Prayas JEE (2026)

PRACTICE TEST - 01

DURATION ::180
DURATION Minutes
90 Minutes DATE : 25/05/2025 M.MARKS : 300

Topics Covered
Physics: Mathematical Tools (Complete chapter), Motion in a Straight Line (Complete chapter)
Chemistry: Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry (Complete chapter), Redox Reaction (Complete chapter),
Solutions: Binary Solution, Concentration Terms, Solubility, Vapour Pressure, Vapour Pressure of
Liquid Solutions, Determination of Vapour, Pressure of a Liquid, Vapour Pressure of Liquid
Solutions
Mathematics: Basic Mathematics (Complete chapter)

General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 75 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
4. There are three sections in the question paper, Section I, II & III consisting of Section-I (Physics), Section-II (Chemistry),
Section-III (Mathematics) and having 25 questions in each Section in which first 20 questions are Objective Type and
last 5 questions are integer type with answers ranging from ‘0’ to ‘999’ where answer needs to be rounded off to the
nearest integer and all 25 questions are compulsory.
5. There is only one correct response for each question.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong response.
7. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any electronic
device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.
However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
9. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).
OMR Instructions:
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2. Darken the bubbles completely. Don't put a tick mark or a cross mark where it is specified that you fill the bubbles
completely. Half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read by the software.
3. Never use pencils to mark your answers.
4. Never use whiteners to rectify filling errors as they may disrupt the scanning and evaluation process.
5. Writing on the OMR Sheet is permitted on the specified area only and even small marks other than the specified area may
create problems during the evaluation.
6. Multiple markings will be treated as invalid responses.
7. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR) .

Name of the Student (In CAPITALS) : _______________________________________________________________

Roll Number : _____________________________________________________________________________________________

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Candidate’s Signature : _______________________________ Invigilator’s Signature _____________________

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 Section-I (PHYSICS)
Single Correct Type Questions 5. A car, starting from rest, accelerates at the rate f
1. In a straight line motion, the distance travelled is through a distance S , then continues at constant
proportional to the square root of the time taken.
f
The acceleration of the particle is proportional to: speed for time t and then decelerates at the rate
(v is the velocity) 2
(1) v (2) v 2 to come to rest. If the total distance traversed is
15S, then
(3) v3 (4) v
1 1
(1) S = ft 2 (2) S = ft 2
2. A particle moves for 50 seconds if first accelerates 2 4
from rest and then retard or deaccelerates to rest. If 1 2 1
the retardation be 5 times the acceleration, then the (3) S = ft (4) S = ft 2
72 6
time for retardation is:
(1) 25/3 second (2) 50/3 second
(3) 25 second (4) 100/3 second 6. A particle moves a distance x in time t according to
−1
equation x = ( t + 5 ) . The acceleration of particle
3. A body is at rest at x = 0 . At t = 0 , it starts
moving in the positive x -direction with a constant is proportional to
acceleration. At the same instant another body (1) ( Velocity )3/2 (2) ( Distance )2
passes through x = 0 moving in the positive x -
direction with a constant speed. The position of the (3) ( Distance )−2 (4) ( Velocity )⅔
first body is given by x1 ( t ) after time t and that
of the second body by x2 ( t ) after the same time 7. Acceleration(a)-displacement (s) graph of a
interval. Which of the following graphs correctly particle moving in a straight line is as shown in the
describes ( x1 − x2 ) as a function of time t? figure. The initial velocity of the particle is zero,
The Velocity(V) - displacement (s) graph of the
particle would be
(1)

(2)

(1)

(3)

(2)

(4)

(3)

4. A particle starts from the origin, goes along the X-

axis to the point (20 m, 0) and then returns along
the same line to the point (–20m, 0). Find the
distance and displacement of the particle during
(4)
the trip.
(1) 60 m, –20 m (2) –60 m, 20 m
(3) 60 m, 20 m (4) –60 m, –20 m
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8. If a car covers 2/5th of the total distance
with v1 speed and 3/5th distance with v2 then
average speed is
1 vv (2)
(1) v1v2 (2) 1 2
2 2
2v1v2 5v1v2
(3) (4)
v1 + v2 3v1 + 2v2

9. The velocity-time graph of the particle moving

along a straight line as shown. The rate of
acceleration and deceleration is constant and it is (3)

equal to 5 m s−2 . If the average velocity during the

motion is 20 m s−1 , then the value of t is

(4)

(1) 3 s (2) 5 s 13. Find out the incorrect statement from below
(3) 10 s (4) 12 s (1) log (1  2  3) = log1 + log2 + log3
(2) log ( 2 + 3) = log ( 2  3)
10. A particle located at x = 0 at time t = 0, starts
moving along the positive x-direction with a (3) log1010 = 1
velocity 'v' that varies as v =  ( x ). Where ' ' is (4) log101 = 0
a constant. Then the displacement of the particle
varies with time as 14. Which of the following graph is/are straight line
(1) t 3 (2) t 2 for the equation y 2 = 2 x ?
(3) t (4) t1/2 I. Graph: y versus x 2
II. Graph: y 2 versus x
11. A lift starts from rest. Its acceleration is plotted
against time in the following graph. When it comes III. Graph: y versus x
to rest, its height above its starting point is
IV. Graph: y versus x
(1) I, IV (2) II, III
(3) I, III (4) Only II

15. 5,10,15,20.,500 find the sum of the series.

(1) 25250 (2) 252500
(3) 2525 (4) 5000

(1) 20 m (2) 64 m
(3) 32 m (4) 128 m 16. If α,  are roots of the equation 4x2 + 3x + 7 = 0 ,
then 1 /  + 1 /  is equal to
12. In which of the following graph slope is ‘+ 4’. (1) 7 / 3 (2) −7 / 3
(3) 3 / 7 (4) −3 / 7

Calculate (1001)
1/3
17. .
(1)
(1) 10.00 (2) 10.0034
(3) 10.003333 (4) 10.006

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 4
18. If tan = . Find the value of sin
3
3 4
(1) (2)
5 3
4 5
(3) (4)
5 4

19. Find value of e−

(1) Zero
22. A ball is thrown upwards from the ground with an
(2) Infinite
initial speed of u. The ball is at a height of 80 m at
(3) e
two times, the time interval being 6s. Find u
(4) 1
(in m/s). Take g = 10 m/s2.
20. Using Binomial approximation find the value of
23. Two spherical balls having equal masses of
( 99 )1/2 negligible radius each are thrown upwards along
(1) 9.97 the same vertical direction at an interval of 3s with
(2) 9.98 the same initial velocity of 35 m/s, then these balls
(3) 9.96 collide at a height of ....... m.
(4) 9.9498 (Take g = 10 m/s2)

Integer Type Questions 24. Two persons A and B are walking with speed
21. The graph illustrates motion of a bucket being 5 km/h and 7 km/h respectively in the same
lowered into a well from the top at the instant direction. Find the relative distance of B w.r.t. A
t = 0 , down to the water level, filled with water after 2 hours. (in km)
and drawn up again. Here ' x ' is the depth. Find the
average speed of the bucket in m / s during whole 25. Find the value of cos105 + cos75 .
operation.

Section-II (CHEMISTRY)
Single Correct Type Questions 29. A metal nitride M3N2 contains 28% of nitrogen.
26. Assuming full decomposition, the volume of CO2 The atomic mass of metal M is:
released at STP on heating 39.4 g of BaCO3 (at. (1) 24 u
mass of Ba = 137) will be: (2) 54 u
(1) 4.48 L (2) 0.84 L
(3) 9 u
(3) 2.24 L (4) 4.96 L
(4) 87.62 u

27. Equivalent weight of FeC2O4 in the change:

30. Which reaction is not a redox reaction?
FeC2O4 → Fe3+ + CO2 is:
(1) MnO−4 → MnO2 + O2
(Where molecular mass of FeC2O4 is M)
(2) Cl2 + H2O → HCl + HClO
(1) M / 3 (2) M / 6
(3) M / 2 (4) M /1 (3) CrO24− + H+ → Cr2O72− + H2O

28. If a solution is described as 10% glucose in water (4) MnO−4 + H+ + Fe2+ → Mn +2 + Fe3+ + H2O
by mass, it means:
(1) 10 g of glucose is dissolved in 10 g of water. 31. The total number of neutrons present in 36 g of
(2) 10 g of glucose is dissolved in 90 g of water, water is:
making a 100 g solution. (1) 24 NA
(3) 10 g of glucose is dissolved in 100 g of (2) 32 NA
water.
(3) 16 NA
(4) 10 g of glucose is dissolved in 1000 g of
(4) 20 NA
solution.
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32. The law which states that “the partial pressure of Reason R: H2S is oxidised because a more
the gas in vapour phase (p) is proportional to the electronegative element, chlorine is added to
mole fraction of the gas (χ) in the solution” is: hydrogen (or a more electropositive element,
(1) Raoult’s law hydrogen has been removed from S) Whereas
(2) Henry’s law Chlorine is reduced due to addition of hydrogen
(3) Dalton’s law to it.
(4) Van’t Hoff’s law In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
33. How does the solubility of gas change in a liquid, (1) A is true but R is false.
as described? (2) A is false but R is true.
(1) Increases with decreasing pressure. (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
(2) Increases with increasing temperature.
(4) Both A and R are true but R is not the
(3) Decreases with increasing temperature.
correct explanation of A.
(4) Decreases with increasing pressure.
38. Which of the following statements is correct
34. Match List-I with List-II.
regarding a solution of two compounds A and B
List-I List-II exhibiting positive deviation from ideal
(Species) (Oxidation state of behaviour?
phosphorus) (1) Intermolecular attractive forces between A-
A P4 I +5 A and B-B are stronger than those between
B H3PO2 II 0 A-B
C PO 3−
4
III +3 (2) Hmix = 0 at constant T and P
D H3PO3 IV +1 (3) Vmix = 0 at constant T and P
(4) Intermolecular attractive forces between A-
Choose the correct answer from the options
A and B-B are equal to those between A-B
given below;
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
39. 5.85 g NaCl is dissolved in 1 L water. The total
(2) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
number of Na+ and Cl– ions in 1 mL of this
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
solution will be:
(4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (1) 6.02 × 1019 (2) 1.2 × 1022
(3) 1.2 × 1020 (4) 6.02 × 1020
35. Which of the following will form an ideal
solution? 40. Given below are two statements: one is labelled
(1) C2H5OH and water as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
(2) HNO3 and water Reason R:
Assertion A: P4O10 act as reducing agent only.
(3) CHCl3 and CH3COCH3
Reason R: P in P4O10 is present in its maximum
(4) C6H6 and C6H5CH3 oxidation state (+5).
In the light of the above statements, choose the
36. Calculate the number of moles for each case correct answer from the options given below:
respectively; (1) A is true but R is false.
I. 11g CO2 (2) A is false but R is true.
II. NA/4 Molecule of CO2 (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
III. 1.12 L CO2 at STP explanation of A.
(1) 0.25, 0.25, 0.25 (4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
(2) 0.25, 0.05, 0.05 correct explanation of A.
(3) 0.05, 0.25, 0.25
(4) 0.25, 0.25, 0.05 41. Which of the following statements is correct, if
the intermolecular forces in liquids A, B and C
37. Given below are two statement: one is labelled as are in the order A  B  C ?
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: (1) B evaporates more readily than A
Assertion A: H2S(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl(g) + S(s) (2) B evaporates less readily than C
(3) A and B evaporate at the same rate
is a redox reaction.
(4) A evaporates more readily than C

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42. Match List-I with List-II 45. The molarity of 98% H2SO4 (density of H2SO4 =
List-I List-II 1.8 g/mL) by weight is:
(Sample) (No. of atoms) (1) 6 M
(A) 20 u of He (I) 5NA (2) 18 M
(B) 100 g of He (II) 5 (3) 10 M
(C) 5 g-atom of He (III) 2 NA (4) 4 M
(D) 2 mol of He (IV) 25 NA
Choose the correct answer from the options Integer Type Questions
given below; 46. 3.36 g of dibromide (MBr2) of an element M, is
(1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I completely converted to 1.58 g of dichloride
(2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV (MCl2) MBr2 + Cl2 → MCl2 + Br2
(3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III The molar mass of M is____ g/mol
(4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III [Cl: 35.5 g/mol; Br: 80 g/mol]

43. In the reaction of sodium thiosulphate with I2 in 47. The value of ‘n’ in the given reduction half
reaction is:
aqueous medium, the equivalent weight of
sodium thiosulphate is equal to: MnO−4 + 8H+ + ne− → Mn 2+ + 4H2O
(1) Molar mass of sodium thiosulphate
(2) The average molar masses of Na 2S2O3 and 48. The vapour pressure of a pure liquid A is 40 mm
I2 Hg at 310 K. The vapour pressure of this liquid
in a solution with liquid B is 32 mm Hg. The
(3) Half the molar mass of sodium thiosulphate
mole fraction of A in the solution, if it obeys the
(4) Twice of molar mass of sodium thiosulphate
Raoult’s law, is XA. Find the value of 10XA.
44. Reduction is defined in terms of
49. How many of the following is temperature
(I) electronation and hydrogenation
independent?
(II) deelectronation and gain of oxygen
Molarity, Molality, Mole fraction, % w/w, % w/v,
(III) increase in oxidation number
Strength
(IV) decrease in oxidation number
Select the correct terms:
50. Find the number of gram equivalents in a sample
(1) II and III only (2) I and III only
of NaOH weighing 80 g.
(3) I and IV only (4) I and II only

Section-III (MATHEMATICS)
Single Correct Type Questions 53. The value of x satisfying the equation
51. The complete solution set of the inequalities n ( x − 3) + n ( x − 2 ) = n ( 2 x + 24 ) , is
( x − 5) ( x + 2 ) ( x − 4 )  0
2 3
(1) 3 (2) 6
( x − 3) 4 (3) 9 (4) 12
(1) [–2, 3)  (3, 4]  {5}
(2) (–2, 1)  (3, 5) 54. Complete solution set of x + 1 − 1 − 1  1 , is
(3) [2, 3)  [3, 4]
(1) x ∈ [2, 4] (2) x ∈ [–4, 2]
(4) None of these
(3) x ∈ [8, 10] (4) x ∈ [–6, 4]
52. The complete set of values of x for which y = log 2
(x2 – 5x + 6) is defined, is 55. If log x ( 2 + x )  log x ( 6 − x ) , then x the complete
(1) x  ( −, 2 )  ( 3,  ) solution of x is
(2) x  ( − , 3 ) (1) (1, 2  (2) ( 0,1)  (1, 2 
(3) x  ( 2, 3) 3 
(3) ( 0,1)   2,6 ) (4)  , 2
(4) x  ( 3,  ) 2 

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 If x  R, satisfies ( log10100 x ) + ( log1010 x ) 63. The solution set of inequation
2 2
56.
 2 4
− 
+log10 x 14 then complete set of values of x is ( 0.5)log3 log (1/5)  x 5  1, is
 −9   −3   3 
(1) x , − 1  1, 
(1) (1, 10] (2) 10 2 ,1  5   5
 
 
(2) x( −6, − 1)  (1, 6 )
 −9 
 −5 
(3) (0, ) (4) 10 2 ,10  (3) x , 0   ( 3,  )
   2 
 
 −8   8 
1 (4) x  ,0    , 
If x = 7 + 5 2 −
3
57. , then the value of  7   7 
3
7+5 2
x3 + 3x −14 is equal to 64. If x + y = a and x 2 + y 2 = b , then value of

( x3 + y3 ) , is
(1) 1 (2) 0
(3) 2 (4) 4
(1) ab (2) a2 + b
58. Number of positive integral values of x satisfying
3ab − a 3
the inequality (3) a + b2 (4)
2
( x − 4)2017  ( x + 8)2016 ( x + 1)  0 is If x, y , z  R and 4x2 + 9y2 + 16z2 – 4x – 6y – 8z +
x2016 ( x − 2)  ( x + 3)  ( x − 6)( x + 9)
3 5 2018 65.
1 1 1
(1) 0 (2) 1 3 < 0 then value of + + is
x y z
(3) 2 (4) 3
(1) 3 (2) 6
(3) 9 (4) 12
x 2 − 5 x + 12
59. Solution set of inequation  3 is
x2 − 4 x + 5
66. log7log7 7 (7 7 ) is equal to:
 −1  1 
(1) x , 3  (2) x , 3  (1) 3log2 7 (2) 3log7 2
 2  2 
(3) 1 − 3log7 2 (4) 1 − 3log 2 7
3 
(3) x , 4  (4) None of these
2 
1 1
67. If x + = 2 then x
2021
+ 2021 is equal to
60. If 2a2 + 5b2 – 2ab – 6a – 6b + 9 = 0 where a, b  R, x x
then a + b is equal to (1) 2 (2) − 2
(1) 5 (2) –3 (3) 3 (4) − 3
(3) 3 (4) 7
−1/2 −1/3
 x6 y −3   x −1 y 2 
68. If  −2 3    3 −2  = x a y b , then the
61. If a, b and c are three non zero real number such  
x y  x y 
that 4a2 + 9b2 + c2 − 6ab − 3bc − 2ca = 0 then value
value of (a + b + 1) is
of (4a + c)/b is equal to (1) 0 (2) 2
(1) 6 (2) 7 (3) –1 (4) –2
(3) 8 (4) 9
2 +1 2 −1
If a = and b = , then value of a2 + ab
( x + 2) ( x )  0, is
69.
2
− 2x + 1 2 −1 2 +1
62. Complete solution set of + b2 is equal to
−4 + 3x − x 2
(1) 70 (2) 35
(1) x  ( −, −2  1 (3) 40 (4) 34
(2) x  ( −, −2
If a − 2b − 3c = 0 then a3 − 8b3 − 27c3 is equal to
x  ( −, −3  1
70.
(3)
(1) abc (2) 6 abc
(4) x  ( −, −1  2 (3) –18 abc (4) 18 abc

[7]
Integer Type Questions 74. If x is an integer satisfying x2 − 6x + 5  0
71. Number of positive integral solution of
and x 2 − 2 x  0, the number of positive values of
|x2 – 3x| + |6 – 2x| = |x2 – 5x + 6|, is
x, is

72. If x2 − 5 x − 14  0, then sum of all its integral

75. If (x + y)2 = 2(x2 + y2) and (x – y +  )2 = 4,  > 0,
solutions is then  is equal to:

log 2 x log 2 y log 2 z

73. If = = and x3 y 2 z = 1, then find
4 6 3k
the value of |k|.

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