1.1.

1 Liquid Penetrant Testing Level 2 (PT-2) General Examination

1.A common application of an aluminium block containing quench cracks is to:

a.Determine penetrant test sensitivity

b.Compare performance of penetrant materials or processes
c.Determine effects of mechanical cleaning methods on penetrant test results
d.Determine effectiveness of cleaning techniques

2.Which of the following is not (!) an advantage of a water washable fluorescent

penetrant process?
a.Excess penetrant is easily removed with a water wash
b.It is well suited to testing large quantities of small parts
c.It is readily removed from shallow discontinuities
d.It has low cost, low processing time compared to the post emulsified
penetrant process
3.When using a water washable penetrant testing process, why should the water rinse
temperature remain constant?
a.To avoid changes in rinse efficiency
b.To maintain the temperature of the part
c.To avoid over washing
d.To avoid under washing
4.What is the proper technique for removal of excess penetrant from a part when using a water
washable penetrant process?
a.Fine spray normal to the surface
b.Coarse spray normal to the surface
c.Fine spray at 45 degrees to the surface
d.Coarse spray at 45 degrees to the surface

5.Which type of developer would you use to obtain the highest sensitivity test results?
a.Dry
b.Non-aqueous wet
c.Aqueous wet
d.Lipophilic
6.What type of penetrant process would be best suited to an application at near freezing
temperatures?
a.Solvent removable
b.Water washable
c.Post emulsifiable
d.None of the above
7.Which type of developer does not (!) provide a contrasting background against which to view
penetrant indications?
a.Dry
b.Non-aqueous wet
c.Water soluble
d.Water suspendable
8.Which type of developer should not be used with a visible dye penetrant process
1
 a.Dry
b.Non-aqueous wet
c.Water soluble
d.Water suspendable
9.Why might steel parts have a greater tendency towards rusting after penetrant testing?
a.Penetrant materials are normally corrosive
b.Penetrant materials residues are hydroscopic
c.Any protective oils are removed during penetrant testing
d.This is true only if the developer and penetrant residues are not removed
after testing
10.The most significant advantage of the visible solvent removable penetrant process is?
a.Its suitability for penetrant testing of article with rough surfaces
b.Portability
c.Its non-corrosive properties
d.Ability to allow retest
11.Correct developer coating thickness is indicated by:

(a) An even, snowy white appearance

(b) A slightly pinkish background

(c) A fine, misting spray

(d) A thin, translucent layer

12.Which penetrant test processes commonly use the same penetrants?

a. Water washable

b. Water washable and solvent removable

c. Solvent removable and post emulsifier

d. None of the above

13.Mercury vapour black lights may be extinguished if the supply voltage drops below about:

a. 120 volts

b. 90 volts

c. 220 volts

d. 200 volts
14.The output of a mercury vapour black light depends on:

a. Cleanliness of its filter

b. Age of the bulb

c. Both a and b

d. None of the above

15.When a mercury vapour black light is first turned on, what minimum warm-up time is
normally required?

a. None
2
 b. 2 to 3 minutes

c. 5 minutes

d. 10 minutes
16.When a mercury vapour black light is inadvertently cut off, approximately how long should
it be allowed to cool before attempting to restart?

a. Not required

b. 2 to 3 minutes

c. 5 minutes

d. 10 minutes
17.A soft aluminium test piece is to be penetrant tested. The piece has previously been sand
blasted to remove tightly adhering soils. What additional surface preparation should be
performed?

a. Etching

b. Solvent cleaning

c. Ultrasonic cleaning

d. Grinding
18.Dried, non-aqueous developers are best removed after penetrant testing by:

a. Solvent cleaning

b. Wiping with a water dampened cloth

c. Wiping with a dry towel

d. Any of the above

19.The most important penetrant test processing time to control is:

a. Penetrant dwell time

b. Emulsifier dwell time

c. Water rinse time

d. Development time
20.A penetrant which contains an emulsifier is called:
a. Solvent removable

b.Water washable

c.Post emulsifiable

d.Solvent suspended
21.A penetrant which requires a separate emulsification step prior to removal from the surface
of the test piece is called?

3
 a. Solvent removable
b.water washable
c.Post emulsifiable
d.Solvent suspended

22.The chief advantage of using a water washable penetrant process is:

a.Sensitivity

b.safety

c.water tolerance

d.Ecnomics
23.While performing a fluorescent water washable penetrant test, which of the following steps
should be performed under black light?
a.Penetrant application

b.Excess penetrant removal

c.Emulsification

d.Developer application
24.What are the two most important properties in determining the penetrating ability of a
penetrant?
a.Viscosity and surface tension

b.Viscosity and contact angle

c.Surface tension and wetting ability

d.None of the above

25.The human eye is most sensitive to which of the following types of light?
a.Yellow-green
b.Red

c.Blue-violet
d.Orange
26..What amount of time is normally considered necessary for dark adaption of the eyes prior
to performing a fluorescent penetrant test?

a. None required
b.1 to 2 minutes
c.3 to 5 minutes
d.5 to 10 minutes

27.Which of the following is not normally recommended?

a. Performing a fluorescent penetrant test following a visible penetrant test?

b. Performing a visible penetrant test following a fluorescent test

c. Removing excess penetrant with a water

spray

4
 d. Removing excess penetrant with towels moistened with solvent
28.What is the most common source of penetrant bath contamination?

a. Emulsifier

b. Water

c. Developer

d. Solvent
29.Which of the following is normally considered acceptable practice?

A.Sand blasting a soft aluminium part during pre-cleaning

b.Performing a fluorescent penetrant test following a visible penetrant test

c.performing a re-test on a part tested with a water washable penetrant process

d. Removing excess penetrant with a water

spray
30.A penetrant testing method in which an emulsifier, separate from the penetrant, is used is
called:

a.Solvent removable

b.Water washable

c.Post emulsifying

d.Self emulsifying
31.A penetrant testing method in which the degree of washability can be controlled by the
operator is called:
a.Self emulsifying

b.Post emulsifiable

c.Water washable

d.Solvent removable
32.Open, shallow discontinuities are best detected by which penetrant testing method?

a.Solvent removable

b.Water washable

c.Post emulsifiable

d.None of the above

33.An advantage of the post emulsifiable penetrant testing process is that:

a.Test pieces can be re-processed several times with little loss of sensitivity

b.It is the most economical penetrant testing process

c.It is highly susceptible to over washing

5
 d.It is not self emulsifying
34.A disadvantage of the post emulsifiable penetrant process is that:
a.Test pieces can be re-processed several times with little loss of sensitivity

b.It is not very sensitive to open, shallow discontinuities

c.It is less sensitive to degradation in the presence of acids and chromates

d.Emulsifier application is an extra processing step

35.Acceptable methods to apply emulsifier are:

a.Dipping

b.Flowing

c.Spraying

d.All of the above

36.An advantage of emulsifier application by dipping is:
a.Excess penetrant is recovered in the emulsifier tank and reprocessed

b.All of the test object is coated at approximately the same time

c.Excess emulsifier drains back into the emulsifier tank for re-use

d.Hydrophilic scrubbing is then easier to perfor

37.Emulsification time is less critical for the detection of:
a.Fine, tight cracks

b.Wide, shallow discontinuities

c.Internal porosity

d.None of the above

38.Over washing during excess penetrant removal is less likely with which penetrant
testing process?

a.Solvent removable

b.Water washable

c.Post emulsifiable

d.Self emulsifying
39.The fluorescent dyes used in the liquid penetrant testing process are most active when
energised with black light of what wavelengths? (Å stands for angstrom units)

a. 2.0 × 10-7m (2000 Å)

b. 2.5 × 10-7m (2500 Å)

c. 3.25 × 10-7m (3250 Å)
d. 3.65 × 10-7m (3650 Å)
40.Application of penetrant to a test piece may be by:
a.Dipping, brushing or spraying

b.Spraying only
6
c.Bushing or spraying only

d.Dipping or spraying only

7
Liquid Penetrant Testing Level 2 (PT-2) Specific Examination

1.The most likely result of a too short dwell time of an emulsifier is:

a.A tendency to remove the penetrant from fine discontinuities

b.Incomplete removal of excess surface penetrant

c.An overactive emulsifier

d.All of the above

2.Diffusion of a lipophilic emulsifier penetrant into the test piece surface is stopped by:

a.The conclusion of the emulsifier dwell time

b.The penetrant

c.Application of developer

d.The water rinse step

3.When using a post emulsifiable penetrant process, it is important to drain as
much excess penetrant as possible from the surface of a test piece which has
been immersed in the penetrant because:
a.Too much penetrant on the part surface may lead to more rapid
penetration and over-sensitivity
b.A thinner layer of penetrant is likely to have higher capillary action
and, thus, be more sensitive to fine discontinuities
c.A thinner layer of penetrant will result in less penetrant contamination
in the emulsifier tank

d.None of the above

4.When a drain-dwell technique is used during emulsification, what two
mechanisms are responsible for combining the emulsifier and penetrant?

i. Diffusion and turbulent mixing

ii. Osmosis and agitation

iii. Turbulent mixing and osmosis

iv. Agitation and turbulent mixing

8
 5.When performing a post emulsifiable penetrant test, the test piece does not
rinse acceptable clean during normal processing. What should be done?

v. Return the test piece to the emulsifier and repeat the step

vi. Increase water temperature and pressure

6.Remove the excess penetrant with solvent remover and process the remainder of
the test normally

vii. Clean the test piece and re-process through the complete penetrant test
process
7.The adequacy of excess penetrant removal, using water washable penetrant
process, is judged and controlled by:

viii. Water rinse time

ix. Fluorescent brightness measurement

x. Visual observation

xi. Cleanliness of cloths used for removal

8.Another name for a self-emulsifying penetrant process is:

xii. Solvent removable

xiii. Water washable

xiv. Post emulsifiable

xv. Solvent emulsifiable

9.Which of the following is a function of an emulsifier?

xvi. To draw penetrant out of a discontinuity and form a visible indication

xvii. To increase the size of an indication through capillary action

xviii. To provide contrasting background for viewing penetrant indications

xix. None of the above

10.When viewed under black light, developer appears:

xx. Yellow-green

xxi. Blue-black

xxii. White

xxiii. Pinkish white

11.Penetrant developers are used in which of the following forms?

xxiv. Water washable

xxv. Water suspendable

xxvi. Solvent suspendable

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 xxvii. All of the above
12.Which of the following developers requires the test piece to be dried prior
to its application?

xxviii. Water washable

xxix. Water suspendable

xxx. Non-aqueous suspendable

xxxi. All of the above

13.An effect of a thick developer coating might be:

xxxii. To obscure discontinuity indications

xxxiii. To enhance discontinuity indications

xxxiv. To increase penetrant test sensitivity by providing more capillary paths

xxxv. None of the above

14.Why is it important to view the test piece shortly after developer
application and periodically through the development time?

xxxvi. To make sure the developer dries evenly

xxxvii. To guard against pooling of developer in low areas

xxxviii. To avoid missing small flaw indications adjacent to areas of high bleed-out

xxxix. To avoid missing transient indications against an otherwise clean

background
15.Which of the following is an advantage of a dry developer?

xl. Ease of handling

xli. Non-corrosive

xlii. No hazardous vapours

xliii. All of the above

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 16.Why is the need for a dry surface prior to developer application more
of a disadvantage with a dry developer than with a non-aqueous wet developer?

1. Because the dry developer only forms a

thin film on the surface of the test piece

2. Because the solvent in a non-aqueous

wet developer penetrates deeper into
discontinuities to contact entrapped
penetrant and draw it back out

3. Because the warm test piece causes

evaporation of the solvent in the non-
aqueous developer

xliv. All of the above

17.The preferred method of application of aqueous wet
developer is:
xlv. Dipping
xlvi. Spraying
xlvii. Brushing

xlviii. All of the above

18.It is easier to control developer coating thickness with a soluble developer than
a water suspendable one because:

xlix. Less developer can be dissolved that suspended in water

l. It dries more rapidly on the test piece

2. Evaporation deposits a thin, even coating on the test piece

i. All of the above

19.Which of the following is not an advantage of an aqueous wet developer?

ii. It may be applied to a dry surface

iii. It has no hazardous vapours

iv. There is visible evidence of developer coverage

3. During drying, only water evaporates, not costly solvents

20.A disadvantage of water soluble developers is:

i. Agitation of the developer is not required

ii. A uniform developer film is obtained

iii. The dried developer is difficult to remove during post cleaning

iv. None of the above

11
 21.Fluorescent penetrant indications are more visible than colour contrast
penetrant indications because:

a. They reflect more light

b. They emit rather than reflect light

c. They contain a higher concentration of dye particles

d. Yellow and green contrast more than red and white

Liquid Penetrant Testing Level 2 (PT-2) Answers to Questions

Liquid Penetrant Testing Level 2 Answers to questions

General Examination Specific Examination
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13
 ii. Magnetic Particles Testing Level 2 (MT-2) General
Examination

1. Which of the following is not a property of magnetic

lines of force?
a. They form closed loops which do not cross
b. The density increases with distance from the poles of a permanent magnet
c. Hey are considered to have direction
d. They seek paths of least magnetic resistance or least reluctance

2. Surrounding an electromagnet, the magnetic field is

strongest:
a. Immediately after the current ceases to flow
b. While the magnetizing current ceases to flow
c. At the time the magnetic particles are applied to the part
d. Just prior to current reversal

3. The value of permeability is:

a. A fixed value depending upon the type of material
b. Between 1 and 100 for all ferromagnetic materials
c. Between 0 and 10 for all ferromagnetic materials
d. Dependent upon the amount of magnetizing force necessary to overcome
saturation

4. The flux density of the magnetism induced by a coil is affected by:

a. The coil size

b. The current in the coil

c. The number of turns in the coil

d. All of the above

5. How many turns of a coil will be needed to establish

a longitudinal field in a steel shaft that is 22.86 cm
(9 inches) long and 7.62 cm (3 inches) in diameter?
3000 amperes magnetizing current is available, it is
desired to magnetize the part in accordance with the
formula NI = 45,000/(L/D):

(a) 1

(b) 3

(c) 5
14
(d) 7

15
 6. How many ampere-turns are required to magnetize a
part that is 40.6 cm (16 inches) long and 5 cm (2
inches) in diameter?

a. 9000 ampere-turns

b. 5625 ampere-turns

c. 2812 ampere-turns

d. None of the above

7. The lines of flux or force in a circularly magnetized

ferromagnetic bar:

a. Are aligned through the piece from the south to the north pole

b. Are aligned through the piece from the north to the south pole

c. Leave the south pole and enter the north pole

d. Are contained within and around the part

8. In which magnetizing method is the current passed

directly through the part, thereby setting up a
magnetic field at right angles to the current flow?

a. Longitudinal magnetization

b. Coil magnetization

c. Central conductor magnetization

d. None of the above

9. Which of the following is false concerning a

magnetic field in and around a hollow conductor as
compared to that of a solid conductor of the same
outside diameter when both are of the same magnetic
material, and when the applied current is the same?

a. The field immediately outside the outer

surface of the hollow conductor is greater

b. The field gradient inside the hollow conductor is steeper

c. The fields outside the conductors are the same

d. The fields are the same at the centre

10. The field in a section of ferromagnetic pipe being

magnetized by means of a central conductor is
strongest at the:
a. Ends of the pipe

16
b. Outer surface of the pipe
c. Inner surface of the pipe
d. The field is uniform at all places

17
 11. For a 7.6 cm (3 inches) diameter bar how much
current is needed to magnetize the bar for the
detection of longitudinal discontinuities:

a. 5500 amperes

b. 16500 amperes

c. 1000 amperes

d. 3000 amperes

12. For detection of longitudinal discontinuities a 7.6 cm

(3 inches) diameter bar is magnetized in:

a. The longitudinal direction

b. The circular direction

c. The clockwise direction

d. None of the above directions

13. A bar that is 5 cm (2 inches) by 10 cm (4 inches) by

30.5 cm (12 inches) is being magnetized in the
circular direction. About how many amperes are
required using the perimeter approach?

a. 2200

b. 4500

c. 3800

d. None of the above

14. An advantage of AC is that:

a. It is most readily available

b. Equipment can be made lighter

c. It leaves the part demagnetized

d. All of the above

15. When a magnetic field cuts across a crack:

a. Electrons begin jumping back and forth across the crack

b. The crack begins to heat up

c. Magnetic poles form at the edges of the crack

d. All of the above

18
16. A disadvantage of AC current is that it:

a. Cannot be used with dry powder

b. Has poor penetrating power

c. Can only provide low flux densities

d. Cannot be used for residual magnetic particle testing

17. What causes a leakage field in a steel bar?

a. A crack

b. Reversal of the magnetic field

c. Paint on the surface

d. All of the above

18. An indication is a defect under which of the following

conditions?

a. If it is greater than 3.8 cm (1.5 inches) long

b. If it exceeds the limits of a standard or specification

c. If it is deep

d. Under all of the above indications

19. Paint will not affect the detection of a crack if:

a. The paint is thick and the defect is subsurface

b. The paint is thin and the crack is parallel to the direction of flux lines

c. The crack is sharp and the paint is thin

d. All of the above

20. A magnetic particle indication is sharp and

very fine; this suggests that the discontinuity is:

a. Subsurface seam

b. A shallow, tight surface crack

c. Porosity

d. A deep crack

19
 21. Among the following, the best type of current for the
detection of fatigue cracks is:

a. Half-wave direct current

b. Alternating current

c. Direct current

d. Half-wave alternating current

22. Continuous magnetization provides the most sensitivity

because:

a. The magnetic particles are present while the part is being magnetized

b. The magnetic field is greatest while the magnetizing current is on

c. All of the above

d. Neither of the above

23. The sensitivity of magnetic particle testing is greatest

when the discontinuity is:

a. Parallel to the direction of the magnetic flux lines

b. Perpendicular to the flow of the magnetizing current

c. Perpendicular to the direction of the magnetic flux

d. Perpendicular to the line between prods

24. To provide reliability and reproducibility in

magnetic particle testing, written procedures
should include:

a. Location of the coil and current for each magnetization

b. Requirements for ammeter calibration

c. Type and concentration of the particles

d. All of the above

25. The magnetic particles are noticed to bunch in some

fillet areas and stand on end on the edge of a part
being magnetized. These observations indicate that
the:

a. Particle concentration is too low

b. Flux density is excessive

c. Flux density is too low

20
d. Magnetizing current should be changed form AC to DC

21
 26. Flux density is a measure of the number of magnetic
flux lines perpendicular to an area of cross-section.
If a discontinuity is in the plane of the unit area, the
strongest magnetic article indication will be formed
when the discontinuity is:

a. Inclined at 45º to the flux lines

b. Parallel to the flux lines

c. 90º to the flux lines

d. 135º to the flux lines

27. Prods are being used to magnetize a weld area.

When dry powder is dusted on the surface, it is
observed that there is no mobility of the particles.
What is the most probable reason for this
observation?

a. The magnetizing current is not high enough

b. The flux density is too low

c. DC is being used

d. All of the above are possible reasons

28. The current from portable high amperage units can be

applied to the object using:

a. Prods

b. Cable coils

c. Pre-wrapped coils

d. All of the above

29. How can parts be tested to determine if they have been

adequately demagnetized?

a. By bringing a suspended paper clip near the middle of the part

b. By using a small horseshoe permanent magnet

c. By using a small magnetometer held at a corner of the part

d. By sprinkling some magnetic particles on the part

30. The statement ‘magnetic particle testing can be applied

to plated and painted parts’.

a. May be true depending upon the thickness of the coating

b. May be true if flux densities are increased

22
 to compensate for the coating thickness

c. Is true only for circular circumstances

d. Both (a) and (b)

23
 31. A group of indications, some sharp and some broad
and fuzzy, were found on an area of a small forging.
Demagnetization and re-inspection eliminated these
indications. What was the probable cause?

a. Forging lap

b. Magnetic writing

c. Change in permeability

d. Subsurface variation

32. Magnetic particle testing is most likely to find

subsurface discontinuities in:

a. Soft steels with high permeability

b. Soft steels with low permeability

c. Hardened steels with low permeability

d. Hardened steels with high permeability

33. Which of the following is not an advantage of Magnetic

Particle testing?

a. Fast and simple to perform

b. Can detect discontinuities filled with foreign material

c. Most reliable for finding surface cracks in all types of material

d. Works well through a thin coat of paint

34. Which of the following does not represent a limitation

of Magnetic Particle testing?

a. The type of materials which may be effectively tested

b. The directionality of the magnetic field

c. The need for demagnetization

d. The ability to detect discontinuities filled with foreign material

35. The most effective NDT method for locating surface

cracks in ferromagnetic materials is:

a. Ultrasonic testing

b. Radiographic testing

c. Magnetic particles testing

d. Liquid penetrant testing

24
 36. A discontinuity which is produced during solidification
of the molten metal is called:

a. Inherent

b. Processing

c. Service

d. None of the above

37. Pipe would be classified as what type of discontinuity?

a. Inherent

b. Processing

c. Service

d. None of the above

38. A seam would be classified as what type of

discontinuity?

a. Inherent

b. Processing

c. Service

d. None of the above

39. A lamination in steel plate would be classified as what

type of discontinuity?

a. Inherent

b. Processing

c. Service

d. None of the above

40. An internal rupture caused by working steel at improper

temperatures is called a:

a. Lap

b. Cold shut

c. Forging burst

d. Slag inclusion

25
 iii. Magnetic Particles Testing Level 2 (MT-2) Specific
Examination

1. Demagnetization, ASTM E709-95 recommends a coil

of ampere-turns:

a. 1000 to 3000

b. 3000 to 5000

c. 5000 to 10000

d. 10000 to 15000

2. According to ASTM E709-95 when dry particles are

used magnetic particle testing shall not be performed
on the surface of parts whose temperature exceeds:

a. 57ºC

b. 79ºC

c. 158ºC

d. 136ºC
3. According to ASTM E709-95 in using prod technique,
prod spacing shall not exceed:

a. 50 mm

b. 100 mm

c. 150 mm

d. 200 mm

4. According to ASTM E709-95, the UV intensity shall

not be less than:

a. 600 µW/cm2

b. 700 µW/cm2

c. 800 µW/cm2

d. 900 µW/cm2

5. According to ASTM E709-95 in using prod

technique on a 50 mm thickness plate with a prod
spacing of 101 mm (4 inches), current shall be
selected in the following range:

a. 300-450 A

26
 b. 400-500 A

c. 500-625 A

d. 550-700 A

6. According to ASMT E709-95 alternating current

electromagnetic yokes should give a lifting force of
at least:

a. 1.5 kg

b. 2.5 kg

c. 3.5 kg

d. 4.5 kg

7. According to ASTM E709-95 direct current

electromagnetic yokes should have a lifting force of
at least:

a. 15 kg

b. 16 kg

c. 17 kg

d. 18 kg
8. According to ASTM E709-95 the UV light shall be
centred on (1 Å = 10-10m):

a. 3000 Å

b. 3250 Å

c. 3400 Å

d. 3650 Å

9. According to ASTM E709-95 when fluorescent particles are used, the UV light
intensity shall be above:

a. 700 µW/cm2

b. 800 µW/cm2

c. 900 µW/cm2

d. 1000 µW/cm2

10. According to ASTM E709-95 when fluorescent particles are used, the bulb shall be
warmed up prior to use for at least:

a. 1 min
27
 b. 2 min

c. 3 min

d. 4 min

e. 5 min

11. According to ASTM E709-95 with prod

technique, the prods shall be tipped if the open
circuit voltage is over:
a. 10 V
b. 15 V
c. 20 V
d. 25 V

12. According to ASME Section VIII, a linear

indication is defined as an indication in which the
length is equal to or greater than the width by a
factor of:
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
13. According to ASTM E709-95 the viscosity limit
(measured in centi Stokes) of the wet medium
(conditioned water) should not exceed:

a. 1 cSt

b. 3 cSt

c. 6 cSt

d. 4 cSt

14. According to ASTM E709-95 when applying

fluorescent magnetic particles technique, the
operator shall be in darkness area at least prior
to examination:

a. 2 min

b. 3 min

c. 4 min

d. 5 min

15. According to ASTM E709-95 the alkalinity of

28
 conditioned water shall not exceed:

a. 10.0 pH

b. 10.5 pH

c. 11.0 pH

d. 11.5 pH

16. According to ASTM E709-95, with wet

continuous magnetization technique, the duration
of magnetization current is of the order of:

a. 0.5 sec

b. 1.0 sec

c. 1.5 sec

d. 2.0 sec

17. According to ASTM E709-95 in using prods having

a spacing of 19 mm (3/4 inches) and above, the
magnetizing current shall be:

a. From 90 to 110 A/25 mm (1 inch)

b. From 100 to 125 A/25 mm (1 inch)

c. From 90 to 120 A/ 25 mm (1 inch)

d. From 100 to 200 A/25 mm (1 inch)

18. According to ASTM E709-95 powder shall be
applied upon the part to be tested in such a manner
that:

a. A light uniform coating is formed

b. In excess coating

c. All of the above

d. None of the above

19. According to ASTM E709-95 before turning off

current and examination, dry powder in excess shall
be:

a. Removed by a dry-air current

b. Kept in place

c. All of the above

d. None of the above

29
 20. According to ASTM E709-95 demagnetization can be
performed by:

a. Decreasing alternating current

b. Reversing direct current

c. All of the above

d. None of the above

e.

f.

30
 iv. Magnetic Particle Testing Level 2 (MT-2) Answers to
Questions

Magnetic Particle Testing Level 2 Answers to Questions

General Examination Specific Examination
35 35
36
37
38
39
40
41
42
43
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11 45 11
12 46 12
13 47 13
14 48 14
15 49 15
16 50 16
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21 55 21
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25 59 25
26 60 26
27 61 27
28 62 28
29 63 29
30 64 30
31 65 31
32 66 32
33 67 33
34 34

31
 b. Radiographic Testing Level 2 (RT-2)

i. Radiographic Testing Level 2 (RT-2) General Examination

1. Increasing the kV setting on an X ray machine

increases the:

a. Penetrating power

b. Short wavelength components of the X ray beam

c. Radiation intensity

d. All of the above

2. During the manufacturing of a casting, the purpose of a

riser is:

a. To introduce molten metal into the mould

b. To provide additional molten metal to allow for shrinkage during solidification

c. To allow excess heat to escape during solidification

d. To provide a vent for excess steam to escape

3. An effective method of recognising a film artifact is:

a. Viewing a film in daylight

b. Viewing film in reflected light from a viewer

c. Comparing both film shot with a double film technique

d. All of the above

4. The main reason for using a casting is that:

a. Castings are stronger than other metal product forms

b. Castings are normally of higher quality than other metal product forms

c. Complex shapes of minimum weight are easily manufactured

d. None of the above

5. A change in which of the following parameters

would require a new X ray exposure chart?

a. kV

b. Required film density

c. Test piece thickness

d. All of the above

32
 6. Static marks on radiographic film are caused by:

a. An improperly grounded X ray tube

b. Scratches on the lead screens

c. Poor film handling technique

d. Old film

7. Of the following radiographic sources, which emits the

most penetrating radiation?

a. Co-60

b. Ra-226

c. Cs-137

d. Ir-192

8. Which of the following techniques would

probably reduce the amount of back scattered
radiation reaching the film during a radiographic
exposure?

a. Using a finer grained film

b. Backing the cassette with a sheet of lead

c. Removing lead screens

d. All of the above

9. Radiographic contrast is dependant on:

a. Density

b. Processing

c. Radiation energy

d. All of the above

10. A plot of film density versus log of relative exposure is

called:

a. An H&D curve

b. A sensitometric curve

c. A characteristic curve

d. All of the above

33
 11. The most common material used for targets in X ray
tubes is:

a. Tungsten

b. Copper

c. Silver

d. Beryllium

12. A dark crescent shaped spot, clearly in the base

metal adjacent to a weld would probably be:

a. Burn through

b. Film crimp mark

c. A crack

d. A water spot on the film

13. Which of the following are potential sources of

scattered radiation?

a. Test piece

b. Cassette

c. Floor

d. All of the above

14. If the required exposure time for a 2220 GBq (60

curie) Ir-192 source is 2 minutes, what exposure
time would be required at 1110 GBq (30 curie)
source:

a. 2/3 minutes

b. 60 minutes

c. 2 minutes

d. 4 minutes

15. An advantage of a larger grain film is:

a. It has higher speed

b. It has better definition

c. It has lower speed

d. None of the above

34
 16. How does radiation intensity change with increasing
distance from the source?

a. Inversely with distance

b. Inversely with the square of distance

c. Directly with distance

d. Directly with the square of distance

17. A weld discontinuity which consists of unmelted

joint surfaces at the root, and which may be caused
by poor fit- up, is called:

a. Hot short cracking

b. A slag inclusion

c. Incomplete penetration

d. Burn through

18. Mottling due to X ray diffraction can be identified by:

a. Noting a large change between two

successive exposures with the test piece
rotated slightly about the beam axis

b. Noting a slight change between two

successive exposures with the test piece
rotated slightly about the beam axis

c. Noting a characteristic pattern corresponding to the lattice spacing

d. None of the above

19. Which of the following welding discontinuities would

be considered the most serious?

a. Porosity

b. Incomplete penetration

c. Crack

d. Slag inclusions

20. A depression at the edge of a weld where the

base metal has been melted during welding is
called:

a. Burn through

b. Undercut

35
 c. Root concavity

d. Root convexity

36
 21. Which of the following would not be considered a film
artifact?

a. Sugar

b. Chemical streaks

c. PI lines

d. Pressure marks

22. Gamma ray or high voltage X ray radiography,

using film without lead screens, is likely to result
in:

a. Mottling of the film

b. Increased geometric unsharpness

c. No apparent difference, but increased exposure time

d. No apparent difference, but decreased exposure time

23. Which of the following would be detrimental to

radiographic image sharpness?

a. Small focal spot

b. Small film focal distance

c. Small object to film distance

d. None of the above

24. A change in which the following parameters

would require a new X ray exposure chart?

a. kV

b. X ray machine

c. Test piece thickness

d. All of the above

25. If the required exposure time for a 1850 GBq (50

curie) Ir-192 source is 4 minutes, what exposure
time would be required for 925 GBq (25 curie)
source:

a. 4 minutes

b. 8 minutes

c. 2 minutes

37
 d. 16 minutes

38
 26. A radiograph is made using film X with an exposure
of 10 mA-min. Film density obtained in the area of
interest is 1.0. If it is desired to achieve a density of
2.0 in the area of interest, what exposure is required?
(Log relative exposure = 1.1 for a density of 1.0 and
1.62 for a density of 2.0)

a. 41.67 mA-min

b. 10 mA-min

c. 12.6 mA-min

d. 33.1 mA-min

27. The least offensive of the following welding

discontinuities would probably be:

a. Incomplete penetration

b. Lack of fusion

c. Slag inclusions

d. Porosity

28. A quantity calculated by the formula, 0.693/(decay

constant), is called:

a. Half value layer

b. Mass attenuation constant

c. Half-life

d. Specific activity

29. The density difference displayed from one area of a

film radiograph to another is called:

a. Subject contrast

b. Radiographic contrast

c. Film contrast

d. Film latitude

30. The half-life of Co-60 is approximately:

a. 74 days

b. 129 days

c. 5.3 years

39
 d. 30.1 years

40
 31. Increasing the mA setting on an X ray machine:

a. Decreases exposure time

b. Increases exposure time

c. Increases the short wavelength components of the X ray beam

d. Decreases the short wavelength components of the X ray beam

32. Which of the following would be considered a film

artifact?

a. Excessive film density

b. Light leaks

c. Inadequate penetration

d. Sugar

33. Which of the following would be detrimental to

radiographic image sharpness?

a. Small focal spot

b. Large film focal distance

c. Small object to film distance

d. None of the above

34. The half-life of Ir-192 is approximately:

a. 74 days

b. 129 days

c. 5.3 years

d. 30.1 years

35. A dark crescent shaped mark in the centre of a weld

bead radiographic image would probably be:

a. A film artifact

b. Porosity

c. A tungsten inclusion

d. Root concavity

41
 36. A photon-nuclear interaction in which energy is
converted into sub-atomic particles is called:

a. The photoelectric effect

b. The Compton effect

c. Pair production

d. Bremsstrahlung

37. An interaction in which radiation is produced by the

rapid deceleration of an electron is called:

a. The photoelectric effect

b. The Compton effect

c. Pair production

d. Bremsstrahlung

38. The gamma factor of Tm-170 is:

a. 1.37 R·h-1·Ci-1 at one metre

b. 0.59 R·h-1·Ci-1 at one metre

c. 0.0062 R·h-1·Ci-1 at one metre

d. 0.38 R·h-1·Ci-1 at one metre

39. An exposed radiographic film which transmits 1% of

the light incident on it has what density:

a. 1.0

b. 2.0

c. 99.0

d. 0.5

40. If the radiation intensity is 5 Gy/h (500 R/h) at a

distance of 152.4 cm (5 feet) from a source, what is
the intensity at 1524 cm (50 feet)?

a. 0.5 Gy/h (50 R/h)

b. 1.0 Gy/h (100 R/h)

c. 0.1 Gy/h (10 R/h)

d. 0.05 Gy/h (5 R/h)

42
 ii. Radiographic Testing Level 2 (RT-2) Specific Examination

1. Contrast and definition are the two major factors that

determine the of
the radiograph:

a. Density

b. Sensitivity

c. Graininess

d. Intensity

2. Scatter radiation:

a. Is not controllable

b. Is controllable to some extent, but cannot be completely eliminated

c. Can be eliminated completely by changing the kV

d. Can be eliminated completely by using lead intensifying screens

3. Which of the following factors will affect the definition
of the radiographic image?

a. Intensity of radiation

b. Film density

c. Tube current

d. Focal spot size

4. Slow films:

a. Give better definition than fast films

b. Are faster than fast films

c. Require shorter exposure times than fast films

d. Usually have less contrast than fast films

5. Contrast is defined as the comparison between on

different areas of the radiograph:

a. Density

b. Sensitivity

c. Sharpness

d. Latitude

43
 6. Definition is defined as the measure of the of
the outline of the image in the radiograph.

a. Density

b. Sensitivity

c. Sharpness

d. Latitude

7. As radiation (X ray or gamma ray) energy is lowered:

a. Radiation of longer wavelength and better penetration is produced

b. Radiation of shorter wavelength and better penetration is produced

c. Radiation of shorter wavelength and less penetration is produced

d. Radiation longer wavelength and less penetration is produced

8. Dark crescent-shaped indications on a radiographic film
are most likely caused by:

a. Crimping film after exposure

b. Crimping film before exposure

c. Sudden extreme temperature change while processing

d. Warm or exhausted fixer

9. Lead screen are primarily used to:

a. Improve the quality of the radiography by increasing the effect of scatter

radiation

b. Intensify the primary beam

c. Decrease film graininess

d. Reduce density of film

10. Static marks are most often caused by:

a. Film bent when inserted in a cassette or holder

b. Foreign material or dirt imbedded in screens

c. Scratches on lead foil screens

d. Improper film handling techniques

11. When radiographic energy is decreased:

a. The subject contrast decreases

44
b. The film contrast decreases

c. The subject contrast increases

d. The film contrast decreases

12. The major cause for poor definition is:

a. A source-to-film distance which is too long

b. Screens which are too thin

c. Film graininess

d. Too small a source size

13. In order to increase latitude so that thick and thin
portions may be radiographed at reasonable viewing
densities simultaneously:

a. Fluorescent screen should be employed

b. Led screens should be at least 5 mm thick

c. The cassette may be loaded with two separate films of different speeds

d. Radiograph the object at low energy

14. A dark circle type indication appearing on a

radiograph that is the result of the failure of a core
support to completely melt is called:

a. A hot tear

b. A gas hole

c. An unfused chaplet

d. A spongy shrink

15. Dark rounded indications with rather smooth edges

appear on the radiograph of casting made in sand
mould. These indications would be interpreted as:

a. Slag inclusions

b. Misrun

c. Shrinkage

d. Gas holes

16. A dark, sharply defined, straight line in the centre of

the weld, and running parallel with the length of the
weld should be interpreted as:

a. Porosity
45
 b. Incomplete penetration

c. A slag inclusion

d. Lack of fusion

17. A dark, jagged, linear indication appears on a

radiograph of a casting. The area is a transition area
between a thick and a thin section. This indication
should be interpreted as:
a. A hot tear
b. A gas hole
c. An unfused chaplet
d. A spongy shrink
18. In a radiograph of a weld there is an indication
appearing at the end of the weldbead. It appears as a
dark rounded indication with fine small tails coming
from around the rounded indication giving it some
what of a star-shaped appearance. This would
probably be:

a. A crater crack

b. A slag inclusion

c. Root concavity

d. A star crack

19. The density of the radiograph through the weld area

is 3.2 while the density in the base metal is 2.9. This
would probably indicate:

a. Too high a kV was used

b. Too low a kV was used

c. There is excessive weld reinforcement

d. Weld underfill

20. When radiographing a part which contains a crack, it

will appear on the radiograph as:

a. A dark continuous line

b. A light, irregular line

c. Either a dark or light line

d. A dark linear indication which could be continuous or intermittent

46
47
 iii. Radiographic Testing Level 2 (RT-2) Answers to questions

Radiographic Testing Level 2 Answers to Questions

General Examination Specific Examination
35 69 35 69
36 70 36 70
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42 76 42 76
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48
 ULTRASONIC
TESTING (UT)

c. Ultrasonic Testing Level 1 (UT-1)

i. Ultrasonic Testing Level 1 (UT-1) General Examination

1. The divergence of an ultrasonic beam is dependant on:

a. Transducer wavelength and diameter

b. Test specimen density

c. The sound wave's angle of incidence

d. The degree of damping of the ultrasonic transducer

2. When a longitudinal wave is incident upon an inclined interface between zero degrees
and the first critical angle:

a. The sound beam is totally reflected

b. Only shear waves are produced in the second material

c. Shear waves and longitudinal waves are produced in the second material

d. Only longitudinal waves are produced in the second material

3. The piezoelectric material in a search unit which vibrates to produce ultrasonic waves
is called:

a. A backing material

b. A lucite wedge

c. A transducer element or crystal

d. A couplant

4. When a longitudinal wave is incident upon an inclined interface and is refracted at

ninety degrees, the angle of the incident longitudinal wave is called:

a. The Snell constant

b. The Snell angle

c. The mode conversion constant

d. The first critical angle

49
50
5. Which type(s) of sound wave modes will propagate through liquids?

a. Longitudinal

b. Shear

c. Surface

d. All of the above

6. When the motion of the particles of a medium is transverse to the direction of

propagation, the wave being transmitted is called a:

a. Longitudinal wave

b. Shear wave

c. Surface wave

d. Lamb wave

7. Which of the following test frequencies would generally provide the best penetration
in a 12 inch thick specimen of coarse-grained steel?

a. 1.0 MHz

b. 2.25 MHz

c. 5.0 MHz

d. 10 MHz

8. An oscilloscope display in which the screen base line is adjusted to represent the one
way distance in a test piece is called a:

a. A scan display

b. B scan display

c. C scan display

d. D scan display

9. A common use of ultrasonic testing is:

a. Cleaning

b. Detecting of sub-surface indications

c. Determination of the test piece ductility

d. Communications

51
 10. Sound waves of a frequency beyond the hearing range of the human ear are referred
to as ultrasonic waves or vibrations, and the term embraces all vibrational waves of
frequency greater than approximately:

a. 20 kHz

b. 2 MHz

c. 2 kHz

d. 200 kHz

11. Y cut crystals produce:

a. Longitudinal waves

b. Shear waves

c. Lamb waves

d. Surface waves

12. The cable that connects the ultrasonic instrument to the search unit is specially
designed so that one conductor is centred inside another. The technical name for such
a cable is:

a. BX cable

b. Conduit

c. Coaxial cable

d. Ultrasonic conductor cable grade 20

13. As ultrasonic frequency increases:

a. Wavelength increases

b. Wavelength decreases

c. Sound velocity increases

d. Sound velocity decreases

14. In an A scan presentation, the amplitude of vertical indications on the screen

represents the:

a. Amount of ultrasonic sound energy returning to the search unit

b. Distance travelled by the search unit

c. Thickness of material being tested

d. Elapsed time since the ultrasonic pulse was generated

52
15. Loss of the test piece back wall echo during scanning may be caused by:

a. An abnormally homogeneous material structure

b. A smooth entry surface on the test piece

c. A discontinuity which is not parallel to the entry surface

d. An opposite surface which is parallel to the entry surface

16. When a sound beam is reflected:

a. The angle of reflection is found using Snell's law

b. The angle of reflection equals the angle of incidence

c. All the sound energy is reflected unless the acoustic impedance is zero

d. Beam spread is decreased

17. Which of the following circuits converts electrical energy to ultrasonic energy?

a. The pulse generator

b. The transducer

c. The transformer

d. The power supply

18. An instrument display in which the horizontal base line represents elapsed time and
the vertical deflection represents signal amplitudes is called:

a. A scan

b. B scan

c. C scan

d. A time line display

19. Which of the following circuits provides short duration, high energy pulses which are
used to excite the transducer?

a. The pulse generator

b. The amplifier

c. The transducer

d. The clock

53
 20. A cross section view of a test piece is produced by which of the following?

a. A scan

b. B scan

c. C scan

d. A time line display

21. Echo amplitude losses may be caused by:

a. Entry surface roughness

b. Coarse grain size

c. Discontinuity orientation

d. All of the above

22. Which of the following is an advantage of using a focused transducer?

a. The useful range of the transducer is decreased

b. The useful range of the transducer is increased

c. Sensitivity to the effects of a rough surface is increased

d. Greater sensitivity is achieved in the transducer's useable range

23. Which of the following circuits provide current to operate the ultrasonic instrument?

a. The pulse generator

b. The amplifier

c. The power supply

d. The sweep generator

24. Which of the following is a true statement?

a. Higher frequencies produce lower sensitivity

b. Higher frequencies produce longer wavelengths

c. Thicker crystals produce lower frequency transducers

d. Longer wavelengths produce higher sensitivity

54
25. Which type(s) of sound wave modes will propagate through solids?

a. Longitudinal

b. Shear

c. Surface

d. All of the above

26. The longitudinal wave incident angle at which the refracted shear wave angle equals
ninety degrees is called:

a. The Snell angle

b. The Snell constant

c. The first critical angle

d. The second critical angle

27. The amount of beam divergence from a crystal is primarily dependent on

the:

a. Type of test

b. Tightness of crystal backing in the search unit

c. Frequency and crystal size

d. Pulse length

28. In ultrasonic testing, a liquid coupling medium between the crystal surface and the
part surface is necessary because :

a. Lubricant is required to minimize wear on the crystal surface

b. An air interface between the crystal surface

and the part surface would almost completely
reflect the ultrasonic vibrations

c. The crystal will not vibrate if placed directly

in contact with the surface of the part being
inspected

d. The liquid is necessary to complete the electrical circuit in the search unit

29. X cut crystals produce:

a. Longitudinal waves

b. Shear waves

c. Lamb waves

d. Surface waves
55
 30. Lower frequency transducers are normally used:

a. In contact testing applications

b. In angle beam testing applications

c. In immersion testing applications

d. Where deeper penetration is required

31. All other factors being equal, which of the following modes of vibration has the
greatest velocity?

a. Shear wave

b. Transverse wave

c. Surface wave

d. Longitudinal wave

32. In immersion testing, the position of the search unit is often varied to transmit sound
into the test part at various angles to the front surface. Such a procedure is referred to
as:

a. Angulation

b. Dispersion

c. Reflection testing

d. Refraction

33. The angle of a refracted shear wave generated as a sound wave passes at an angle
through an acoustic interface is dependant on:

a. The acoustic impedances of the materials of each side of the interface

b. The frequency of the incident sound wave

c. The wavelength of the incident sound wave

d. The hardness of the materials on each side of the interface

34. Which of the following is a likely effect of a rough test piece surface?

a. An improved ultrasonic signal to noise ratio

b. A more penetrating sound beam

c. Loss of discontinuity signal amplitude

d. Higher test reliability

56
35. Wavelength is:

a. The distance from the crest to the next trough of a sound wave

b. The time required for a sound wave to

propagate from a trough to the next trough
of a sound wave

c. The distance a sound wave travels in one second

d. The distance from trough to trough or from peak to peak of a sound wave

36. The velocity of surface waves is approximately the velocity of

shear waves in the same material.

a. Two times

b. Four times

c. One half

d. Nine-tenths

37. An ultrasonic instrument control which allows moving an A scan display to the left or
right without changing the distance between any echoes displayed is called:

a. The sweep length or range control

b. The damping control

c. The sweep delay

d. The pulse length control

38. A disadvantage of using natural quartz crystals in a search unit is that:

a. It will dissolve in water

b. It is the least effective generator of

ultrasonic energy of all commonly used
materials

c. It easily loses it operating characteristics as it ages

d. None of the above is correct

39. The formula Sin A/Sin B = VA/VB is known as:

a. The Fresnell relationship

b. Snell's law

c. The law of sines

d. The critical velocity ratio

57
 40. A 25 MHz search unit would most likely be used during:

a. Straight beam contact testing

b. Immersion testing

c. Angle beam contact testing

d. Surface wave contact testing

e. Sizing blocks

41. During ultrasonic testing by the immersion method, it is frequently necessary to

angulate the search unit when a discontinuity is located at an angle in order to:

a. Avoid a large number of back reflections that

could interfere with a normal test pattern

b. Obtain a maximum response if the

discontinuity is not originally oriented
perpendicular to the ultrasonic beam

c. Obtain a discontinuity indication of the same

height as the indication from the flat
bottomed hole in a reference block

d. Obtain the maximum number of entry surface reflections

42. Which of the following transducer materials is the most efficient receiver of
ultrasonic energy?

a. Lead metaniobate

b. Quartz

c. Lithium sulphate

d. Barium titanate

43. An ultrasonic wave in which particle displacement is 90 degrees to the direction of

wave propagation is called a:
a. Longitudinal wave
b. Shear wave
c. Compressional wave
d. Plate wave

44. An advantage of using lithium sulphate in search units it that:

a. It is one of the most efficient generators of ultrasonic energy
b. It is one of the most efficient receivers of ultrasonic energy
c. It is insoluble

58
d. It can withstand temperatures as high as 700ºC

59
 45. Moving a search unit over a test surface either manually or automatically is referred
to as:

a. Scanning

b. Attenuating

c. Angulating

d. Resonating

ii. Ultrasonic Testing Level 1 (UT-1) Specific Examination

1. Which of the following materials of the same alloy is most likely to produce the

a. casting

60
 d. Ultrasonic Testing Level 2 (UT-2)

i. Ultrasonic Testing Level 2 (UT-2) General Examination

1. Most commercial ultrasonic testing is performed at frequencies between:

a. 1 MHz and 10 MHz

b. 1 MHz and 100 MHz

c. 10 MHz and 50 MHz

d. 1 MHz and 25 MHz

2. For a transducer with any given Q, resolution increases with:

a. Sensitivity

b. Frequency

c. Wavelength

d. Crystal thickness

3. Resolving power of a transducer is directly proportional to its:

a. Wavelength

b. Crystal thickness

c. Bandwidth

d. Q

4. The term is used to refer to the product of wave velocity and density is:

a. Acoustic impedance

b. The velocity-density ratio

c. Index of refraction

d. Reflection co-efficient

5. For an ultrasonic beam with normal incidence, the reflection coefficient is given by:

a. [(Z1+Z2)2]/[(Z1-Z2)2]

b. (Z1+Z2)/(Z1-Z2)

c. [(4) (Z1)(Z2)]/[(Z1+Z2)2]

d. [(Z1-Z2)2]/[Z1+Z2)2]

61
 6. For an ultrasonic beam with normal incidence the transmission coefficient is given
by:

a. [(Z1+Z2)2]/[(Z1-Z2)2]

b. (Z1+Z2)/(Z1-Z2)

c. [(4) (Z1)(Z2)]/[(Z1+Z2)2]

d. [(Z1-Z2)2]/[Z1+Z2)2]

7. Snell's law is given by which of the following:

a. (Sin A)/(Sin B) = VB/VA

b. (Sin A)/(Sin B) = VA/VB

c. (Sin A)/ VB = V(Sin B)/VA

d. (Sin A)[VA] = (Sin B)[ VB]

8. Snell's law is used to calculate:

a. Angle of beam divergence

b. Angle of diffraction

c. Angle of refraction

d. None of the above

9. Calculate the refracted shear wave angle in steel [VS = 0.323cm/microsec] for an
incident longitudinal wave of 37.9 degrees in Plexiglas [VL = 0.267cm/microsec]

a. 26 degrees

b. 45 degrees

c. 48 degrees

d. 64 degrees

10. Calculate the refracted shear wave angle in steel [VS = 0.323cm/microsec] for an
incident longitudinal wave of 45.7 degrees in Plexiglas [VL = 0.267cm/microsec]

a. 64 degrees

b. 45.7 degrees

c. 60 degrees

d. 70 degrees

62
11. Calculate the refracted shear wave angle in aluminium [VS = 0.31cm/microsec] for an
incident longitudinal wave of 43.5 degrees in Plexiglas [VL = 0.267cm/microsec]

a. 53 degrees

b. 61 degrees

c. 42 degrees

d. 68 degrees

12. Calculate the refracted shear wave angle in aluminium [VS = 0.31cm/microsec] for an
incident longitudinal wave of 53 degrees in Plexiglas [VL = 0.267cm/microsec]

a. 53 degrees

b. 61 degrees

c. 42 degrees

d. 68 degrees

13. Lithium sulphate, barium titanate and lead metaniobate are examples of:

a. Magnetostrictive elements

b. Piezoelectric elements

c. Rochelle salts

d. Y cut crystals

14. The particle motion for compression waves is:

a. Parallel to wave propagation

b. Transverse to wave propagation

c. Elliptical

d. Circular

15. Shear waves for ultrasonic testing are usually produced:

a. X cut crystals

b. Y cut crystals

c. Modulated R-F conversion

d. Mode converted longitudinal waves

63
 16. Near surface resolution can be improved by:

a. Using a narrow band transducer

b. Using a focused transducer

c. Using a high Q transducer

d. None of the above

17. The most important requirement for paintbrush transducer is:

a. Uniform beam intensity across the transducer

b. A pinpoint focal spot

c. Good horizontal linearity characteristics

d. Prescribed vertical and horizontal linearity characteristics

18. Which of the following is an advantage of a focused transducer?

a. Extended useful range

b. Reduced sensitivity in localised area

c. Improved signal to noise ratio over an extended range

d. Higher resolution over a limited range

19. Which of the following is intended to be a ‘first cut’ or rough inspection device to be
followed by more precise evaluation of any discontinuities found?

a. Wheel transducer

b. Focused transducer

c. Paintbrush transducer

d. Ball transducer

20. A wider entry surface indication or pulse may result from:

a. Side lobes of the sound beam being reflected from a rough surface

b. Using a lower energy pulser

c. Using a higher amplifier attenuation setting

d. Huygen's principle

64
 21. Which of the following methods might be used to reduce attenuation losses in an
ultrasonic test?

a. Use a shorter wavelength

b. Use a lower frequency transducer

c. Change from longitudinal waves to shear waves

d. Change to a coarser grained test piece

22. When comparing discontinuity echoes to equivalent flat bottom hole echoes in
materials with similar impedance, surface finish and attenuation:

a. The flaw is never larger than the flat bottom hole

b. The flaw is never smaller than the flat bottom hole

c. The flaw is always smaller than the flat bottom hole

d. None of the above

23. An advantage of immersion testing is that:

a. Large parts are easily inspected

b. Most test systems are easily transported in the field

c. High test frequencies may be used

d. Most test systems are not easily transported in the field

24. An advantage of immersion testing is that:

a. Large parts may be easily inspected

b. Most test systems are easily transported in the field

c. Low test frequencies may be used

d. Irregularly shaped test pieces can be virtually completely examined

25. An ultrasonic data display which shows a plan view presentation of the data is called:

a. A scan

b. B scan

c. C scan

d. Orthogonal view

65
 26. An ultrasonic display which shows a cross section of the test piece and any flaws
which are found are called:

a. A scan

b. B scan

c. C scan

d. Orthogonal view

27. An ultrasonic display which shows echo locations and amplitude is called:

a. A scan

b. B scan

c. C scan

d. Orthogonal view

28. An advantage of using lower frequencies during ultrasonic testing is that:

a. Near surface resolution is improved

b. Sensitivity to small discontinuities is improved

c. Beam spread is reduced

d. Sensitivity to unfavourable oriented flaws is improved

29. A method of compensating for the ‘dead zone’ or near surface resolution problems is
to:

a. Inspect all areas of the test piece twice to assure repeatability of indications

b. Re-inspect from the opposite side of the test piece if geometry permits

c. Re-inspect using a higher energy pulse

d. Re-inspect using a higher frequency transducer that does not have a ‘dead
zone’

30. When testing a test piece with parallel front and back surfaces, no back wall echo can
be obtained. Which of the following actions might enable you to obtain a back wall
echo?

a. Use a wetter transducer

b. Use a lower frequency transducer

c. Use a transducer with a narrower bandwidth

d. Use a higher frequency transducer

66
31. Materials which can readily be inspected with frequencies of 1 to 5 MHz are:

a. Steel, cast iron and concrete

b. Titanium, wood and aluminium

c. Magnesium, titanium and steel

d. All of the above

32. When variations are noticed in the front surface reflection, the test piece should be
inspected for possible near surface discontinuities by:

a. Using a lower frequency transducer

b. Using a higher pulse energy

c. Inspecting from the opposite side

d. Calibrating on a smaller diameter flat bottom hole

33. Forging bursts are most often orientated:

a. Parallel to the surface

b. Perpendicular to the surface

c. In a random manner

d. At an angle of 45 degrees to the surface

34. The purpose of adding a wetting agent to an immersion bath is:

a. To make sure the bath is wet

b. To reduce corrosive properties of the bath

c. To eliminate air bubbles in the bath

d. To prevent rust

35. During immersion testing of pipe or tubing the incident longitudinal wave angle must
be limited to a narrow range. The reason for the upper limit is:

a. To avoid complete reflection of ultrasound from the test piece

b. To prevent formation of Rayleigh waves

c. To prevent formation of shear waves

d. To avoid saturating the test piece with ultrasound

67
 36. A calibration for immersion ultrasonic testing of pipe or tubing should establish a
transducer position such as:

a. I.D. and O.D. notches produce equal responses for equivalent metal path
distances

b. Rayleigh waves are generated through the entire pipe or tubing wall

c. All ultrasound enters the test piece

d. Only longitudinal waves are generated in the test piece

37. One way of identifying spurious echoes in an ultrasonic test is:

a. Re-test the test piece to verify that the echoes are repeatable

b. Clean and re-test the teat piece to determine if the echoes can be eliminated

c. Use the reject control to eliminate unwanted echoes

d. Decrease the gain to see if the echoes can be eliminated

38. During immersion ultrasonic testing of pipe or tubing, spurious echoes may be caused
by:

a. Dirt on the test piece

b. Grease on the test piece

c. Air bubbles on the test piece

d. All of the above

39. Typical frequencies which might be used to perform ultrasonic testing of concrete
are:

a. 25 to 100 kHz

b. 200 to 5 MHz

c. 1 MHz to 5 MHz

d. 2.25 MHz to 10 MHz

40. Typical frequencies which might be used to perform ultrasonic testing of ferrous and
non-ferrous welds are:

a. 25 to 100 kHz

b. 200 to 5 MHz

c. 1 MHz to 5 MHz

d. 2.25 MHz to 10 MHz

68
 ii. Ultrasonic Testing Level 2 (UT-2) Specific Examination

1. Which of the following may result in a long narrow rod if the beam divergence results
in a reflection from a side of the test piece before the sound wave reaches the back
surface?

a. Multiple indications before the first back reflection

b. Indications from multiple surface reflections

c. Conversion from the longitudinal mode to shear mode

d. Loss of front surface indications

2. Acoustic energy propagates in different modes. Which of the following represent a

mode?

a. Longitudinal wave

b. Shear wave

c. Surface wave

d. All of the above

3. Which of the following would be considered application(s) of ultrasonic testing?

a. Determination of a material’s elastic modulus

b. Study of a material’s metallurgical structure

c. Measurement of a material’s thickness

d. All of the above

69
 4. Waves whose particle displacement is parallel to the direction of propagation are
called:

a. Longitudinal waves

b. Shear waves

c. Lamb waves

d. Rayleigh waves

5. Sound waves with particle displacement transverse to the direction of wave travel are
known as:

a. Longitudinal waves

b. Shear waves

c. Rayleigh waves

d. Plate waves

6. The only sound waves which travel in liquids are:

a. Longitudinal waves

b. Shear waves

c. Rayleigh waves

d. Plate waves

7. In steel, the velocity of sound is greatest in which of the following modes of

vibration?

a. Longitudinal

b. Shear

c. Surface wave

d. Sound velocity is identical in all modes, in a given material

8. The scattering of the rays of an ultrasonic beam due to reflection from a highly
irregular surface is called:

a. Angulation

b. Dispersion

c. Refraction

d. Diffraction

70
9. Acoustic impedance is a material's:

a. (Density)/(velocity)

b. (Density) × (velocity)

c. Refractive index

d. (Density)/(refractive index)

10. When a sound beam is incident on an acoustic interface at some angle other than
normal incidence, which of the following occurs?

a. Reflection

b. Refraction

c. Mode conversion

d. All of the above

11. The angle formed by an ultrasonic wave as it enters a medium of different velocity
than the one from which it came and a line drawn perpendicular to the interface
between the two media is called:

a. The angle of incidence

b. The angle of refraction

c. The angle of diffraction

d. The angle of reflection

12. Which of the following frequencies would probably result in the greatest ultrasonic
attenuation losses?

a. 1 MHz

b. 2.25 MHz

c. 10 MHz

d. 25 MHz

13. Attenuation is made up of:

a. Diffusion and absorption

b. Scatter and reflection

c. Absorption and scatter

d. Reflection at grain boundaries

71
 14. The most important factor required for the proper interpretation of ultrasonic test
results is:

a. The ultrasonic signal amplitude

b. A knowledge of the test specimen material and its construction

c. A knowledge of the ultrasonic instruments operating characteristics

d. The ultrasonic signal location

15. A significant limitation of a lower frequency, single element transducer is:

a. Scatter of sound beam due to microstructure of test object

b. Increased grain noise or ‘hash’

c. Less beam spread

d. Impaired ability to display discontinuities just below the entry surface

16. Which of the following is the least efficient generator of ultrasonic waves:

a. Quartz

b. Lithium sulphate

c. Lead metaniobate

d. Barium titanate

17. Which of the following is the least efficient receiver of ultrasonic Energy?

a. Quartz

b. Lithium sulphate

c. Lead metaniobate

d. Barium titanate

18. The length of the zone adjacent to a transducer in which fluctuations in sound
pressure occur is mostly affected by:

a. The frequency of the transducer

b. The diameter of the transducer

c. The length of transducer cable

d. Both (a) and (b)

72
19. An advantage of using a transducer with a large beam spread is:

a. Higher sensitivity to small discontinuities

b. Less likelihood of spurious echoes

c. Greater likelihood of spurious echoes

d. Greater likelihood of detecting randomly oriented discontinuities

20. Resolution is inversely proportional to:

a. Wavelength

b. Crystal thickness

c. Bandwidth

d. Mechanical losses

73
74
 iii. Ultrasonic Testing Level 2 (UT-2) Answers to Questions

Ultrasonic Testing Level 2 Answers to Questions

General Examination Specific Examination
d 33 65 b 33 b
b 34 66 b d 34 a
35 67 c d 35 b
a 36 68 a a 36
d 37 69 c b 37 b
38 d 70 a a 38 b
b 39 71 a a 39 a
40 72 d d 40
b 41 d 73 b b 41 d
10 42 74 d 10 d 42 a
11 a 43 75 d 11 b 43
12 d 44 d 76 a 12 d 44 a
13 b 45 77 c 13 45 a
14 a 46 78 b 14 b 46 d
15 b 47 79 b 15 d
16 b 48 d 80 d 16 a
17 a 49 b 81 c 17 d
18 d 50 b 82 c 18 d
19 51 d 19 d
20 a 52 b 20 b
21 b 53 21
22 d 54 d 22 b
23 55 d 23
24 d 56 b 24 a
25 57 25 d
26 b 58 26 a
27 a 59 d 27
28 d 60 d 28 a
29 b 61 b 29 b
30 b 62 d 30 b
31 63 31 d
32 64 32

75
76
77
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