Polity PYQs - All in

One
QUESTION (2023)
Q.) Consider the following statements:
1. According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect
States from internal disturbances.
2. The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person
being held for preventive detention.
3. According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, the confession of the accused before
the police cannot be used as evidence.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer
(B)
QUESTION (2021)
Q.) We adopted parliamentary democracy based on the British model, but how does our
model differ from that model?
1. As regards legislation, the British Parliament is supreme or sovereign but in India, the
power of the Parliament to legislate is limited.
2. In India, matters related to the constitutionality of the Amendment of an Act of the
Parliament are referred to the Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 Only
(b) 2 Only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer
(C)
● Parliamentary sovereignty is a principle of the UK constitution. It makes Parliament the
supreme legal authority in the UK, which can create or end any law. Parliament of India is
a creation of the Constitution
QUESTION (2020)
Q.) Consider the following statements:
1. The president of India can summon a session of Parliament at such place as he/she
thinks fit.
2. The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year, but it is
not mandatory to conduct all three sessions
3. There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Answer
(C)
● Article 85(1): President to summon each house of the Parliament at such time and place
as he thinks fit.
● Article 85 of the Indian Constitution mentions that 6 months shall not intervene the 2
sessions of the Parliament.
QUESTION (2017)
Q.) With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:
1. A private member’s bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected
but only nominated by the President of India.
2. Recently, a private member’s bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first
time in its history.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer
(D)
● Members of Parliament other than ministers are called Private members and bills
presented by them are known as Private Member’s bills.
● Only 14 private members’ bill had been passed since independence.
QUESTION (2016)
Q.) The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the State List
in the national interest if a resolution to that effect is passed by the
(a) Lok Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership
(b) Lok Sabha by a majority of not less than two thirds of its total membership
(c) Rajya Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership
(d) Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its members present and voting
Answer
(D)
● The Article 249 of Indian
Constitution indicates that the
power of Parliament to legislate
with respect to a matter in the
state in the national interest
requires the Council of States
to pass a resolution supported
by not less than two-third of the
members present and voting.
QUESTION (2023)
Q.) Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India:
1. The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies
of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College.
2. Higher the number of elective Assembly seats higher is the value of vote of each MLA of
that state.
3. The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala.
4. The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh
because the ratio of total population to the total number of elective seats in Puducherry is
greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer

(A)
QUESTION (2023)
Q.) Consider the following statements:
1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all
acts done by him/her in the performance of the duties of his/her office of President before
the date of decision become invalid.
2. Election for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some
Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place.
3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits
within which he/she has to declare his/her assent.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer

(D)
● Article 71 - If the election of the President of India is declared void by
the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the
performance of the duties of his/her office of President on or before
the date of decision do not become invalid.
● Election for the post of the President of India cannot be postponed on
the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved
and elections are yet to take place.
QUESTION (2018)
Q.) With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following
statements:
1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State
2. The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs
of the Rajya Sabha
Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 or 2
Answer

(A)
● Value of 1 MLA’s vote is based on total population of state to be
divided by the total MLAs. Hence it ought to vary from state to state.
● Every elected member of either House of Parliament shall have such
number of votes as may be obtained by dividing the total number of
votes assigned to members of the legislative assemblies of the states
by the total number of the elected members of both the Houses of
Parliament.
QUESTION (2018)
Q.) If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the
Constitution in respect of a particular State, then
(a) the Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.
(b) the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority
of the Parliament.
(c) Article 19 is suspended in that State.
(d) the President can make laws relating to that State.
Answer

(B)
● Under Article 356, President can declare that the powers of the state
legislature are to be exercised by the Parliament.
QUESTION (2017)
Q.) Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of
the President’s rule in a State?
1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State
3. Dissolution of the local bodies
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer

(B)
● Dissolution of State Legislative Assembly and dissolution of local
bodies is not necessarily an outcome of the proclamation of
President’s rule.
QUESTION (2015)
Q.) Consider the following statements :
1. The Executive Power of the Union of India is vested in the Prime Minister.
2. The Prime Minister is the ex officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer

(D)
● As per Article-53(1), the Executive power of the Union shall be
vested in the President and shall be exercised by him either directly
or through officers sub-ordinate to him in accordance with this
Constitution
● The Cabinet Secretary is the ex-officio Chairman of the Civil Services
Board.
QUESTION (2004)
Q.) The resolution for removing the Vice-President of India can be moved in the:
(a) Lok Sabha alone
(b) Either House of Parliament
(c) Joint Sitting of Parliament
(d) Rajya Sabha alone
Answer

(D)
● Vice-President can be removed from his office by a resolution passed
by Rajya Sabha by an absolute majority and agreed to by the Lok
Sabha. (Majority of then membership of Rajya Sabha)
 THE PRIME MINISTER,
CABINET AND COUNCIL OF
MINISTERS
QUESTION (2004)
Q.) Consider the following statements :
1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister,
Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.
2. The total number of ministers in the Union Government/including the Prime Minister, shall
not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer

(B)
● Constitution of India does not define any categorization of ministers.
QUESTION (2020)
Q.) A parliamentary system of government is one in which
(a) All political parties in the parliament are represented in the government
(b) The government is responsible to the parliament and can be removed by it
(c) The government is elected by the people and can be removed by them
(d) The government is chosen by the parliament but cannot be removed by it before
completion of a fixed term
Answer

(B)
● Article 75 - The ministers are collectively responsible to the
Parliament in general and to the Lok Sabha in particular.
QUESTION (2017)
Q.) Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle
underlying the Cabinet form of Government:
(a) An arrangement for minimizing the criticism against the Government whose
responsibilities are complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all.
(b) A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the Government whose responsibilities are
increasing day by day.
(c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the
Government to the people.
(d) A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the Government whose hold over the
people is in a state of decline.
Answer

(C)
● The principle of collective responsibility finds place in Article-75(3)
where it is stated that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively
responsible to the Lok Sabha. The ministers fall and stand together.
QUESTION (2014)
Q.) Which of the following is/are the function/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat?
1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings
2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees
3. Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer

(C)
● Management of major crisis situations in the country and
coordinating activities of various Ministries in such a situation is also
one of the functions of the Cabinet Secretariat. However, it is not the
function of Cabinet Secretariat to allocate financial resources to
ministries.
QUESTION (2013)
Q.) Consider the following statements:
1. The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament.
2. The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India.
3. The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for
Legislation.
Which of the Statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer

(B)
● According to Article 75(3) of the Constitution, the Council of Ministers
is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha and not the Parliament.
QUESTION (2023)
Q.) With reference to the Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider
the following statements
1. When the Lok Sabha transmits the Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or
reject the Bill.
2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject
the Bill, it can only make recommendations.
3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, there is no joint
sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer

(A)
QUESTION (2022)
Q.) Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha?
1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency
2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers
3. To impeach the President of India
Select the correct answer using the code given ' below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
Answer

(B)
● For the ratification of the proclamation of emergency, a resolution for
the same must be passed by special majority by the Both Houses
separately.
● Both the Houses have the role in the impeachment of the President.
QUESTION (2022)
Q.) With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements :
1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of
Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.
2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate, as Deputy Speaker of
Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the
sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.
4. The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy
Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime
Minister.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
Answer

(A)
● Upto the 10th Lok Sabha, both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker
were usually from the ruling party. Since the 11th Lok Sabha, there
has been a consensus that the Speaker comes from the ruling party
(or ruling alliance) and the post of Deputy Speaker goes to the main
opposition party.
QUESTION (2018)
Q.) Consider the following statements :
1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party
2. In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the Opposition” was recognised for the first time in 1969
3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot
be recognized as the Leader of the Opposition
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer

(B)
● The Communist Party of India came next (after Congress) with 16
seats.
● The leader of the largest Opposition party having not less than
one-tenth seats of the total strength of the House is recognized as
the leader of Opposition in that House.
QUESTION (2017)
Q.) For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by
(a) anyone residing in India.
(b) a resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.
(c) any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.
(d) any citizen of India.
Answer

(C)
Candidate should be registered as voter -
● If he/she wants to contest election for MLA, it is mandatory to be
registered as a voter at least in one of the constituency anywhere in
that State
● If he/she wants to contest election for parliament member, he/she
can be registered in any state and can contest from any of MP
constituency in the Country.
QUESTION (2017)
Q.) Consider the following statements:
1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least
50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected.
2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the
Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer

(D)
● Winning candidate is the one who secures majority votes.
● Lok Sabha only by consensus decided that speaker comes from
ruling party and deputy speaker comes from the main opposition
party.
QUESTION (2015)
Q.) With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements :
1. The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of Union Budget that is
presented to the Parliament.
2. No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the
authorization from the Parliament of India.
3. All the disbursements made from Public Account also need the authorization from the
Parliament of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer

(C)
● The Budget Division of the Department of Economic Affairs under
Ministry of Finance is responsible for the preparation of Union Budget
that is presented to the Parliament by the Finance Minister.
RAJYA SABHA
QUESTION (2013)
Q.) Consider the following statements:
1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that
House.
2. While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right
in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice
President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer

(B)
● The Chairman of Rajya Sabha is the Vice-President .However, the
Deputy Chairman is a Member of the Rajya Sabha and is elected
from among them.
QUESTION (2015)
Q.) Consider the following statements :
1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill.
2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants.
3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer

(B)
● Rajya Sabha can only discuss the Annual Financial Statement but
cannot vote on the demands for grants, which is the exclusive
privilege of the Lok Sabha.
QUESTION (2012)
Q.) Consider the following statements:
1. Union territories are not presented in the Rajya Sabha
2. It is within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate the election
disputes
3. According to the constitution of India, parliament consists of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabah
only
which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 Only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) None
Answer

(D)
● The Rajya Sabha is composed of the representatives of states and
two UTs of Delhi and Puducherry and 12 members are nominated by
the President.
● The election disputes are adjudicated by the special election
benches designated for election petitions that should only be formed
in the High Court.
● Indian Parliament consists of President, Lok Sabha and Rajya
Sabha.
QUESTION (2018)
Q.) With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary
Committees scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make
regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated
by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of
such delegation ?
(a) Committee on Government Assurances
(b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
(c) Rules Committee
(d) Business Advisory Committee
Answer

(B)
● In both the Houses, the committee consists of 15 members. It was
constituted in 1953.
QUESTION (2014)
Q.) Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament?
(a) The Committee on Public Accounts
(b) The Committee on Estimates
(c) The Committee on Public Undertakings
(d) The Committee on Petitions
Answer

(B)
● Committee on Estimates – 30 (LS +RS)
● Committee on Public Undertakings – 15(LS) + 7 (RS)
● Committee on Public Accounts – 15(LS) + 7(RS)
● Committee on Petitions – 15 (LS)
QUESTION (2022)
Q.) Consider the following statements :
1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the
Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.
2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his
resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer

(D)
● Solicitor General does not participate in the meetings of Parliament.
● There is no provision regarding the procedure and grounds for the
removal of Attorney General mentioned in the Constitution except
that he/she holds office during the pleasure of the president.
QUESTION (2013)
Q.) Consider the following statements:
Attorney General of India can
1. take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha
2. be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha
3. speak in the Lok Sabha
4. vote in the Lok Sabha
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3 only
Answer

(C)
● Article 88 provides that the Attorney General has the right to speak in
and take part in the proceedings of either house of Parliament or a
joint sitting or any of their committees. However, he does not have
the power to vote in any such proceedings.
QUESTION (2000)
Q.) Consider the following statements about the Attorney General of India :
I. He is appointed by the President of India.
II. He must have the same qualifications as are required for a Judge of the Supreme Court.
III. He must be a member of either House of Parliament.
IV. He can be removed by impeachment by Parliament.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) II, III and IV
(d) III and IV
Answer

(A)
● He hold the office during the pleasure of President and therefore he
can be removed by the President at any time.
QUESTION (2016)
Q.) Consider the following statements:
1. The chief secretary in a state is appointed by the governor of that state
2. The Chief Secretary in a state has a fixed tenure
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer

(D)
● The incumbent to the post of Chief Secretary is chosen by the Chief
Minister of the State. There is no fixed tenure for the post of Chief
Secretary.
QUESTION (2004)
Q.) Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India says that the
executive power of every State shall be so exercised as not to impede or prejudice the
exercise of the executive power of the Union?
(a) Article 257
(b) Article 258
(c) Article 355
(d) Article 356
Answer

(A)
● The provision is mentioned under Article 257 (1). Article 257 in the
Constitution of India deals with control of the union over states.
QUESTION (1995)
Q.) Which one of the following States of India does not have a Legislative Council so
far even though the Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956 provides for it ?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Bihar
(c) Karnataka
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer

(D)
● There are 7 states that have two houses (bicameral) – Andhra
Pradesh, Telangana, UP , Bihar, Maharashtra, Karnataka and J & K.
GOVERNOR
QUESTION (2019)
Q.) Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent
person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political
links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?
(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)
(b) Rajamannar Committee(1969)
(c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
(d) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution(2000)
Answer

(C)
● Sarkaria Commission recommended that Governor should be a
detached figure without intense political links or should not have
taken part in politics in recent past.
QUESTION (2018)
Q.) Consider the following statements:
1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State any court
during his term of office
2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished
during his term of office
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer

(C)
● During his term of office, he is immune from any criminal
proceedings, even in respect of his personal acts. He cannot be
arrested or imprisoned.
QUESTION (2013)
Q.) Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) In India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more States at the
same time
(b) The Judges of the High Court of the States in India are appointed by the Governor of the
State just as the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President
(c) No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a
Governor from his/her post
(d) In the case of a Union Territory having a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is appointed
by the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support
Answer

(C)
● Article 153 – Same person can be appointed as Governor of two or
more states.
● Judges of both the Supreme Court and High Court are appointed by
the President.
● In UT having a legislative setup, CM is appointed by the President
and not the Lt Governor.
QUESTION (2013)
Q.) Article 156 of the Constitution of India provides that a Governor shall hold office for
a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office. Which of the
following can be deduced from this ?
1. No Governor can be removed from office till completion of his term.
2. No Governor can continue in office beyond a period of five years.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer

(D)
● As per Article 156, the Governor shall hold office during the pleasure
of the President.
● Governor shall, not withstanding the expiration of his term, continue
to hold office until his successor enters upon his office.
QUESTION (2019)
Q.) With reference to the legislative Assembly of a state in India, consider the following
Statements:
1. The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the house at the
commencement of the first session of the year
2. When a State Legislature does not have a rule on the particular matter, it follows the Lok
Sabha rule on that matter
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer

(A)
● Speaker of the Legislative Assembly is the final interpreter of the
provisions of (a) the Constitution of India, (b) the rules of procedure
and conduct of business of assembly. So, Speaker decides it and
hence not required to follow Lok Sabha rules.
QUESTION (2018)
Q.) Consider the following statements:
1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to
be a member of the Assembly
2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her
immediately
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer

(A)
● Article 179 provides that whenever the Assembly is dissolved, the
Speaker shall not vacate his office until immediately before the first
meeting of the Assembly after the dissolution.
QUESTION (2008)
Q.) Consider the following statements :
The Constitution of India Provides that
1. The Legislative Assembly of each State shall Consist of not more than 450 members
chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the State
2. A person shall not be qualified to be chosen to fill a seat in the Legislative Assembly of a
State if he/she is less than 25 years of age
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 Only
(b) 2 Only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer

(A)
● The Constitution of India provides that the Legislative Assembly of
each State shall consist of not more than 500 members chosen by
direct election from territorial constituencies in the state.
QUESTION (2009)
Q.) Consider the following statements:
1. The Advocate General of a State in India is appointed by the President of India upon the
recommendation of the Governor of the concerned State.
2. As provided in Civil Procedure Code, High Courts have original, appellate and advisory
jurisdiction at the State level.
Which of the above statements is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer

(D)
● Each state has an Advocate-General, an official corresponding to the
Attorney-General of India and with similar functions for the state.
According to the Article 165, he is appointed by the Governor and
holds office during the pleasure of the Governor .
● High Courts are not original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction at the
state level.
QUESTION (2012)
Q.) In India other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for intended
purpose what is the importance of the office of the CAG?
1. CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the parliament when the president of India
declares national emergency/ financial emergency
2. CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed
by the PAC
3. Information form CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges
against those who have violated the law while managing public finances.
4. While dealing with audit and accounting of govt. companies, CAG has certain judicial
powers for prosecuting those who violate the law.
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer

(C)
● In India, CAG has no power in the capacity of Comptroller as he does
not exercise any type of control on exchequer. CAG reports are
discussed in the PAC meetings and it can call the CAG to attend the
meetings. CAG does not have any judicial powers for prosecuting
anyone.
QUESTION (2001)
Q.) Which one of the following duties is NOT performed by the Comptroller and Auditor
General of India ?
(a) To audit and report on all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India
(b) To audit and report on all expenditure from the Contingency Funds and Public Accounts
(c) To audit and report on all trading, manufacturing, profit and loss accounts
(d) To control the receipt and issue of public money, and to ensure that the public revenue is
lodged in the exchequer
Answer

(D)
● To control the receipt and issue of the public money and to ensure
that public revenue is lodged in the exchequer , is not the duty
performed by CAG.
QUESTION (2017)
Q.) Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in
(a) Federalism
(b) Democratic decentralisation
(c) Administrative delegation
(d) Direct democracy
Answer

(B)
● The main purpose of democratic decentralisation, however, is to
bring fundamental changes in the traditional outlook about the power
structure of the government.
QUESTION (2016)
Q.) Consider the following statements:
1. The minimum age prescribed for any person to be a member of Panchayat is 25 years.
2. A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution continues only for the remainder
period.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer

(B)
● A candidate can not be disqualified if he is less than 25 years but
more than 21 years.
QUESTION (2013)
Q.) The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act
in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective?
(a) To provide self governance
(b) To recognize traditional rights
(c) To create autonomous regions in tribal areas
(d) To free tribal people from exploitation
Answer

(C)
● The PESA Act was enacted because the provisions under the 73rd
and 74th Amendment Acts did not automatically extend to the 5th
Schedule areas.
QUESTION (2010)
Q.) Which one of the following authorities makes recommendations to the Governor of
a State as to the principles for determining the taxes and duties which may be
appropriated by the Panchayats in that particular State?
(a) District Planning Committees
(b) State Finance Commission
(c) Finance Ministry of that State
(d) Panchayati Raj Ministry of that States
Answer

(B)
● State Finance Commission makes recommendation to the Governor
of a state as to the principles for determine the taxes and duties
which may be appropriated by the Panchayats in that particular state.
QUESTION (1995)
Q.) If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to be held within:
(a) 1 month
(b) 3 months
(c) 6 months
(d) 1 year
Answer

(B)
● A clear term of five years has been provided for every Panchayat and
elections must take place before the expiry of the term. It can
however be dissolved earlier on specific grounds, in which case
election must take place within six months of its dissolution.
QUESTION (2001)
Q.) In which one of the following areas does the State Government NOT have control
over its local bodies?
(a) Citizen’s grievances
(b) Financial matters
(c) Legislation
(d) Personnel matters
Answer

(B)
● Citizen’s grievances is the area where State Government does not
have control over the local bodies.
QUESTION (2000)
Q.) A college student desires to get elected to the Municipal Council of his city. The
validity of his nomination would depend on the important condition, among others, that
(a) he obtains permission from the Principal of his college
(b) he is a member of a political party
(c) his name figures in the Voters’ List
(d) he files a declaration owing allegiance to the Constitution of India
Answer

(C)
● Under the given conditions, the important condition which should be
fulfilled is that the name of candidate should figure in the voter’s list.
QUESTION (2000)
Q.) The 73rd Constitution Amendment Act, 1992 refers to the
(a) generation of gainful employment for the unemployed and the underemployed men and
women in rural area
(b) generation of employment for the able bodied adults who are in need and desirous of
work during the lean agricultural season
(c) laying the foundation for strong and vibrant Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country
(d) guarantee of right to life, liberty and security of person, equality before law and equal
protection without discrimination
Answer

(C)
● The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 added a new part IX
to the Indian Constitution titled as ’The Panchayats’.
QUESTION (1999)
Q.) In the new Panchayati Raj Bill enacted in 1993, there are several fresh provisions
deviating from the past. Which one of the following is not one such provision ?
(a) A number of added responsibilities in the area of agriculture, rural development, primary
education and social forestry among others.
(b) Elections being made mandatory for all posts at the time they are due.
(c) A statutory representation for women in the panchayats, upto a third of the strength.
(d) Regular remuneration to the panchayat members, so as to ensure their punctuality and
accountability.
Answer

(D)
● A number of added responsibilities in the area of agriculture, rural
development, primary education and social forestry among others.
● Elections being made mandatory for all posts at the time they are
due.
● A statutory representation for women in the panchayats, upto a third
of the strength.
● Regular remuneration to the panchayat members, so as to ensure
their punctuality and accountability.
QUESTION (1997)
Q.) Which one of the following was NOT proposed by the 73rd Constitutional
Amendment in the area of Panchayati Raj?
(a) Thirty three per cent seats in all elected rural local bodies will be reserved for women
candidates at all levels
(b) The States will constitute their Finance Commissions to allocate resources to Panchayati
Raj Institutions
(c) The Panchayati Raj elected functionaries will be disqualified to hold their offices if they
have more than two children
(d) The elections will be held in six months time if Panchayati Raj bodies are superceded or
dissolved by the State government
Answer

(C)
● Under Article 243D, at least one-third of the seats have been
reserved for women in Panchayats. State Finance Commission shall
be constituted to review the financial position of the panchayats
under Article 243I
QUESTION (1996)
Q.) What is the system of governance in the Panchayati Raj setup?
(a) Single tier structure of local self government at the village level
(b) Two tier system of local self government at the village and block levels
(c) Three tier structure of local self government, at the village, block and district levels
(d) Four tier system of local self government at the village, block, district and state levels
Answer

(C)
● Article 243 B in Part IX of the Constitution envisages a 3-tier system
of Panchayats .
QUESTION (1995)
Q.) Which one of the following is incorrect in respect of Local Government in India ?
(a) According to the Indian Constitution, local government is not an independent tier in the
federal system
(b) 30% of the seats in local bodies are reserved for women
(c) Local government finances are to be provided by a Commission
(d) Elections to local bodies are to be determined by a Commission
Answer

(B)
● According to 73rd Amendment Act of 1992, under Article 243D, it has
been mentioned that not less than 1/3rd ie 33% seats in the local
bodies shall be reserved for women.
QUESTION (2021)
Q.) With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and
such accused is locked up in a police station, not in Jail.
2. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to
interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct:
(a) 1 Only
(b) 2 Only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer

(B)
● Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the
concerned magistrate and such accused is locked up in Jail.
QUESTION (2006)
Q.) Who was the Chief Justice of India when public interest litigation (PIL) was
introduced to the Indian Judicial System?
(a) M. Hidaatullah
(b) A.M. Ahmadi
(c) A.S. Anand
(d) P.N. Bhagwati
Answer

(D)
● PN Bhagwati was the Chief Justice of India when PIL was introduced
in the Indian Judicial System.
QUESTION (1997)
Q.) The concept of Public Interest Litigation originated in
(a) the United Kingdom
(b) Australia
(c) the United States
(d) Canada
Answer

(C)
● PIL is a legal action initiated in a court of law for the enforcement of
public interest. In India, PIL is a product of the judicial activism of the
Supreme Court.
QUESTION (1997)
Q.) Assertion (A): Willful disobedience or non-compliance of Court Orders and use of
derogatory language about judicial behaviour amounts to Contempt of Court.
Reason (R): Judicial activism cannot be practised without arming the judiciary with punitive
powers to punish contemptuous behaviour.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and Rare true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Answer

(B)
● Judicial activism refers to court rulings that are partially or fully based
on the judge’s political or personal considerations, rather than
existing laws.
QUESTION (2021)
Q.) With reference to Indian Judiciary, consider the following statements:
1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as a
Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the President
of India.
2. A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court
does.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 Only
(b) 2 Only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer

(A)
● Article 128 of the Constitution → The Chief Justice of India may, at
any time, with the previous consent of the President, request any
person who has held the office of a Judge of the Supreme Court to
sit and act as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
● Article 226 Of the Constitution → Being A Court Of Record, High
Court can review its own judgments.
● But as per UPSC’s Official key second statement is incorrect
QUESTION (2019)
Q.) Consider the following statements :
1. The motion to impeach a judge of the supreme court of India cannot be rejected by the
speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968
2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what constitutes ‘incapacity and
proven misbehaviour’ of the judges of the Supreme Court of India
3. The details of the process of the impeachment of the judges of the Supreme Court of
India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, of 1968
4. If the motion of the impeachment of a judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the
motion to be backed by each house of the parliament and supported by a majority of the
total membership of that house and by not less than two-thirds of the total members of
that House present and voting
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1,3 and 4
Answer

(C)
● Speaker has the discretion to admit the removal motion or refuse to
admit it.
QUESTION (2019)
Q.) With reference to the constitution of India, prohibition or limitations or provisions
contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the
constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?
(a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties can
not be challenged in any court of law.
(b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made
by the parliament.
(c) In the event of grave financial crises in the country, the President of India can declare
Financial Emergency without the counsel from the cabinet.
(d) State Legislatures can not make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of the
Union legislature.
Answer

(B)
● Article 142 states that the Supreme Court in the exercise of its
jurisdiction may pass such decree or make such order as is
necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending
before it.
QUESTION (2015)
Q.) Who/Which of the following is the custodian of the Constitution of India?
(a) The President of India
(b) The Prime Minister of India
(c) The Lok Sabha Secretariat
(d) The Supreme Court of India
Answer

(D)
● The Supreme Court of India is the custodian of the Constitution of
India as it is the final interpretor of the Constitution of India.
QUESTION (2014)
Q.) The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre
and the States falls under its
(a) Advisory jurisdiction
(b) Appellate jurisdiction
(c) Original jurisdiction
(d) Writ jurisdiction
Answer

(C)
● Original jurisdiction is the power to hear a case for the first time. The
Supreme Court has exclusive original jurisdiction on all cases
between the centre and states of India, according to Article (3).
QUESTION (2014)
Q.) The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is
vested in
(a) the President of India
(b) the Parliament
(c) the Chief Justice of India
(d) the Law Commission
Answer

(B)
● The Parliament is given the power to increase the number of
Supreme Court Judges, according to the needs and circumstances.
QUESTION (2007)
Q.) Consider the following statements:
1. The mode of removal of a Judge of a High Court in India is same as that of removal of a
Judge of the Supreme Court.
2. After retirement from the office, a permanent Judge of a High Court cannot plead or act in
any court or before any authority in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer

(A)
● After retirement, a Judge of High Court cannot serve in any court or
before any authority in India except in the Supreme Court and High
Court than the High Court in which he hold the office (Article 220).
QUESTION (2003)
Q.) Which one of the following High Courts has the Territorial Jurisdiction over
Andaman and Nicobar Islands?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Kolkata
(c) Chennai
(d) Odisha
Answer

(B)
● Kolkata High Court has jurisdiction over the Andaman and Nicobar.
QUESTION (2018)
Q.) Consider the following statements :
1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the
Constitution of India
2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and
no judgment can be made on it
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer

(A)
● In I.R. Coelho case(2007), the Supreme Court ruled that there could
not be any blanket immunity from judicial review of laws included in
the Ninth Schedule.
QUESTION (2017)
Q.) In India, Judicial Review implies
(a) the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive
orders.
(b) the power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the
Legislatures.
(c) the power of the Judiciary to review all the legislative enactments before they are
assented to by the President.
(d) the power of the Judiciary to review its own judgements given earlier in similar or different
cases.
Answer

(A)
● Judicial Review is a process under which executive and legislative(in
some countries) actions are subject to review by the judiciary.
QUESTION (1998)
Q.) The Indian parliamentary system is different from the British parliamentary system
in that India has
(a) both a real and a nominal executive
(b) a system of collective responsibility
(c) bicameral legislature
(d) the system of judicial review
Answer

(D)
● Independence of Judiciary and Judicial review have been taken from
the US Constitution. In the context of UK, the Parliament is Supreme.
QUESTION (2022)
Q.) Consider the following statements :
1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of
India.
2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory
for the President of India to give his/her assent.
3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya
Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer

(B)
● No prior approval of the President is required for the Constitutional
Amendment Act.
QUESTION (2021)
Q.) What is the position of the Right to Property in India?
(a) Legal right available to citizens only
(b) Legal right available to any person
(c) Fundamental Right available to citizens only
(d) Neither Fundamental Right nor legal right
Answer

(B)
● The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 abolished the right to property as a
Fundamental Right by repealing Article 19(1) (f) and Article 31 from
Part III.
● The Act inserted a new Article 300A in Part XII under the heading
‘Right to Property’. It provides that no person shall be deprived of his
property except by authority of law → the right to property remains a
legal right or a constitutional right, though no longer a fundamental
right.
QUESTION (2020)
Q.) Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in
(a) The matter of creating new All India services
(b) Amending the Constitution
(c) The removal of the government
(d) Making cut motions
Answer

(B)
● Article 368 of the Indian Constitution, a bill to amend the Constitution
can be introduced in either house of the Parliament and both the
houses have equal powers in respect to the Constitutional
Amendment Bill.
QUESTION (2019)
Q.) With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements :
1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally
invalid
2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme
Court of India
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer

(D)
● 42nd Amendment Act inserted Article 226A : No High Court shall
have jurisdiction to declare any Central law to be constitutionally
invalid. However, the 43rd Amendment Act of 1977 restored the
original position.
QUESTION (2019)
Q.) Consider the following statements :
1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the
election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review
2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India
as being violative of the independence of judiciary
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer

(B)
● The Parliament passed the 39th amendment to the Constitution
which removed the authority of the Supreme Court to adjudicate
petitions regarding elections of the President, Vice President, Prime
Minister and Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
QUESTION (1999)
Q.) Consider the following statements :
An amendment of the Constitution of India can be initiated by the
I. Lok Sabha.
II. Rajya Sabha.
III. State Legislatures.
IV. President.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) I alone
(b) I, II and III
(c) II, III and IV
(d) I and II
Answer

(D)
● An amendment of the Constitution may be initiated only by the
introduction of a Bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament.
QUESTION (1997)
Q.) Assertion (A): The reservation of thirty three per cent of seats for women in Parliament
and State Legislatures does not require Constitutional amendment.
Reason (R): Political parties contesting elections can allocate thirty three per cent of seats
they contest to women candidates without any Constitutional amendment.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and Rare true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Answer

(D)
● The reservation of 33% of seats for women in parliament and State
Legislature require Constitutional Amendment.
QUESTION (1995)
Q.) Which of the following are matters on which a constitutional amendment is possible
only with the ratification of the legislatures of not less than one half of the States?
I. Election of the President
II. Representation of States in Parliament
III. Any of the Lists in the 7th Schedule
IV. Abolition of the Legislative Council of a State
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
(a) I, II and III
(b) I, II and IV
(c) I, III and IV
(d) II, III and IV
Answer

(A)
● Under Article 169, Parliament through law can create or abolish
Legislative Council of State, if the Legislative assembly of the state
passes a resolution to that effect by a special majority. It does not
require the ratification by other states and it is also not deemed an
amendment under Article 368.
QUESTION (2020)
Q.) Consider the following statements:
1. According to the Constitution of India, a person who is eligible to vote can be made a
minister in a state for six months even if he/she is not a member of that state
2. According to the Representation of People Act,1951, a person convicted of a criminal
offence and sentenced to imprisonment for five years is permanently disqualified from
contesting an election even after his release from prison
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer

(D)
● Some experts interpret that even 18 or 19 year old person (Who is
eligible to vote), can become minister for atleast 6 months . However,
Constitution itself has not specifically said this.
● As per the Representation of People Act, 1951 - if person jailed for
not less than two years, shall be disqualified from the date of such
conviction and shall continue to be disqualified for a further period of
six years since his release. There is no clause of “permanent
disqualification”.
QUESTION (2019)
Q.) Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from
disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’
2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times
3. The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined in the Constitution of India
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3
Answer

(A)
● The expression 'office of profit' has not been defined in the
Constitution or in the Representation of the People Act, 1951. It has
been mentioned in the Article 102 and 191 of the Constitution.
QUESTION (2022)
Q.) With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements :
1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six
months of being appointed to the House.
2. The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide
a defection case.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer

(B)
● A nominated member of a House becomes disqualified for being a
member of the House if he joins any political party after the expiry of
six months from the date on which he takes his seat in the House.
QUESTION (2014)
Q.) Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains
provisions regarding anti-defection?
(a) Second Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Eighth Schedule
(d) Tenth Schedule
Answer

(D)
● The 10th Schedule to the Indian Constitution, that is popularly known
as the ‘Anti-Defection Law’ was inserted by the 52nd Amendment of
the Constitution in 1985.
QUESTION (1998)
Q.) Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains
provisions regarding Anti-Defection Act?
(a) Second Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Eighth Schedule
(d) Tenth Schedule
Answer

(D)
● Tenth schedule (Article 102(2) and 191(2)) contains provisions as to
disqualification on ground of defection. It was introduced by 52nd
Amendment Act, 1985.
QUESTION (2002)
Q.) Which one of the following authorities recommends the principles governing the
grants-in-aid of the revenues to the states out of the Consolidated Fund of India?
(a) Finance Commission
(b) Inter State Council
(c) Union Ministry of Finance
(d) Public Accounts Committee
Answer

(A)
● The Principles governing grants-in-aid of revenues of the state out of
Consolidated Fund of India are recommended by Finance
Commission.
QUESTION (2000)
Q.) The primary function of the Finance Commission in India is to
(a) distribute revenue between the Centre and the States
(b) prepare the Annual Budget
(c) advise the President on financial matters
(d) allocate funds to various ministries of the Union and State Governments
Answer

(C)
● The Finance Commission is an advisory body. It does not allocate
the funds to ministries nor distribute revenue between Centre and
States. Annual Budget is prepared by Finance Ministry.
QUESTION (2023)
Q.) With reference to ‘Scheduled Areas’ in India, consider the following statements:
1. Within a State, the notification of an area as a Scheduled Area takes place through an
Order of the President.
2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest
is the cluster of villages in the Block.
3. The Chief Ministers of the concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the
Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer

(B)
QUESTION (2022)
Q.) If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India,
which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it?
(a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.
(b) This would create a local self-governing body in that area.
(c) This would convert that area into a Union Territory.
(d) The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State.
Answer

(A)
● Governor can make regulations for the peace and good government
of a scheduled area after consulting the tribes advisory council. Such
regulations may prohibit or restrict the transfer of land by tribal to non
tribal members or among members of the scheduled tribes, regulate
the allotment of land to members of the scheduled tribes.
QUESTION (2019)
Q.) Under which schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to
private parties for mining be declared null and void?
(a) Third Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Ninth Schedule
(d) Twelfth Schedule
Answer

(B)
● Fifth Schedule deals with the administration and control of scheduled
areas.
● The Governor can make regulations to prohibit or restrict the transfer
of land by or among members of the scheduled tribes.
QUESTION (2019)
Q.) The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime
membership of
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(c) Indira Gandhi
(d) Morarji Desai
Answer

(A)
● To ensure that agrarian reform legislation did not run into heavy
weather, the legislature amended the Constitution in the year 1951
which inserted Ninth Schedule during the tenure of Prime Minister Pt.
Jawahar Lal Nehru.
QUESTION (2015)
Q.) The provisions in Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India
are made in order to
(a) protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes
(b) determine the boundaries between States
(c) determine the powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats
(d) protect the interests of all the border States
Answer

(A)
● Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and
control of Scheduled areas and Scheduled Tribes in any state except
the four states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
● Sixth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration of the
Tribal Areas in the four North – Eastern states of Assam, Meghalaya,
Tripura and Mizoram.