PMF IAS

LEARN SMART

Comprehensive
Test Series For UPSC
CSE Prelims 2025

courses.pmfias.com
 PMF IAS Test Series for UPSC CSE Prelims 2025 – Comprehensive
Test 04

Questions only

1) With reference to Sorghum (Jowar), consider the following statements:

1. Sorghum is grown both as kharif as well as a rabi crop.
2. The Government of India provides minimum support price for Sorghum.
3. It can be used as a biofuel crop to produce Bioethanol.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None of the above

2) Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR)-Central Mechanical Engineering

Research launched Electric Tiller in May, 2025. What is/are the advantage
/advantages of the usage of electric tillers in Indian Agriculture Sector?
1. It will help reduce operational costs of small and marginal farmers by up to 85%.
2. It produces zero exhaust emissions supporting India's commitment to net-zero emissions and eco-
friendly farming.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

3) Which of the following best describes the ‘Paira cropping system’ widely practiced
in Eastern India?
a) A technique for enhancing water retention in dryland agriculture.
b) A method of sowing seeds directly into the standing rice crop before harvesting.
c) A system for optimizing irrigation efficiency in paddy fields.
d) A strategy for improving soil fertility through crop rotation.

4) Consider the following statements regarding agri-food system emissions in India:

 1. More than 50% of emissions from agri-food systems are from the farm gate, with livestock's enteric
fermentation as the largest contributor.
2. Emissions from rice production account for 4% of the total due to India's significant rice production
volume.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

5) The US Federal Reserve lowered its benchmark rate last year in response to rising
inflation. In the context of this action, consider the following statements:
1. It can lead to higher foreign investment in Indian markets.
2. Indian rupee might see an appreciation in its value related to US Dollar.
3. Indian exporters will see an increase in income.

Which of the statements given above are the likely outcomes of this action?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

6) With reference to the India Employment Report 2024, consider the following
statements:
1. The India Employment Report 2024 is developed by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme
Implementation.
2. Non-farm employment increased, and agricultural employment declined between 2000 and 2019.
3. The unemployment rate experienced a significant increase between 2019 and 2023.
4. Youth employment witnessed a decline during the period from 2017–18 to 2022–23.

How many of the statements given above are not correct?

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

7) With reference to ‘Insurance Sector’ in India, consider the following statements:

1. Statement-I: A person older than 65 years is eligible to buy health insurance policy in India.
 2. Statement-II: Including older person will enhance the market penetration for insurance products,
while also providing protection against healthcare expenses to all demographics.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for
Statement-I
c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

8) The ‘Big Mac Index,’ recently in the news, is related to which of the following?
a) Measuring economic inequality
b) Assessing currency valuation
c) Analysing global food supply chains
d) Tracking inflation rates

9) Consider the following pairs:

Five Year Plan Aim
1. Second Plan Rapid industrialization
2. Third Plan Make India a 'self-reliant' and 'self-generating' economy
3. Fifth Plan Growth with Social Justice & Equality

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?

a) 2 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

10) Maximum Residue Limit (MRL) refers to the highest legally permissible level of
a pesticide in food or animal feed. Consider the following statements regarding
MRLs:
1. The MRLs are fixed based on field trial data conducted by the Central Insecticides Board and
Registration Committee (CIBRC).
2. The CIBRC functions under the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change.
3. The CIBRC sets an upper limit on pesticide residues to ensure food safety.

How many of the statements given above are not correct?

 a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None of the above

11) Consider the following statements:

1. Statement-I: The Ministry of Labour made it mandatory for all states and union territories to take
measures safeguarding workers from the ongoing heatwave.
2. Statement-ll: More than 70% of the global workforce is exposed to escalating temperatures and
extreme heat conditions.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I.
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for
Statement-I.
c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.
d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.

12) With reference to the economy, consider the following activities:

1. A farmer pledging gold to secure funds for agricultural inputs
2. A real estate brokerage firm assisting homebuyers
3. A Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) providing loans to individuals
4. The government raising funds through bond issuance
5. A pension company managing a pension fund

How many of the above activities are part of the financial sector in the economy?
a) Only two
b) Only three
c) Only four
d) All five

13) With reference to public finance and taxation, consider the following state-
ments:
1. Windfall tax is a one-time levy imposed retrospectively, in addition to regular tax rates.
2. Pigovian tax is charged on businesses or individuals for activities that result in environmental pollu-
tion.
3. Securities Transaction Tax does not apply to off-market transactions, commodities, or currency trades.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

14) How many of the following are the main objectives of government's fiscal pol-
icy?
1. Economic Growth
2. Maintaining high level of employment
3. Control inflation
4. Regulate interest payments

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

15) Consider the following financial institutions:

1. Small Finance Banks
2. Local Area Banks
3. Land Development Banks

How many of the above are allowed by the Reserve Bank of India to participate in the Call/Notice
Money market as both lenders and borrowers?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

16) Which of the following best describes the term "Monetization of Deficit"?
a) The process of the government borrowing directly from the public through market borrowings to
finance its deficit.
b) The practice of the government issuing bonds to the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), which prints currency
in exchange, creating a debt on the government.
c) Financing the fiscal deficit by selling government securities in the secondary market.
d) Raising funds for deficit financing through foreign loans and grants.
17) With reference to monetary policy in India, consider the following measures:
1. Reducing the Repo Rate
2. Increasing the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)
3. Lowering the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)
4. Selling government securities through Open Market Operations (OMO)

How many of the above measures are implemented by the Reserve Bank of India as part of a hawkish
monetary policy?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

18) Consider the following statements regarding taxation in India:

1. All indirect taxes are regressive in nature.
2. Excise duty is imposed on manufactured goods and is levied when goods are sold to consumers.
3. Customs duty is imposed on both the export and import of goods.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

19) In economic terms, a liquidity trap refers to a scenario where:

a) Depreciation of the domestic currency raises the external debt burden on the government and
businesses.
b) Expansionary monetary policy proves ineffective in boosting investments and economic growth.
c) High inflation levels prevent people from saving money.
d) Excessive government borrowing results in private sector displacement from the debt market.

20) With reference to India’s border, consider the following pairs:

Border Country
1. Johnson’s Line China
2. McMohan Line Bangladesh
3. Radcliff Line Pakistan

How many of the pairs are correct?

 a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None of the above

21) With reference to United Nations Peacekeeping Operations, consider the

following countries in ascending order of their contribution to troop and police
deployments in 2024:
1. India
2. Indonesia
3. Bangladesh
4. Rwanda
5. Nepal

Which of the following is the correct ascending order of their contributions?

a) 2, 1, 3, 4, 5
b) 1, 2, 3, 5, 4
c) 2, 3, 4, 1, 5
d) 2, 1, 4, 3, 5

22) With reference to New Development Bank, consider the following statements:
1. New Development Bank was created by ASEAN countries in 2015.
2. It finances infrastructure and sustainable development projects in ASEAN and other emerging
economies and developing countries
3. Board of Directors is the highest decision-making body of the Bank.
4. All members of the United Nations could become the members of the bank.

How many of the statements given above are not correct?

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

23) Consider the following statements about the United Nations Human Rights
Council (UNHRC):
1. The Human Rights Council is an intergovernmental body within the United Nations system
responsible for promoting and protecting human rights globally.
 2. The Council is composed of 47 Member States, each serving a term of five years, with elections taking
place every three years.
3. The Human Rights Council meets at the United Nations Office in New York.
4. The Council benefits from technical and secretariat support from the United Nations High
Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2 and 4 only

24) Consider the following statements regarding “Chandra X-Observatory”?

1. It is an ISRO project supported by Compton Gamma Ray Observatory.
2. It is the world's most powerful X-ray telescope.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

25) What is meant by a "Halo orbit"?

a) A type of orbit that allows a spacecraft to remain fixed over a specific point on Earth’s surface.
b) A stable orbit around a point of gravitational equilibrium, where the gravitational forces of two large
bodies create a region of stability.
c) An orbit satellites use to avoid space debris by constantly changing altitude.
d) A temporary orbit that exists only during solar eclipses.

26) Consider the following statements regarding “Chandipura virus”:

1. It is a virus borne disease which gets transmitted to humans and other vertebrates.
2. It is transmitted by sandflies or mosquitoes.
3. There is no direct person-to-person spread.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
 d) None of the above

27) Consider the following pairs:

Malware Description
1. Adware Programs that replicate and spread across a network independently.
2. Botnets Displays unwanted advertisements on a user’s computer, often in the form of
pop-up ads.
3. Worm Networks of infected computers controlled remotely by a single entity.

How many of the pairs are not correct?

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None of the above

28) Which of the following best describes the relationship between the king and the
influential brahmanas in Koshala and Magadha?
a) The king relied entirely on brahmanas for revenue administration.
b) The king granted the revenue of villages to brahmanas and setthis, but they did not have administra-
tive authority
c) The king gave political power to brahmanas in his administration
d) The brahmanas were the primary rulers of the state

29) Which of the following officials played a key role in the administration of Ko-
shala and Magadha, performing duties such as ministers, military commanders,
judges, accountants, and heads of the royal harem?
a) Rajgurus
b) Brahmapuraks
c) Mahamatras
d) Graminis

30) With reference to the recently discovered Harappan-era settlement, Morodharo,

which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Morodharo is located near the village of Lodrani, Gujarat.
2. The settlement thrived during the early Harappan phase.
3. A large quantity of Harappan pottery, similar to those found in Dholavira, was discovered at the site.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

 a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

31) Consider the following statements about the Megalithic culture in India:
1. The megalithic people believed in the afterlife and constructed elaborate tombs furnished with es-
sential objects.
2. Tank irrigation, introduced by the megalithic people, revolutionized agriculture in South India.
3. Iron objects have been found universally in all the megalithic sites.

How many of the statements given above are not correct?

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

32) Which one of the following statements is incorrect regarding the Bhakti
movement?
a) The concept of Bhakti, although present, was not a dominant theme in the early Vedic period.
b) The emphasis on a personal deity emerged as a response to the growing influence of Buddhism.
c) During the Gupta period, in favour of jnana and dharma, Bhakti was disregarded as a legitimate path
to salvation.
d) Both Nayanars and Alvars disregarded the austerities preached by the Jains and the Buddhists.

33) Consider the following statements regarding the social life in India during the
Sultanate period:
1. Zawabits were regulations made by Sultan himself to supplement the Muslim laws.
2. Brahmins were not allowed to practise agriculture except in times of distress.
3. Jizya was a tax in lieu of military service, and was paid on a graduated scale according to means.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

34) Consider the following pairs:

 Place in medieval India Modern State
1. Khasa Mizoram
2. Lata Madhya Pradesh
3. Vengi Andhra Pradesh
4. Malwa Uttar Pradesh

How many of the pairs are correct?

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

35) When the state acquires the property held by a minority educational institution,
the latter has:
a) No guaranteed right of compensation.
b) The fundamental right to get compensated.
c) The restricted legal right of moving by an ordinary suit.
d) The natural right to continue functioning.

36) Consider the following Acts:

1. The Wildlife Protection (Amendment) Act, 2022
2. The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955
3. The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967

How many of the above Acts can ensure effective implementation of Fundamental Duties enshrined in
Part IV-A of the Constitution of India?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None of the above

37) With reference to Directive Principles of State Policies (DPSPs), consider the
following statements:
1. From a governance perspective, DPSPs are positive and affirmative in nature.
2. These principles seek to create a socialist society, as stated in the Constitution's Preamble and to
eventually make India a welfare state.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

38) With reference to a direct democracy, consider the following pairs:

Device Purpose
1. Initiative Voters can remove a representative before the expiry of their term when the latter
fails to discharge their duties effectively.
2. Plebiscite Method of obtaining people’s opinion on any issue of public importance.
3. Recall A proposed legislation is referred to the electorate for its settlement through direct
votes.

How many of the above pairs are correct?

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

39) Consider the following statements with respect to the election of the President
of India:
1. The value of the votes of the electors from state assemblies is calculated based on the population of
their respective states ascertained by the 1971 Census.
2. Higher the number of seats in the legislative assembly, lower the value of the vote of an elector from
the concerned state assembly.
3. The constitutional provisions related to the method of election of Indian President has been borrowed
from Irish constitution.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

40) Consider the following recognitions/designations:

1. Holders of Bharat Ratna decoration
2. Governors of States within their respective States
3. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
 4. Judges of the Supreme Court

Arrange them in accordance with their rank in the table of precedence of republic of India, starting
from the topmost rank:
a) 2-3-1-4
b) 4-2-3-1
c) 2-3-4-1
d) 4-2-1-3

41) Consider the following statements:

1. Statement-I: The power to make laws with respect to a residuary subject is vested in the Indian
Parliament.
2. Statement-II: Indian Constitution follows a three-fold enumeration of legislative powers in line with
the US constitution.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I.
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for
Statement-I.
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

42) With reference to the proclamation of President’s Rule in India, consider the
following statements:
1. The President can dissolve a state legislative assembly only after the proclamation has been approved
by the Parliament.
2. If the Supreme Court holds such proclamation as invalid, it has the power to restore both the
dismissed government and the dissolved legislative body in that State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

43) Consider the following statements:

 1. The 42nd Amendment to the Constitution of India provided that the total strength of the council of
ministers including the Prime Minister shall not exceed 15 percent of the total strength of the Lok
Sabha.
2. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India made the President bound by the advice tendered
by the council of ministers after its reconsideration on the President’s request.
3. The President of India enjoys the constitutional discretion to dismiss the council of ministers when it
cannot prove that it has the confidence of the Lok Sabha.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

44) Consider the following statements:

1. Statement-I: The Cabinet Mission proposed a united India, encompassing both British India and the
Princely states.
2. Statement-II: Both the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League advocated before the
mission, for a federal union of India with representation based on population.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for State-
ment-I.
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for
Statement-I.
c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.
d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.

45) With reference to the pardoning powers outlined in Article 72 for the Indian
President and Article 161 for the Governors of states, consider the following
statements:
1. It empowers the President to sit as a court of appeal and grant pardons to persons who have been
tried and convicted for offending a union law.
2. As per the Indian Constitution, Governor of a State cannot suspend or commute a death sentence
unlike the President of India.
3. The President can pardon sentences inflicted by a court martial while the Governor cannot.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

a) Only one
 b) Only two
c) All three
d) None of the above

46) The ‘Dinesh Goswami Committee’, ‘Tarkunde Committee’ and ‘Tankha

Committee’ are primarily associated with:
a) Electoral reforms in India
b) Tax reforms in India
c) Centre-State relationship
d) Panchayati Raj Institutions

47) With reference to the provisions related to the Right to Freedom of Religion
guaranteed by the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:
1. States can levy a fee on pilgrims to provide them with special services but no such fee can be extracted
from religious endowments for meeting the regulation expenditure.
2. No religious instruction can be provided in an educational institution recognised by the state or
receiving aid from the state.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

48) With reference to the office of the Attorney General (AG) of India, consider the
following statements:
1. It is obligatory on the part of the Attorney General to represent the Government of India in any
reference made by the President to the Supreme Court under Article 143 of the Constitution.
2. The Attorney General has the right of audience in all courts in the territory of India, in the performance
of his/her official duties.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

49) Consider the following statements:

 1. The Third Schedule of the Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the
states and union territories.
2. Out of the nine union territories, only three (Delhi, Puducherry, and Jammu & Kashmir) have
representation in the Rajya Sabha.
3. The members of the Lok Sabha from the union territories are indirectly elected by an electoral college.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

50) Consider the following statements regarding devices of parliamentary

proceedings:
1. A starred question requires a written answer, and hence, supplementary questions cannot follow.
2. The question hour is an informal device available to the members of the Parliament to raise matters
without any prior notice.
3. A short notice question is one that is asked by giving a notice of less than ten days.
4. The zero hour starts immediately after the question hour and lasts until the agenda for the day is
taken up.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1 and 4 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 3 and 4 only

51) Consider the following parliamentary committees:

1. Business Advisory Committee
2. Committee on Private Members’ Bills and Resolutions
3. Rules Committee
4. General Purposes Committee

In how many of the above committees is the Speaker of the Lok Sabha the chairman in the same house?
a) Only two
b) Only three
c) All four
d) None of the above
52) Consider the following statements:
1. Statement I: The provision relating to the reservation of seats in panchayats for the Scheduled Castes
is not applicable to the State of Arunachal Pradesh.
2. Statement II: Arunachal Pradesh is fully inhabited by indigenous tribal people, and there are no
Scheduled Castes in the State.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I.
b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I.
c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

53) Which one of the following statements is incorrect regarding the National
Human Rights Commission (NHRC)?
a) The NHRC was constituted under the Protection of Human Rights Act (PHRA), 1993.
b) The Chairperson of NHRC must be a former Chief Justice of India or a Supreme Court judge.
c) The NHRC has its own investigation agency to probe human rights violations.
d) The appointment of its members is made by the President based on the recommendations of a six-
member committee.

54) Consider the following statements regarding no-confidence motion:

1. A no-confidence motion can be moved against an individual minister, a group of ministers, or the
entire council of ministers.
2. The motion requires the support of at least 50 members to be admitted in the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

55) Consider the following informations:

Wars associated Treaties Governor General
1. First Anglo-Sikh War Treaty of Amritsar Lord Hardinge I
2. Second Anglo- Maratha War Treaty of Bassein Richard Wellesley
3. Third Anglo-Mysore War Treaty of Seringapatam Lord Cornwallis
4. Second Anglo-Afghan War Treaty of Gandamak Lord Ripon
In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
a) Only two
b) Only three
c) All four
d) None

56) Consider the following statements regarding the Pagal Panthi Movement:
1. It is considered as the first armed peasant uprising against the British.
2. The movement was led by Karim Shah and his son Titu Mir.
3. The followers of Karim Shah, comprised of both Muslim and Hindu peasants were known as Bhai-
Sahebs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 3 only

57) Consider the following statements regarding the Quit India Movement:
1. The Quit India Resolution drafted by Gandhi was passed at the All-India Congress Committee (AICC)
meeting in Wardha.
2. Chasi Mulia Raj was established in Talcher as part of the movement, demonstrating the widespread
resistance against British rule.
3. C. Rajagopalachari did urge the Congress to support the war effort and consequently did not partic-
ipated in the Quit India Movement.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 3 only

58) The term 'Bandanna' refers to:

a) Warehouse where goods are collected before being sold.
b) Specialist block printers used by weavers.
c) A printed scarf worn around the neck or head.
d) An officer responsible for overseeing slaves.
59) Match the following processes and concepts with their correct descriptions re-
lated to adaptation and evolution:
Processes/Con- Descriptions
cepts
1. Adaptation a. The mechanism that happens to make the organism better suitable to the present
environment.

2. Adaptive Radi- b. A process where organisms diversify from a common ancestor into many new forms
ation due to environmental challenges or new niches.
3. Speciation c. The formation of new species as a result of evolutionary processes.
4. Evolution d. The change in the appearance, behavior, or structure of an organism that helps it
survive in a particular environment.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1-d, 2-b, 3-c, 4-a
b) 1-a, 2-d, 3-b, 4-c
c) 1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d
d) 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a

60) Consider the following industries:

1. Mining industry
2. Coal-fired power plants
3. Copper smelting industry
4. Waste incineration plants

How many of the above industries are likely to release mercury (Hg)?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

61) Consider the following statements regarding Per-and Polyfluoroalkyl

Substances (PFAS):
1. PFAS are known as 'forever chemicals' because they do not break down easily in the environment.
2. PFAS are used in a wide range of industries, including aerospace, automotive and firefighting.
3. Chronic exposure to PFAS has been linked to various health issues, including developmental effects
in children and increased risk of certain cancers.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

 a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

62) Consider the following statements:

1. Biodiversity hotspots are characterized by high species richness and a high degree of endemism.
2. To qualify as a hotspot, one of the criterions is a region must have lost at least 70% of its original
habitat.
3. The Hope Spot Network is an initiative specifically focused on terrestrial biodiversity hotspots.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 2 and 3 only

63) Consider the following statements:

1. Statement I: Tea bags are emerging as a source of microplastic pollution.
2. Statement II: Some tea bags are made with synthetic fibres that release microplastics when steeped
in hot water.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I.
b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, but Statement II does not explain Statement I.
c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.

64) With reference to the doctrines of Anekantavada and Syadvada, which of the
following statements is/are correct?
1. Anekantavada emphasizes that truth and reality are complex and have multiple aspects.
2. Anekantavada promotes the idea of pluralism in understanding truth.
3. Syadvada holds that judgments are conditional and only valid in certain circumstances or senses.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
65) What change occurred in the use of stupas with the emergence of the Mahayana
sect?
a) Stupas were no longer associated with the Buddha.
b) Stupas began to only contain urns.
c) Stupas transitioned from being non-iconic to iconic, with image worship.
d) Stupas were no longer built by donations.

66) Consider the following statements about Pattachitra art:

1. Statement-I: Pattachitra paintings are primarily created for ritual use and as souvenirs for pilgrims
visiting temples in Odisha and West Bengal.
2. Statement-II: Pattachitra paintings are known for their realistic style and use of synthetic colors in
their execution.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for State-
ment-I
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for
Statement-I
c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

67) Consider the following pairs:

Style Description Places
1. Vaisakhi New Year symbolizing balance between day and night. Punjab, Haryana, Chandi-
garh
2. Vishu Harvest festival marking the start of the new agricultural Kerala, Karnataka, Tamil
year. Nadu
3. Ugadi New Year marked by rituals and special foods. Telugu and Kannada re-
gions

How many of the pairs are not correct?

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None of the above

68) Consider the following statements regarding the "Zero Shadow" phenomenon:
 1. Statement-I: This phenomenon can only occur for locations situated between the Tropic of Cancer
and the Tropic of Capricorn.
2. Statement-II: The Zero Shadow phenomenon occurs when the Sun’s rays fall perpendicular to the
surface, causing the shadow to appear directly beneath an object.
3. Statement-III: Zero Shadow occurs once a year at all places within the Tropics.

Which one of the following is correct in respect to the above statements?

a) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I.
b) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct but only one of them explains Statement-I.
c) Only one of the Statements-II and III is correct and that explains Statement-I.
d) Neither Statement-II nor Statement-III is correct.

69) Arrange the following plateaus in East to West direction:

1. Chota Nagpur Plateau
2. Mewar Plateau
3. Bagelkhand Plateau
4. Bundelkhand Plateau

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 4-1-3-2
b) 1-4-2-3
c) 1-4-3-2
d) 1-3-4-2

70) With reference to Kallakkadal, consider the following statements:

1. Statement-I: Kallakkadal refers to coastal flooding that occur without precursors or local wind activity.
2. Statement-II: Ocean swells responsible for Kallakkadal are generated by distant storms, such as
hurricanes or prolonged gale winds.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I.
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for
Statement-I.
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

71) Consider the following pairs:

 Tributary River Main River
1. Arunavati Narmada
2. Banjar Tapi
3. Ong Barak
4. Arkavati Kaveri

How many of the pairs are correct?

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

72) Barabandi system refers to which among the following?

a) A population control technique used in rural agricultural areas.
b) A technique used for equitable distribution of mineral resources in mining areas.
c) A traditional method of distributing irrigation water based on a fixed turn system.
d) A weather detection technique used to predict agricultural water requirements.

73) Consider the following information about coalfields:

Coalfield Location Type of Coal
1. Korba Coalfield Chattisgarh Gondwana
2. Makum Coalfield Mizoram Tertiary
3. Raniganj Coalfield West Bengal Anthracite

In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

74) Consider the following pairs:

Structure Description
1. Sunspots Cooler due to convection inhibition
2. Photosphere Bright outer layer of Sun
3. Corona Magnetic field concentration
4. Chromosphere Thin burning gas layer

How many of the pairs are correct?

 a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

75) With reference to stages of a river and their features, consider the following
pairs:
Stage Features
1. Youth Steep-sided V-shaped valleys and rapids
2. Maturity Formation of braided channels
3. Old age Formation of deltas and river islands

How many of the pairs are not correct?

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None of the above

76) Consider the following statements about the Pacific Ring of Fire:
1. It is a horseshoe-shaped zone around the Atlantic Ocean, containing hundreds of volcanoes and
earthquake sites.
2. Over 90% of the world’s earthquakes occur in this region due to the convergence of multiple tectonic
plates.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

77) With reference to the Mediterranean climate, consider the following statements:
1. Regions with Mediterranean climate can be seen on the western margins of the continents.
2. Rainfall in winter can be experienced in regions with a Mediterranean climate.
3. The shifting of the subtropical high-pressure belt towards the north is the reason for the dry climate
in summer in regions with Mediterranean climate.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

a) Only one
 b) Only two
c) All three
d) None of the above

78) Consider the following statements:

1. Statement-I: The Arctic Circle is located 66.5 degrees north of the Equator.
2. Statement-II: Arctic Circle is the region where the polar easterlies and westerlies combine and rise,
causing a low-pressure system.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I.
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for
Statement-I.
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

79) Consider the following countries:

1. Egypt
2. Eritrea
3. Ethiopia
4. South Sudan
5. Chad
6. Libya

Which of the above countries share a border with Sudan?

a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
b) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
c) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
d) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only

80) Which of the following statements is/are correct about the ‘Ayushman Bharat
Health Accounts’ (ABHA):
1. Any Indian citizen can enroll in Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) to generate a Health ID or
ABHA, free of cost.
2. Enroller will be provided with 12-digit Unique Health Identification number.
3. ABHA helps to allocate and disburse of funds for healthcare services availed by beneficiaries.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

 a) 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only

81) Recently, anti-dumping duty is imposed upon the import of Sodium Cyanide
from China, the European Union, Japan, and Korea. In context of this, consider the
following statements:
1. Anti-dumping is a tariff imposed on imported goods to offset subsidies provided by the exporting
country's government.
2. The Ministry of Commerce impose anti-dumping duties on the recommendation of Directorate
General of Trade Remedies.
3. Sodium Cyanide is a yellow crystalline solid which is used as a test reagent for chemoreceptors.

How many of the statements given above are not correct?

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

82) Which of the following statements correctly describes the Barnase-Barstar

system used in the genetic engineering of crops?
a) The Barnase gene induces male sterility in plants, while the Barstar gene confers resistance to
herbicides like Glyphosate.
b) The Barnase gene enhances plant growth by producing a growth hormone, and the Barstar gene
helps reduce plant disease susceptibility.
c) The Barnase gene controls male sterility and the Barstar gene restores the plant's ability to produce
fertile hybrid seeds.
d) The Bar gene enables plants to survive extreme drought conditions, while the Barnase gene promotes
flowering in plants.

83) Consider the following statements regarding “Grey zone warfare”?

1. Grey-zone warfare involves military actions below a certain threshold to avoid immediate response.
2. The benefits of grey-zone actions are immediately apparent and lead to quick success.
3. Aggressors in grey-zone warfare often justify their actions using legal and political arguments, and
their claims have international legal standing.

How many of the statements given above are not correct?

 a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None of the above

84) With respect to INS Kadamba, consider the following statements:

1. It is named after the Kadamba Dynasty, the first Kannada royal dynasty, it traces its roots back to
Banavasi in Uttara Kannada district.
2. It is a Naval Base situated on the Western Coast of India in Karwar, Karnataka.

Which of the above given statements is/are not correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

85) Which of the following statements correctly defines the act of doxxing?
a) It refers to the act of sharing publicly available content, such as videos or photos, without any
malicious intent.
b) It involves revealing a person's private information, like home addresses and phone numbers, online,
often through illegal means such as hacking.
c) It is a process of verifying someone's identity online by publicly sharing their credentials.
d) It involves sharing only medical information to raise awareness about health issues.

86) Consider the following products:

1. Senkanthal Seed
2. Bhavani Jamakkalam
3. Tirunelveli Senna Leaf
4. East India Leather
5. Sathyamangalam Red Banana
6. Toda Embroidery

How many of the above given famous products have got GI Tag from Tamil Nadu?
a) Only 3
b) Only 4
c) Only 5
d) All 6
87) Which of the following areas are included in “BioE3 policy?”
a) Economy, Environment and Employment
b) Education, Energy, and Ethics
c) Environment, Engineering, and Economy
d) Exploration, Ecology, and Economy

88) In meteorology, what does the term 'wet bulb temperature' represent, and how
is it significant in the context of atmospheric conditions?
a) The highest possible temperature that can be achieved by evaporating water into the air under given
environmental conditions.
b) The lowest temperature that can be reached through the process of evaporative cooling at a constant
atmospheric pressure, offering insights into humidity levels.
c) The temperature at which water transitions to vapor under standard atmospheric pressure, commonly
referred to as the boiling point.
d) The temperature difference measured between the wet bulb and dry bulb thermometers in a
psychrometer, which helps determine the relative humidity of the air.

89) The World Meteorological Organization released the ‘Climate in Asia 2023’
report. Consider the following statements regarding the key findings of the report:
1. The Asian continent emerged as the most disaster-prone region in the world in 2023.
2. The rate of temperature rise across Asia is accelerating at a significant pace.
3. The rise in temperature across western and northern India has been the most pronounced in the
country.
4. Global ocean temperatures have risen, and this trend is observed in Asia as well, with the Northwest
Pacific Ocean being the worst affected.

How many of the statements above given are not correct?

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

90) Which of the following best defines the term ‘Sinking Fund’, frequently seen in
the news?
a) A fund created by an organization to cover land acquisition costs and settle tax liabilities.
b) A fund established by an economic entity to accumulate revenue over time for financing a future
capital expenditure.
 c) A mutual fund that primarily invests in assets from developing and low-income countries.
d) A government-owned investment fund that allocates capital into real and financial assets like stocks,
bonds, and real estate.

91) Amid escalating tensions in the South China Sea, the USA formed a new strategic
alliance dubbed the “Squad.” In this context, consider the following nations:
1. United States
2. Japan
3. Australia
4. Philippines
5. Indonesia

Which of the above nations are part of the “Squad” grouping?

a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

92) Which one of the following statements best describes the Schengen Area, often
mentioned in the news?
a) It is an agreement allowing European Union countries to trade freely without any customs duties.
b) It is a region within the European Union where countries have abolished internal border controls for
easier travel between them.
c) It is a defence pact between European countries aimed at countering security threats from
neighbouring regions.
d) It is a region where European Union member states share a common currency and economic policies.

93) Consider the following species:

1. Domestic Cats
2. Indian Bull Frog
3. Gambusia Fish

How many of the above are classified as invasive species?

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None of the above
94) Consider the following species:
1. Koala
2. Orangutan
3. Lion-tailed macaque
4. Polar bear

How many of the above are primarily social animals?

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

95) Which of the following protected areas is well known for the conservation of the
critically endangered Jerdon’s Courser?
a) Kolleru Lake Wildlife Sanctuary
b) Rann of Kutch Wildlife Sanctuary
c) Panna Tiger Reserve
d) Sri Lankamalleswara Wildlife Sanctuary

96) Consider the following statements about the Red Squirrel (Sciurus vulgaris):
1. The red squirrel primarily resides in boreal, coniferous woods in northern Europe and Siberia.
2. The red squirrel's diet mainly consists of bird eggs, nestlings, and other animal-based food.
3. The red squirrel has the ability to swim.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None of the above

97) Consider the following pairs:

Region/Refugee Camp Country
1. Kutupalong Refugee Camp Bangladesh
2. Dadaab Region Kenya
3. Zaatari Refugee Camp Jordan
4. Baqaa Refugee Camp Syria

How many of the pairs are correct?

 a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

98) Consider the following pairs:

Region often mentioned in the news Location
1. Oromia Ethiopia
2. Biafra Region Nigeria
3. The Liptako-Gourma region Central Sahel area
4. Cabo Delgado Region Mozambique

How many of the pairs are correct?

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

99) Which of the following best describes the Casamance region, often mentioned
in the news?
a) A region in the Horn of Africa, home to several conflict zones
b) A region in southern Senegal, known for its ongoing separatist movement
c) A coastal region in northern Morocco, famous for tourism
d) A desert region in southern Algeria, known for its oil reserves

100) Which of the following best describes the objectives of the Harihar scheme?
a) Providing free food and shelter to the homeless in urban areas.
b) Offering free education, skill development, and financial assistance up to age 25.
c) Implementing a nationwide health insurance program for underprivileged children.
d) Offering a loan scheme for the educational advancement of students from rural areas.
Must-Have Books for UPSC CSE Aspirants

Get it on Amazon

35,000 Copies of First Edition & 46,000 Copies of Second Edition Sold!
 PMF IAS Test Series
For UPSC CSE Prelims 2025
60 Tests (54 GS + 6 CSAT) 54
GS
60 6
CSAT
100 MCQs in Each of the Tests Tests
60 x 100 = 6,000 MCQs in Total
20 Sectional (Subject-wise) Tests
8 Advanced (Subject-wise) Tests
16 PMF IAS Current Affairs Tests
10 Comprehensive Final Tests
6 Civil Services Aptitude Tests
Meticulous Plan and Schedule
Detailed Solutions PDF Files
Leaderboard and Analysis
Doubt-Solving on Telegram Group

PMF IAS Current Affairs A-Z

For UPSC CSE Prelims & Mains 2025
Current Affairs, Infographics, Prelims and Mains
Questions, Prelims and Mains Short Compilations

ENROLL NOW

courses.pmfias.com [email protected] +91 8310367514