MR 1


APR 16 ,2025
PHYSICS FULL SYLLABUS TEST

1. Two hollow conducting spheres of radii R1 and R2 4. A biconvex lens has radii of curvature, 20 cm
(R1 >>R2) have equal charges. The potential would each. if the refractive index of the material of the
be : lens is 1.5, the power of the lens is :-
(1) more on smaller sphere
(1) +20 D (2) +5D
(2) equal on both the spheres
(3) dependent on the material property of the (3) infinity (4) +2D
sphere
(4) more on bigger sphere 5. Tuning fork having n = 300 Hz produces 5 beats/sec.
2. The angular speed on a fly wheel moving with with another tuning fork. If impurity is added on the arm
uniform angular acceleration changes from of known tuning fork number of beats decreases then
1200 rpm to 3120 rpm in 16 seconds. The find frequency of unknown tuning fork ?
angular acceleration in rad/s2 is :
(1) 4 (2) 12 (3) 104 (4) 2 (1) 290 Hz (2) 305 Hz
(3) 300 Hz (4)295 Hz

6. The ratio of the radius of gyration of a thin

3. uniform disc about an axis passing through its
centre and normal to its plane to the radius of
gyration of the disc about its diameter is :

(1)

(2) 4 : 1

(3)

(4) 2 : 1
7. A shell of mass m is at rest initially. It explodes
into three fragments having mass in the ratio
2 : 2 : 1. If the fragments having equal mass fly off
along mutually perpendicular directions with
In the given circuits (a), (b) and (c), the potential
speed v, the speed of the third (lighter) fragment is
drop across the two p-n junctions are equal in :
(1) Circuit (b) only (1)
(2) Circuit (c) only
(3) Both circuits (a) and (c) (2)
(4) Circuit (a) only
(3)

(4) v

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 13. Two resistors of resistance, 100  and 200  are
8. A long solenoid of radius 1 mm has 100 turns per
 connected in parallel in an electrical circuit. The
mm. If 1A current flows in the solenoid, the
ratio of the thermal energy developed in 100  to
magnetic field strength at the centre of the
that in 200  in a given time is :

solenoid is
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 4
(1) 12.56 × 10–2 T (2) 12.56 × 10–4 T
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 2
(3) 6.28 × 10–4 T (4) 6.28 × 10–2 T
14. The graph which shows the variation of the de
9. Let T1 and T2 be the energy of an electron in the
Broglie wavelength () of a particle and its
first and second excited states of hydrogen atom,
associated momentum (p) is :
respectively. According to the Bohr's model of an
atom, the ratio T 1 : T2 is : 
(1)  (2)
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 4 : 9
(3) 9 : 4 (4) 1 : 4
10. A light ray falls on a glass surface of refractive

index , at an angle 60°. The angle between (3) (4) 
the refracted and reflected rays would be :
(1) 60° (2) 90°
15. A square loop of side 1 m and resistance 1  is
(3) 120° (4) 30°
placed in a magnetic field of 0.5 T. If the plane of
11. Plane angle and solid angle have : loop is perpendicular to the direction of magnetic

(1) Dimensions but no units field, the magnetic flux through the loop is :
(1) 0.5 weber
(2) No units and no dimensions
(2) 1 weber
(3) Both units and dimensions
(3) Zero weber
(4) Units but no dimensions
(4) 2 weber
12. When light propagates through a material
16. The pitch of a screw gauge is 0.5 mm and there are
medium of relative permittivity r and relative
50 divisions on the circular scale. In measuring the
permeability µr, the velocity of light,  is given by: thickness of a metal plate, there are five divisions on the
pitch scale (or main scale) and thirty fourth division
(c-velocity of light in vacuum)
coincides with the reference line. Calculate the thickness
of the metal plate.
(1)  =
 (1) 2.80 mm (2) 2.82 mm (3) 2.84 mm (4) 2.86 mm


(2)  =
17. If the initial tension on a stretched string is
doubled, then the ratio of the initial and final
(3)  =
 speeds of a transverse wave along the string is:
(4)  = c (1)

(2)
(3) 1:2
(4) 1:1


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

18.
 In half wave rectification, if the input frequency is 21. The displacement-time graphs of two moving

60 Hz, then the output frequency would be : particles make angles of 30° and 45° with the

(1) 30 Hz x-axis as shown in the figure. The ratio of their

(2) 60 Hz respective velocity is :

(3) 120 Hz

(4) Zero

19. An ideal gas undergoes four different processes

from the same initial state as shown in the figure

below . Those processes are adiabatic, isothermal,

isobaric and isochoric. The curve which represents

(1) 1 : 1
the adiabatic process among 1,2,3 and 4 is : (2) 1 : 2
(3) 1 :
(4) :1
22. In a Young's double slit experiment, a student
observes 8 fringes in a certain segment of screen
when a monochromatic light of 600 nm wavelength
is used. If the wavelength of light is changed to 400

(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 1 nm, then the number of fringes he would observe in
20. Match List – I with List –II the same region of the screen is :
List –I List-II (1) 8
(Electromagnetic (Wavelength) (2) 9
waves)
(3) 12
(a) AM radio waves (i) 10
–10
m (4) 6
(b) Microwaves (ii) 10 m
2 23. The peak voltage of the ac source is equal to:
(c) Infrared radiations (iii) –2 (1) the rms value of the ac source
10 m
(2) times the rms value of the ac source
(d) X-rays (iv) 10
–4
m
(3) time the rms value of the ac source
Choose the correct answer from the options
(4) the value of voltage supplied to the circuit.
given below :

(1) (a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iv)

(2) (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)

(3) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)

(4) (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)

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24.
28. The angle between the electric lines of force and
the equipotential surface is:
(1) 45° (2) 90° 
(3) 180° (4) 0°
29 A copper wire of length 10 m and radius

(  ) has electrical resistance of 10 .

The current density in the wire for an electric field

strength of 10 (V/m) is:
25. As the temperature increase, the electrical (1) 106 A/m2
resistance : (2) 10–5 A/m2
(1) decreases for both conductors and (3) 105 A/m2
semiconductors (4) 104 A/m2
(2) increases for conductors but decreases for 30. The ratio of the distances travelled by a freely
semiconductors falling body in the 1st, 2nd, 3rd and 4th second :
(3) decreases for conductors but increase for (1) 1 : 4 : 9 : 16
semiconductors (2) 1 : 3 : 5 : 7
(4) increases for both conductors and (3) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
semiconductors. (4) 1 : 2 : 3 : 4
26. The energy that will be ideally radiated by a 100
31. A nucleus of mass number 189 splits into two
kW transmitter in 1 hour is :
(1) 36 × 104 J nuclei having mass number 125 and 64. The ratio
(2) 36 × 105 J of radius of two daughter nuclei respectively is:
(3) 1 × 105 J
(1) 4 : 5
(4) 36 × 107 J
27. A body of mass 60 g experiences a gravitational (2) 5 : 4
force of 3.0 N, when placed at a particular point. (3) 25 : 16
The magnitude of the gravitational field intensity
(4) 1 : 1
at that point is:
(1) 50 N/kg
(2) 20 N/kg
(3) 180 N/kg
(4) 0.05 N/kg

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32. A capacitor of capacitance C = 900 pF is charged 35. A ball is projected with a velocity, 10 ms –1, at an
fully by 100 V battery B as shown in figure (a). angle of 60° with the vertical direction. Its speed at
 Then it is disconnected from the battery and the highest point of its trajectory will be:
connected to another uncharged capacitor of (1) −
(2) 5 ms–1
capacitance C = 900 pF as shown in figure (b). (3) 10 ms–1 (4) Zero
The electrostatic energy stored by the system (b) 36. Two transparent media A and B are separated by
is: a plane boundary. The speed of light in those
media are 1.5 × 108 m/s and 2.0 × 108 m/s,
respectively. The critical angle for a ray of light for
these two media is:
(1) sin–1(0.750) (2) tan–1 (0.500)
(3) tan (0.750)
–1
(4) sin–1 (0.500)
37.

(1) 3.25 × 10–6 J (2) 2.25 × 10–6 J

(3) 1.5 × 10–6 J (4) 4.5 × 10–6 J
33. Match List - I with List - II :
The truth table for the given logic circuit is :
List - I List – II
(a) Gravitational (i) [L2T–2]
constant (G) (1) (2)
(b) Gravitational (ii) [M–1L3T–2]
potential energy
(c) Gravitational (iii) [LT–2]
potential
(d) Gravitational (iv) [ML2T–2] (3) (4)
intensity
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below :
(1) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(i), (d)– (iii)
38. The velocity v of a particle at time t is given by
(2) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(iii), (d)– (i)
b
(3) (a)–(iv), (b)–(ii), (c)–(i), (d)– (iii) v = at + , where a, b and c are constants. The
t+c
(4) (a)–(ii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iv), (d)– (iii)
dimensions of a, b and c are respectively :-
(1) LT–2, L and T (2) L2, T and LT2
34. The main scale of a vernier callipers has
n divisions/cm. (n+1) divisions of the vernier scale (3) LT2, LT and L (4) L, LT and T2
coincide with n divisions of main scale. The least
count of the vernier callipers is
1 1
(a) cm (b) cm
(n + 1) (n − 1) n
1 1
(c) cm (d) cm
2 n(n + 1)
n

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  43. A big circular coil of 1000 turns and average
39. A series LCR circuit with inductance 10 H,
capacitance 10 F, resistance 50  is connected radius 10 m is rotating about its horizontal
to an ac source of voltage, V = 200 sin (100 t)

diameter at 2 rad s . If the vertical component of
–1

volt. If the resonant frequency of the LCR circuit is

earth's magnetic field at that place is 2 × 10–5 T
o and the frequency of the ac source is , then
and electrical resistance of the coil is 12.56 ,
(1)  =  =

then the maximum induced current in the coil will
(2)  = =
 be :
(3)  =  = (1) 1.5 A (2) 1 A (3) 2 A (4) 0.25 A

(4) o =  = 50 Hz
44. Two point charges –q and +q are placed at a
40. A particle have initial velocity 10 m/s. Its acceleration
distance of L, as shown in the figure.
time graph is shown. Find out its velocity at t = 10 sec.

a(m/s 2)
20

The magnitude of electric field intensity at a

O 5 10 t(s) distance

R (R >>L) varies as :
(1) 110 m/s (2) 150 m/s
(3) 160 m/s (4) 100 m/s
(1)

41. An aeroplane is flying horizontally at height of (2)

4500 m with speed 50 m/s. Than an object is released
from it find out horizontal distance covered by object
when it reaches on ground (Range). (3)

(1) 4500 m (2) 3000 m

(3) 750 m (4) 1500 m (4)

42. When two monochromatic lights of frequency, 


and are incident on a photoelectric metal, their 45. Two objects of mass 10 kg and 20 kg respectively
are connected to the two ends of a rigid rod of
stopping potential becomes and Vs length 10 m with negligible mass. The distance of
the center of mass of the system from the 10 kg
respectively. The threshold frequency for this mass is :
metal is: (1) (2) 10 m

(1) 3 (2) 
(3) 5 m (4)

(3)  (4) 2


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 CHEMISTRY

Q.46 Hybridisation and shape of XeOF4 are Q.52 Assertion : Propene reacts with HBr in presence
of benzoyl peroxide to yield 2-bromopropane.
(a) sp3d3 and Pentagonal bipyramidal
Reason : In presence of peroxide, the addition
(b) sp3d2 and Square pyramidal
of HBr to propene follows ionic mechanism.
(c) sp3d and Trigonal bipyramidal
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason
(d) sp3d3 and Distorted octahedral is the correct explanation of assertion.
Q.47 Producer gas is mixture of (b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason
(a) CO and H2 (b) CO and N2 is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) CO and CO2 (d) N2 and H2 (c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Q.48 Thermal decomposition of NH 4NO 3 will
produce
(a) N2O (b) NO
(c) N2 (d) NH3 Q.53

Product A is :
Q.49 
For a reversible reaction, A(g)   2B(g), if
volume of the container is halved, then
equilibrium constant will
(a) (b)
(a) Become 2 times (b) Become 4 times
1
(c) Become (d) Remain same
2

Q.50 If equilibrium constants of reactions A  B (c) (d)

and C  D are K1 and K2 respectively, then
the equilibrium constant for the reaction
D + B  A + C will be
1 1 Q.54 Which of the following will NOT undergo SN1
(a) K  K (b) K K
1 2 1 2 reaction with OH–?
K1 (a) CH2 = CH – CH2Cl (b) (CH3)3 CCl
(c) K (d) K1K 2
2

Q.51 Oxide of nitrogen which is blue solid and is (c) (d)

acidic in nature is Cl
(a) N2O (b) N2O4
(c) N2O5 (d) N2O3

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Q.55 Complex formed in brown ring test for Q.59 What weight of 70% (w/w) HNO3 is required
nitrates is to prepare 250 ml of 2 molar aqueous HNO3?

(a) [Fe(H 2 O)5 (NO)]2 (b) [Fe(H 2 O)5 (NO)]3 (a) 22.5 g (b) 45 g
(c) 90 g (d) 180 g
(c) [Fe(H 2 O)4 (NO)2 ] (d) [Fe(H 2 O)6 ]3
Q.60 Correct order of negative electron gain
Q.56 Major product of the given reaction is : enthalpy of the given elements is
(a) Cl < F < O < S (b) O < S < F < Cl
(c) F < S < O < Cl (d) S < O < Cl < F

Q.61 Which of the following species has only 

bonds according to MOT?
(a) C2 (b) N2
(a) (b)
(c) O2 (d) F2

Q.62 Deficiency of which vitamin causes scurvy?

(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin B
(c) (d)
(c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin D

Q.63 Statement-I : Proton acceptability (Basic nature)

Q.57 Resonance effect of the substituent with of aniline would be less than that of ammonia.
benzene ring is not observed in
Statement-II : Lone pair of nitrogen in Aniline
is involved in resonance.
(a) (b)
(a) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.
(b) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
incorrect.

(c) (d) (c) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is

correct.
(d) Both statement-I and statement-II are
incorrect.

Q.58 The alkane that gives only one mono-chloro

Q.64 Which of the following is a free radical
product on chlorination with Cl2 in presence substitution reaction ?
of diffused sunlight is
(a) Benzene with Br2/AlCl3
(a) Propane (b) Ethane
(b) Acetylene with HBr
(c) n-Butane (d) 2-methyl propane
(c) Methane with Br2/hv
(d) Propene with HBr/(C6H5COO)2

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Q.65 If the rate constant of a first order reaction Q.70 Arrange the following complexes in correct
is 9.212 × 10–3 s–1, then the time required order of crystal field splitting energy
for the completion of 75% of the reaction
will be [Fe(H 2 O)6 ]2+ [FeCl 6 ]4– [Fe(H 2 O)6 ]3+
(a) 250 s (b) 150 s I II III
(c) 450 s (d) 500 s (a) III > I > II (b) I > II > III
Q.66 NBS
 Alc. KOH
 P   Q; Q is : (c) III > II > I (d) II > I > III
Δ
Q.71 A gas is allowed to expand in an insulated
(a) (b) container against a constant external
pressure of 5 atm from an initial volume of
1.75 L to a final volume of 6.75 L. The
(c) (d) change in internal energy (U) of the gas in
joules will be
(a) –2.5 kJ (b) –4.5 kJ
H 3O+
Q.67 HCHO + X 
 C6 H 5 – CH 2 OH (c) –1.25 kJ (d) –3.2 kJ
X is
Q.72 pH of 0.2 M aqueous solution of sodium
(a) C6H5 – MgBr (b) C6H5 – CHO benzoate will be (pKa of benzoic acid = 4.2)
(c) C6H5 – OH (d) C6H5 – CH3 (a) 9.50 (b) 8.75
(c) 10.25 (d) 7.50
1. O3
Q.68 CH 3 – CH = CH – CH 3  A
2. Zn/H2O
Q.73 Which among the following is smallest in size?
A is :
(a) Tm (b) Ce
(a) CH 3  CHO
(c) Eu (d) Tb
(b) CH 3  CH  CH  CHO
Q.74 Identifying a reagent from the following list
(c) CH 3  CH  CH 2  CHO which can easily distinguish between
|
OH 1-butyne and 2-butyne:

(d) CH 3  CH 2  CH 2  CH 2 (a) bromine, CCl4

|
OH (b) H2, Lindlar catalyst
(c) dilute H2SO4, HgSO4
Q.69 Hot concentrated sulphuric acid is a moderately
strong oxidizing agent. Which of the following (d) ammonical Cu2Cl2 solution
reactions does not show oxidizing behaviour ?
(a) C + 2H2SO4  CO2 + 2SO2 + 2H2O Q.75 In a following of reaction, CH3CH2OH
(b) CaF2 + H2SO4  CaSO4 + 2HF P
+I 2
  A MG

ether
2O
 B  C H D
(c) Cu + 2H2SO4  CuSO4 + SO2 + 2H2O the compound D is
(d) 3S + 2H2SO4  3SO2 + 2H2O (a) Butanal (b) n-butyl alcohol
(c) n-propyl alcohol (d) pronanal

Q.76 Percentage ionization of K3[Fe(CN)6] whose

decimolar solution shows an osmotic
pressure of 3.94 atm at 300 K is
(a) 50% (b) 35%
(c) 20% (d) 10%

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Q.77 How much time is required to decompose Q.84 Solubility of AgI in presence of 0.2 M NaI
18 g water electrolytically into H2 and O2 by solution will be (Ksp of AgI = 8.3 × 10–17)
passing 3 A current? (a) 8.3 × 10–16 M
(a) 8.93 hours (b) 17.87 hours (b) 4.15 × 10–17 M
(c) 35.74 hours (d) 22.89 hours (c) 4.15 × 10–16 M
Q.78 Calculate the pH of CH3COOH solution, if (d) 8.3 × 10–17 M
equivalent conductance of 1 M CH3COOH
Q.85 How much charge is present on 3 grams of
is 10 ohm–1 cm2 eq–1 and at infinite dilution
CO 32– ions?
is 200 ohm–1 cm2 eq–1 (Given : log5 = 0.7)
(a) 600 C (b) 9600 C
(a) 2.7 (b) 1.3
(c) 96 C (d) 1000 C
(c) 1.7 (d) 3

Q.79 A 10 g sample of CaCO3 with 80% purity Q.86 The angular momentum of electron in 'd'
was heated to a constant weight volume of orbital is equal to :-
CO2 gas liberated under STP conditions is
(a) 2 (b) 2 3 
approximately
(a) 5.64 L (b) 2.24 L (c) 0 (d) 6
(c) 0.22 L (d) 1.8 L

87. In the given redox reaction, moles of OH required
Q.80 Given Eº Cr 3+ /Cr = – 0.72 V, Eº Fe2+ /Fe = –0.42 V. to react completely with one mole of P4 is

The potential for the cell Cr|Cr3+ (0.1 M) || 

P4  OH  H2O  PH3  H2PO2
Fe2+(0.01 M) | Fe is
(1) 3 (2) 5
(a) 0.339 V (b) –0.339 V
5
(c) –0.26 V (d) 0.26 V (3) 2 (4)
2
88. In H-atom spectrum electron jumps from 5th
81. Which among the following has highest dipole
excited state to 1st excited state then total number
moment?
of spectral lines, number of lines in Lyman series
(1) NH3 (2) CHCl3 and Paschen series respectively are
(3) H2S (4) CCl4 (1) 10, 4, 3 (2) 15, 0, 4
(3) 15, 4, 5 (4) 10, 0, 3
82. The enthalpy of vaporization of H2O(l) is x kJ/mol
and enthalpy of formation of water vapour
y kJ/mol. Enthalpy of formation of H2O would be 89. Which lanthanide ion is smallest in size?
(1) (y – x) kJ mol –1 (1) Tb3+ (2) La3+
(2) (x – y) kJ mol–1 (3) Tm3+ (4) Nd3+
(3) (x + y) kJ mol–1
(4) (2x – y) kJ mol–1 90. The vapour density of N2O4 at certain temperature
is 23. The degree of dissociation of N2O4 is
83. Glucose does not react with (1) 0.75 (2) 0.56
(1) Tollen’s reagent (3) 0.89 (4) 1
(2) NaHSO3
(3) Br2 water
(4) NH2OH

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 BIOLOGY
91. Consider the following statements 96. Which of the following destorys the enzymatic
Statement I: Higher the taxa, more are the activity
characteristics that members within the taxon (1) High temperature
share.
(2) Low temperature
Statement II: Lower the category greater is the
difficulty of determining the relationship to other (3) Optimum pH
taxa at the same level.
(4) Both (2) and (3)
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
97. In which of the following groups are the three
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect examples of polysaccharides
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(1) Starch, glycogen, cellulose
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2) Sucrose, Maltose, glucose
92. Match the following and choose the correct option
Column I Column II (3) Glucose, fructose, lactose

A. Arthropoda (i) Subphylum (4) Galactose, starch, sucrose

B. Tetrapoda (ii) Phylum 98. Fermentation takes place under ______ conditions
in _______ prokaryotes and unicellular eukaryotes:
C. Chondrichthyes (iii) Super class
(1) anaerobic, all (2) anaerobic, many
D. Tunicata (iv) Class
(3) aerobic, all (4) aerobic, many
(1) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)
99. Which of the following acts as a reducing agent
(2) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
in fermentation
(3) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)
(1) NADH + H+ (2) NAD+
(4) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(iii)
(3) Lactate (4) Alcohol
93. Choose the incorrect option about virus
100. Which of the following is a physiological effect of
(1) The protein coat called capsid made of small Gibberellins
subunits called capsomers.
(1) GA3 is used to speed up the malting process in
(2) Capsomeres are arranged in helical or icosahedron brewing industry
form (2) They promote senescence
(3) Virus contains DNA or RNA or both (RNA and DNA) (3) They shorten the market period

(4) None of these (4) Induce parthenocarpy in tomatoes.

94. Which of the following is not a stem modification 101. In general, which of the following is not an
adaptation seen in parasites in accordance with
(1) Thorns of citrus.
their life style
(2) Tendrils of cucumber (1) Loss of unnecessary sense organs
(3) Flattened structures of opuntia (2) Presence of adhesive organs
(4) Pitcher of nepenthes (3) Low reproductive capacity
95. Which of the following is true about chloroplast (4) Loss of digestive system
(1) One in chlamydomonas 102. MacArthur's Warblers could coexist due to :

(2) 20-40 in mesophyll cell of leaf (1) Behavioural differences in their foraging activites

(3) Present in different shapes. (2) Temporal differences in their foraging activites

(4) All of these (3) Spatial differences in their foraging activities

(4) Both (1) and (3)

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103. Which of the following cellular components can 109. Which of the following statements is not correct
be seen at the end of prophase about Protista:

(1) Golgi bodies (1) Reproduce asexually and sexually

(2) ER (2) Primarily aquatic

(3) Nucleolus (3) Boundaries are well defined

(4) Compact mitotic chromosome (4) Single celled eukaryotes

104. The strobili bearing microsporophylls and 110. In dorsiventral leaf, what is true regarding the
microsporangia are called : number of stomata:

(1) Microsporangiate strobili (1) Stomata more on adaxial surface

(2) Stomata more on abaxial surface
(2) Male strobili
(3) Stomata absent
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Number of stomata equal on both surface
(4) Female strobili
111. Correct statements for anaphase are :
105. Capping is process in which :
(i) Centromeres split and chromatids separate
(1) Methyl guanosine is added at 3' end of mRNA.
(ii) Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER form.

(2) Methyl guanosine triphosphate is added to 5' end (iii) Chromatid move to opposite pole.
(iv) Initiation of attachment of spindle fibres to
of hnRNA.
kinetochore of chromosomes.
(3) Adenylate residues are added at 5' end of mRNA. (1) All are correct
(2) Only (i), (ii) & (iii)
(4) Adenylate residues are added at 3' end of mRNA.
(3) (i), (ii) & (iv)
106. Which of the following statement is incorrect
(4) (i) & (iii)
(1) Rauwolfia vomitoria is a medicinal plant,
112. Proboscis gland in in Balanoglossus is associated
(2) Rauwolfia vomitoria is growing in different Himalayan with:
ranges (1) Digestion (2) Respiration
(3) India has more than 50,000 genetically different (3) Reproduction (4) Excretion
strains of rice 113. All mammals, without any exception, are
characterised by :
(4) In India 10,000 varieties of mango are found
(1) They all are viviparous.
107. Statement-1 :- In paddy fields, cyanobacteria serve
(2) Respiration is done by gill-slits & lungs.
as an important biofertiliser.
(3) The all are poikilothermal.
Statement-2: The Ladybird beetles is useful to get
rid of mosquitoes. (4) A four chambered heart and milk producing glands.
114. Identify the true statements -
(1) Both statement (1) and (2) are correct
(A) Tight junctions help to stop substances from
(2) Both statement (1) and (2) are incorrect
leaking across a tissue.
(3) Only statement (1) is correct
(B) Adhering junctions perform cementing to keep
(4) Only statement (2) is correct
neighbouring cells together.
108. Which of the following statement is false :
(C) Gap junctions facilitate the cells to
(1) The microsporangia develop further and become communicate with each other by connecting
pollen sac the cytoplasm of adjoining cells for rapid
(2) A typical angiospermic anther are generally bilobed transfer of ions, small molecules and
sometimes big molecule.
(3) The distal end of filament is attached to the
thalamus (1) Only B (2) Only B, C
(4) The ploidy of sporogenous tissue is diploid (3) A, C (4) A, B, C

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115. Which of the following chamber of the heart has 120. Given below are two statements , one is labelled
thickest muscular wall as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R).
(1) Right atrium
Assertion (A):
(2) Left atrium Frog exhibit sexual dimarphism.

(3) Left ventricle Reason (R) :

In male frog vocal sac and copulatory pad are
(4) Right ventricle
present that are absent in female frog.
116. Consider the following statements :
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(a) Somatic neural system relays impulses from most appropriate answer from the options given
CNS to skeletal muscles. below :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
(b) Autonomic neural system transmits impulses
correct explanation of (A)
from CNS to involuntary organs and smooth
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
muscles.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(c) Non myelinated nerve fibres are mainly found
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
in spinal and cranial nerves. explanation of (A)
Which of the above statements are true? 121. How many matching are correct:
a. Amyloplast – Carbohydrate
(1) a and b only
b. Elaioplast – Xanthophyll
(2) a and e only
c. Aleuroplast – Protein
(3) b and e only
d. Chromoplast – Fat
(4) All a, b and c e. Chloroplast – Chlorophyll
117. The abdomen in male and female cockroach (1) 3
consists of :
(2) 2
(1) 10 and 11 segments respectively.
(3) 4
(2) 9 and 10 segments respectively.
(4) 1
(3) 10 and 10 segments respectively.
122. What is the characters of the flower in which
(4) 10 and 9 segments respectively. pollination takes place by wind:
118. Sexual dimorphism in cockroach is shown by: (1) Pollen grains are light and non sticky
(2) Well exposed stamens and feathery stigma
(1) Anal-Cerci, in males only
(3) These flowers often have a single ovule in each
(2) Anal-Style, in males only ovary
(4) All of these
(3) Anal-Cerci, in females only
123. In flowering plants which of the following devices
(4) Anal-Styles in females only encourage the inbreeding depression:

119. Which one of the following is correct match: (1) Pollen grain release and stigma receptivity are not

(1) Terminalized chiasmata – Pachytene synchronised

(2) Exchange of genetic material – Zygotene (2) Anther and stigma are placed at different positions

(3) Synapsis of homologous– Diakinesis chromosomes (3) Self- Incompatibility

(4) Appearance of chiasmata – Diplotene (4) None of these

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 CRACK NEET 2025 /12-Apr-2025
124. Match the column - I with column - II and select 127. Match the following Columns :
the correct option from the codes given below : Column I Column II
Column - I Column - II a. Adenine derivative i. Ethylene

A. Tidal volume (i) 2500 - 3000 mL of air b. Terpenes derivatives ii. Gibberellic acid
c. Gaseous hormone iii. Kinetin
B. Inspiratory reserve (ii) 1000 mL of air
d. Carotenoide iv. Abscisic acid
volume
derivative
C. Expiratory reserve (iii) 500 mL of air (1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
volume (2) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv

D. Residual volume (iv) 4000 - 4600 mL of air (3) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
(4) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
E. Vital capacity (v) 1100 - 1200 mL – of
128. The correct sequence of electron acceptor in ATP
air
synthesis is :
(1) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i), E-(v) (1) Cyt, b, c, a3, a
(2) Cyt, c, b, a, a3
(2) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(v), E-(iv)
(3) Cyt. a, a, b, c
(3) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(v), E-(ii) (4) Cyt. b, c1, c, a, a3
129. The total number of 4-carbon containing
(4) A-(v), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii), E-(iv) compound in krebs cycle :
125. Match the Column ‘A’ with Column ‘B’ and select (1) 3
the answer from the options given below:
(2) 4
Column A Column B (3) 5
A. Lymphatic System i. Carries oxygenated (4) 2
blood 130. Which one of the following is the incorrect
statements :
B. Pulmonary vein ii. Immune Response
(1) RNA function's as adapter, catalytic molecule
C. Thrombocytes iii. To drain back the (2) DNA function's as catalytic molecule
tissue fluid to the (3) RNA is the genetic material
blood circulatory (4) DNA is the genetic material
system
131. Assertion (A) : In birds female decides sex of
D. Lymphocytes iv. Coagulation of progeny.
blood Reason (R) : In Birds female produce
(1) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv heterogametes
(2) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii (1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
(3) A-iii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv explanation of (A)

(4) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i (2) (A) is true but (R) is false

126. Which one of the following is incorrect match for (3) (A) is false but (R) is true
human : (4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
(1) Spermatogonia – 23 chromosomes
132. Which one of the following matching is incorrect :
(2) Secretory Phase – Smallest phase of
(1) Down's syndrome – 47 chromosome
menstrual cycle
(2) Turner's syndrome – 45 chromosome
(3) Ovulation – 24th day
(3) Klinefelter's syndrome – 47 chromosome
(4) All
(4) None of these

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133. There are many non human model organisms 138. Which of the following are correct statements for
which genome have also been sequenced : linkage

a. Drosophila (I) The tendency of genes inherited together is

known as linkage
b. Yeast
(II) Linkage help to hold the parental character
c. Caenorhabditis elegans together
d. Arabidopsis (III) Linkage is directly proportional to crossing
(1) a, b, c, d (2) Only c, d over

(3) Only b, c, d (4) Only a, c, d (IV) Linkage is broken down due to phenomena
of crossing over occuring during meiosis
134. Which one of the following statements is correct
(1) I and II only
(1) Cardiac muscle tissue is a contractile tissue present
(2) I, II and III only
only in the heart
(3) I, II, III and IV
(2) Cardiac muscle tissue is a contractile tissue present
in the brain and heart (4) I, II and IV only

(3) Cardiac muscle tissue is a contractile tissue present 139. Which is the correct match :
stomach and heart
A Phenylketonuria l. Autosome (i) Elongated
(4) Cardiac muscle are voluntary linked recessive Shape of
trait RBC
135. The correct order of tanks used in treatment of
sewage in a sewage treatment plant is B Sickle cell ll. Autosomal (ii)
anaemia recessive
(1) primary settling tank  aeration tank  anaerobic trait
sludge digesters  secondary settling tank C Haemophilia lll. (iii)
(2) primary settling tank  anaerobic sludge digesters
 aeration tank  secondary settling tank
(3) primary settling tank  aeration tank  secondary
(1) A (2) C
settling tank  anaerobic sludge digesters
(3) B (4) All of these
(4) primary settling tank  anaerobic sludge digesters
 aeration tank  secondary settling tank  140. Given below are four statements pertaining to
separation of DNA fragments using gel
filtration tank
electrophoresis:
136. How many of the following are congenital disease
i. DNA is positively charged molecule and so it
a. Haemophilia b. Typhoid is loaded on gel towards the anode terminal.
c. AIDS d. Pneumonia ii. DNA fragments travel along the surface of the
e. Malaria gel whose concentration does not affect
movement of DNA
(1) 2 (2) 3
iii. Smaller the size of DNA fragment larger is the
(3) 4 (4) 1
distance it travels through it .
137. A tumor in the adrenal zona glomerulosa can
iv. Pure DNA can be visualized directly by
cause hyper secretion of hormones produced in
exposing UV radiation.
that region. Which of the following you might
Choose incorrect answer from the options given
expect to find in a patient with such a tumor :
below :
(1) Increased blood sodium levels (1) i, iii and iv
(2) Increased blood glucose levels (2) i, ii and iii
(3) Decreased blood calcium levels (3) ii, iii and iv
(4) Increased dehydration (4) i, ii and iv

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141. In the nomenclature of restriction endonuclease 145. Statement -I- Gene therapy is the insertion of gene
enzyme the first letter and the successive two into an individuals cells and tissues to treat
letters denote
disease especially hereditary diseased.
(1) Strain, Genus
Statement-II-GM plants have been useful in de-
(2) Genus, strain
creasing crop yields increase post - harvest losses
(3) Genus, species
and make crops more tolerant of stresses.
(4) Strain, species
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
142. Which of the following set is not an example of
divergent evolution: (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(1) Vertebrate heart or brains (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

(2) Marsupials and Darwin finches (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(3) Sweet potato and potato 146. Given below are two statements

(4) Forelimbs of mammals Statement I: An adult human excretes on an Average

1 to 1.5 litres of Urine per day.
143. DNA finger printing includes :
Statement II : An adult human excretes on an average
i. Isolation of DNA
25-30 mg of urea per day.
ii. Digestion of DNA by restriction endonucleases Choose the correct answer from the option given
iii. Separation of DNA fragments by below:

electrophoresis (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

iv. Technique initially developed by Jacque (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Monad (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

(1) Only i, ii and iii (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
147. The technique called Gamete Intra Fallopian
(2) Only ii and iii
Transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those females:
(3) Only iii and iv
(1) Who can not produce an ovum
(4) i, ii, iii and iv
144. Which of the following statement is/are incorrect : (2) Who can not retain the foetus inside uterus

i. Homo erectus fossils discovered in Java (3) Whose cervical canal is too narrow to allow passage

ii. The Neanderthal man probably lived in East for the sperms
and central Asia (4) Who can not provide suitable environment for
iii. Darwin judged the fitness of an individual by fertilization
ability to defend itself 148. Sporophyte do not have an independent free
iv. Darwins's finches represent one of the best living existence in :

example of adaptive radiation Pteris, Funaria, Riccia, Marchantia, Pinus, Cycas,

Polytrichum, Cedrus, Sequoia
(1) i and ii only
(1) 3
(2) iii and iv only
(2) 1
(3) iii only (3) 4
(4) i, ii, iii and iv (4) 5

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149. Which is a wrong statement : 153. Assertion (A) : In tropical habitat greater biological
(a) Endocrine glands have well developed ducts diversity occurs than temperate regions

(b) Goblet cells are exocrine gland Reasons (R) : In tropical habitat more solar energy
available and tropical environment are less
(c) Digestive enzymes are the endocrine secretion
seasonal, relatively more constant and predictable
(d) Cuboidal or columnar epithelium act as gland
as compared to temperate regions.
(1) a & b
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
(2) b & c
explanation of (A)
(3) a & c
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) c & d
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true
150. A chemosensitive area situated adjacent to the
rhythm center, is highly sensitive to (4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(1) CO2 explanation of (A)
(2) H+ 154. Choose the incorrect statement :
(3) O2 (1) Genetic diversity occurs within a species
(4) Both 1 and 2
(2) Species diversity refers to the variety of species
151. Given below are two statements , one is labelled within a region
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R). (3) Ecological diversity refers to the variety of
Assertion (A): ecosystems

Roots are always positively geotorpic. (4) None of these

Reason (R) : 155. Given below are two statements
In rhizophora many roots come out of the ground Statement I: Cuticle absent in roots
and grow vertically upwards.
Statement II : Each stoma is composed of two bean
In the light of the above statements, choose the shaped cells known as mast cells which enclose
most appropriate answer from the options given stomatal aperture
below :
Choose the correct answer from the option given
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
below:
correct explanation of (A)
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
explanation of (A) (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
152. Assertion (A) : In Ecosystem Net primary productivity 156. Given below are two statements
is less than gross primary productivity Statement I: In Pea stem are converted into thorn for
Reasons (R) : Gross primary productivity minus protection
photosynthesis losses is the net primary Statement II : In pumpkin leaf are converted into tendrils
productivity for climbing
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct Choose the correct answer from the option given
explanation of (A) below:

(2) (A) is true but (R) is false (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(3) (A) is false but (R) is true (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
explanation of (A) (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

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157. Given below are two statements 161. A person is suffering from wheezing due to
inflammation of bronchi and difficulty in breathing
Statement I: The tumor inducing (Ti) plasmid of E.coli
his symptoms increase in dustly environment. He
has now been modified into a cloning vector
may suffer from which disease
Statement II : Retrovirus in animals have the ability to (1) Pancreatitis
transform normal cells into cancerous cells.
(2) Jaundice
Choose the correct answer from the option given
(3) Asthma
below:
(4) Typhoid
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
162. Statement-I Ribosomes are non membrane bound
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect organelles found in all cells both Eukaryotic as well
as prokaryotic.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Statment -II The cells that have membrane bound
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
nucleus are are called prokaryotic where as cells
158. Which of the following is not a correct match
that lack membrane bound nucleus are Eukaryotic.
(1) Malpighian tubules insects
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) Protonephridia Amphioxus
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Antennal glands rotifers
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Nephridia Earthworm
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
159. How many are correct matching according to
hormone and their target : 163. T.W. Engelmann using a prism and split the light
into its spectral components and then illuminated
a. Oxytocin - Myometrium
a green alga, placed in a suspension of aerobic
b. FSH - Sertoli cells
bacterium. Name that green alga :
c. GnRh - Anterrior pituitary
(1) Chlorella (2) Cladophora
d. LH - Mature graffian
follicle (3) Chlamydomonas (4) Nostoc and Anabaena
e. LH - Sertoli cells 164. Which one of the following is the incorrect match
(1) 2 (1) Evening primrose – Hugo devries
(2) 3 (2) Saltation – Hugo devries

(3) 4 (3) Galapagos Island – Darwin

(4) 1 (4) Idea of Mutation – Haldane

160. Which one of the following is correct match 165. Which statement is true for X linked recessive trait

a. Alveoli (i) fallopian tube i. shows inheritance from carrier female to male
progeny
b. Isthmus (ii) mammary gland
ii. Haemophilia-A is an example of this type of
c. Uterus (iii) inverted
pearshaped inheritance

d. Hymen (iv) virginity iii. Haemophilia-A is a Y-linked disorder

(1) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii iv. Possibility of a female becoming haemophilic
is extremely rare.
(2) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
(3) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii (1) i and ii only (2) ii and iii only

(4) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii (3) iii and iv only (4) i, ii, iv only

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166. Which one of the following statement is incorrect: 171. Which of the following statement is not true for
(1) Precursor of mRNA is hnRNA spleen
(2) In capping an unusual nucleotide (methyl (1) It mainly contains lymphocytes and phagocytes
guanosine triphosphate) is added to the 5’- end of
hnRNA (2) The spleen is a small bean - shaped organ
(3) In tailing, adenylate residues (200–300) are added
(3) Spleen also has a large reservoir of erythrocytes
at 3’-end in a template dependent manner
(4) Splicing process not occurs in bacteria (4) It acts as a filter of the blood by trapping blood-
167. What is the similarity between genital warts and borne microorganisms
genital herpes :
172. When a student heard that he has failed in exam.
a. Both are curable disease After hearing this news, he got mentally disturbed
b. Both are RTI and gone into depression. His parents consulted
c. Both are STIs to that student to a doctor then doctor suggested

d. Both are non curable disease which drug :

(1) a, b, c (2) b, c, d (1) Amphetamines

(3) Only c (4) b, c (2) Benzodiazepines
168. Assertion (A) : Human skin colour inheritance are
(3) Cocaine
good example of polygenic inheritance.

Reason (R) : Human skin colour traits are (4) Both 1 and 2
controlled by three genes ABC. 173. Process by which E. coli take up foreign DNA
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct (1) Transcription
explanation of (A)
(2) Translation
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) Transformation
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true

(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct (4) Transfer
explanation of (A) 174. How many varieties of rice have been estimated
169. Match the following extincted species with the to be present in India?
country (1) 2,000 (2) 20,000
(3) 200,000 (4) 2,000,000
a. dodo (i) Russia
175. Which of the following statements about the
b. thylacine (ii) Mauritius mechanism of muscle contraction are correct
c. Steller’s sea cow (iii) Africa
(I) Neurotransmitter is released when the neural
d. quagga (iv) Australia signal reaches the motor end plate
(1) a(iv),b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
(II) Muscle contraction is initiated by a signal sent
(2) a(iv),b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
by CNS via a motor neuron
(3) a(ii),b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
(III) During muscle contraction, isotropic band gets
(4) a(ii),b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
elongated
170. If energy available to tertiary consumer is 0.006
jule then how much energy will be trapped at (IV) Repeated activation of the muscles can lead
producer level : to lactic acid accumulation

(1) 60 Joule (2) 6 Joule (1) I, II and IV (2) Only I and IV

(3) 0.6 Joule (4) 600 Joule (3) II, III and IV (4) Only II and IV

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176. Which of the following statement is incorrect 179. Tracheids are present in the xylem of :

(1) Equational division is usually restricted to the (1) Pteridophytes

diploid cells (2) Gymnosperm

(3) Angiosperm
(2) In all social insects haploid cells divide by mitosis
(4) All of these
(3) A very significant contribution of mitosis is cell
180. Given below are two statements
repair
Statement I:
(4) All of these The most distinctive Feature of phylum Echinodermata
177. What is the glucosamine, N-acetyl galactosamine: is the water canal system

(1) Chemically modified protein Statement II :

(2) Chemically modified lipids In Asterias canal system help in food gathering,
Respiration, Reproduction
(3) Chemically modified sugars
Choose the correct answer from the option given
(4) A type of vitamin below:
178. Given below are two statements (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Statement I: The arrangement of ovule within the ovary (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
is known as aestivation.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Statement II : If a fruit is formed without fertilisation. It
is called a parthenocarpy. (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Choose the correct answer from the option given

below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

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