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LONG TERM - UNIT TEST – III (ANSWER KEY) - 18.01.2025

Choose the correct answer : 180 x 4 = 720
1. A lift of mass ‘m’ is connected to rope which L
is maximum in (3)
is moving upward with maximum acceleration D2
‘a’. For maximum safe stress, the elastic limit  L is maximum in (3)
of the rope is T. The maximum diameter of the 3. Young’s modulus for a perfectly rigid body is
rope is
1) 0 2) 1
1/2 1/2
 2m(g  a)   4m(g  a)  3) 5 4) infinity
1)   2)  
 T   T  Ans : 4) infinity
1/2 1/2 Solution :
ga   (g  a) 
3)   4)  m  Conceptual
 T   2T 
1/2 4. The Poisson’s ratio of a material is 0.5. If a
 4m(g  a) 
Ans : 2)   force is applied to a wire of this material, there
 T  is a decrease in the cross-sectional area by 4%.
Solution : The percentage increase in the length is
The maximum tension in rope = m(g + a) 1) 1 % 2) 2 %
m(g  a) 3) 2.5 % 4) 4 %
Stress in the rope =
r 2 Ans : 4) 4 %
m(g  a) Solution :
T
r 2 A = r2
m(g  a)  4m(g  a) 
1/2 A r r r
 T , d 2 -4% = 2 ,  2%
2  A r r r
d  T 
 
2  r 
2. The following four wires are made of the same
 
r
  
L 

 
r
r  (2%)
L L  0.5
material. Which of these will have the largest
L
extension when the same tension is applied?
L
1) Length = 200 cm, diameter = 2 mm = 4%
L
2) Length = 300 cm, diameter = 3 mm
5. A wire of initial length L and radius ‘r’ is
3) Length = 500 cm, diameter = 0.5 mm
stretched by a length l. Another wire of same
4) Length = 100 cm, diameter = 1 mm
material but with initial length 2L and radius
Ans : 3) Length = 500 cm, diameter = 0.5 mm
2r is stretched by a length 2l. The ratio of the
Solution :
stored elastic energy per unit volume in the
4FL L first and second is
L  2
; L  2
D y D 1) 1 : 4 2) 1 : 2
3) 2 : 1 4) 1 : 1
 2
Ans : 4) 1 : 1
Solution :
1 1 2
U  (stress) (strain) = Y  strain 
2 2
‘Y’ is same (given)
2
 L 
U   1 1
 L  1) 2)
2
3 4
 2L 
4 1
U1  2 l  3) 4)
 1 3 2
U 2  L 2
  1
l Ans : 4)
2
6. A wire of length L is hanging from a fixed
Solution :
support. The length changes to L1 and L2 when
masses M1 and M2 are suspended respectively Force
Stress =  S1 = S2 (given)
from its free end. Then L is equal to Area
L1  L 2 T1 T2 T1 A1 0.1 1
1) 2) L1L 2    
2 A1 A 2 T2 A 2 0.2 2
L M  L 2 M1 L1M 2  L 2 M1
3) 1 2 4) 8. The bulk modulus of a spherical object is B. If
M1  M 2 M 2  M1
it is subjected to uniform pressure P, the
L1M 2  L 2 M1
Ans : 4) fractional decrease in radius is
M 2  M1
B 3P
Solution : 1) 2)
3P B
T1L TL
Y  2 P P
AL1 AL 2 3) 4)
3B B
T1 T2 M1g M 2g P
   Ans : 3)
L1  L L2  L L1  L L 2  L 3B
L1M 2  L 2 M1 Solution :
L=
M 2  M1 4 V r
V  r 3  3
7. A light rod of length 2m suspended from the 3 V r
ceiling horizontally by means of two vertical
r 1 V P
wires of equal length. A weight W is hung   B
r 3 V  V 
from a light rod as shown in figure. The rod is  
 V 
hung by means of a steel wire of cross-
sectional area A1 = 0.1 cm2 and brass wire of  
V P r P
  3 
cross-sectional area A2 = 0.2 cm2. To have V B r B
equal stress in both wires, the ratio of tensions, r P
T1  
= r 3B
T2
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9. A parallel plate capacitor is being charged by a Ans : 3) Assertion is correct, but reason is
voltage source whose potential is changing at incorrect
the rate of 8 V/s and the displacement current Solution :
through the plates of the capacitor is 40 A. Conceptual
find the capacitance of the parallel plate 12. An electromagnetic wave transfers
capacitor.
1) energy only
1) 5 F 2) 10 F 2) momentum only
3) 0.2 F 4) 320 F 3) neither momentum nor energy
Ans : 1) 5 F 4) both energy and momentum
Solution : Ans : 4) both energy and momentum
dV Solution :
id  C
dt Conceptual
40  = C x 8 13. The magnetic component of a polarized wave
40 of light in vacuum is
C=  = 5 F
8 Bx = (4.0 x 10-6T) sin ((1.57 x 107m-1) y + t).
10. An electromagnetic wave propagating along The intensity of light is
north has its electric field vector upwards. Its 1) 1.9 kW/m2 2) 3.8 kW/m2
magnetic field vector point towards 3) 5.7 kW/m2 4) 7.6 kW/m2
1) north 2) east Ans : 1) 1.9 kW/m2
3) west 4) downwards Solution :
Ans : 2) east B0 = 4.0 x 10-6 T
Solution : B02c (4.0 x106 ) 2 x (3x108 )
   I =
V E x B 20 2 x 4 x107
 I = 1.9 x 103W/m2 = 1.9 kW/m2
ˆj  kˆ x B
 14. A plane electromagnetic wave propagating in
 B is along î (East)
the x-direction has wavelength of 6.0 mm. The
11. Assertion : Electromagnetic waves are electric field is in the y-direction and its
transverse in nature. maximum magnitude is 33 V/m. The equation
Reason : The electric and magnetic fields of for the electric field as a function of ‘x’ and ‘t’
an electromagnetic wave are parallel to each is (c is speed of light in vacuum)
other.
 x
1) Both assertion and reason are correct and 1) 11 sin   t  
 c
reason is the correct explanation of the
 x
assertion 2) 33 sin  x 1011  t  
2) Both assertion and reason are correct but  c
reason is not the correct explanation of the  x
3) 33 sin   t  
assertion  c
3) Assertion is correct, but reason is incorrect  x
4) 11 sin  x 1011  t  
4) Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct  c
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 x Ans : 1) 1.1 V
Ans : 2) 33 sin  x 1011  t  
 c Solution :
Solution : 12400 12400
E = = 3.1 eV
2c 2x 3 x108  4000
  =  x 1011 rad/s Kmax = E – W = 3.1 – 2 = 1.1 eV
 6 x10 3
 V0 = 1.1 V
 2 
Ey = E0 sin  t  x 18. The magnitude of saturation photoelectric
  
current depends upon
 x
= E0 sin   t   1) frequency 2) intensity
 c 3) work function 4) stopping potential
 x Ans : 2) intensity
Ey = 33 sin  x 1011  t  
 c Solution :
15. Ozone layer in the atmosphere absorbs Conceptual
1) radiowaves 19. Light of two different frequencies whose
2) Infrared waves photons have energies 1 eV and 2.5 eV
3) Ultraviolet rays respectively, successively illuminate a metallic
4) X-rays surface whose work function is 0.5 eV. Ratio
Ans : 3) Ultraviolet rays of maximum speeds of emitted electrons will
Solution : be
Conceptual 1) 1 : 4 2) 1 : 1
16. The amplitude of the magnetic field of a 3) 1 : 5 4) 1 : 2
harmonic electromagnetic wave in vacuum is Ans : 4) 1 : 2
510 nT. What is the amplitude of the electric Solution :
field? v12 E1  W 1  0.5 0.5 1
 = = =
1) 140 N/C 2) 153 N/C 2
v2 E 2  W 2.5  0.5 2 4
3) 163 N/C 4) 133 N/C
v1 1
Ans : 2) 153 N/C 
v2 2
Solution :
20. On a photosensitive material, when frequency
E
C= 0 of incident radiation is increased by 30%,
B0
kinetic energy of emitted photo electrons
E0 = CB0 = (3 x 108) (510 x 10-9) increases from 0.4 eV to 0.9 eV. The work
= 3 x 51 function of the surface is
E0 = 153 N/C 1) 1 eV 2) 1.267 eV
o 3) 1.4 eV 4) 1.8 eV
17. The light of wavelength 4000 A falls on a
photosensitive substance whose work function Ans : 2) 1.267 eV
is 2eV. Its stopping potential is Solution :
1) 1.1 V 2) 1.8 V E1 k1  W
E = hf 
3) 1.26 V 4) 0.8 V E2 k 2  W
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E=k+W Solution :
30 hf1 0.4  W hc
f2 = f1 + f1  Energy E = = mc2
100 hf 2 0.9  W 
13 f1 0.4  W h
f2  f1  Momentum mc =
10 f 2 0.9  W 
23. A 200 W sodium street lamp emits yellow
f1 10 10 0.4  W
  light of wavelength 0.6 m. Assuming it to be
f 2 13 13 0.9  W
25% efficient in converting electrical energy
W = 1.267 eV to light, the number of photons of yellow light
21. When a metallic surface is illuminated with it emits per second is
radiation of wavelength , the stopping 1) 1.5 x 1020 2) 6 x 1018
potential is V. If the same surface is 3) 62 x 1020 4) 3 x 1019
illuminated with radiation of wavelength 2, Ans : 1) 1.5 x 1020
V Solution :
the stopping potential is . The threshold
4
hc (6.6 x1034 ) (3x108 )
wavelength for the metallic surface is E=  = 33 x 10-20 J
 0.6 x106
5
1) 2) 3  25 25
2 P x 200
3) 4 4) 5  N  100  100 20 = 1.5 x 1020
E 33 x10
Ans : 2) 3 
Solution : 24. What is the de-Broglie wavelength associated
with an electron accelerated through a
hc  1 1  potential difference of 900 volts?
vs    
e   0 
1) 0.123 nm 2) 0.0409 nm
hc  1 1  3) 0.345 nm 4) 0.456 nm
v    --- (1)
e   0  Ans : 2) 0.0409 nm
Solution :
v hc  1 1 
    --- (2) 1.227
4 e  2  0   nm
v
1 1
 1.227
(1)  0  nm = 0.0409 nm
 4  0 = 3 900
(2) 1 1
 25. Which of the following has the longest de-
2  0
Broglie wavelength if they are moving with
22. Momentum of a photon of wavelength  is
the same velocity?
h hc 1) neutron
1) 2)
c  2) proton
h 3)  - particle
3) 4) zero

4) -particle
h
Ans : 3) Ans : 4) -particle

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Solution : Solution :
h 1 h m1 2
    
mv m 2mk m2 1
‘m’ is least for  particle ‘k’ is same
  is maximum for  particle. 1  m2 1
  1 
26. The de-Broglie wavelength of an electron m 2 m1 2
c 1 :  2 = 1 : 2
moving with a velocity (c = velocity of light
2
29. A proton accelerated through a potential ‘v’
in vacuum) is equal to the wavelength of a
has de-Broglie wavelength . Then the de-
photon. The ratio of the kinetic energy of
Broglie wavelength of an -particle, when
electron and the energy of photon is accelerated through the same potential ‘v’ is
1) 1 : 4 2) 1 : 2  
3) 1 : 1 4) 2 : 1 1) 2)
2 2
Ans : 1) 1 : 4
 
Solution : 3) 4)
2 2 8
K v c 
 given v = Ans : 3)
E 2c 2 2 2
c Solution :
= 2  K1
2c E 4 h

27. de-Broglie wavelength  associated with 2mqv
neutron is related with its absolute temperature p q m  2 4
 x ;  x 2 2
T as  q p mp  1 1
1
1)   T 2)   
T  =
2 2
1
3)   4)   T2 30. An  - particle and a proton are projected
T
towards a fixed nucleus with same kinetic
1 energy. Find the ratio of their distance of
Ans : 3)  
T closest approach from the nucleus.
Solution : 1) 1 : 2 2) 2 : 1
h 1 3) 1 : 1 4) 1 : 4
  Ans : 2) 2 : 1
3mkT T
Solution :
28. The masses of two particles having same
q (ze)
kinetic energies are in the ratio 2 : 1. Then r
4 0 (KE)
their de-broglie wavelengths are in the ratio.
KE is same rq
1) 2 : 1 2) 1 : 2
r q  2
3) 2:1 4) 1 : 2  
rp q p 1
Ans : 4) 1 : 2
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31. Match column I with column – II for hydrogen 7Rc
Ans : 2)
atom (R is Rydberg constant) 144
Column – I Column - II Solution :
a) Maximum wavelength p) 1  1 1 
f = Rc  2  2 
of Balmer series R  n 2 n1 
b) Minimum wavelength q) 36 1 1  7Rc
= Rc  2  2   f =
of Lyman series 5R 3 4  144
c) Minimum wavelength r) 900 33. When electron jumps from 5th orbit to 2nd orbit
of Brackett series 11R of hydrogen atom, the angular momentum of
electron changes by
d) Maximum wavelength s) 16
h 2h
of Pfund series R 1) 2)
2 2
1) a – q, b – p, c – s, d - r 3h 4h
3) 4)
2) a – p, b – s, c – q, d - r 2 2
3) a – r, b – q, c – s, d - p 3h
Ans : 3)
4) a – p, b – r, c – q, d - s 2
Ans : 1) a – q, b – p, c – s, d - r Solution :
Solution : nh
L
2
n2
 min  5h 2h
R L5 = L2 =
2 2
n 2 (n  1) 2
 max  5h 2h
(2n  1)R Change in angular momentum = 
2 2
1 3h
Lyman series, n = 1, min = =
R 2
36 34. Assertion : Total energy of electron in an
Balmer series, n = 2, max =
5R hydrogen atom is negative.
16 Reason : Electron is bounded to the nucleus.
Brackett series, n = 4, min = 1) Both assertion and reason are correct and
R
reason is the correct explanation of the
900
Pfund series, n = 5, max = assertion
11R 2) Both assertion and reason are correct but
32. If an electron in hydrogen atom jumps from an reason is not the correct explanation of the
orbit n = 4 to an orbit n = 3, the emitted assertion
radiation has a frequency (R = Rydberg 3) Assertion is correct, but reason is incorrect
constant, c = velocity of light) 4) Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct
5Rc 7Rc Ans : 1) Both assertion and reason are correct
1) 2) and reason is the correct explanation of the
36 144
assertion
36 144
3) 4) Solution :
5Rc 7Rc
Conceptual
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35. If the radius of second orbit of hydrogen atom Solution :
is R, then the radius of its fourth orbit is R  A1/3
1) 2 R 2) 8 R 3 3
m1 A1  R1   2  8
3) 4 R 4) 16 R      
m 2 A 2  R 2   3  27
Ans : 3) 4 R
m1v1 = m2v2
Solution :
v1 m 2 27
r  n2  
v 2 m1 8
2
R 2 1
   39. Which of the following quantities for a
R' 4 4
nucleus is independent of its mass number?
R = 4R 1) density 2) volume
36. The energy of a hydrogen atom in the ground 3) mass 4) radius
state is -13.6 eV. The energy of Li+2 ion in the Ans : 1) density
second excited state will be Solution :
1) -27.2 eV 2) -54.4 eV Conceptual
3) -13.6 eV 4) -6.8 eV 40. The mass of a star is decreasing at the rate of
Ans : 3) -13.6 eV 3 x 105 kg/s. The star radiates energy at the
Solution : rate of
z2 1) 27 x 1025 J/s 2) 3 x 1011 J/s
En = -13.6 2 eV 3) 27 x 1021 J/s 4) 36 x 1026 J/s
n
Ans : 3) 27 x 1021 J/s
For Li+2, z = 3
Solution :
Second excited state, n = 3
2
E = mc2
3
E3 = -13.6 x = -13.6 eV E m 2
32  c = 3 x 105 x (3 x 108)2
t t
37. Which of the following spectral series of
= 27 x 1021J/s
hydrogen atom is lying in ultraviolet region of
41. The number of -particles and  - particles
electromagnetic wave?
respectively emitted in the reaction
1) Balmer series 2) Lyman series 200
90 X  180
80 Y
3) Pfund series 4) Brackett series
Ans : 2) Lyman series 1) 5 and 1 2) 10 and 2
3) 5 and 0 4) 10 and 0
Solution :
Ans : 3) 5 and 0
Conceptual
Solution :
38. A nucleus at rest splits into two nuclear parts
A  A ' 200  180
having radii in the ratio 2 : 3. Their velocities N =  =5
4 4
are in the ratio
N = Z - Z + 2N
1) 3 : 2 2) 2 : 3
= 80 – 90 + 2(5) = 0
3) 27 : 8 4) 8 : 27
Ans : 3) 27 : 8
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42. Find the power of a nuclear reactor if 2 x 1015 46. Match column I with column II and choose the
fissions are taking place per second and the correct answer.
energy per fission is 200 MeV.
Column I Column II
1) 16 kW 2) 64 kW
3) 32 kW 4) 24 kW Saccharic
A Glucose/HI,  I
Ans : 2) 64 kW acid
Solution : B Glucose/Br2, H2O II n-Hexane
NE
P= C Glucose/HNO3 III No reaction
t
= (2 x 1015) (200 x 106 x 1.6 x 10-19)J/s Gluconic
D Glucose/NaHSO3,  IV
= 64 x 103W = 64 kW acid
43. Choose the incorrect statement. A B C D
1) When a radioactive nucleus emits an - 1) IV III II I
particle followed by two -particles, its 2) II IV I III
isotope is formed
3) III I II IV
2) When a radioactive nucleus emits a gamma
particle, its isomer is formed 4) II I IV III
3) Nuclear forces are charge independent Ans : 2) II IV I III
4) Nuclear forces are central forces Solution :
Ans : 4) Nuclear forces are central forces
Option (2) is correct match.
Solution :
47. Given below are two statements.
Conceptual
Statement I : Sucrose on hydrolysis gives
17
44. In the nuclear reaction, 8 O 12 H  19
10 Ne  X . laevorotatory fructose is more than
What does ‘X’ stands for? dextrorotatory glucose.
1) electron 2) neutron Statement II : Milk sugar is a reducing sugar
3) neutrino 4) positron because of free aldehyde group may be
Ans : 1) electron
produced at C1 of galactose unit.
Solution :
In the light of the above statements, choose the
17 + 2 = 19 + A
correct answer.
A=0
1) Both statements I and II are correct
8 +1 = 10 + Z
2) Both statements I and II are incorrect
Z = -1
3) Statement I is correct, II is incorrect
 AZ X  0
X = electron
1 4) Statement I is incorrect, II is correct
45. Which one of the following cannot be used as Ans : 2) Both statements I and II are incorrect
a moderator in a nuclear reactor?
Solution :
1) Water 2) Heavy water
Sucrose on hydrolysis gives laevorotatory
3) Molten sodium 4) Graphite
fructose and dextrorotatory glucose.
Ans : 3) Molten sodium
Milk sugar is a reducing sugar because of free
Solution :
Conceptual aldehyde group may be produced at C1 of
glucose unit.
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48. The incorrect statement about “Amylopectin” Ans : 4) Four
is Solution :
1) insoluble in water Arginine, Histidine, Valine, Phenylalanine are
2) constitutes about 80 – 85% of starch
essential amino acids.
3) a long unbranched chain polymer
52. Which of the following is not an example of
4) formed by C1-C4 and C1-C6 glycosidic
fibrous protein?
linkage
Ans : 3) a long unbranched chain polymer a) Keratin b) Albumin
c) Myosin d) Insulin
Solution :
It is a branched chain polymer. 1) a and b 2) b and d
49. The correct statement from the following are 3) b and c 4) c and d
A) α-Glucose and α-Galactose are epimers. Ans : 2) b and d
B) α-Glucose and -Ribose both are reducing Solution :
sugars. Keratin and myosin are common example of
C) α-Glucose and -Glucose are enantiomers fibrous proteins while albumin and insulin are
D) α-Glucose and α-fructose are functional common example of globular proteins.
group isomers. 53. The secondary structure of a protein refers to
Choose the correct answer from the options 1) sequence of amino acids
given below. 2) overall folding of the polypeptide chains
1) A, C and D 2) B, C and D 3) the spatial arrangement of polypeptide
3) A, B and C 4) A, B and D
chains
Ans : 4) A, B and D
4) shape of polypeptide chains
Solution :
Ans : 4) shape of polypeptide chains
α-Glucose and -Glucose are anomer (or)
Solution :
diastereomers because they have different
physical properties. The secondary structure of a protein refers to
(ie. B.P α-glucose = 303K, -glucose = 423 K) shape of polypeptide chains.
50. Which of the following will not show 54. Given below are two statements.
mutarotation? Statement I : During denaturation secondary
1) Maltose 2) Lactose and tertiary structures are destroyed but
3) Starch 4) Fructose primary structure remains intact.
Ans : 3) Starch Statement II : In an tripeptide named alanyl-
Solution : glycyl phenylalanine, the number of sp2
Starch will not show mutarotation because of hybridised carbons is three.
anomeric carbon involving in glycosidic In the light of the above statements, choose the
linkage. correct answer.
51. Total number of essential amino acid(s) 1) Both statements I and II are correct
among the given list of amino acids are
2) Both statements I and II are incorrect
Arginine, Proline, Aspartic acid, Histidine,
3) Statement I is correct, II is incorrect
Cysteine, Valine, Phenylalanine
4) Statement I is incorrect, II is correct
1) Three 2) Five
Ans : 3) Statement I is correct, II is incorrect
3) Six 4) Four
 11
Solution : Ans : 3) almost all the enzymes are fibrous
Alanylglycylphenylalanine proteins
Solution :
Almost all the enzymes are globular proteins.
58. The number of oxygen present in a nucleotide
formed from a base, that is present only in
RNA is
1) Ten 2) Eight
3) Six 4) Nine
No. of sp2 ‘C’ are nine. Ans : 4) Nine
55. Match column I with column II and choose the
Solution :
correct answer.
Nucleotide :
Column I Column II
(Amino acid) (Nature)
A Proline I Basic
B Cysteine II Sulphur contained
C Histidine III 2° amine
D Glycine IV Optically inactive
A B C D
1) IV III II I
The number of oxygens present in above
2) III I II IV
nucleotide is ‘9’.
3) III II I IV
59. Which of the following statement is correct?
4) I II III IV 1) RNA controls the synthesis of proteins
Ans : 3) III II I IV 2) The sugar present in DNA is D(–)–ribose
Solution : 3) RNA has double stranded α-helix structure
Option (1) is correct match. 4) DNA molecule is not capable of self
56. From the vitamin A, B1, B6, B12, C, D, E and duplication during cell division
K, the number of vitamins that can be stored in Ans : 1) RNA controls the synthesis of
our body is proteins
1) five 2) three Solution :
3) four 4) six The sugar present in DNA is
Ans : 1) five D(–)–deoxyribose
Solution : RNA has single stranded α-helix structure
A, B12, K, D, E can be stored in our body. DNA molecule is capable of self duplication
57. The incorrect statement about enzyme is during cell division
1) biocatalyst 60. Which of the following hormone tends to
2) very specific for a particular reaction increase the glucose level in the blood?
3) almost all the enzymes are fibrous proteins 1) Adrenal cortex 2) Progesterone
4) the enzyme that catalyses hydrolysis of 3) Glucagon 4) Estradiol
maltose into glucose is named as maltase Ans : 3) Glucagon
 12
Solution : 1) Both statements I and II are correct
Hormone glucagon tends to increase the 2) Both statements I and II are incorrect
glucagon level in the blood. 3) Statement I is correct, II is incorrect
61. Assertion (A) : Zn, Cd and Hg are not 4) Statement I is incorrect, II is correct
regarded as transition metals. Ans : 3) Statement I is correct, II is incorrect
Reason (R) : The metals which have full d10 Solution :
configuration in their ground state as well as in Mn and Tc metals have anomalous m.p values.
their common oxidation states are called as 64. The pair that has similar atomic radii is
transition metals. 1) Mn and Re 2) Cr and W
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the 3) Ti and Hf 4) Zr and Hf
correct explanation of (A) Ans : 4) Zr and Hf
2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the Solution :
correct explanation of (A) Zr and Hf exhibit similar radii.
3) (A) is true but (R) is false 65. Which of the following statements are correct
4) (A) is false but (R) is true about ionization enthalpies?
Ans : 3) (A) is true but (R) is false A) Second ionization enthalpy of Mn is lower
Solution : than Cr.
Zn, Cd and Hg are not regarded as transition B) The third ionization enthalpy of Fe is
metals. lower than that of Mn.
The metals which have full d10 configuration C) The second ionization enthalpy which
in their ground state as well as in their shows unusually high values for Mn and
common oxidation states are called as non- Zn.
transition metals. D) The third ionization enthalpy which shows
62. The set of metals which are industrially high value for Cu, Ni and Zn.
important and belong to the transition metals Choose the most appropriate from the options
in the following given below.
1) Ag, Cu, Pt 2) Fe, Cu, Ti 1) A, C and D 2) A and B only
3) Ag, Au, Pt 4) Fe, Au, Ti 3) B and C only 4) A, B and D
Ans : 2) Fe, Cu, Ti Ans : 4) A, B and D
Solution : Solution :
a) Industrially important metals are Fe, Cu, Ti The second ionisation enthalpy which shows
b) Precious metals are Ag, Au, Pt unusually high values for Cu and Cr.
63. Given below are two statements. 66. Assertion (A) : Cr(VI) in the form of
Statement I : The transition metals are very dichromate in acidic medium is a strong
hard and have low volatile. oxidizing agent whereas MoO3 and WO3 are
Statement II : Mn and Tc metals have high not.
melting points in their respective series. Reason (R) : Mo(VI) and W(VI) are found to
In the light of the above statements, choose the be less stable than Cr(VI)
correct answer.
 13
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the Choose the correct code (T : True, F : False)
correct explanation of (A) from the options given below.
2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the 1) T F F T 2) F T T F
correct explanation of (A) 3) T F T F 4) F T F T
3) (A) is true but (R) is false Ans : 1) T F F T
4) (A) is false but (R) is true
Solution :
Ans : 3) (A) is true but (R) is false
2Fe+3 + 2I–  2Fe+2 + I2
Solution :
Mo(VI) and W(VI) are found to be more 2Fe+2 + S2O8–2  2Fe+3 + 2SO4–2
stable than Cr(VI) 71. The orange colour of K2Cr2O7 and green
67. Which of the following metal inability to colour of K2MnO4 is due to
liberate H2 from acid is 1) d-d transition in both
1) Mn 2) Cu 2) d-d transition in K2Cr2O7 and charge
3) Zn 4) Cr transfer transition in K2MnO4
Ans : 2) Cu 3) charge transfer transition in both
Solution : 4) d-d transition in K2MnO4 and charge
The unique behaviour of Cu, having a positive
transfer transition in K2Cr2O7
E0.
Ans : 4) d-d transition in K2MnO4 and charge
68. The statement that is incorrect about the
interstitial compound transfer transition in K2Cr2O7
1) they are chemically inert Solution :
2) they are very hard K2Cr2O7 : It has no unpaired e– so colour is
3) they retain metallic conductivity due to charge transfer.
4) they have low melting points K2MnO4 : It has one unpaired e– so colour due
Ans : 4) they have low melting points to d-d transition.
Solution : 72. Match column I with column II and choose the
They have high melting points. correct answer.
69. Arrange the following elements in the
increasing order of spin only magnetic Column I Column II
moment value in it. (Reactant) (Product)
A) Mn+2 B) Fe+2 MnO4– + C2O4–2
C) V+2 D) Cu+2 A H I IO3–
1) A > C > B > D 2) B > A > D > C 
3) A > B > C > D 4) D > C > B > A MnO4– + NO2–
Ans : 3) A > B > C > D B H  II CO2
 
Solution :
s  No. of unpaired electron MnO4– + I–
s : Mn+2 > Fe+2 > V+2 > Cu+2 C Faintly III MnO2

alkaline

70. Iron (III) catalyses the reaction between iodide
and persulphate ions, in which MnO4– + Mn+2
i) Fe+3 oxidises the iodide ion D ZnO IV NO3–
 
ii) Fe+3 oxidises the persulphate ion
iii) Fe+2 reduces the iodide ion V I2
iv) Fe+2 reduces the persulphate ion
 14
A B C D 75. Match column I with column II and choose the
1) IV III II I correct answer.
2) II IV I III Column I Column II
3) III I II IV (Name) (Element/Compound)
4) II IV V III TiCl4 +
A Wacker reagent I
Ans : 2) II IV I III Al(CH3)3
Solution : B Ziegler catalyst II Cu/Ni alloy
Option (2) is correct match. C Haber process III PdCl2
73. Given below are two statements.
D Silver UK coins IV Fe
Statement I : Neither La+3 nor Lu+3 ion shows
any colour but the rest do so. A B C D
Statement II : The lanthanoid ions other than 1) IV III II I
the f0 type (La+3 and Ce+4) and the f14 type 2) IV II I III
(Yb+2 and Lu+3) are all diamagnetic. 3) III I II IV
In the light of the above statements, choose the 4) III I IV II
correct answer.
Ans : 4) III I IV II
1) Both statements I and II are correct
Solution :
2) Both statements I and II are incorrect
Option (4) is correct match.
3) Statement I is correct, II is incorrect
76. Match list – I with list – II
4) Statement I is incorrect, II is correct
List – I List – II
Ans : 3) Statement I is correct, II is incorrect
(Element) (Electronic configuration)
Solution :
A) N I) [Ar]3d104s24p5
The lanthanoid ions other than the f0 type
B) S II) [Ne]3s23p4
(La+3 and Ce+4) and the f14 type Yb+2 and Lu+3
C) Br III) [He]2s22p3
are all paramagnetic.
D) Kr IV) [Ar]3d104s24p6
74. Which one amongst the following are good
Choose the correct answer from the options
oxidizing agents?
given below
i) Eu+2 ii) Ce+4
1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
iii) Tb+4 iv) Sm+2
2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
Choose the correct answer from the option
3) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
given below.
4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
1) Eu+2 only 2) Ce+4 and Tb+4
Ans : 2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
3) Eu+2 and Sm+2 4) Tb+4 only
Solution :
Ans : 2) Ce+4 and Tb+4
N  [He]2s22p3
Solution :
S  [Ne]3s23p4
Ce+4 and Tb+4 are oxidants.
Br  [Ar]3d104s24p5
Eu+2 and Sm+2 are reductants.
Kr  [Ar]3d104s24p6
 15
77. It is observed that characteristic X-ray spectra 1) B, C and D only 2) A, B, C and D
of elements show regularity, when frequency 3) C and D only 4) A, C and D only
to the power ‘n’ ie n of X-rays emitted is Ans : 4) A, C and D only
plotted against atomic number ‘Z’ following Solution :
graph is obtained Nuclear charge depends on number of protons
The value of ‘n’ is so all have different nuclear charge
80. Match list – I with list – II
List – I List – II
(Atomic number) (Block of periodic table)
A) 37 I) p-block
B) 78 II) d-block
1) 1 2) 3 C) 52 III) f-block
1 D) 65 IV) s-block
3) 4) 2
2 Choose the correct answer from the options
1 given below
Ans : 3)
2 1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Solution : 2) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
According to Moseley equation 3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
1 4) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
 = a (Z – b)   = a (Z – b)
2
Ans : 4) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
78. The electron affinity value are negative for Solution :
A) S  S– 37  s-block
B) Cl  Cl–
78  d-block
C) Ne  Ne–
52  p-block
D) O–  O–2
65  f-block
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
81. Outer most electronic configuration of four
options given below
elements A, B, C, D are given below
1) A and B 2) C and D
A) 3s2 B) 3s23p1
3) A and C 4) B and D
C) 3s23p3 D) 3s23p4
Ans : 2) C and D
The correct order of first ionization enthalpy
Solution :
for them is ____
Electron affinity value of C and D are negative
1) A < B < C < D 2) B < A < D < C
(ie., egH = +ve)
3) B < D < A < C 4) B < A < C < D
79. The statement(s) that are correct about the
Ans : 2) B < A < D < C
species O–2, F–, Na+ and Mg+2.
A) All are isoelectronic Solution :
B) All have the same nuclear charge A : 3s2 – Mg
C) O–2 has the largest ionic radii B : 3s23p1 – Al
D) Mg+2 has the smallest ionic radii C : 3s23p3 – P
Choose the most appropriate answer from the D : 3s23p4 – S
option given below  Order iH1 : Al < Mg < S < P
 16
82. The set of elements that differ in diagonal Ans : 3) The atomic number is equal to the
relationship from those of the other sets is number of electrons always
1) B – Si 2) Li – Na Solution :
3) Be – Al 4) Li – Mg
The atomic number is equal to the number of
Ans : 2) Li – Na
protons always
Solution :
86. Considering the elements Al, Mg and K, the
Li – Na belongs to same group but not exhibit
diagonal relationship correct order of their metallic character is
83. Match list – I with list – II 1) K > Al > Mg 2) Mg > Al > K
List – I List – II 3) Al > Mg > K 4) K > Mg > Al
(Oxide) (Nature) Ans : 4) K > Mg > Al
A) Cl2O7 I) Amphoteric Solution :
B) Na2O II) Basic Order of metallic character = K > Mg > Al
C) Al2O3 III) Neutral 87. The most reactive metal from the given table
D) N2O IV) Acidic
is
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below Ionization
egH
1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II Elements enthalpy
2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III (kJ/mole)
iH1 iH2
3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV I 419 3051 –48
Ans : 2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III II 1681 3374 –328
Solution : III 2372 5251 +48
Cl2O7 – Acidic IV 738 1451 –40
Na2O – Basic
1) III 2) IV
2Al2O3 – Amphoteric
N2O – neutral 3) I 4) II
84. If IUPAC name of an element is unununium Ans : 3) I
then the element belongs to nth group of Solution :
periodic table, the value of ‘n’ is ____
I – K, II – F, III – He, IV – Mg
1) 11 2) 18
3) 12 4) 7 88. Assertion (A) : The formula of the compound,
Ans : 1) 11 which might be formed by Al and S would be
Solution : Al2S3.
Group number = 18 – (118 – 111)  11 Reason (R) : ‘Al’ belongs to group ‘13’ with
85. Choose the incorrect statement(s) is/are a valence of three ; ‘S’ belongs to group ‘16’
1) Eka – Aluminium predicted as gallium with a valence of two.
2) Te & I – inverted pair of Mendeleev table 1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
3) The atomic number is equal to the number correct explanation of (A)
of electrons always 2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
4) Mendeleev states that the properties of the correct explanation of (A)
elements are a periodic function of their 3) (A) is true but (R) is false
atomic weight.
4) (A) is false but (R) is true
 17
Ans : 1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is Ans : 4) Metallic nature
the correct explanation of (A) Solution :
Solution : Non-metallic nature increases
The formula of the compound, which might be 90. Given below are two statements
formed by Al and S would be Al2S3. Statement – I : The 4f and 5f-series of
‘Al’ belongs to group ‘13’ with a valence of elements are placed separately in the periodic
three ; ‘S’ belongs to group ‘16’ with a table to reserve the principle of classification.
valence of two. Statement – II : s-block elements can be
found in pure form in nature
4 re In the light of the above statements, choose the
l lic natu
Meta most appropriate answer from the option given
below
89. 3
1) Both statements I and II are correct
2) Both statements I and II are incorrect
Electronegativity
1 3) Statement I is correct, II is incorrect
2
4) Statement I is incorrect, II is correct
[ : represents increasing direction] Ans : 3) Statement I is correct, II is incorrect
Which of the following is incorrect Solution :
representation? s-block elements are highly reactive and found
1) Atomic radius 2) Electronegativity in combined state.
3) Ionization enthalpy 4) Metallic nature

[Test ID : 105]
BOTANY
91. 1) Anton Van Leeuwenhoek 103. 3) Statement – I is correct, statement – II is
92. 2) Schleiden and Schwann incorrect
93. 3) Rudolf Virchow 104. 4) A, B, C, D and E
94. 1) II IV I III 105. 3) A and C
95. 3) Long and narrow 106. 3) 1972
96. 3) Escherichia coli 107. 2) Both A and R are correct and R is not the
97. 4) 70 S ribosome correct explanation of A
98. 4) All of the above 108. 3) III I IV II
99. 2) Fimbriae – Desiccation 109. 3) A is true but R is false
100. 4) All of these 110. 1) Proteins synthesized by ribosomes on ER
101. 2)
are modified on the surface of golgi
Inulin granules
apparatus
102. 1) Both A and R are correct and R is the
111. 1) Both statement I and II are correct
correct explanation of A
 18
112. 1) Both A and R correct and R is correct 124. 2) The karyokinesis is not followed by
explanation of A cytokinesis
113. 1) Both A and R correct and R is correct 125. 3) It disturbs the ratio between the nucleus and
explanation of A the cytoplasm
114. 1) Both statement I and II are correct 126. 4) They are always formed by reductional
115. 2) RNA synthesis occurs only during one division.
specific stage in the cell cycle. 127. 4) All of the above.
116. 4) Three 128. 2) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
117. 4) Meristems – Root tips and shoot tip 129. 3) Anaphase II
118. 3) G0 phase 130. 1) Interkinesis – Appearance of tetrads
119. 4) All of these 131. 4) A, B, C and D
120. 3) iv iii i ii 132. 3) They exhibit metabolism
121. 1) Prophase 133. 3) Paramoecium
122. 2) Metaphase 134. 2) Flemming
123. 1) Chromatids move to opposite poles 135. 3) Chloroplast

ZOOLOGY
136. 1) A - i, iv, B - ii, C - iii 149. 1) 25,000
137. 4) All smooth muscles are voluntary 150. 1) gout
138. 1) sarcomere, muscle fibre 151. 2) The neural coordination is fast and long
139. 4) 2 halves of ‘I’ band + 1 ‘A’ band lived
140. 1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 152. 3) A - iii, B - iv, C - ii, D - i
explanation of A 153. 4) 4
141. 154. 1) Both Statement I and II are correct
155. 3) Progesterone
2) Mitochondria are Mitochondria are
156. 1) A - ii, B - i, C - iii, D - iv
less more
157. 1) 4
142. 1) motor end plate
158. 1) ADH
143. 1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
159. 2) TCT and PTH are antagonistic protein
explanation of A
hormones of same endocrine gland
144. 2) A - i, B - ii, C - iv, D - iii
160. 1) A – Second messenger, B – Receptor,
145. 1) Both Statement I and II are correct C – Biochemical responses
146. 1) 3 161. 1) Thyroxine
147. 3) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is 162. 1) Both Statement I and II are correct
correct 163. 3) Threat to indigenous cat fishes in our rivers
148. 4) both 2 and 3 is due to illegal introduction of cichlid fishes
 19
164. 1) Steller’s sea cow 174. 4) Speciation
165. 2) A - ii, B - iii, C - i, D – iv 175. 3) 34
166. 1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 176. 1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A explanation of A
167. 1) Both Statement I and II are correct 177. 3) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv
168. 3) Khasi and Jaintia hills 178. 2) Both A and R are true and R is not the
169. 1) Both Statement I and II are correct correct explanation of A
170. 1) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - v, E - iv 179. 4) a, b, c and d
171. 2) B 180. 3) c and d
172. 4) Wild life safari parks
173. 2) The Earth Summit