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66417751f0842200189d6b3a_##_AITS 19 Test Papers (PCM - Paper 1)

The All India Test Series for JEE-2024 consists of a 3-hour exam with a total of 54 questions covering full syllabi in Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics, with a maximum score of 180. The test includes three sections with varying question types and marking schemes, including numerical value questions, multiple choice questions, and matching list sets. General instructions emphasize the proper use of OMR sheets and specific marking guidelines to ensure accurate evaluation.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
15 views

66417751f0842200189d6b3a_##_AITS 19 Test Papers (PCM - Paper 1)

The All India Test Series for JEE-2024 consists of a 3-hour exam with a total of 54 questions covering full syllabi in Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics, with a maximum score of 180. The test includes three sections with varying question types and marking schemes, including numerical value questions, multiple choice questions, and matching list sets. General instructions emphasize the proper use of OMR sheets and specific marking guidelines to ensure accurate evaluation.

Uploaded by

ardigital226
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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All India Test Series (JEE–2024)

AJPA1/19 Test- 19 Prayas JEE

DURATION ::180
DURATION Minutes
90 Minutes DATE : 12/05/2024 M.MARKS : 180

Topics covered
Physics: Full Syllabus
Chemistry: Full Syllabus
Mathematics: Full Syllabus

General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 54 questions. The maximum marks are 180.
SECTION-1 (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains EIGHT (08) questions.
• The answer to each question is NUMERICAL VALUE.
• For each question, enter the correct integer corresponding to the answer using the mouse and the onscreen virtual
numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places,
truncate/round-off the value of TWO decimal places.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct integer is entered;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.

SECTION-2 (Maximum marks: 24)


• This section contains SIX (06) questions.
• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are)
correct answer(s).
• For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 ONLY if (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.

SECTION-3 (Maximum marks: 12)


• This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Sets.
• Each set has ONE Multiple Choice Question.
• Each set has TWO lists: List-I and List-II.
• List-I has Four entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and List-II has Five entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T).
• FOUR options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and ONLY ONE of these
four options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 ONLY if the option corresponding to the correct combination is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.

[1]
OMR Instructions:
1. Use blue/black dark ballpoint pens.
2. Darken the bubbles completely. Don't put a tick mark or a cross mark where it is specified that you fill the bubbles
completely. Half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read by the software.
3. Never use pencils to mark your answers.
4. Never use whiteners to rectify filling errors as they may disrupt the scanning and evaluation process.
5. Writing on the OMR Sheet is permitted on the specified area only and even small marks other than the specified area may
create problems during the evaluation.
6. Multiple markings will be treated as invalid responses.
7. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).

Name of the Students (In CAPITALS) : _______________________________________________________________

Roll Number : _____________________________________________________________________________________________

OMR Bar Code Number : ________________________________________________________________________________

Candidate’s Signature : _______________________________ Invigilator’s Signature _____________________

[2]
IMPORTANT CONSTANTS

Speed of light in free space, : 3.00 × 108 ms–1


Permeability of free space, : 4 × 10–7 Hm–1
Permittivity of free space, : 8.85 × 10–12 Fm–1
The Planck constant, : 6.63 × 10–34 Js
Rest mass of electron, : 9.1 × 10–31 kg
Rest mass of proton, : 1.67 × 10–27 kg
Molar gas constant, : 8.31 JK–1 mol–1
The Avogadro constant, : 6.02 × 1023 mol–1
The Boltzmann constant, : 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1
Gravitational constant, : 6.67 × 10–11 N m2kg–2
Acceleration of free fall : 9.8 ms–2
Rydberg Constant : 1.097 × 107 m–1
Atomic mass unit : 1.67 × 10–27 kg
Charge on proton : 1.6 × 10–19 C

IMPORTANT VALUES

2 = 1.414 ln 10 = 2.303
3 = 1.732 log102 = 0.3010
5 = 2.236 log103= 0.4770
 = 3.142 log107 = 0.845
e (Euler’s constant) = 2.718

* Use above values unless otherwise specified in a question.


❑❑❑
PART-I (PHYSICS)
SECTION-1 5. Rays PQ and RS (Wavelength ) interfere
Numerical Value Type Questions: constructivley for small angle  and
1. A ball of mass m = 1 kg moving with velocity corresponding minimum thickness of the slab is
V0 = 10 m/s collides perpendicularly on a smooth n
, then n =
stationary wedge of mass M = 2 kg placed on 12
smooth horizontal surface. If the coefficient of
restitution is e = 7/20 then find the velocity of ball
after the collision. [in ms–1]

6. In the figure shown, short electric dipole is placed


at a distance x from an infinitely long rod of
2. A small ring, initially at rest, rolls down a ramp in
uniform linear charge density . Then magnitude
the shape of a quarter circle without slipping. The
N qa
radius of the circle is R = 1 m and  = 60°, of force acting on dipole is found to be ,
β = 30° . Find the height ‘x’ (in cm) reached by 0 x 2
the ring after leaving the track. ( 3 = 1.72 ) then find the value of N.

3. A system of coordinates is drawn in a medium


2
whose refractive index varies as  = ,
1 + y2 7. A light inextensible thread is wound round a solid
where 0  y  1m. For all y  0, μ = 2. A ray of cylindrical reel of mass m = 1.5 kg and radius
a = 10 cm. The end of the string is held fixed and
light is incident at origin at an angle 60° with
the reel is allowed to fall so that the thread
y-axis as shown in the figure. At point P ray
unwinds. If the axis of the reel remains horizontal
becomes parallel to x-axis. The value of ‘H2 + 1’
and tension is 20n N, value of ‘n’ is (g = 10
x m/sec2)
is equal to . Find value of x. (Assume
3
consistency in units used) 8. A boy stand at 4 m away from a vertical wall and
throws a ball. The ball leaves the boy’s hand at
h = 2 m above the ground with initial velocity
v 0 = 10 2 m/s at an angle 45° from the
horizontal. After striking the wall elastically the
ball rebounds and hit the ground at 4K (in m).
Find K (take g = 10 m/s2, 35 = 5.90)
4. ‘Q’ charge is uniformly distributed over the curve
surface of a right circular cone of semi-vertical
angle  and height h. The cone is uniformly
rotated about its axis at angular velocity .
Magnetic moment associated with the cone is
found to be nQh2 tan2 where value of ’n’ is

[4]
SECTION-2 R0 e R0
One or More Than One Correct Type Questions: (A)  = (B) N (0) =
2t0 
9. In the arrangement shown, two identical blocks
connected through a massless rigid rod of length l R0 2e R0 t0
(C)  = (D) N (0) =
by hinge connection. Upper block is free to move t0 R0
along horizontal groove. Lower block is free to
move in a vertical circle about upper block. Lower 12. A parallel-plate capacitor has plate area A, the
block is imparted velocity v. Assume no friction distance between its two plates x and y is d and a
anywhere.
dielectric slab of dielectric constant r is filled
between the regions. It is connected to a cell of
emf E. If the dielectric slab is removed, then

(A) At the highest point of trajectory both blocks


will have same speed when v is minimum to (A) Battery does negative work
complete the circle  A
(B) 0  r − 1 E charge flows through the
(B) Minimum v to complete the circle = 8gl d
circuit
15
(C) Minimum v to complete the circle = gl (C) Negative charge flows from plate y to plate x
2 (D) Negative charge flows from plate x to plate y
9 gl
(D) Minimum v to complete the circle = 13. A gaseous mixture at 300 K and 2 × 105 N/m2
2
10. A conducting rod PQ of length l and mass m is pressure contains 6g of H2 and 8g of He. The
dragged with a constant force F along two parallel mixture is expanded four times its initial volume,
smooth rails separated by a distance l. There is a through an isobaric heating process. Then it is
magnetic field B in the region as shown in the isochoricaly cooled until its temperature again
adjacent figure. Then choose the correct becomes 300K. After that the gas mixture is
statement(s). [Also, m = B2L2C and at t = 0, isothermally compressed to its original volume.
velocity = 0]. Choose the correct option(s). (take n2 = 0.695)
(A) Ratio of molar specific heats Cp and Cv () of
31
the mixture is
21
(B) Ratio of heat absorb in isobaric expansion to
31
2 FR that of heat rejected in isochoric cooling is
(A) terminal velocity of rod, VT = 21
B 2l 2 (C) Heat rejected in isothermal compression is
FR
(B) terminal velocity of rod, VT = 2 2 more than the heat rejected in isochoric
Bl cooling.
(C) Maximum charge on the capacitor, 161
FCR (D) Efficiency of the complete cycle is nearly .
qmax = 930
Bl
(D) At t = 2RC, current through rod is 14. A flat circular annular disc of mass M, outer
F  1  radius a and inner radius b. The measured value of
1 −  M, a and b are, M = (0.30 kg  0.0003 kg),
B  2e 
a = (4 cm  0.001 cm) and b = (2 cm  0.001 cm).
11. A radioactive nuclei X with active nuclei N(t) at Then,
(A) Maximum percentage error in the
time t decays with decay constant . Let
measurment of a and b are in ratio 1 : 2.
 dN 
R = log   . Suppose the experiment starts at
(B) Maximum percentage error in the
 dt  measurment M is 0.1%
t = 0 and variation of R is plotted against time t as (C) Maximum percentage error in the calculation
shown. of moment of inertia of the disc about an axis
passing through the centre and perpendicular
to the plane of disc is 0.16%
(D) Maximum percentage error in the calculation
of moment of inertia of the disc about an axis
passing through the centre and perpendicular
to the plane of disc is 1.6%
[5]
SECTION-3 List I List II
Matrix Match Type Questions: I String 1 P 10 N
15. A very long straight conductor has a circular II String 2 Q 20 N
cross-section of radius R. Inside the conductor III Spring 2 R 30 N
there is a cylindrical hole of radius ‘a’ whose axis IV String 4 S 40 N
is parallel to the axis of the conductor and at a T 0N
distance 'b' from it, as shown in the diagram. The If the spring 1 is cut, match the correct option for
conductor with hole carries current i. Let the the tension in the string just after the cutting.
z -axis be the axis of conductor and the axis of the I II III IV
hole at x = b, match the following List. (A) R T T P
(B) T T T P
(C) T T Q P
(D) R S S P

17. A monochromatic parallel beam of light of


wavelength  is incident normally on the plane
containing slits S1 and S2. The slits are of unequal
width such that intensity only due to one slit on
List I List II
screen is four times that only due to the other slit.
I Magnetic P Zero
The screen is placed along y-axis as shown in
field at point
(2R, 0) figure. the distance between slits is d and that
between the screen and slits is D. Match the
II X- Q 0i  a 2  statements in List I with results in List II:
component  
of magnetic 2b  R 2 − a 2 
field at point
(b, 0)
III Magnetic R 0i R a2 
field at point  − 
(0, 0) 2( R 2 − a 2 )  2 2 R − b 
IV Magnetic S 0ib List I List II
field at point
2( R 2 − a 2 )
I The distance between two points P D
(b, 0) on the screen having equal
3d
T 0ia intensities, such that intensity at

(
2 R 2 − a 2 ) those points is
1
9
th of
I II III IV maximum intensity
(A) R P Q S II The distance between two points Q D
(B) P R Q S on the screen having equal
d
(C) R P T Q intensities, such that intensity at
(D) R Q P T 3
those points is th of
9
16. The system shown below is initially in maximum intensity
equilibrium III The distance between two points R 2D
mA = mB = 3kg on the screen having equal
d
mC = mD = mE = 2kg intensities, such that intensity at
Take g = 10 m/s2 5
those points is th of
9
maximum intensity
IV The distance between two points S 3D
on the screen having equal
d
intensities, such that intensity at
7
those points is th of
9
maximum intensity
T Zero
I II III IV
(A) Q, R, S P, Q, R, S Q, R, S P, Q, R, S
(B) P, Q, R, S Q, R, S Q, R, S P, Q, R, S
(C) Q, R, S P, Q, R, S P, Q, R, S Q, R, S, T
List-I mentions few of the strings or springs (D) Q, R, S Q, R, S, T P, Q, R, S P, Q, R, S
shown in figure, while List II the value of the
tension in these entries.
[6]
18. Assume angle of contact to be zero if not IV S Not possible
specified, r = radius of capillary (T is surface
tension) density is 

List I List II
I P 2T
h= cosec T 2T sec 
rg h=
gr
I II III IV
II Q 2T (A) Q P S R
h=
rg (B) P Q R S
(C) Q P T S
(D) S R P T
III R 2T cos 
h=
rg

PART-II (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION-1 22. 0.004 mol of SO2Cl2(g) is taken in a sealed vessel
Numerical Value Type Questions: where it decomposes as
19. Calculate Greaction (kJ) for the given reaction at SO2Cl2(g) → SO2(g) + Cl2(g)
300 K.
After 0.2303 hour gaseous mixture is passed
A2(g) + B2(g) 2AB(g)
through a 150ml of acidified, 0.1N I2(aq) solution
And at partial pressure of 10–2 bar, 10–1 bar and
10–4 bar respectively for A2, B2 and AB. where all SO2 is oxidized to SO 24 . The resulting
Given: solution of I2 required 90ml of 0.1M Na2S2O3(aq)
(H of ) AB = 180 kJ/mol; ( Hof ) A = 60
2 solution. Calculate rate constant
kJ/mol; (in hr–1) of the reaction. Given : log 2 = 0.3
(H of ) B2 = 29.5 kJ/mol; ( Sof ) AB = 210 J/K
dil.HCl Na 2 [Fe(CN)5 NO]
mol; 23. X(s) Y
NaOH
Purple solution

( )A ( )B
Black
Sof 2 = 190 J/K mol; Sof 2 = 180 J/K
Gas Y has been allowed to react with following
mol; species in neutral/acidic medium:
(Use: 2.303 R × 300 = 5750 J/mole)
(a) FeCl3 (b) CuSO4
20. The standard reduction potential of silver (c) BaCl2 (d) SO2
chloride electrode (metal – sparingly soluble salt (e) Cr2O 72 (f) CH3COONa
electrode) is 0.209 V and for silver electrode is
0.80 V. If the moles of AgCl that can dissolve in (g) Hg2+
10 L of a 0.01 M NaCl solution is represented as Then calculate value of (P – Q)/R:
10–y, then find the value of y? P : Number of species which undergoes redox
reaction with gas Y.
21.
Q : Number of species undergoes precipitation
with gas Y without going into redox reaction.
R : Number of species producing no observable
change with gas Y.

Number of planar species of above is/are___

[7]
24. How many compounds/ions are aromatic? SECTION-2
(I) Borazine (II) Graphite One or More Than One Correct Type Questions:
27. Which of the following statement is
(III) Borazon (IV) INCORRECT?
(A) O2 is paramagnetic, O3 is also paramagnetic
(B) HOMO of O2 is gerade
(C) B2 is paramagnetic, C2 is also paramagnetic
(D) In B2 and F2, s-p mixing takes place
(V) (VI)
28. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
wrong?
(A) Zeolites are hydrated aluminosilicates which
(VII) (VIII) can be used as shape selective catalyst
(B) Enzymes show maximum activity at room
temperature (20 – 25°C) and at any pH
(C) Enzymes show maximum activity when the
(IX) (X) pH is either very low or very high
(D) Action of enzymes is specific

25. Let the number of aldehydes and ketones of 29. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
molecular formula C6H12O which on reduction correct?
by NaBH4 give 2° alcohol be X (including (A) Alkali metals posses metallic luster when
stereoisomers) freshly cut because they contain loosely
Consider the reaction sequence : bound electrons which absorb the photons
1.NBS and then re-emit them.
Ph — CH3 P
2.KCN (B) Except Li2SO4, all sulphate of other alkali
3.(i)SnCl2 /HCl
(ii)H /H 2O
metals are soluble in water
4.OH / (C) Stability of peroxides and superoxides of
The degree of unsaturation of P is Y. alkali metals decrease with increase in size
of the metal ion
3(X Y)
Then is_______. (D) The dilute solution of alkali metals
10 dissolved in liquid NH3 is blue in colour, on
increasing the concentration of metal
26. Total number of correct statements are: solution becomes colourless
(i) Benzaldehyde cannot be obtained by Friedel
craft acylation 30. Which of the following changes will occur when
(ii) Nitrobenzene can be used as a solvent NO2 gas is passed into a dark red liquid of Cl2O6?
during Friedel craft reaction. (A) NO2 gas undergoes disproportionation
(B) ClO2 gas is liberated
(iii) Friedel craft acylation requires higher
(C) It forms nitronium perchlorate salt
concentration of catalyst than Friedel craft
(D) Cl2O6 undergoes disproportionation
alkylation.
(iv) Benzaldehyde does not reduce Fehling 31. Which of the following are disproportionation
solution. reactions?
(v) (NH4)2S is used for selective reduction of
one of the two–NO2 groups of m-dinitro (A)
benzene into – NH2.
(vi) In coupling reaction attacking electrophile is (B)
(C)
Ar — N +2
(vii) Polyalkylation is a disadvantage during
monoalkylation of aromatic compound by
Friedel craft alkylation.
(D)
(viii) Direct nitration of aniline gives good yield
of ortho-nitro aniline.

[8]
32. Select the correct statements for the following IV S
Aldol product is not formed
reaction.
in given condition
O
|| T Product is aldol
OH −
Ph – C – NH 2 ⎯⎯⎯→ Ph – NH 2 Which of the following options has the correct
Br2
(A) Aniline is produced along with various combination considering List I and List II?
inorganic salts and the reaction consumes I II III IV
four equivalents of alkali (A) P, Q, T S Q, R, S P, Q, R, S
Br
(B) P, R, T Q P, R, S P, Q, R, T
(B) N-bromobenzamide anion Phenyl (C) R, S, T P Q, R, T P, Q, S, T
isocyanate is the rate determining step of the (D) Q, R, T S Q, S, T P, Q, R, S
given reaction
35. Match the list:
List- I List- II
(Complex Compounds) (Properties)
(C) I [CoF6]3– P Diamagnetic
and low spin
is single concerted step that involves loss of complex
Br– and intramolecular migration of II [Co(C2O4)3]3– Q Paramagnetic
migrating group. and outer
(D) The reaction is an example of intramolecular orbital
anionotropic rearrangement. complex
III [AuCl4]– R Paramagnetic
SECTION-3 and inner
orbital
Matrix Match Type Questions:
complex
33. Matrix Match type: IV [Fe(CN)6]3– S Paramagnetic
For the first order consecutive reaction and low spin
k
1 2 k
A B C complex
Match the observations/conditions (List-I) with T Diamagnetic
conditions/observations (List-II) and high spin
List-I (Observation) List-II complex
I [B]t = [C]t P 1 k2 The CORRECT option is
At time t ln I II III IV
k2 k1 k1
(A) P Q R S
II [A]t = [B]t Q t1/2 of A [When k2 = 2k1] (B) Q R P S
III When k1 >> k2 R k2t (C) Q P P R, S
[B]t = [A]0 e
IV Value of S 1 k k (D) P R Q S
maximum t ln 1 2 1
k1 k 2 k1
concentration of 36. 1° alcohol on oxidation by mild oxidising agent
[B] or conditions and k1> k2 produces aldehyde while with strong oxidising
true for agent carboxylic acid is obtained. On the other
maximum hand 2° alcohol with mild oxidising agent gives
concentration of
ketone. 3° alcohol is reluctant to oxidation by
[B]
T k2
mild oxidising agents. Match List-I with List-II
k2 k1 k 2 List- I (Reaction) List-II (Reagents)
[B] [A]0 I P
k1
PCC, CH2Cl2
I II III IV
(A) Q, T S R P, Q, T
(B) P, T R S P, S, T II Q
KMnO4/H+
(C) R, T T S P, Q, T
(D) Q, T S R Q, R, T III R Cu/
300°C
34. Match the Lists.
List-I List-II IV S TsCl + DMSO +
I P Product formation through NaHCO3
intramolecular reaction T MnO2, 
II Q Reaction has carbanion I II III IV
intermediate (A) P R S P, R, S
III . R (B) R T Q P, R, S
Product is β-keto ester (C) S T P R, S, T
(D) R P Q P, R, S
[9]
PART-III (MATHEMATICS)
SECTION-1
Numerical Value Type Questions: 44. If two distinct chords of a parabola y 2 = 4ax
37. The sum of the radii of the smallest and largest
passing through ( a, 2a ) are bisected by the line
 1
circles passing through  a,  and touching the x + y = 1 , and 4a is a natural number, then the
 a
2 2
maximum length of the latus–rectum is
circle 4 x + 4 y − 4 x − 8 y − 31 = 0 where ' a ' is
the least ratio of the sides of the regular ' n ' sided SECTION-2
polygon inscribing and circumscribing the unit One or More Than One Correct Type Questions:
R 45. If a, b, c, d  R satisfies
circle, is R, then is
2 2
a 2 + b2 + c 2 + d 2 − ab − bc − cd − d + = 0 ,
5
38. Let n1 , n2 , n3 ,...... be increasing sequence of then
natural numbers each of which leaves remainder d
(A) c = a + b (B) b =
' r ' when it is divided by ( r + 1) for 2
r = 2,3, 4,.....,9 . When n2008 is divided by 11, the (C) a =
c
(D) d = a + c
3k 3
remainder is k, then is
4
π 
46. Let g ( x ) = f ( tan x ) + f ( cot x )  x   , π  . If
39. If ( αβ )( δβ ) = γγγ such that α,β, γ,δ represents 2 
π 
number from 1 to 9 ( α,β, γ,δ are all different f "( x )  0  x   , π  ,then
digits) and αβ,δβ are two digit numbers and γγγ 2 
 π 3π 
is a three digit number, if the trace of the matrix (A) g ( x ) is increasing in  , 
α 1 2 0  2 4 
0 β 1 1
A=  is tr(A), then tr ( A ) is equal  3π 
(B) g ( x ) is increasing in  , π 
 0 0 γ 3 5  4 
 
1 1 0 δ   3π 
(C) g ( x ) is decreasing in  , π 
to  4 

40. If ' x ' is positive and x −  x  ,  x  , x are in G.P., (D) g ( x ) has local maximum at x =
4
(where [.] denotes greatest integer function), then
f :R→ R
( 2 x − 2 x + 1)
2 47. Let be a function defined by
is equal to
f ( x) − 5
f ( x + 1) =  x  R . Then which of the
1 f ( x) − 3
41. Let I n =  x n 1 − x 2 dx where ' n ' is an integer following statement(s) is/are true?
0 (A) f ( x + 2 ) = f ( x )
In
 2. Then lim = (B) f ( x + 4 ) = f ( x )
n → I n − 2
(C) f ( x + 6 ) = f ( x )
(D) f ( x + 8 ) = f ( x )
−x 1
42. If the area bounded by the curves y = e −
2
48. If the sum of the first 100 terms of an A.P. is – 1
x+ y x− y
and +  2 is 'A' units, then and the sum of the even terms lying in first 100
2 2 terms is 1, then
 A − ln 4  3
(A) Common difference of the sequence is
  is equal to 50
 5 
149
(B) First term of the sequence is –
50
43. If the coefficient of a8b 4c9 d 9 in
74
K! K (C) 100th term in the sequence is
( abc + bcd + cda + dab )10 is , then is equal 25
2 2
(D) Zero is not a term in this A.P.
to

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49. The system of equations 52. Match the entries of the List-I and List-II:
tan x = a cot x, tan 2x = b cos y List -I List -II
(A) Cannot have a solution if a = 0 I Area bounded by the curves P 23
(B) Cannot have a solution if a = 1 y =  cos A + cos B + cos C  ,
(C) Cannot have a solution if 2 a  | b (1 − a ) |  A B C
y = 7sin sin sin  , (where
(D) Has a solution for all a and b  2 2 2
A, B , C are angles of a triangle &
50. Which of the following is/are true ? [.] denotes greatest integer function)
1 3 and the curve x + y = 2 is
(A) 2
(
 sin x + 4 x + 4 dx −  sin x dx = 0
2
)
0 2
1 1 II π Q 3
If I n =  e x ( sin x ) dx , then
cos( 2 x +1)
n
e dx −  e dx = 0
cos x
(B)
−1 0 0
−5 −1 25I 7
( )  sin ( x )
is equal to
 sin x − 3 dx + + 14 x + 46 dx = 0
2 2 I5
(C)
−6 −2 III If the total number of positive R 2
5 1 unequal integral solutions of the
 cos x dx − 10 cos 25 ( 2 x − 1) dx = 0
2 2
(D) equation x + y + z + w = 20 is 24k ,
−5 0 then k =
IV If S 21
( )( )
SECTION-3
y 2 − 5 y + 3 x 2 + x + 1  2 x  x  R,
Matrix Match Type Questions:
51. Match the entries of the List-I and List-II: then the number of integers lying
List -I List -II in the range of ' y ' are
I If x = 8λ + 1 for i = 1, 2,3 where P
2 9 T 1
i
λ = 0,1, 2,3,..... , then
I II III IV
(A) R S P T
the number of positive integral (B) Q P T R
solutions of equations (C) R P T R
x1 + x2 + x3 = 21 is (D) Q S P R
II If Dn is the digit in the units place Q 55
53. If an equilateral triangle ABC with vertices at
n z1, z2 and z3 be inscribed in the circle |z| = 2
of the number  r! , and again a circle is inscribed in the triangle
r =1 ABC touching the sides AB, BC and CA at
then D1 + D3 + D5 + .... + D21 is D(z4), E(z5) and F(z6) respectively
equal to List-I List-II
III Let S  a  N , a  100 . If the R 2 I The value of P 2
Re ( z1 z2 + z2 z3 + z3 z1 ) is
equation
equal to
 tan 2 x  − tan x − a = 0 has real II Q –6
  If
4z1
is equal to
roots, then number of elements in z3
' S ' is (where [.] represents greatest a ( −1 + i 3 ) , then a is
integer function) III The value of |z1 + z2|2 + R 12
IV The number of solutions of equation S 37 |z2 + z3|2 + |z3 + z1|2 is
3 sin 2 x −cos 2 x + 2
( )
IV If P is any point on S 6
3 sin x + cos x = 4,
incircle the value of
where x  ( − π, π ) is equal to DP2 + EP2 + FP2 is
T 0
T 43
I II III IV
I II III IV (A) T R P R
(A) Q T P R (B) Q P R S
(B) T S Q R (C) T Q P S
(C) Q S P R (D) Q P R T
(D) T P P S
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54. There are six balls and three boxes, each box can I II III IV
hold all the six balls, then match the statements (A) Q T T P
of List-I with the suitable entries of List-II. (B) R Q S P
List -I List-II (C) Q R S P
I The number of ways to put the P 3 ways (D) Q R T S
balls in the boxes such that no
box remains empty given that
balls and boxes are distinct, is

II The number of ways to put the Q 540


balls in boxes such that no box ways
remains empty given that the
balls are distinct and the boxes
are identical, is
III The number of ways to put the R 90 ways
balls in boxes such that no box
remains empty given that the
balls are identical and boxes are
distinct, is
IV The number of ways to put balls S 10 ways
in boxes such that no box
remains empty given that the
balls and boxes both are
identical, is
T 18 ways

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