aNALYST CUM PROGRAMMER- 2025

tOPIC test - 01
Time: 120 Minutes​ Questions: 120​ Marks: 120

Q1. Which of the following statements I. An OODBMS avoids the "impedance

regarding the features of the object- mismatch" problem.
oriented approach to databases are
true? II. An OODBMS avoids the "phantom"
problem.

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(A) The ability to develop more realistic ​
models of the real world.​ III. An OODBMS provides higher
(B) The ability to represent the world in a ​ performance concurrency control than

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non-geometric way.​ most relational databases.
(C) The ability to develop databases using ​ IV. An OODBMS provides faster access to
natural language approaches.​ individual data objects once they have
(D)The need to split objects into their​ been read from disk.

AS
component parts.​
(E) The ability to develop database ​ (a) II and III only​
models based on location rather than ​ (b) I and IV only​
state and behaviour. (c) I, II, and III only ​
(d) I, III and IV only
CL
(a) (A), (B) and (C) ​
(b) (B), (C) and (D)​ Q5. Which level of Abstraction
(c) (A), (D) and (E) ​ describes how data is stored in the
(d) (C), (D) and (E) database ?
Q2. Database applications were built (a) Physical level​
E

directly on top of the file system to (b) View level​

overcome the following drawbacks of (c) Abstraction level ​
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using file systems.​ (d) Logical level

(A) Data redundancy and inconsistency
Q6. What is Granularity?​
(B) Difficulty in accessing Data ​
(a) The size of database​
(C) Data isolation ​
(b) The size of data item ​
(D)Integrity problems. ​
(c) The size of record​
​
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(d) The size of file

(a) (A)​
(b) (A) and (D)​ Q7. Which of the following is the
(c) (A), (B) and (C) ​ process by which a user's privileges
IN

(d) (A), (B), (C) and (D) are ascertained?

Q3. DBMS provides the facility of (a) Authorization​ (b) Authentication​
accessing data from a database (c) Access Control​ (d) None of these
through
Q8. Which of the following is not a type
(a) DDL​ ​ (b) DML​ of Database Management System?
(c) DBA​ ​ (d) Schema
(a) Hierarchical​ (b) Network​
Q4. Which of the following statements (c) Relational​ ​ (d) Sequential
is/are True regarding some advantages
that an object-oriented DBMS Q9. The student marks should not be
(OODBMS) offers over a relational greater than 100. This is
database?
 aNALYST CUM PROGRAMMER- 2025

tOPIC test - 01
Time: 120 Minutes​ Questions: 120​ Marks: 120

(a) Integrity constraint​ Q14. Which statement is false

(b) Referential constraint ​ regarding data independence?
(c) Over-defined constraint ​
(d) Feasible constraint (a) Hierarchical data model suffers from
data Independence​

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Q10. Which of the following (b) Network model suffers from data
statement/s is/are true? Independence​
(c) Relational model suffers only from

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i. Facebook has the world's largest logical data Independence​
Hadoop Cluster. (d) Relational model suffers only from
ii. Hadoop 2.0 allows live stream physical data Independence
processing of Real time data.

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Q15. Redundancy is dangerous as it is
Choose the correct answer from the code a potential threat to data:
given below: (a) Integrity​
(a) (i) only​ (b) Consistency​
CL
(b) (ii) only​ (c) Both of the above​
(c) Both (i) and (ii)​ (d) None of the above
(d) Neither (i) nor (ii) Q16. A view of a database that appears
Q11. Data warehouse contains to an application program is known as
………….. data that is never found in an a:​
E

operational environment. (a) Structure​ ​ (b) Report​

(c) Subschema​ (d) Scheme
(a) Summary​ ​ (b) Encoded​
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(c) Encrypted​ ​ (d) Scripted Q17. For some relations, changing the
data can have undesirable
Q12. A WINDOW into a portion of a consequences called:
database is:
(a) referential integrity constraints ​
(a) Schema​ ​ (b) View​ (b) modification anomalies​
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(c) Query​ ​ (d) Data Dictionary (c) normal forms​

(d) transitive dependencies
Q13. Data Scrubbing is
Q18. Immunity of the external schemas
IN

(a) A process to upgrade the quality of

(or application programs) to changes in
data after it is moved into a data
the conceptual scheme is referred to
warehouse. ​
as:
(b) A process to reject data from the data
warehouse and to create the necessary (a) Physical Data Independence​
indexes.​ (b) Logical Data Independence..​
(c) A process to load the data in the data (c) Both (a) and (b)​
warehouse and to create the necessary (d) None of the above
indexes.​
(d) A process to upgrade the quality of Q19. Which of the following is/are true
data before it is moved into a data with reference to 'view' in DBMS?
warehouse. (i) A 'view' is a special stored procedure
executed when a certain event occurs.​
 aNALYST CUM PROGRAMMER- 2025

tOPIC test - 01
Time: 120 Minutes​ Questions: 120​ Marks: 120

(ii) A 'view' is a virtual table, which occurs (a) Physical data independence​
after executing a pre-compiled query. (b) Logical data independence ​
(c) Schema mapping​
a) Only (i) is true (d) Data reorganization
b) Only (ii) is true

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Q24. Database......., which is the logical
c) Both (i) and (ii) are true design of the database and the
database........., which is a snapshot of

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d) Neither (i) nor (ii) are true the data in the database at a given
instant in time:​
Q20. What does a data dictionary will
(a) Instance, schema​
identify?
(b) Schema, Relation​

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(a) Field name​ (c) Domain, Relation ​
(b) Field format​ (d) Schema, Instance
(c) Field types​
Q25. The way a particular application
(d) All of the above
views the data from the database that
CL
Q21. Goals for the design of the logical the application uses is a
scheme include
(a) module​ ​ (b) relational model​
(a) avoiding data inconsistency​ (c) schema​ ​ (d) sub schema.
(b) being able to construct query easily ​
Q26. A device is sending out data at the
(c) being able to access data efficiently ​
E

rate of 2000 bps. How long does it take

(d) All of the above
to send a file of 1,00,000 characters?
QU

Q22. Database systems that store each

(a) 50​ ​ ​ (b) 200​
relation in a separate operating system
(c) 400​​ ​ (d) 800
file may use the operating system's
authorization scheme, instead of Q27. Infrared signals can be used for
defining a special scheme themselves. short range communication in a closed
In this case, which of the following is area using ………….. propagation.
FI

false?
(a) ground​ ​ (b) sky​
(a) The administrator enjoys more control (c) line of sight​​ (d) space
on the grant option.​
IN

(b) It is difficult to differentiate among the Q28. The bit rate of a signal is 3000
delete and update, authorizations.insert​ bps. If each signal unit carries 6 bits,
(c) Cannot store more than one relation in the baud rate of the signal is
a file.​ (a) 500 baud/sec ​
(d) Operations on the database are (b) 1000 baud/sec​
speeded up as the authorization (c) 3000 baud/sec​
procedure is carried out at the operating (d) 18000 baud/sec
system level.
Q29. The structure of format of data is
Q23. In three- schema architecture of called:
DBMS, the ability to change the internal
schema without having to change the (a) Syntax​ (b) Struct​
conceptual schema is known as: (c) Semantic​ (d) None of the above
 aNALYST CUM PROGRAMMER- 2025

tOPIC test - 01
Time: 120 Minutes​ Questions: 120​ Marks: 120

Q30. In a fully connected mesh network (c) Gateway​

with 10 computers, total ……… number (d) Switch
of cables are required and
………..number of ports are required for Q36. In case of Bus/Tree topology
each device. signal balancing issue is overcome by

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(a) 40,9​ ​ (b) 45,10​ (a) Modulation​
(c) 45,9​ ​ (d) 50,10 (b) Polling​

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(c) Segmentation ​
Q31. Which transmission technique (d) Strong transmitter
guarantees that data packets will be
received by the receiver in the same Q37. The cost of the network is usually
determined by

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order in which they were sent by the
sender? (a) time complexity​
(a) Broadcasting​ (b) Unicasting​ (b) switching complexity​
(c) Packet switching (d) Circuit switching (c) circuit complexity​
(d) none of these
CL
Q32. The process of dividing an analog
signal into a string of discrete outputs, Q38. Which of the following switching
each of constant amplitude, is called: techniques is most suitable for
interactive traffic?
(a) Strobing​ ​ (b) Amplification​
(c) Conditioning​ (d) Quantization (a) Circuit switching​
E

(b) Message switching ​

Q33. Data Encryption Techniques are (c) Packet switching​
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particularly used for (d) All of the above

(a) protecting data in Data Communication Q39. Networks that use different
System​ technologies can be connected by
(b) reduce Storage Space Requirement​ using
(c) enhances Data Integrity​
(a) Packets (b) Switches ​
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(d) decreases Data Integrity

(c) Bridges​ ​ (d) Routers
Q34. Another name of IEEE 802.11a is
Q40. Radio signals generally propagate
IN

(a) Wi-Max​ according to the following

(b) Fast Ethernet​ mechanisms:
(c) Wi-Fi​
(d) 802.11 g (a) Modulation, Amplification, Scattering​
(b) Reflection, Diffraction, Scattering​
Q35. The device which connects (c) Amplification, Diffraction, Modulation​
dissimilar LANS of different topologies (d) Reflection, Amplification, Diffraction
using differ- ent sets of communication
protocols so that information can flow Q41. A comparison of frequency
from one to another is called: division and time division multiplexing
system shows that
(a) Router​
(b) Bridge​ (a) FDM requires a lower bandwidth, but
TDM has greater noise immunity.​
(b) FDM has greater noise immunity and
 aNALYST CUM PROGRAMMER- 2025

tOPIC test - 01
Time: 120 Minutes​ Questions: 120​ Marks: 120

requires lower bandwidth than TDM. ​ Q46. Which of the following statements
(c) FDM requires channel synchronization, is correct with respect to fiber optic
while TDM has greater noise immunity. ​ cables?
(d) FDM requires more multiplexes while
TDM requires a band pass filter. (a) They are not suitable for short distance

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connections​
Q42. Which technical concept sets (b) In multimode fibres, the transmitted
cellular apart from all preceding light beam is 'bounced' off the cladding as

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mobile/radio systems? it travels down the core.​
(c) Data transmitted over fibre is
(a) FM-Transmission​ susceptible for electromagnetic
(b) Duplex Functionality​ interference.​

AS
(c) Frequency Reuse​ (d) Single mode fibres have not a higher
(d) TDMA Technology bandwidth than multimode fibres.
Q43. What is the function of a Q47. The four fundamental
translating bridge? characteristics of an effective data
CL
( a) Connect similar remote LANs ​ communication are
(b) Connect similar local LANS​ (a) delivery, accuracy, timeliness and
(c) Connect different types of LANS​ noise. ​
(d) Translate the network addresses into a (b) delivery, accuracy, timeliness and
layer 2 address gitter. ​
E

Q44. Bluetooth technology uses the (c) delivery, accuracy, timeliness and pro-
transmission media. tocols.​
QU

(d) accuracy, timeliness, filter and

(a) Radio links​ protocols.
(b) Microwave links​
(c) VSAT communication​ Q48. If there are n devices (nodes)in a
(d) Optical fiber links network, what is the number of cable
links required for a fully connected
FI

mesh and a star topology respectively?

(a) n (n-1)/2, n-1​
(b) n, n-1​
IN

Q45. Which of the following is correct

(c) n-1, n​
regarding Token Ring networks?
(d) n-1, n(n-1)/2
(a) Whenever a network node wishes to
Q49. A network using technique is
send a frame, it has to wait for the free
called a store and forward network
token to arrive.​
(b) The IEEE 802.6 specifies the token (a) Circuit switching​
ring MAC protocol​ (b) Message switching​
(c) After initialization of a token ring net- (c) Packet switching​
work, a token can be transmitted in both (d) Both (Circuit switching) and (Message
directions of the network​ switching)
(d) A token ring with a shielded twisted
pair transmission medium can have a
minimum data rate of 16 Mbps.
 aNALYST CUM PROGRAMMER- 2025

tOPIC test - 01
Time: 120 Minutes​ Questions: 120​ Marks: 120

Q50. Which of the following (b) Closed system

components is responsible for network
communication in a computer system? (c) MIS

(a) UPS​ (d) DIS

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(b) Ethernet card​ Q56. ..... system in one which
(c) SVGA card​ automatically controls or modifies its
(d) SMPS

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own operation by responding to data
Q51. ..... interviews use standardized generated by the system itself.
questions in either an open response (a) Open System
or close response format.

AS
(b) Closed system
(a) Unstructured Interviews.​
(b) Structured Interviews​ (c) MIS
(c) Questionnaires.​
(d) DIS
(d) Record inspection or view
CL
Q57. .......... system collect, store,
Q52. Analysts used .......... method to
modify and retrieve the transaction of
collect information from individuals or
an organization.
from a group.​
(a) Interviews​ (a) Execution Information system(EIS)
(b) Questionnaires.​
E

(c) Record inspection or view​ (b) Integrated system

(d) Observations (c) Subsystem
QU

Q53. This type of model exhibits are (d) Transaction processing system
pair of relationships such as activity
time or cost quantity. Q58. ………… is concerned with how a
system is tied together in order to
(a) Schematic Models​ achieve a common goal thus forming
(b) Flow system models​
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integration.
(c) Static system models ​
(d) Dynamic system models (a) Interaction
Q54. …….. it shows a two dimensional (b) Interdependence
IN

depicting system elements and their

linkages. (c) Integration

(a) Schematic Models​ (d) Central Objective

(b) Flow system models ​ Q59. ......... means that parts of the
(c) Static system models​ organization depend on one another
(d) Dynamic system models
(a) Interaction
Q55. An.......... system is one which
does not provide for its own control or (b) Interdependence
modification.
(c) Integration
(a) Open System
(d) Central Objective
 aNALYST CUM PROGRAMMER- 2025

tOPIC test - 01
Time: 120 Minutes​ Questions: 120​ Marks: 120

Q60. ………refers to the process of

examining a business situation with the
intent of improving it through better Q64. The system which are represented
procedures and methods. conceptually non-Physical systems are
called

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(a) Software Anticipation
(a) Abstract system
(b) Software Investigation

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(b) System model
(c) Software Requirement
(c) Open system
(d) System analysis
(d) Closed system

AS
Q61. We can define information system
as a set of devices, procedures, rules Q65. Decision makers who are
but most of the work performs concerned with tactical (short-term)
manually operational problems and decision
making are
CL
(a) Formal Information system
(a) middle managers
(b) Man Made Information system
(b) executive managers
(c) Informal information system
(c) supervisors
(d) All of above
E

(d) mobile managers

Q62. ……….. is an orderly grouping of
independent components linked Q66. ………… these are stand-alone
QU

together according to a plan to achieve systems which are produced by a

a specific objective or goal. development organization and sold on
the open market to any customer who
(a) System is able to buy them.
(b) Software (a) Generic Product
FI

(c) Subsystem (b) Customized product

(d) Physical system (c) Product
IN

Q63. …………. expressly designed for (d) None of these

the support of individual and collective
decision making. Q67. The is produced at the
culmination of the analysis task.
(a) MIS
(a) Software requirement specification
(b) DSS
(b) Questionnaires
(c) TPS
(c) Record Inspection
(d) OIS
(d) None of these
 aNALYST CUM PROGRAMMER- 2025

tOPIC test - 01
Time: 120 Minutes​ Questions: 120​ Marks: 120

Q68. ………… are software systems (b) Integrated system

delivered to the customer with the
documentation which describes how to (c) Subsystem
install and use the system. (d) Transaction processing system

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(a) Software Product Q73. Effectiveness is a major goal of
(b) Output these types of systems.

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(c) Input (a) Expert systems

(d) Processing (b) Closed system

(c) MIS

AS
Q69. What are the characteristics of
software? (d) DSS
(a) Software is developed or engineered; it Q74. systems use organizational data
is not manufactured in the classical sense. as well as external data collected from
CL
(b) Software doesn't "wear out." the environment of the organization.

(c) Software can be custom built or (a) Formal Information system

custom build. (b) Closed system
(d) All mentioned above (c) MIS
E

Q70. Elements of system. (d) DSS

QU

(a) Output/Input Q75. The primary objective of the

(b) Control feasibility study is to:

(c) Feedback A. Design the system architecture

(d) All of above B. Determine if the project is viable

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Q71. …………consists of individual C. Implement the system

computers may be workstations or D. Train end-users
multiple systems.
IN

Q.76 Which of the following best

(a) Execution Information system(EIS) defines a Work Breakdown Structure
(b) Integrated system (WBS)?

(c) Subsystem A. A Gantt chart for project tasks

(d) Transaction processing system B. A hierarchical decomposition of project

deliverables
Q72. ……….is a unit that is part of a
larger system that means a larger C. A sequence of project phases
system divided into subparts the D. A list of team responsibilities
subpart is known as
(a) Execution Information system(EIS)
 aNALYST CUM PROGRAMMER- 2025

tOPIC test - 01
Time: 120 Minutes​ Questions: 120​ Marks: 120

Q.77 The critical path in a project C. Increased lines of code in newer

schedule represents: releases
A. The longest path through the project D. Loss of memory during execution
B. The path with the most resources Q.82 Which is NOT a characteristic of

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good software according to IEEE?
C. The least risky sequence of tasks

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A. Maintainability
D. Tasks that can be delayed without
affecting the deadline B. Usability
Q.78 Which process involves C. Affordability

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subdividing project deliverables into
smaller, manageable components? D. Efficiency

A. Scope Definition Q.83 What is the main focus of

software reliability?
B. Scope Verification
CL
A. Time between failures
C. Create WBS
B. Ease of use
D. Decomposition
C. Compliance with standards
Q.79 Which is NOT a valid project
D. Speed of execution
E

constraint in the triple constraint

model? Q.84 Which ISO standard defines
software product quality
QU

A. Scope
characteristics?
B. Resources
A. ISO 9001
C. Time
B. ISO 12207
D. Cost
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C. ISO/IEC 25010
Q.80 Which of the following is a key
distinguishing characteristic of D. ISO/IEC 27001
software compared to hardware?
IN

Q.85 Which characteristic is MOST

A. Tangibility impacted when software is deployed on
different platforms?​
B. Deterioration over time A. Usability​
B. Portability​
C. Reusability C. Functionality​
D. Predictable failure rate D. Reliability​
​
Q.81 Software entropy refers to: Q.86 Which cost dominates in the
software lifecycle?
A. Performance degradation with
hardware aging A. Development
B. Decline in software structure without B. Testing
maintenance
 aNALYST CUM PROGRAMMER- 2025

tOPIC test - 01
Time: 120 Minutes​ Questions: 120​ Marks: 120

C. Maintenance D. Initiation
D. Design Q.92 Which of these is a common
output of the execution phase?
Q.87 The execution phase of SPMLC
primarily involves: A. Project charter

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A. Deliverable deployment B. Deliverables

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B. Resource onboarding and team C. Risk matrix
operations
D. Lessons learned
C. Performance appraisal
Q.93 The waterfall model corresponds

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D. Post-mortem analysis best with which type of SPMLC?
Q.88 Scope creep usually becomes A. Iterative
visible during which SPMLC phase?
B. Predictive
CL
A. Execution
C. Adaptive
B. Initiation
D. Hybrid
C. Closure
Q94. In software project management, ​
D. Planning ‘scope creep’ refers to:​
E

(a) Team members not showing up for work​

Q.89 Which activity belongs in the (b) Adding features without planning​
monitoring and controlling phase?
QU

(c) Reducing budget halfway​

A. Defining team roles (d) Revising the software version

B. Releasing the product Q95. The triple constraints in project ​

management are:​
C. Measuring project performance (a) Time, Budget, Features​
FI

(b) Cost, Time, Scope​

D. Gathering initial requirements
(c) Resources, Time, Testing​
Q.90 The term “baseline” is most (d). Scope, Testing, Design
IN

closely associated with:​

Q96.Software projects are often​
A. Resource leveling​
considered difficult to manage ​
B. Project closure​
because they are:​
C. Planning​
(a) Easily predictable​
D. Initiation​
(b) Highly standardized​
​
(c) Inherently flexible and complex​
Q.91 SWOT analysis is typically used in
(d) Not affected by scope changes
which phase?
Q97. Which of the following is NOT a ​
A. Monitoring
common software project ​
B. Planning characteristic?​
(a) High dependency on human skills​
C. Closure (b) Easily visualized end product​
 aNALYST CUM PROGRAMMER- 2025

tOPIC test - 01
Time: 120 Minutes​ Questions: 120​ Marks: 120

(c) Evolving requirements​ D. 48

(d) Complexity in design and development
Q103. At what time between 4 and 5 will
Q98. Which of the following aspects of ​ the hands of the clock coincide?
software projects is most influenced​
A. 4:21.8

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by human creativity and ​
communication?​ B. 4:22
(a) Bricklaying​

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(b) Coding and problem-solving​ C. 4:20
(c) Packaging and shipping​
D. 4:19.1
(d) Tool manufacturing
Q104. If the clock shows 2:50, what time

AS
Q99. The project charter gives the project ​
will its mirror image show?
manager the authority to:​
(a) Approve company policies​ A. 9:10
(b) Begin the project and use organization​
l resources​ B. 10:10
CL
(c) Design the user interface​ C. 9:20
(d) Fire stakeholders
D. 10:20
Q100. Which of the following is true about
a Project charter?​ Q105. Water image of 3:15 would be:
(a) It is an informal document​
E

(b) It is optional in professional project ​ A. 8:45

management​ B. 9:45
QU

(c) It defines high-level roles and ​

responsibilities​ C. 10:45
(d) It includes detailed project scheduling
D. 8:15
Q106. At 4:10, what is the angle between
FI

the minute and hour hands?

Q101. What is the angle between the hour A. 115°
and minute hand at 3:20?
B. 125°
IN

A. 20°
C. 130°
B. 40°
D. 135°
C. 50°
Q107. If 15th August 1947 was a Friday,
D. 60° what day of the week was 15th August
1950?
Q102. How many times in a day are the
hands of a clock at a right angle? A. Monday
A. 44 B. Tuesday
B. 22 C. Wednesday
C. 24 D. Thursday
 aNALYST CUM PROGRAMMER- 2025

tOPIC test - 01
Time: 120 Minutes​ Questions: 120​ Marks: 120

Q108. How many leap years are there (b) कामड़

between 1901 and 2000 (inclusive)?
(d) कथौड़ी
A. 24
Q.114 राजस्थान का एकमात्र शास्त्रीय नत्ृ य, जिसका
B. 25 आदिम घराना जयपरु है -

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C. 26 (a) घम
ू र

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D. 27 (c) कत्थक
Q109. What is the total number of odd (b) वालर
days in 100 years?
(d) कथकली

AS
A. 2
Q.115. सप ु ारी, बड़ व सबन वक्ष
ृ ों की लकड़ी द्वारा
B. 5 बनाया जाने वाला लोकवाद्य कौनसा है जिसका प्रयोग
प्रायः मन्दिरों
C. 6
CL
में होता है ?
D. 4
(a) शंख
Q110. In how many years will the same
calendar repeat for 2021? (b) मद
ृ ंग
A. 6 (c) शहनाई
E

B. 11 (d) झालर
QU

C. 5 Q.116. निम्नलिखित में से किस नत्ृ य के साथ 'झांझ'

नामक वाद्ययंत्र का प्रयोग किया जाता है -
D. 12
(a) कच्छी घोड़ी नत्ृ य (c) तेरहताली नत्ृ य
Q111. गायों की रक्षा में अपने 'प्राणत्सर्ग' करने वालो
में कौन प्रसिद्ध हैं? (b) बम नत्ृ य
FI

(a) गोगाजी (d) गवरी नत्ृ य

(c) पाबज
ू ी Q.117.“केसरिया बालम आओ नी पधारो म्हारे दे श"
को अल्लाही जिल्लाई बाई ने किस में गाया?
IN

(b) तेजाजी
(a) भोपाली
(d) उपर्युक्त सभी
(c) मॉड
Q112. तेजाजी का मख्
ु य तीर्थ स्थल कहाँ पर है ?
(b) पीलू
(a) नागौर ​ ​ (c) परबतसर
(d) मेघ
(b) खड़नाल ​ ​ (d) शाहपरु ा
Q.118. निम्नलिखित में से किस नत्ृ य के साथ 'झांझ'
Q113. तेरहताली नत्ृ य का संबध
ं किस जाति से है ? नामक वाद्ययंत्र का प्रयोग किया जाता है -
(a) भील (a) कच्छी घोड़ी नत्ृ य (b) बम नत्ृ य
(c) मीणा (c) तेरहताली नत्ृ य
 aNALYST CUM PROGRAMMER- 2025

tOPIC test - 01
Time: 120 Minutes​ Questions: 120​ Marks: 120

(d) गवरी नत्ृ य

Q.119. जानकी लाल भांड किस लोक नाट्य के ख्याति
प्राप्त कलाकार हैं?
(a) फड़

S
(c) रम्मत

SE
(b) स्वांग
(d) ख्याल
Q.120 ख्याल शैली के जयपरु घराने के प्रवर्तक कौन

AS
माने जाते है ?
(a) कल्लन खाँ
(c)जहांगीर खाँ
CL
(b) छज्जू खाँ
(d) मनरं ग
E
QU
FI
IN