US SIMULATOR 2 (1ST JUNE)

Que. 1 River Talek of Kenya was recently in news due to:

1) eutrophication and algal bloom
2) floods in Maasai Mara nature reserve
3) discovery of the largest snake species of green python
4) water sharing treaty with neighboring country

Que. 2 With regards to the modern history of India, George Forster, Alexander Burnes, William
Moorcroft, CJC Davidson are best known as:
1) Foreign travelers writing about India
2) Surveyor generals of India
3) British editors of vernacular newspapers
4) Commanding officers of Sepoy Mutiny 1857

Que. 3 Democracy by definition must not include

1. The final decision-making power must rest with those elected by the people.
2. Free and fair election.
3. Each adult citizen must have one vote and each vote must have one value.
4. The elected government in a democracy is not limited by any authority or rule

Que. 4 Consider the following pairs of ports:

Port --> Country
Jabel Ali --> UAE
Messina --> Italy
Aqaba --> Israel
Eilat --> Jordan
How many pairs are correctly matched ?
1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Que. 5 In the following questions, there are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and other
is labelled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The courts are barred from enquiring into the advice rendered by the ministers to the
Governor.
Reason (R) : There is no provision in the Indian Constitution for the system of legal responsibility of the
ministers in the States.
In the context of the above two statements which of the following is correct?

1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is correct explanation of Assertion (A)
 2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not correct explanation of Assertion
(A)
3. Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false
4. Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true

Que. 6 The concept of fraternity mentioned in the Preamble to the Indian constitution assures

1. the basic philosophy of the constitution.

2. the absence of special privileges to any sections of the society.
3. the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the nation.
4. the equal treatments of all citizens.

Que. 7 Consider the following:

1. SAARC
2. BIMSTEC
3. Indian Ocean Rim Association
4. Commonwealth
Bangladesh and India are common members of which of the above Groups?

1. 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. 1, 2 and 4 only
3. 1, 2 and 3 only
4. 2, 3 and 4 only

Que. 8 Consider the following statements:

1. Uniform Civil Code is mentioned in the non-justiciable part of the Indian Constitution.

2. Uniform Civil Code entails to formulate personal laws of citizens applying equally regardless of their
state.

Which one of the following is correct with respect to above?

1. Both statements are correct and statement 2 is the correct explanation for statement 1

2. Both statements are correct and statement 2 is not the correct explanation for statement 1

3. Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect

4. Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct

Que. 9 Consider the following statements with regard to the right to privacy:
1. The right to privacy is absolute but not sacrosanct.
2. In the K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017) case Supreme Court declared the right to
privacy as a fundamental right.
3. The right to privacy is protected under Article 21 of the Indian constitution.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Que. 10 "No tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of law". Which of the following is
correct about this statement?

1. It has been evolved out of various judicial precedent.

2. It is mentioned in the fundamental duties.
3. It is a constitutional right.
4. It is a fundamental right mentioned under article 27.

Que. 11 Which among the following features of the Indian constitution indicates that it is federal in
character:
1. Flexible Constitution
2. All- India services
3. Supremacy of the constitution
4. Bicameral legislature
5. Integrated Judiciary
6. Seventh Schedule
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1, 3, 5 and 6 only
2. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
3. 3, 4 and 6 only
4. 1, 3 and 5 only
Que. 12 With reference to India, consider the following statements :
1. When an Indian citizen voluntarily acquires citizenship of another country his Indian
citizenship automatically terminates.
2. Any citizen of India of full age and capacity can make a declaration renouncing his or her
Indian citizenship.
3. The Indian citizenship is terminated when the citizen has been ordinarily resident out of India
for more than five years continuously.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Que. 13 With reference to New Development Bank (NDB) consider the following statements:
1. The Bank’s membership is limited to developing countries.
2. NDB aims to mobilize resources for infrastructure and sustainable development projects in
BRICS countries and other emerging economies and developing countries.
3. The Bank is headquartered in South Africa.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 2 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Que. 14 Which of the following countries is not a member of the Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-
Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC)?
1. Nepal
2. Sri Lanka
3. Maldives
4. Thailand
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 3 and 4 only
Que. 15 Consider the following statements with respect to the Indian Ocean Rim Association:
1. Both India and Pakistan are members of IORA.
2. IORA’s apex body is the Council of Foreign Ministers which meets annually.
3. All sovereign States of the Indian Ocean Rim are eligible for membership in the Association.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Que. 16 Consider the following Pairs with respect to Writs issued by the Judiciary in India:
Writ Meaning
1. Habeas Corpus To present the person
2. Mandamus To Command
3. Prohibition To be certified
4. Quo Warranto By what Authority
5. Certiorari To forbid
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

1. Only two pairs

2. Only three pairs
3. Only four pairs
4. All five pairs

Que. 17 'Extended Fund Facility' relates to the lending provisions by which one of the following?

1. World Bank
2. International Monetary Fund
3. Asian Development Bank
4. International Fund for Agricultural Development

Que. 18 Consider following statements

1. The people have the power to elect their leaders.
2. People rule themselves by participating in the making of these rules.
3. Minority rule is one of the main features of a Democracy.
How many of the above-mentioned statements are features of democratic government?

1. Only one
 2. Only two
3. Only three
4. None

Que. 19 Consider the following animals :

1. Mountain Gorilla
2. Jaguar
3. Green Anaconda
How many of the above are found in Tropical Rainforest?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Que. 20 Consider the following statements:

1. Reduction in the rate of metabolism of marine organisms
2. Increased rate of decomposition of organic matter.
3. Development of anaerobic conditions in water bodies.
How many of the above are the commonly known effect/effects of temperature increase due to thermal
pollution?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Que. 21 Consider the following statements about Takahe:

1. It is a small non-venomous snake which is generally found in the Western Ghats.
2. It recently became extinct due to habitat loss.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2
Que. 22 Which of the following statements best defines Aerosol Radiative Forcing (ARF)?

1. It is the net change in the energy balance of the earth system due to disturbances by anthropogenic
aerosols.
2. It is the change in atmospheric circulation of winds and jet streams due to uneven heating of the
atmosphere.
3. It is the modification in monsoon rainfall pattern due to increased presence of aerosols in the earth's
atmosphere.
4. It is the net change in the amount of aerosols in the atmosphere due to urban heat island effect.

Que. 23 Which among the following is/are geoengineering methods to mitigate climate change?
1. Ocean fertilization
2. Stratospheric aerosol injection
3. Shooting mirrors into space
4. Cirrus cloud thinning
5. Ground-based albedo modification
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. 1, 3 and 5 only
2. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
3. 3, 4 and 5 only
4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Que. 24 Which of the following pollutants may be released into the environment during the event of a
Forest Fire?
1. Methane
2. Ozone
3. Benzene
4. Nitrogen Dioxide
5. Sulfur Dioxide
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. 1, 2 and 5
3. 3, 4 and 5
4. 1, 3, 4 and 5
Que. 25 Why is there a great concern about the 'nurdles' that are released into environment?

1. They are considered harmful to groundwater.

2. They are considered to cause neurogenerative diseases.
3. They are small enough to be absorbed by crop plants in irrigated fields.
4. They are considered harmful to the oceans.

Que. 26 "Clean Development Mechanism", "Joint Implementation Mechanism" and "Emission Trading
Mechanism" are associated with which of the following international Protocol?

1. Bretton Woods Conference

2. Montreal Protocol
3. Kyoto Protocol
4. Nagoya Protocol

Que. 27 Consider the following pairs:

Protected Area River flowing

1. Melghat Tiger reserve Tapi River
2. Dehing Patkai Wildlife Sanctuary Manas River
3. Sharavathi Wildlife Sanctuary Cauvery River
4. Nagarhole National Park Kabini River

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1, 2 and 4
4. 1 and 4 only

Que. 28 Consider the following pairs:

International
Subject
Convention
1. Vienna Convention Ozone layer Protection
Sustainable Land
2. UNCCD
Management
3. Ramsar Convention Conservation of wetlands
Pesticides and Industrial
4. Basel Convention
Chemicals
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
 1. Only one pair
2. Only two pairs
3. Only three pairs
4. All four pairs

Que. 29 Consider the following statements:

1. Blackbuck is found only in the Indian subcontinent.
2. Lion-tailed macaques are naturally found in India only.
3. Pygmy hog is naturally found in India only.
How many of the above statements are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Que. 30 With reference to the mandate of the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA), consider the
following statements:
1. It provides advice to Central and State Governments on issues of conservation, sustainable use, and
access and benefit-sharing of biological resources.
2. Its permission is required for carrying out research in biological resources in India by an Indian
national.
3. NBA's approval is required before seeking any Intellectual Property Rights based on biological
materialand associated knowledge obtained from India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Que. 31 With reference to Peninsular India, consider the following statements:

1. Dodabetta is the highest peak of the Peninsular Plateau located on the Western Ghats.
2. The Karbi-Anglong plateau is an extension of the peninsular plateau.
3. Peninsular rivers are characterized by fixed course, defined meanders, and perennial flow of
water.
4. It is mostly composed of igneous and metamorphic rocks.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
 2. Only two
3. Only three
4. None

Que. 32 The river rises from beyond Indian borders on the Southern slopes of the Kailash mountain near
Mansarovar lake. It is the largest among the five rivers of Himachal Pradesh. It is the longest of the
five tributaries of the Indus River. It flows almost parallel to the Indus for about 400km before entering
India and comes out of a gorge at Rupar.
Which of the following river is being described in the above passage?

1. Chenab
2. Beas
3. Ravi
4. Sutlej

Que. 33 With reference to India, Luhri, Lakhwar-Vyasi and Pandoh are the names of

1. Hills
2. Rivers
3. Dams
4. Lakes

Que. 34 Consider the following pairs:

S. No. Wetland/Lake Location
1. Suchindram Theroor Tamil Nadu
2. Yashwant Sagar Andhra Pradesh
3. Hygam Jammu and Kashmir
4. Shallbugh Himachal Pradesh
How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

1. Only one pair

2. Only two pairs
3. Only three pairs
4. All four pairs

Que. 35 Consider the following statements:

1. India has become the largest producer of sugar.
2. Karnataka is the largest producer of coconut in India.
3. India has also become the second largest exporter of sugar after Brazil.
 4. The highest amount of millet is produced by Rajasthan.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Que. 36 Consider the following Minerals:

1. Manganese
2. Nickel
3. Chromite
4. Dolomite
5. Bauxite
6. Mica
How many of the above minerals are metallic?

1. Only two
2. Only three
3. Only four
4. Only Five

Que. 37 Consider the following statements regarding mineral resources.

1. The South-Western Plateau Region of India is rich in ferrous metals and bauxite.
2. Ferrous minerals, provide a strong base for the development of metallurgical industries.
3. The North-Eastern Plateau Region of India have not as diversified mineral deposits as the
south-western belt.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Que. 38 Consider the following statements:

Consider the following statements:
1. World Migration Report is released by IOM (International Organization for Migration)
2. According to the report, India is the only country to receive annual remittances more than $100bn in
2022
3. Inward remittances make up more than 5% of India's GDP
How many statements given above are correct?
 1) Only one
2) Only two
3) All three
4) None

Que. 39
Consider the following:
1. Proximity of the jute-producing areas
2. Inexpensive water transport
3. Availability of economical labor
4. Abundant water for processing raw jute
How many of the above are responsible factors for the location of the Jute industry in the Hugli basin?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Que. 40 Consider the following species:

1. Smooth-coated Otter
2. Golden Mahseer
3. Hoolock Gibbons
How many of the species mentioned above are naturally found in India?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Que. 41 Consider the following statements:

1. The concept of Rain Water Harvesting involves high-end expensive technology.
2. Under the National Water Mission (NWM) campaign “Catch The Rain” has been initiated to
promote Rain Water Harvesting.
3. ‘Khadins’ and ‘Johads’ are indigenous rainwater storage systems.
4. In the flood plains of Bengal, people developed inundation channels to irrigate their fields.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 4 only
2. 1, 3 and 4 only
3. 2 and 4 only
4. 2, 3 and 4 only
Que. 42 The concept of Circular Economy relates to
1. Design of product for durability, reuse and recyclability
2. The interplay of the forces of demand and supply
3. Fully control of the money supply within the country.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1 and 2 only

Que. 43 Consider the following statements:

1. Hard Currency is the international currency in which the highest faith is shown and is needed
by
every economy.
2. Hard Currency is the currency that is easily available in any economy in its Forex market.
3. Heated Currency is a term used in the forex market to denote the domestic currency which is
under enough pressure/heat of depreciation.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Que. 44 Consider the following:

1. Treasury bills
2. Paid-up Capital and Reserve Fund
3. Ways and means advances
4. Currency Notes in circulation
How many of the above are included in the assets of the Reserve Bank of India?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four
Que. 45 Consider the following statements:
1. Velocity of money is a measurement of the rate at which money is exchanged in an economy.
2. If GDP remains constant, an increase in the money supply would result in an increase in the
velocity of money.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Que. 46 Increasing the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) by the Reserve Bank of India, may lead to an increase
in which of the following?
1. Increase in the number of loans disbursed by the banks.
2. Higher Interest earning on CRR by the banks.
3. Increase in lending rates by the banks.

How many of the above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. None

Que. 47 Consider the following statements regarding Certificate of Deposits (CDs):

1. It is a money market instrument issued by a bank against funds deposited
at the bank for a maturity period of up to one year.
2. Only Scheduled Commercial Banks can issue CDs.

3. CDs may be issued to all person who are residents in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1 and 2 only
Que. 48 Securities Transaction Tax, a type of financial transaction tax in India, is levied on transactions
of which of the following?
1. Commodity trading
2. Gold exchange-traded funds
3. Equity derivatives
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Que. 49 Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Current Account of Balance of
Payment?

1. It represents the trade in goods, services and assets between residents of a country with the rest of
the world for a specified time.
2. The receipts from the exports of goods, services, investment income, and unilateral transfers are
shown as negative items or credit in the current account.
3. The payments made for the import of goods, services, investment income sent abroad and unilateral
payments are shown as positive items
4. Net Invisibles include services, transfers and flows of income that take place between different
countries.

Que. 50 Consider the following:

1. Reduction in public expenditure and public borrowing.
2. Increasing taxes on private businesses
3. Increasing interest rates in the economy.
How many of the above are the fiscal policy measures taken by the government to control inflation?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Que. 51 Consider the following statements:

1. Casualisation of the workforce is a process in which employment shifts from full-time and
permanent positions to contract positions.
2. Casual workers are defined as those who work for others in farm or non-farm Enterprises and are
paid wages that are daily or periodic in nature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Que. 52 Which of the following statements is/are correct with reference to the Nominal Effective
Exchange Rate (NEER)?
1. It is the weighted average of a country's currency value relative to other major currencies adjusted
for the effects of inflation.
2. In economics, the NEER is an indicator of a country’s international competitiveness in terms of the
foreign exchange (forex) market.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Que. 53 Which of the following consists of securities and other financial assets passively held by foreign
investors, which does not provide the investor with direct ownership of financial assets and is
relatively liquid depending on the volatility of the market?

1. Foreign Direct Investment (FDI)

2. Participatory Note (P-Note)
3. Foreign portfolio investment (FPI)
4. Certificate of Deposits (CDs)

Que. 54 Direction: The following item consists of two statements, statement 1 and statement 2. Examine
these two statements carefully and select the correct answer from the code given below.
Statement 1:
The agricultural growth rate in India is small even after proper planning and huge investments.
Statement 2:
There has been no decline in the volatility of agricultural growth in India.

1. Both the statements are individually true and Statement 2 is the correct explanation of Statement 1.
2. Both the statements are individually true but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of Statement
1.
3. Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
4. Statement 1 is false but Statement 2 is true.
Que. 55 With reference to the Financial Stability Board (FSB), consider the following statements:
1. FSB was mandated for developing and implementing strong regulatory policies in the interest
of financial stability.
2. It was established under the aegis of G20.
3. India is not an active member of the FSB.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Que. 56 Which of the following correctly describes 'Compulsory Licensing', often seen in the news?

1. Mandatory licensing requirements before performing clinical trials.

2. Set of mandatory permissions for a pharmaceutical company to extract drugs from the endangered
species of plants.
3. Special approval by the government to allow someone else to produce a patented product without
the consent of the patent owner.
4. Set of approvals required by a country for the use of defense establishments of a foreign country.

Que. 57 Countries of Indonesia, Senegal, North Macedonia, Bangladesh have which of the following
things in common?
1) Going to polls in 2024
2) Facing heavy floods
3) Lying in the tropical zone
4) Have medium HDI value

Que. 58 If the earth stops moving around the Sun, what will happen?

1. The duration of the day and night will remain same

2. Same climatic condition will prevail along the latitudes all over the year
3. The number of grasslands and forests will expand in areas
4. The axial plane of the earth shows a change in its shape

Que. 59 Hydrogen is the most abundant element in the universe. However, the abundance of hydrogen in
the earth's atmosphere is very less. This is because

1. Earth's gravitational field is too big to hold so light an element.

2. Earth's gravitational field is too small to hold so light an element.
 3. Hydrogen does not contain neutron.
4. Hydrogen reactivity is very high.

Que. 60 Consider the following pairs:

River Flows into
1 Nile Mediterranean Sea
2 Chang Jiang (Yangtze) Bay of Bengal
3 Lena Arctic Ocean
4 Niger Gulf of Guinea
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Que. 61 Consider the following countries:

1. Saudi Arabia
2. Syria
3. Lebanon
4. Iraq
5. Egypt
How many of the above countries share a border with Jordan?

1. Only two
2. Only three
3. Only four
4. All five

Que. 62 Consider the following statements.

1. Vertical heating of the atmosphere is known as Advection.
2. The transfer of heat through the horizontal movement of air is called convection.
3. A long winter night with clear skies and still air is an ideal situation for an inversion of
temperature.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
 4. None

Que. 63 Consider the following events in the freedom movement of India:

1. Alipore Conspiracy case
2. Komagata Maru incident
3. Establishment of Ramosi Peasant force
What is the correct chronological order of the above events, starting from the earliest time?

1. 1-2-3
2. 3-1-2
3. 3-2-1
4. 1-3-2

Que. 64 British East India Company traded in which of the following commodities?
1. Saltpetre
2. Cotton
3. Salt
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Que. 65 Which one of the following was not the main proposal of Cripps Mission?

1. Abolition of diarchy and the setting up of representative governments in the provinces.

2. After the end of the war, a constituent assembly would be convened to frame a new constitution.
3. During war, defence of India would remain in British hands and the governor-general’s powers
would remain intact.
4. An Indian Union with a dominion status would be set up.

Que. 66 With reference to the Government of India Act, 1919 which among the following statements is
not correct?

1. It introduced a bicameral legislature in the Indian Legislative Council.

2. It introduced direct elections to the legislature for the first time in the country.
3. It introduced dyarchy at the centre and the subjects in the federal list were divided into reserved and
transferred subjects.
 4. In 1927 Simon Commission was sent to India to prepare a report of working of GoI Act, 1919.

Que. 67 Who among the following was not a contributor to the Commonwealth of India Bill?

1. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

2. Annie Besant
3. Tej Bahadur Sapru
4. V.S. Srinivas Shastri

Que. 68 Consider the following pairs regarding tribal rebellions during British India:
Tribal Rebellion Region
Rampa Rebellion Vishakhapatnam
Ramosi Uprising Satara
Santhal Rebellion Rajmahal Hills
Chuar Rebellion Midnapore
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Que. 69 Consider the following statements.

1. The central purpose of the Ain-i-Akbari was to present a vision of Akbar’s
empire where social harmony was provided by a strong ruling class.
2. Ain-i-Akbari was authored by Akbar’s court historian Abu’l Fazl.

Which among the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2
Que. 70 Which of the following statements is not correct about Amir Khusrow?

1. Amir Khusrow was a Sufi mystic and a spiritual disciple of Nizamuddin Auliya.
2. His primary language to write poems was Persian but he composed almost half a million verses in
Persian, Turkish, Arabic, Braj Bhasha, Hindavi as well as the Khadi Boli.
3. He is regarded as the “father of qawwali”.
4. He was the court poet of Mohammed Bin Tughalaq.

Que. 71 Consider the following statement regarding the Paramara dynasty.

1. The Parmars established themselves as the rulers of Malwa in central India in the 9th CE
century.
2. Bhopal was the capital of the Paramara dynasty.
3. Paramara dynasty spread their area in the south till the Tapti River. Which of the following
statement given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2, and 3

Que. 72 In the context of medieval Indian history, what is the meaning of the term ‘Khokhar‘?

1. Land revenue policies for the conquered lands.

2. Plundered war booty collected after the raids on Indian rulers.
3. A particular tribe living in the area near modern Punjab.
4. Type of foreign literature brought by the Ghaznavids.

Que. 73 Building ‘Kalyana Mandapas' and 'Raya Gopuram’ was a notable feature in the temple
construction in the kingdom of:

1. Hoyasala
2. Chalukya
3. Vijayanagara
4. Rashtrakutas

Que. 74 Of the second Sangam, it is the only surviving work. It is a work on Tamil grammar but it also
provides information on the political and socio-economic conditions of the Sangam period.
Which
work is being described in the above-given paragraph?
1. Ettutogai
2. Tolkappiyam
 3. Pathinenkilkanakku
4. Silappathikaram

Que. 75 Which among the following schools of religious philosophy did emerge out of the Shramana
tradition?
1. Jainism
2. Mimamsa
3. Ajivikas
4. Charvaka
5. Buddhism
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2, 3 and 5 only
3. 1, 3, 4, and 5 only
4. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5

Que. 76 With reference to Ashoka’s Dhamma policy, consider the following statements:
1. Ashoka’s response to warfare and the tragedy of Kalinga was the inspiration for the
formulation
of the concept of dhamma.
2. It includes this understanding but expands it to mean general goodwill and beneficence to all
as “right behavior” which promotes peace and understanding.
3. Ashoka’s policy of dharma has often been equated with his conversion to Buddhism.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Que. 77
Consider the following:
1. Yakshini at Didarganj.
2. Lion Capital at Sarnath.
3. Seated Buddha at Sarnath.
4. Caves in Barabar Hills.
How many of the above belong to Mauryan Art & Architecture?

1. Only one
 2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Que. 78 Consider the following statements regarding the Vesara Style of Architecture:
1. It is the epitome of temple architecture in Central India.
2. The plan of these temples looks like a star and is thus known as a stellate plan.
3. Gopurams must be present however compound walls may or may not be present.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Que. 79 Consider the following pairs:

S.No Literature Author
1. Akbarnama Ibn Batuta
2. Iqbalnamah-i-Jahangir Jahangir
3. Padshahnama Abdul Hamid Lahori
4. Tuzuk-i-Jahangiri Mutamid Khan
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Que. 80 Consider the following statements regarding White Phosphorus:

1. White phosphorus is a chemical waxy solid substance typically appearing yellowish or
colorless,
and some have described its odour as resembling garlic.
2. Once ignited, white phosphorus is very difficult to extinguish.
3. The smoke from burning phosphorus is also harmful to the eyes and respiratory tract due to
the presence of phosphoric acids and phosphine.
Which of the above statements is/are correct here?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
 3. 1 and 2 only
4. 1,2 and 3

Que. 81 Squawk call' often seen in news, is associated with which of the following?
1) emergency call by aircrafts
2) communication by migratory birds for correct direction
3) communication by a ship to arrive at a port
4) voice produced by various species to show danger

Que. 82 Recently, the Oslo Accords was seen in news. It is related to

1. Extraction of oil in Arctic region

2. A pair of agreements between Israel and the Palestine Liberation Organization (PLO) to achieve
peace.
3. Ukraine - Russia Peace Process Forum
4. Agreement on Svalbard Global Seed Vault

Que. 83 Regarding the Social Stock Exchange (SSE), consider the following statements:
1. It operates under the control and supervision of the Securities and Exchange Board of India
(SEBI).
2. It helps in bridging the gap between social enterprises and voluntary organizations that seek to
achieve social impact alongside their investment returns.
3. It blends the concepts of investment and social welfare, making investments meaningful
beyond monetary gains.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Que. 84 Consider the following statements regarding Somnath temple:

1. Somnath temple is the holy place of Shree Somnath Mahadev which is the first Adi Jyotirling.
2. It was first raided and destroyed by Muhammed Ghori during the reign of Bhima I.
3. Modern Somnath Temple was inaugurated by Sardar Patel in 1951.
Which of the following is/are correct?
1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None
Que. 85 Recently the term "Bharat" with respect to India was in the news, Consider the following
statements :
1. The name "Bharat" is derived from the Sanskrit word "Bharata," which is
associated with the legendary emperor Bharata.
2. Bharat is mentioned in the Article 1 of the Indian Constitution.

3. The name "Bharat" is mentioned in Rigveda.

How many of the above statements are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Que. 86
Consider following places
1. Dachigam National Park
2. Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary
3. Rajparian Wildlife Sanctuary
4. Manas National Park
Of the above-mentioned locations, how many are the most likely places to find Hangul in its natural
habitat?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Que. 87 Consider the following statements regarding end-to-end (E2E) encryption:

1. E2E encryption ensures that data is encrypted at multiple points during transmission,
providing
an additional layer of security.
2. E2E encryption is primarily beneficial for government surveillance activities, enabling
seamless access to user communications.
Which of the statements is/are not correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2
Que. 88 Consider the following statements:
1. Stem cells can differentiate into specialized cell types.
2. Induced pluripotent stem cells (iPSCs) can be generated from any cell type and used in
regenerative medicine.
3. Embryonic stem cells are derived from adult tissues.

How many of the statements given above are correct ?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All Three
4. None

Que. 89 The word ‘pink phenomenon’ is sometimes mentioned in news in reference to

1. It is associated with a geological change occurred due to climate change in Indian subcontinent
2. It is associated with invasive alien plant species which is affecting biodiversity.
3. It is associated with Increased temperature of Earth due to increased concentration of carbon
dioxide in the atmosphere.
4. It is associated with one of the major crop diseases.

Que. 90 Given the advancements in the Internet of Things (IoT) technology, it can potentially perform
which of the following tasks?
1. Remotely control appliances at home via a mobile device
2. Improve traffic management and reduce congestion
3. Enable real-time inventory tracking in warehouses
4. Produce clean power through efficient energy distribution

5. Provide complex medicinal diagnoses virtually

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1, 2, and 3 only
2. 1, 3, and 4 only
3. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
4. 1, 2, 3, and 5 only
Que. 91 Adaptation Gap Report 2023 is published by which of the following organizations?

1. Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC)

2. United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
3. World Meteorological Organization (WMO)
4. Greenpeace

Que. 92 Consider the following statements about foreign exchange reserves (FER):

1. The main elements of forex reserves of India include foreign currencies, special drawing rights,

gold, reserve position in IMF

2. One of the reasons for having higher forex reserves is having higher FDI

3. India holds the largest forex reserves in the world

4. India's monthly stock of forex reserves has been continuously increasing after 2014

How many statements given above are correct?

1) Only one

2) Only two

3) Only three

4) None

Que. 93 Darfur region recently seen in news is located in

1. Western Sudan
2. Eastern Mali
3. Southern Chad
4. Northern Cameroon

Que. 94 Consider the following statements:

1. The Gestation period for the cheetah is generally 93 days.
2. Cheetahs in the wild have an average age span of 10 - 12 years.
3. Cub Mortality is higher in protected areas than in non-protected areas.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1, 2 and 3
4. 3 only
Que. 95 Consider the following statements about the Global Financing Pact (GFP):
1. The Global Financing Pact (GFP) aims to address global development challenges and
promote
sustainable development in a post-pandemic world.
2. The GFP is guided by principles such as inclusiveness, accountability, transparency, and
collaboration among countries and stakeholders.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 Only
2. 2 Only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Que. 96 Consider the following statements about DD Kisan:

1. Doordarshan Kisan is the only TV channel by the Government of India, dedicated to farmers
2. It also strengthens the concept of animal husbandry and plantation
3. DD Kisan is going to launch two AI anchors - AI Krish and AI Bhoomi, which can read news
24x7
4. Presently, the AI anchors can speak in any language possible

How many statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. None

Que. 97 In the context of the advancements in Astrophysics, the term 'Lagrangian points', sometimes
seen in the news, refers to

1. A mechanism depicting star formation in galaxies.

2. The points in the orbital configuration of two large celestial bodies where a small object affected
only by gravity can remain stationary relative to the two larger bodies.
3. The points denoting the edges of a black hole's event horizon.
4. The process describing the expansion of the universe.

Que. 98 Which one of the following statements best describes about eSIM ?

1. Gaining access to network services with eSIM involves inserting an electronic chip into the phone's
SIM card slot.
2. eSIMs permit usage across different service providers without necessitating the switch of physical
cards.
3. eSIM technology is incompatible with IoT devices and smartwatches.
4. An eSIM never allows the adoption of different carrier profiles.
Que. 99 Consider the following about the Kyasanur Forest Disease:
1. Kyasanur Forest Disease is a tick-borne viral illness endemic to the Western Ghats.
2. It is a serious and potentially fatal viral infection that affects both humans and animals.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Que. 100 Consider the following entities:

1. Russia
2. Ukraine
3. Turkey
4. World Food Organisation
5. India
6. The US
How many of the above entities are involved in Black Sea Grain Initiative?

1. Only three
2. Only Four
3. Only Five
4. All six

END OF PAPER