = = 96.10%
760−42.41 717.79

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S117. Ans.(b);
Sol. Thermal efficiency of Rankine cycle can be enhanced by
(1) Decrease in condenser pressure
(2) Increase in boiler pressure.
(3) Increasing the superheat at constant pressure.
S118. Ans.(b);
Sol. Use of modified Rankine cycle causes the reduction of stroke of the
cylinder.
S119. Ans.(c);
Sol. For measuring the depreciation cost of power plant a special type
of method is used for calculation is known as “Sinking fund method”
S120. Ans.(a);
Sol. Given that,
mass of input miṅ = 75 kg/sec
mass output ṁo = 25 kg/sec
We know that, collection of ash in given ash collector is
ṁin −mo
Degree of collection (DOC) =
ṁin
75−25
= = 0.6667
75

S121. Ans.(a);
Sol. Steam superheating is done at constant pressure.
S122. Ans.(a);
Sol. A curve showing the variation of load on a power station with
respect to time is known as load curve.
S123. Ans.(a);
Sol. Degree of superheating obtained using a liquid to suction heat
exchanger is always greater than the degree of sub cooling.
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S124. Ans.(c);
Sol. At ideal condition vapor power cycle heat rejection at reversible
constant pressure occurs at condenser.

S125. Ans.(a);
Sol. The superheater is a heat exchanger in which heat is transferred to
the saturated steam to increase its temperature. It raises the overall
efficiency. It reduces the moisture content in last stage of the turbine
and thus increase the turbine internal efficiency.

S126. Ans.(b);
Sol. Increasing the superheat at constant pressure increases the mean
temperature of heat addition cycle efficiency also increases.

S127. Ans.(a);
Sol. Following are the characteristics regenerative Rankine Cycle
(1) Regeneration increases the mean temp. of heat addition of cycle
hence, efficiency of the cycle is increases.
(2) For same power output steam flow rate requires bigger boiler.
(3) Because of steam flow rate to condenser decrease so small
condenser is required.
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S128. Ans.(a);
Sol. Efficiency of chimney draught is of the order of loss then 1%.

S129. Ans.(a);
Sol. correct path of the flue gases from boiler furnace to chimney
Boiler → superheater → Economizer → Air preheater – ID Fan –
chimney.

S130. Ans.(c);
Sol. Given that
x₁ = 0.8
x₂ = 0.8
Actual dryness fraction of steam in the given samples
x = x₁.x₂
x = 0.8 × 0.8
x = 0.64

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