Defence

General Ability Test

Full Length Practice Test 2

Q1 Each item in this section consists of sentences that is opposite in meaning to the underlined
with an underlined word followed by four word and mark your response on the answer
words or group of words. Select the option sheet accordingly.
that is opposite in meaning to the underlined The politician's equivocal statement left voters
word and mark your response on the answer unsure of his stance.
sheet accordingly. (A) cryptic (B) enigmatic
He was a vociferous opponent of the takeover. (C) definite (D) puzzling
(A) Vocal (B) Subdued
Q6 What word will come in the blank 1?
(C) Tumultuous (D) Forthright
(A) blow (B) blows
Q2 Each item in this section consists of sentences (C) blown (D) blowing
with an underlined word followed by four
Q7 What word will come in the blank 2?
words or group of words. Select the option
(A) sweep away (B) sweep in
that is opposite in meaning to the underlined
(C) sweep through (D) sweep up
word and mark your response on the answer
sheet accordingly. Q8 What word will come in the blank 3?
The potential for expediency in planning is vast. (A) has been (B) have been
(A) fitness (B) timeliness (C) has (D) had been
(C) opportunism (D) disadvantage
Q9 What word will come in the blank 4?
Q3 Each item in this section consists of sentences (A) objection (B) unwillingness
with an underlined word followed by four (C) aversion (D) tendency
words or group of words. Select the option
that is opposite in meaning to the underlined Q10 What word will come in the blank 5?
word and mark your response on the answer (A) unwearied (B) exhausted
sheet accordingly. (C) rejuvenated (D) fresh
The photograph, published in a newspaper, was
Q11 What word will come in the blank 6?
meant to inspirit the troop.
(A) rise (B) raise
(A) Animate (B) Hearten
(C) raises (D) rises
(C) Dissuade (D) Enliven
Q12 What word will come in the blank 7?
Q4 Each item in this section consists of sentences
(A) of (B) from
with an underlined word followed by four
(C) through (D) of
words or group of words. Select the option
that is opposite in meaning to the underlined Q13 What word will come in the blank 8?
word and mark your response on the answer (A) thrown of (B) thrown in
sheet accordingly. (C) thrown out (D) thrown off
The characters can be morphed on screen.
Q14 What word will come in the blank 9?
(A) Adapted (B) Sustained
(A) inhale (B) emits
(C) Mutated (D) Intricate
(C) emit (D) absorb
Q5 Each item in this section consists of sentences
Q15 What word will come in the blank 10?
with an underlined word followed by four
(A) folly (B) density
words or group of words. Select the option

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 Defence

(C) insights (D) obtuseness (C) because of his nature.

(D) in spite his nature.
Q16 Directions :
Following items have one part of the sentence Q21 Directions : Each of the following items features
followed by four alternatives. Complete the one part of a sentence followed by four
sentences by choosing the correct alternative. alternatives. Complete the sentence by
Although the group has been acquitted________ choosing the correct alternative.
(A) they are under the watch of police. We stayed
(B) they are free to do anything. (A) at the cheap hotel in the town.
(C) there is no suspicion in them. (B) at the cheaper hotel in the town.
(D) they have not been arrested. (C) at the cheapest hotel in the town.
(D) at a cheapest hotel in the town.
Q17 Directions : The following items have one part
of the sentence followed by four alternatives. Q22 Directions: The following items have one part
Complete the sentences by choosing the of a sentence followed by four alternatives.
correct alternative. Complete the sentence by choosing the correct
Not everything alternative and mark your response on the
(A) that happened was my fault. Answer Sheet accordingly.
(B) which happen was my fault. Where there is a will,
(C) what happened was my fault. (A) there should be way.
(D) whatever happened was my fault. (B) there is a way.
(C) there would have been a way.
Q18 Directions :
(D) there may have been a way.
Following items have one part of the sentence
followed by four alternatives. Complete the Q23 Directions: The following items have one part
sentences by choosing the correct alternative. of a sentence followed by four alternatives.
Sheela has been at the receiving end Complete the sentence by choosing the correct
(A) but she is very honest. alternative and mark your response on the
(B) and she is very honest. Answer Sheet accordingly.
(C) she had been proud of it. "It is getting dark,
(D) she was fine with it. (A) must I turn on the lights?"
(B) should I be turning the lights ?"
Q19 Directions: The following items have one part
(C) may I be turning on the lights ?"
of the sentence followed by four alternatives.
(D) can I turn on the lights ?"
Complete the sentences by choosing the
correct alternative. Q24 Directions: The following items have one part
Elam has no other option of a sentence followed by four alternatives.
(A) unless he wins. Complete the sentence by choosing the correct
(B) but to accept the challenge. alternative and mark your response on the
(C) though he has won challenge. Answer Sheet accordingly.
(D) he has to accept the challenge. Once I met a traveller
(A) who said he had been to an ancient place.
Q20 Directions :
(B) he said he had been to an ancient place.
Following items have one part of the sentence
(C) who can be said he had been to an ancient
followed by four alternatives. Complete the
place.
sentences by choosing the correct alternative.
(D) he said an ancient place had been to him.
She married him
(A) since his good nature. Q25 Directions: The following items have one part
(B) because his nature. of a sentence followed by four alternatives.

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 Defence

Complete the sentence by choosing the correct As the CEO, she calls the shots in the company.
alternative and mark your response on the (A) To follow instructions from others
Answer Sheet accordingly. (B) To express frustration and anger
Man is the greatest truth of all, (C) To make important decisions
(A) nothing can be with him. (D) To avoid taking responsibility
(B) there is nothing beyond him.
Q31 Each of the following items in this section
(C) there cannot be nothing to him.
consists of a sentence, the parts of which have
(D) there is nothing truth about him.
been jumbled. These parts have been labelled
Q26 Choose the option that best describes the P, Q, R and S. You are required to re-arrange
meaning of the underlined idiom/phrase. the jumbled parts of the sentence correctly and
The speaker's guess at the number of people mark your response accordingly from the
attending the event was way off the mark. options given below.
(A) Guessed exactly the right number. P: suspicion that the victory of Manoj Sonkar
(B) Being wrong. Q: was obtained through manipulation
(C) Cleverly misled the audience. R: the manner in which the Mayor of Chandigarh
(D) Creative guess. was elected has confirmed
S: the Supreme Court of India’s stinging remarks
Q27 Choose the option that best describes the
on
meaning of the underlined idiom/phrase.
(A) RSPQ (B) PRQS
My friend barely eats anything at all - she eats
(C) SRPQ (D) RPQS
like a bird.
(A) Eating a large amount of food. Q32 Each of the following items in this section
(B) Eating very little food. consists of a sentence, the parts of which have
(C) Eating only healthy foods. been jumbled. These parts have been labelled
(D) Eating their food very quickly. P, Q, R and S. You are required to re-arrange
the jumbled parts of the sentence correctly and
Q28 Choose the option that best describes the
mark your response accordingly from the
meaning of the underlined idiom/phrase.
options given below.
I'm head over heels about the dress.
P: Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) is
(A) Feeling slightly annoyed.
working
(B) Deeply in love.
Q: onions through Gamma Rays to give it a
(C) Recovering from an illness.
longer shelf life
(D) Feeling indecisive.
R: replying to a question in the Rajya Sabha, Ms.
Q29 In the following questions, out of the four Sitharaman said
alternatives, select the alternative that best S: with the government on de-humidification of
expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase. (A) RSPQ (B) RPSQ
The wealthy socialite lived in an ivory tower, (C) PRQS (D) PSQR
oblivious to the struggles of the working class.
Q33 Each of the following items in this section
(A) living in luxurious mansion
consists of a sentence, the parts of which have
(B) understanding the struggle of normal people
been jumbled. These parts have been labelled
(C) doing charity
P, Q, R and S. You are required to re-arrange
(D) out of touch with reality
the jumbled parts of the sentence correctly and
Q30 Each of the following questions has underlined mark your response accordingly from the
idioms/phrases. Each sentence is followed by options given below.
four options. Choose the option that best P: there has been a massive expansion in social
describes the meaning of the idiom/phrase. and economic

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Q: and a manifold increase in the number Each of the following sentences has
R: infrastructure, a boost to entrepreneurship, word/words underlined. Read the sentence
rural transformation, carefully and find which word class the
S: of universities and colleges. underlined word/words belongs/belong to.
(A) PSQR (B) SRPQ Indicate your response accordingly.
(C) PQRS (D) PRQS He wandered aimlessly through the maze of
streets, unsure of his direction.
Q34 Each of the following items in this section
(A) Preposition (B) Adverb
consists of a sentence, the parts of which have
(C) Conjunction (D) Gerund
been jumbled. These parts have been labelled
P, Q, R and S. You are required to re-arrange Q38 Each of the following sentences has
the jumbled parts of the sentence correctly and word/words underlined. Read the sentence
mark your response accordingly from the carefully and find which word class the
options given below. underlined word/words belongs/belong to.
P: quest for a developed nation and the Indicate your response accordingly.
Q: to the transformative role the sector can play The clouds gathered and darkened, foretelling
in our the approaching storm.
R: time to expand its contributions is now (A) Preposition
S: the explosive evolution of Indian healthcare is (B) Adverb
a testament (C) Participle
(A) RQPS (B) SRQP (D) Conjunction
(C) SQPR (D) QPRS
Q39 Directions: Given below are a few sentences.
Q35 Each of the following items in this section Identify the parts of speech of the underlined
consists of a sentence, the parts of which have words. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d)
been jumbled. These parts have been labelled which is the most appropriate expression.
P, Q, R and S. You are required to re-arrange Use the definite article ‘the’ with the definite
the jumbled parts of the sentence correctly and nouns.
mark your response accordingly from the (A) Article (B) Noun
options given below. (C) Preposition (D) Adjective
P: was the light of the sense; the last was the
Q40 Directions: Given below are a few sentences.
light of
Identify the parts of speech of the underlined
Q: the first creature of God in the works of the
words. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d)
days
which is the most appropriate expression.
R: since is the illumination of his spirit
Her voice may awake the sleeping child.
S: reason; and his Sabbath work ever
(A) Adjective (B) Adverb
(A) QRSP (B) QRPS
(C) Verb (D) Noun
(C) QPSR (D) QSRP
Q41 According to Rutger Bregman in "Humankind,"
Q36 Each of the following sentences has
what is the common view of human nature?
word/words underlined. Read the sentence
(A) Optimistic and trusting
carefully and find which word class the
(B) Neutral and indifferent
underlined word/words belongs/belong to.
(C) Pessimistic and suspicious
Indicate your response accordingly.
(D) Enlightened and compassionate
The book about astronauts fascinated me.
(A) Verb (B) Adverb Q42 How does Bregman’s view differ from Thomas
(C) Preposition (D) Noun Hobbes' perspective on human nature?
(A)
Q37

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Bregman believes humans are inherently (C) Mimicking (D) Direct

selfish.
Q47 Each item in this section consists of sentences
(B) Bregman believes humans are naturally good
with an underlined word followed by four
but corrupted by civilization.
words or group of words. Select the option
(C) Bregman agrees with Hobbes that a strong
that is similar in meaning to the underlined
state is necessary.
word and mark your response on the answer
(D) Bregman thinks civilization has improved
sheet accordingly.
human morality.
Renowned educationalist Sir Time Brighouse,
Q43 What major change in human society does observed that an outstanding school has four
Bregman associate with the spread of factors that are visible.
infectious diseases? (A) Mediocre (B) Unexceptional
(A) The development of trade routes (C) Prosaic (D) Tremendous
(B) The discovery of agriculture and
Q48 Each item in this section consists of sentences
domestication of animals
with an underlined word followed by four
(C) The rise of industrialization
words or group of words. Select the option
(D) The establishment of political states
that is similar in meaning to the underlined
Q44 What term does the Dutch biologist Frans de word and mark your response on the answer
Waal use to describe the theory that human sheet accordingly.
nature is barely concealed beneath a veneer of Mrs. Maisel was speaking in a light, flurried sort
civility? of tone, with a touch of suburban Cockney
(A) Mask theory perhaps.
(B) Primitive theory (A) Calmed (B) Agitated
(C) Veneer theory (C) Composed (D) Calm
(D) Civilization theory
Q49 Each item in this section consists of sentences
Q45 What is Bregman's view on the collapse of with an underlined word followed by four
civilizations? words or group of words. Select the option
(A) It marks a definitive decline in human that is similar in meaning to the underlined
progress. word and mark your response on the answer
(B) It often leads to increased freedom and sheet accordingly.
cultural flourishing. Inflation had hit a staggering 16.7 per cent in
(C) It results in a permanent state of chaos and August that year.
anarchy. (A) Continuing (B) Staying
(D) It provides a chance for new, stronger (C) Astonishing (D) Carrying
civilizations to emerge.
Q50 Each item in this section consists of sentences
Q46 Each item in this section consists of sentences with an underlined word followed by four
with an underlined word followed by four words or group of words. Select the option
words or group of words. Select the option that is similar in meaning to the underlined
that is similar in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on the answer
word and mark your response on the answer sheet accordingly.
sheet accordingly. The somber sky hinted at impending rain.
In reality, too, there have been numerous cases (A) cloudless (B) dingy
of one twin impersonating the other for a joke, (C) jolly (D) vibrant
to escape punishment or to advance a romantic
Q51 Which of the following mirrors is used in a
interest.
periscope?
(A) Burlesque (B) Travesty

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(A) Two plane mirrors Q57 The force between two magnetic poles does not
(B) Three spherical mirrors depend upon which among the following?
(C) Two spherical mirrors 1. Medium
(D) Three plane mirrors 2. Shape of the magnet
3. Distance between the poles
Q52 What should be the reading of the voltmeter in
Select the correct code from the options given
the circuit given below ?
below:
(All the resistances are equal to 1Ω and the
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
battery is of 1.5 volt)
(C) 1 and 2 only (D) 1 and 3 only

Q58 Consider the following statements:

1. Like charges repel each other, and unlike
charges attract each other.
2. The SI unit of electric charge is the ampere.
3. Electric charge is conserved in an isolated
system
How many of the statements given above is/are
(A) 1.5 volt (B) 0.66 volt correct?
(C) 1 volt (D) 2 volt (A) Only one (B) Only two
(C) All three (D) None
Q53 Which of the following type of Image is always
formed by plane mirror? Q59 Which of the following is the function of a
(A) Real and Inverted transformer?
(B) Virtual and Erect (A) Transformer is used to step down or up the
(C) Virtual and Inverted DC voltages and currents
(D) Real and Erect (B) Transformer is used to step down or up the
AC voltages and currents
Q54 A person prefers to sit by a fire during the cold
(C) Transformer converts DC to AC voltages
winter months. Which of the following heat
(D) Transformer converts AC to DC voltages
transfer types gives him with the most heat?
(A) Convection and radiation together Q60 Consider the following statements regarding the
(B) Conduction from the fire Eight Schedule of the Constitution:
(C) If it is near the fire, convection sounds good 1. It deals with official languages recognized by
(D) Radiation will provide quick warmth the Indian Constitution.
2. Out of the present 22 languages, 14 were
Q55 Which of the following phenomenon mentioned
originally included in the Indian Constitution.
in the given options is not explained by the
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
universal law of gravitation?
(A) 1 only
(A) The tides are due to the moon and the sun
(B) 2 only
(B) The motion of the moon around the earth
(C) Both 1 and 2
(C) The motion of sun around the planets
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
(D) The force that binds us to the earth
Q61 Which among the following committee was
Q56 "Which of the following is the current flowing
appointed in 1986 and recommended
through a 100 W bulb connected to a 220 V
constitutional recognition of Panchayati Raj
source?"
institutions to ensure regular, free and fair
(A) 0.45 A (B) 0.55 A
elections to the Panchayati Raj bodies?
(C) 0.65 A (D) 0.75 A
(A) Ashok Mehta Committee
(B) L M Singhvi Committee

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(C) GVK Rao Committee (C) Remains the same

(D) Thungon Committee (D) Becomes zero

Q62 The radius of curvature of the convex face of a Q67 Which one of the following given colour
plano convex lens is 15 cm and the refractive spectrum photon is more energetic?
index of the material is 1.4, then what will be the (A) Violet (B) Red
power of the lens in dioptre? (C) Green (D) Yellow
(A) 1.6 (B) 1.566
Q68 Which of the following pairs of dances and their
(C) 1.4 (D) 2.66
states is correctly matched?
Q63 Satellites orbiting the Earth eventually fall to the (A) Jhora - Haryana
surface when left unsupervised or unattended (B) Phagua - Punjab
due to which of the following reasons? (C) Ottamthullal - Karnataka
(A) Their power supply runs out (D) Jawara - Madhya Pradesh
(B) Of collisions with other satellites
Q69 With reference to Gallantry awards, consider the
(C) Of viscous forces causing the speed of the
following statements:
satellite and hence height to gradually
decrease 1. The General of the army has no role in the
(D) The laws of gravitation predict such a selection process of personnel for gallantry
trajectory awards.
2. A personnel is not eligible to receive these
Q64 A car is moving with a constant speed on a
awards if the act of gallantry took place
circular track. Which of the following statements
before two calendar years.
about its acceleration is correct?
(A) The acceleration is zero because speed is Which of the statements given above is/are
constant. correct?
(B) The acceleration is towards the center of the (A) 1 only
circle. (B) 2 only
(C) The acceleration is in the direction of motion. (C) Both 1 and 2
(D) The acceleration is away from the center of (D) Neither 1 nor 2
the circle.
Q70 A long spring is stretched by 2 cm and its
Q65 Which of the following phrases were used in the potential energy is U. If the spring is stretched
theme of the Twelfth Five-Year Plan (2012- 17)? by 10 cm , then its potential energy would be:
1. Inclusive (A) 25U (B) 5U
2. Faster (C) U/5 (D) U/25
3. More inclusive
Q71 What will be the capacitance of a capacitor
4. Sustainable
having a charge of 3 µC at a potential of 300 V?
5. More sustainable
(A) 1μF (B) 0. 01μF
Select the correct answer using the codes given
(C) 0. 1μF (D) 10μF
below:
(A) 1,2 and 3 (B) 1,4 and 5 Q72 Three resistors, each of 4 Ω, are connected in
(C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 4 series. What is the total resistance of the
combination?
Q66 When a dielectric material is inserted between
(A) 12 Ω (B) 8 Ω
the plates of a capacitor, what will be the effect
(C) 4 Ω (D) 1.33 Ω
on its capacitance?
(A) Increases Q73 Consider the following statements:
(B) Decreases

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1. It is said to be the value of all goods and By which of the following names are the pre-
services determined in an economy after taking monsoon showers in West Bengal known?
into account the rate of inflation. (A) Bardoli Chherha
2. In other words, it is the inflation-adjusted value (B) Kalbaishakhi
of goods and services produced in an economy (C) Mango shower
in a year. (D) Cherry Blossoms
Identify the term using the options given below.
Q78 The potential difference between the terminals
(A) Real GDP
of an electric heater is 60V when it draws a
(B) Nominal GDP
current of 8A from the source. What current will
(C) Per-Capita GDP
the heater draw if the potential difference is
(D) Per Capital Income
increased to 80V?
Q74 Consider the following statements: (A) 10A (B) 1. 06A
1. Extra-tropical cyclones are storm systems that (C) 10. 6A (D) 106A
form in the mid to high latitudes, away from the
Q79 Which one of the following statements is not
tropics.
correct?
2. In a tropical cyclone, wind velocity is
(A) Sound waves in gases are longitudinal in
substantially higher and more dangerous.
nature
Which of the following statements is/are not
(B) Sound waves having a frequency below 20
correct?
Hz are known as ultrasonic waves
(A) 1 only
(C) Sound waves having higher amplitudes are
(B) 2 only
louder
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Sound waves with high audible frequencies
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
are sharp
Q75 It occurs along the west coast of continents in
Q80 A straight line conductor of length 4m is moved
subtropical latitudes between 30° - 40° latitudes.
with a speed of 10 m/s to a magnetic field of
The climate is characterised by hot, dry summers
intensity 0. 8 W b/m
2
. The induced emf across
and mild, rainy winters.
the conductor is:
Which one of the following climate types is
(A) 32V (B) 30V
described in the above statement?
(C) 23V (D) 0. 32V
(A) Mediterranean
(B) Desert climate Q81 Which of the following statements about
(C) Tropical Monsoon ultrasonic sound is correct?
(D) Steppe (A) Ultrasonic sound has frequencies below the
audible range for humans.
Q76 Consider the following statements about the “
(B) Ultrasonic sound has frequencies above the
Central Highland” of India:
audible range for humans.
1. It lies to the north of the Marwar plateau. (C) Ultrasonic sound has frequencies within the
2. It is characterized by rolling plains. audible range for humans.
3. Banas, Kali Sindh and Parbati are some of the (D) Ultrasonic sound has frequencies that vary
important rivers flowing in this region. depending on the source.
Which of the statements given above are not
Q82 Consider the following statements:
correct?
1. A convex lens may be diverging.
(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only
2. The nature of a lens depends only upon the
(C) 2 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
refractive index of the lens and that of the
Q77

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surrounding medium but not on the shape of the (B) 2 only

lens. (C) Both 1 and 2
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct? (D) Neither 1 nor 2
(A) 1 only
Q87 Which of the following states has the lowest
(B) 2 only
population decadal growth rate (in per cent)
(C) Both 1 and 2
according to the Census 2011?
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
(A) Meghalaya
Q83 Which of the following is the speed of sound in (B) Mizoram
air at 0°C? (C) Arunachal Pradesh
(A) 331 m/s (B) 320 m/s (D) Nagaland
(C) 343 m/s (D) 297 m/s
Q88 Who was the leader of the Jacobin Club, who
Q84 Consider the following statements regarding supported the Reign of Terror during the French
different layers in the Soil profile : Revolution?
(A) Jacques Pierre Brissot
1. Horizon A layer is depleted of iron, clay,
(B) Maximilien Robespierre
aluminum, organic compounds, and other
(C) Camille Desmoulins
soluble constituents.
(D) Jacques Necker
2. B horizon is completely devoid of organic
matter. Q89 Which of the following statements accurately
3. C horizon is the layer of partially weathered describe the fundamental difference between
parent material. gravitational mass and weight?
How many of the statements given above are (A) Gravitational mass depends on the mass of
correct? an object, while weight depends on the force
(A) Only one (B) Only two of gravity acting on the object.
(C) All three (D) None (B) Gravitational mass depends on the force of
gravity acting on an object, while weight
Q85 With reference to Convectional Rainfall, consider depends on the mass of the object.
the following statements: (C) Gravitational mass and weight are the same
1. It occurs in areas of intense heat and physical quantity and have no difference.
abundant moisture. (D) Gravitational mass and weight are entirely
2. Generally, the belt of doldrums records this different concepts with no relation to each
type of rainfall. other.

Which of the statements given above is/are Q90 Which of the following is correct for a fixed
correct? amount of ideal gas at constant temperature?
(A) 1 only (A) Volume always remains constant
(B) 2 only (B) The ratio of pressure and volume always
(C) Both 1 and 2 remains constant
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 (C) The product of pressure and volume always
remains constant
Q86 Consider the following statements:
(D) Pressure always remains constant
1. Laterite soil is rich in iron and aluminium.
2. Rice, ragi, sugarcane, and cashew nuts are Q91 The electrovalency of an element equals the
primarily cultivated in laterite soil. number of electrons lost or gained by an atom
Which of the statements given above is/are during the formation of which of the following
correct? bond ?
(A) 1 only (A) Covalent Bond

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(B) Ionic Bond 1970.

(C) Hydrogen Bond
Which of the statements given above is/are
(D) Metallic bond
correct?
Q92 Which of the following block elements are more (A) 1 only
electropositive in the modern periodic table? (B) 2 only
(A) p (B) s (C) Both 1 and 2
(C) f (D) c (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Q93 Which of the following statements is not correct Q97 In which of the movement Mahatma Gandhi gave
about the socialist economy? the Slogan "Do or Die" to encourage the
(A) Public ownership common citizen to fight for their freedom?
(B) The central planning authority determines (A) Non-Cooperation Movement
prices. (B) Rowlatt Satyagraha
(C) Profit is the main motive (C) Quit India Movement
(D) Social welfare is the primary objective of the (D) Civil Disobedience Movement
economy.
Q98 Which of the following personalities gave the call
Q94 Consider the following statements about the of “ We should die to awaken the nation”?
Mauryan Empire: (A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Vasudev Balwant Phadke
1. Arthashastra tells us that the northwest was
(C) Bagha Jatin
important for blankets, and south India for its
(D) Vinayak Damodar Savarkar
gold and precious stones.
2. The State directly employed artisans and Q99 Consider the following statements regarding
exempted them from taxes. salts:
3. In the Mauryan period, officials were paid in 1. Salts are ionic compounds formed by the
cash. reaction between an acid and a base.
2. The properties of salts are primarily
How many of the above statements is/are
determined by the cation and anion present in
correct?
their structure.
(A) Only one (B) Only two
3. Some salts exhibit characteristic colours when
(C) All three (D) None
dissolved in water.
Q95 Which of the following pairs of terms and How many of the statements given above is/are
meanings is correctly matched? correct?
(A) Dukkha - The arising or origin of ‘Suffering’. (A) Only one (B) Only two
(B) Samudaya - There is ‘Suffering’ in the world. (C) All three (D) None
(C) Nirodha - The cessation of ‘Suffering’.
Q100 When acetylene is treated with HBr, the product
(D) Mahabhishkraman - There is a path leading
is?
to the end of ‘Suffering’
(A) Methyl bromide
Q96 Consider the following statements about World (B) Ethylene bromide
Environment Day: (C) Ethyl bromide
(D) Ethylidene bromide
1. World Environment Day is celebrated annually
on June 5th to raise awareness about Q101 The “Canyons” and “Trenches” are observed in
environmental issues and promote actions for which of the following ocean reliefs?
protecting the environment. (A) Continental slope
2. The day was first established by the United (B) Continental shelf
Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) in (C) Deep sea plain

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 Defence

(D) Abyssal plain (C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Q102 With reference to ‘Duns’, consider the following
statements: Q105 Badampahar, Dalli Rajhara and Bailadila are
famous for which of the following mineral
1. Duns are elongated ridges found in between
deposits?
Lesser Himalayas and Shiwaliks.
(A) Iron (B) Coal
2. They are found only in the western part of the
(C) Bauxite (D) Mica
Himalayan range.

Which of the statements given above is/are Q106 With reference to Rutherford model of an atom,
correct? consider the following statements:
(A) 1 only 1. The nucleus of the atom contains protons and
(B) 2 only neutrons, which are tightly packed together.
(C) Both 1 and 2 2. According to the Rutherford model, the
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 majority of the atom's mass is concentrated in
the nucleus.
Q103 Consider the following statements regarding the
3. The electrons revolve around the nucleus in
distribution of volcanoes on the Earth:
circular paths.
Statement-I: The Circum-Pacific Belt accounts for
more than 2/3rd of the world’s volcanoes. How many of the statements given above is/are
Statement-II: The subduction zone in the Circum- correct?
Pacific Belt results from the Pacific Oceanic plate (A) Only one (B) Only two
converging with the surrounding Continental (C) All three (D) None
plates.
Q107 Which of the following statements about
Which one of the following is correct in respect
corrosion is not correct?
of the above statements?
(A) Corrosion is a process that leads to the
(A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
deterioration of metals due to chemical
and Statement-II is the correct explanation
reactions with the environment.
for
(B) Rusting is a specific type of corrosion that
Statement-I.
occurs in iron and its alloys when exposed to
(B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
oxygen and moisture.
and Statement-II is not the correct
(C) Corrosion is always a reversible process.
explanation for Statement-I.
(D) Galvanization is a method used to protect
(C) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
iron and steel from corrosion by applying a
incorrect.
layer of zinc.
(D) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
correct Q108 What is the mass of 0.3 moles of ammonia?
(A) 21 g (B) 5.1 g
Q104 Identify the correct statement about the Indus
(C) 17 g (D) 1 g
Valley Civilization:

1. The Great Bath was discovered in Kalibangan, Q109 Consider the following statements related to the
a site in present-day Sindh province, Pakistan. State Legislative Council:
2. During the excavation of Dholavira, a large 1. The constitution and formation of the
stadium was excavated. Legislative Council have been described in
Select the correct code from the options given Article 169 of the Constitution.
below: 2. The structure of the Legislative Council is
(A) 1 only described in Article 171 of the Constitution.
(B) 2 only

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 Defence

3. The creation of a Legislative Council requires a Malik Muhammad

2. Padmavat
special majority in the Legislative Assembly of Jayasi
the concerned state. 3. Tarikh-i-Firoz Shahi Ziauddin Barani
How many of the above statements is/are How many of the above pairs of books and
correct? authors are correctly matched?
(A) Only one (B) Only two (A) Only one (B) Only two
(C) All three (D) None (C) All three (D) None

Q110 Consider the following statements with reference Q114 Which of the following statements about the
to the Panel of Chairpersons in Lok Sabha: Bhakti Movement is not correct?
1. Speaker nominates from amongst the members (A) There are traditionally considered to be 12
a panel of not more than ten chairpersons. Alvar saints.
2. A member of the panel of chairpersons (B) The Alvars' hymns are compiled in the "Divya
presides over the House when the office of the Prabandham".
Speaker or the Deputy Speaker is vacant. (C) There are traditionally considered to be 62
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Nayanar saints.
(A) 1 only (D) The hymns of Nayanar saints are found in the
(B) 2 only "Tirumurai".
(C) Both 1 and 2
Q115 Consider the following statements about the
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Nayankara System:
Q111 Which of the following statements is not correct 1. The Nayankara system was an administrative
about Comptroller and Auditor General of India? policy of the Vijayanagara Empire.
(A) He can be removed by the President only in 2. This system in the Vijayanagara Empire was
accordance with the procedure mentioned in assigned to Nayakas in exchange for their
the Constitution. military service and a predetermined financial
(B) He is not eligible for further office after he contribution.
ceases to hold his office. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(C) He acts as a guide, friend, and philosopher of (A) 1 only
the Estimates Committee of the Parliament. (B) 2 only
(D) He submits his audit reports relating to the (C) Both 1 and 2
accounts of the Centre to President. (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Q112 Which of the following statements about Plaster Q116 Element X forms a chloride with the formula
of Paris and Gypsum is correct? XCl 2 , which is solid with a high melting point. X
(A) Plaster of Paris is obtained by heating would most likely be in the same group of the
gypsum at a temperature of 100°C. Periodic Table as:
(B) Both Plaster of Paris and gypsum have the (A) Na (B) Mg
same chemical composition. (C) Al (D) Si
(C) When mixed with Water, Plaster of Paris takes
Q117 Consider the following statements:
on a unique property of hardening into a solid
1. Molecular mass is the sum of the atomic
mass.
masses of all the atoms in a molecule.
(D) None of the above
2. The molecular mass of a compound is equal to
Q113 Consider the following pairs of books and the sum of the atomic masses of all the atoms in
authors: the compound's molecular formula.
Books Authors Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
1. Mattavilasa Prahasana Mahendra Varman I

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 Defence

(A) 1 only Q124 In the Geological time scale, which of the

(B) 2 only following is not an epoch of the Cenozoic Era?
(C) Both 1 and 2 (A) Halocene (B) Piestocene
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 (C) Oligocene (D) Permian

Q118 Which of the following element has the valency Q125 Match the List I with List II and select the correct
equal to the number of valence electrons? answer using the code given below:
(A) Nitrogen (B) Sulphur
(C) Carbon (D) Oxygen

Q119 Which of the following statements about

elements is 'not' correct?
(A) All elements are made up of atoms. (A) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(B) Elements can be broken down into simpler (B) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
substances. (C) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
(C) There are over more than 100 elements in the (D) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
periodic table.
(D) Elements can exist in different states of Q126 Consider the following statements about major

matter. climatic types:

1. The Mediterranean climate experiences hot,

Q120 Which of the following statements regarding
dry summers and mild, wet winters.
physical and chemical changes is correct?
2. The tundra climate has hot summers and very
(A) Physical changes involve a change in the
cold winters with moderate snowfall.
chemical composition of substances.
(B) Chemical changes can typically be reversed Which of the statements given above is/are
by physical means. correct?
(C) Melting of ice is an example of a physical (A) 1 only
change. (B) 2 only
(D) Rusting of iron is an example of a physical (C) Both 1 and 2
change. (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Q121 Which of the following are the main contributors Q127 Which of the following landforms is primarily
to acid rain? formed by glacial action?
(A) sulphur oxides and carbon oxides 1. Delta
(B) nitrogen oxides and sulphur oxides
2. Moraine
(C) carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide
3. Meander
(D) nitrogen oxides and carbon oxides 4. Sand dune

Q122 Which of the following are the two domains of Select the correct answer using the codes given
prokaryotes? below:
(A) Bacteria and Protista (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only
(B) Archaea and Eukarya (C) 2 only (D) 4 only
(C) Eukarya and Monera
(D) Bacteria and Archaea Q128 Which of the following pairs of an ocean currents
with their location is not correctly matched?
Q123 Which of the following protein gives the (A) Agulhas Current - South West Indian Ocean
structural support to the chromosome ? (B) Brazilian Current - South Atlantic Ocean
(A) Keratin (B) Glycoproteins (C) Tsushima Current - Indian Ocean
(C) Chromatin (D) Histone (D) Kuroshio Current - Pacific Ocean

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 Defence

Q129 Consider the following pairs: (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Q134 Which of the following statements regarding

transpiration is correct?
(A) Transpiration occurs only through stomata.
(B) Transpiration is a purely mechanical process.
How many of the above pairs are incorrectly (C) Transpiration is the loss of water vapour from
matched? the aerial parts of plants.
(A) Only one (D) Transpiration rates are highest during the
(B) Only two night.
(C) All three
Q135 Which of the following freedom fighters was
(D) None
injured in a police lathi charge during protests
Q130 Which of the given cell organelle have a single against the Simon Commission in 1928, later died,
membrane ? and was avenged by Bhagat Singh and Rajguru?
1. Lysosomes (A) Pandit Govind Ballabh Pant
2. Vacuoles (B) Lala Lajpat Rai
3. Mitochondria (C) Mangal Singh
4. Chloroplast (D) Motilal Nehru
Select the correct answer using the code given
Q136 Consider the following statements:
below:
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only 1. The first Mongol invasion of India happened
(C) 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 during the reign of Jalal-ud-din Khalji.
2. During the reign of Alauddin Khalji, one
Q131 Which of the following closest to the purest form
Mongol assault marched up to Delhi and
of the iron? besieged the city.
(A) Cast Iron (B) Wrought Iron
(C) Pig Iron (D) Steel Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
Q132 Which of the following nutrients is associated (B) 2 only
with the deficiency disorder called 'Beriberi'? (C) Both 1 and 2
(A) Vitamin A (D) Neither 1 nor 2
(B) Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)
(C) Vitamin C Q137 Which of the following is often credited with the

(D) Vitamin D invention of the printing press, which played a

significant role in spreading Renaissance ideas?
Q133 Consider the following statements regarding (A) Martin Luther King
respiration in plants: (B) Leonardo da Vinci
1. Respiration is a biochemical process that (C) Johannes Gutenberg
releases energy stored in glucose molecules. (D) Michelangelo Buonarroti

2. In aerobic respiration, glucose is completely Q138 Consider the following statements about Phloem
oxidized to carbon dioxide and water, and Xylem:
producing a large amount of ATP.
1. Phloem transports organic nutrients, primarily
Which of the statements given above is/are
sugars, from the leaves to other parts of the
correct?
plant.
(A) 1 only 2. Xylem transports water and minerals from the
(B) 2 only
roots to the leaves and other parts of the
(C) Both 1 and 2
plant.

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 Defence

3. Phloem consists of four types of cells: sieve (D) Tse Tse fly
tube elements, companion cells, parenchyma
Q142 Which of the following statements about the
cells, and sclerenchyma fibres.
“VIRAASAT” exhibition is/are correct?
4. The xylem is composed of living cells, allowing
it to actively transport substances through the 1. It is hosted by the National Handloom
plant. Development Corporation Ltd (NHDC) under
the Ministry of Textiles.
How many of the statements given above is/are
2. The exhibition marks the 15th National
correct?
Handloom Day.
(A) Only one (B) Only two
3. It was held at Handloom Haat in Janpath.
(C) Only three (D) All four
Select the correct answer using the codes given
Q139 Which among the following represents
below:
pancreatic enzymes?
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only
(A) Chymotrypsin, trypsin, procarboxypeptidase,
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
pancreatic amylase , pancreatic lipase
(B) Trypsin, salivary amylase, Q143 Consider the following statements with reference
procarboxypeptidase, pancreatic amylase, to RHUMI-1:
pancreatic lipase 1. It is India's first reusable hybrid rocket
(C) Chymotrypsin, trypsin, pepsin, developed by Chennai-based startup Space
procarboxypeptidase, pancreatic amylase, Zone India.
pancreatic lipase 2. It's major purpose is to collect data on global
(D) Chymotrypsin, ptyalin, pepsin, warming and climate change.
procarboxypeptidase, pancreatic amylase, Which of the above statements is/are correct?
pancreatic lipase (A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
Q140 Which of the following statements about the
(C) Both 1 and 2
brain is/are not correct?
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Cerebrum is part of forebrain and considered
Q144 Which among the following cities has earned the
as seat of intelligence
'World Craft City' tag from the World Crafts
2. Brain has a large lymph vessel called cerebral
Council (WCC)?
aqueduct.
(A) Jodhpur (B) Srinagar
3. Hind brain containing pons,cerebellum and
(C) Guwahati (D) Gwalior
medulla oblongata is the largest part of the
brain Q145 Naseem Al Bahr is the naval exercise between
4. Two hemispheres of cerebrum are connected India and:
by a tract of nerve fibre called corpus (A) Oman (B) UAE
callosum (C) Bahrain (D) USA
Select the correct answer using the codes given
Q146 Which tribe recently became the fifth Particularly
below:
Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) in Odisha in
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3
September 2024?
(C) 1,2 and 4 (D) 2,3 and 4
(A) Juang
Q141 Which of the following vectors is responsible for (B) Paudi Bhuyan
transmitting the parasite causing filariasis? (C) Chuktia Bhunjia
(A) Anopheles mosquito (D) Saora
(B) Culex mosquito
Q147 Which of the following is the main purpose of the
(C) Aedes mosquito
Cali Fund established at COP16 to the

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 Defence

Convention on Biological Diversity? 1. Rajasthan is the only state to provide for

(A) To promote the development of new digital women quotas in the police force.
technologies 2. The subject of Police falls under the
(B) To share profits from nature's genetics Concurrent List of the Seventh Schedule to the
through Digital Sequence Information (DSI) Constitution of India.
(C) To support environmental conservation Which of the above statements is/are correct?
efforts in the private sector (A) 1 only
(D) To fund global trade agreements on genetic (B) 2 only
resources (C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Q148 Match the List I with List II and select the correct
answer using the code given below: Q150 Consider the following components:
1. Management Action Plan on Conservation of
Mangroves and Coral Reefs
2. Research & Development in Marine and
Coastal ecosystem
3. Sustainable Development of Beaches
Which of the above is/are the components of the
(A) 1- B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C National Coastal Mission Scheme?
(B) 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B (A) 1 only
(C) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B (B) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1-D, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A (C) 1, 2 and 3 only
(D) 1 and 3 only
Q149 Consider the following statements:

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 Defence

Answer Key
Q1 (B) Q34 (C)

Q2 (D) Q35 (C)

Q3 (C) Q36 (D)

Q4 (B) Q37 (B)

Q5 (C) Q38 (C)

Q6 (B) Q39 (A)

Q7 (C) Q40 (C)

Q8 (A) Q41 (C)

Q9 (D) Q42 (B)

Q10 (B) Q43 (B)

Q11 (D) Q44 (C)

Q12 (C) Q45 (B)

Q13 (D) Q46 (C)

Q14 (C) Q47 (D)

Q15 (C) Q48 (B)

Q16 (A) Q49 (C)

Q17 (A) Q50 (B)

Q18 (A) Q51 (A)

Q19 (B) Q52 (C)

Q20 (C) Q53 (B)

Q21 (C) Q54 (D)

Q22 (B) Q55 (C)

Q23 (D) Q56 (A)

Q24 (A) Q57 (B)

Q25 (B) Q58 (B)

Q26 (B) Q59 (B)

Q27 (B) Q60 (C)

Q28 (B) Q61 (B)

Q29 (D) Q62 (D)

Q30 (C) Q63 (D)

Q31 (C) Q64 (B)

Q32 (B) Q65 (C)

Q33 (D) Q66 (A)

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 Defence

Q67 (A) Q101 (A)

Q68 (D) Q102 (D)

Q69 (B) Q103 (A)

Q70 (A) Q104 (B)

Q71 (B) Q105 (A)

Q72 (A) Q106 (C)

Q73 (A) Q107 (C)

Q74 (D) Q108 (B)

Q75 (A) Q109 (C)

Q76 (A) Q110 (A)

Q77 (B) Q111 (C)

Q78 (C) Q112 (C)

Q79 (B) Q113 (C)

Q80 (A) Q114 (C)

Q81 (B) Q115 (C)

Q82 (A) Q116 (B)

Q83 (A) Q117 (C)

Q84 (B) Q118 (C)

Q85 (C) Q119 (B)

Q86 (C) Q120 (C)

Q87 (D) Q121 (B)

Q88 (B) Q122 (D)

Q89 (A) Q123 (D)

Q90 (C) Q124 (D)

Q91 (B) Q125 (C)

Q92 (B) Q126 (A)

Q93 (C) Q127 (C)

Q94 (C) Q128 (C)

Q95 (C) Q129 (D)

Q96 (A) Q130 (A)

Q97 (C) Q131 (B)

Q98 (C) Q132 (B)

Q99 (C) Q133 (C)

Q100 (D) Q134 (C)

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 Defence

Q135 (B) Q143 (C)

Q136 (B) Q144 (B)

Q137 (C) Q145 (A)

Q138 (C) Q146 (D)

Q139 (A) Q147 (B)

Q140 (B) Q148 (A)

Q141 (B) Q149 (D)

Q142 (C) Q150 (C)

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 Defence

Hints & Solutions

Note: scan the QR code to watch video solution

Q1 Text Solution: Adapted- to change your behaviour in order to

Vociferous - Loud, noisy, and expressive; deal more successfully with a new situation
characterized by strong or vehement Sustained- continuing for a period of time
pronouncements. without becoming less
Vocal - Using one's voice to express opinions or Mutated- to develop or make something develop
feelings; actively speaking out. a new form or structure, because of a genetic
Subdued - Quiet, restrained, or kept under change
control; lacking in intensity or forcefulness. Intricate- having a lot of different parts and small
Tumultuous - Marked by or causing great details that fit together
commotion or uproar; violently agitated or Clearly, 'Sustained' is the antonym of the given
confused. word.
Forthright - Honest, direct, and open in
Q5 Text Solution:
expressing oneself; not hesitant or evasive. The correct answer is: C. definite
Clearly, 'Subdued ' is the antonym of the given Equivocal means open to multiple
word.
interpretations, unclear, or ambiguous.
Q2 Text Solution: Definite is the opposite of equivocal, meaning
Expediency: the quality of being convenient and clear, precise, and leaving no room for doubt.
practical despite possibly being improper or Cryptic, enigmatic, and puzzling are all synonyms
immoral; convenience. of equivocal, suggesting hidden meaning or
Fitness: Suitability or qualification for a purpose difficulty in understanding.
or role.
Q6 Text Solution:
Timeliness: Done at the perfect moment for Answer: B) blows
maximum impact.
Solution: The correct sentence is "About twice
Opportunism: Utilizing favorable circumstances
every century, one of the massive stars in our
for personal gain. galaxy blows itself apart in a supernova
Disadvantage: A negative aspect or weakness
explosion..."
that puts someone at a drawback.
The verb "blows" is used to describe the action of
Clearly, 'Disadvantage' is the antonym of the a star exploding.
given word. Galaxy is a singular noun hence, a singular noun
Q3 Text Solution: will come in the blank.
Inspirit: Fill with motivation and purpose. Q7 Text Solution:
Animate: Give life or energy to something.
Answer: C) sweep through
Hearten: Encourage and bring joy.
Solution: The correct sentence is "matter into
Dissuade: Advise against or urge someone not to space and generates shock waves that sweep
do something.
through the arms of the galaxy."
Enliven: Make something more lively or
The phrase "sweep through" describes the
interesting. movement of shock waves across the arms of the
Clearly, 'Dissuade' is the antonym of the given
galaxy.
word.
To "sweep through" is to move across something
Q4 Text Solution: swiftly or forcefully.
Morphed- to change, or make
Q8 Text Solution:
somebody/something change, into something Answer: A) has been
different

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 Defence

Solution: The correct sentence is "The general Q13 Text Solution:

picture that has been developed for the Answer: D) thrown off
supernova explosion and its aftermath goes Solution: The correct sentence is "The shell of
something like this." matter thrown off by the explosion plows
The phrase "has been" is used to indicate an through the surrounding gas, producing an
ongoing or completed action in the present expanding bubble of hot gas..."
perfect tense, suitable for describing the current The phrase "thrown off" describes the ejection of
understanding of supernova explosions. material during the supernova explosion.
The singular noun 'picture' will take the singular
Q14 Text Solution:
verb 'has'.
Answer: C) emit
Q9 Text Solution: Solution: The correct sentence is "This gas will
Answer: D) tendency emit most of its energy at X-ray wavelengths..."
Solution: The correct sentence is "It keeps its The word "emit" means to release or discharge,
equilibrium figure through a balance of internal which fits the context of the gas releasing energy
pressure against the tendency to collapse under as X-rays.
its own weight." Q15 Text Solution:
The word "tendency" accurately describes the
Answer: C) insights
natural inclination or disposition of the star to
Solution: The correct sentence is "X-ray
collapse under gravity. observatories have provided some of the most
Q10 Text Solution: useful insights into the nature of the supernova
Answer: B) exhausted phenomenon."
Solution: The correct sentence is "Eventually the The word "insights" refers to the deep
nuclear fuel is exhausted, and the pressure drops understanding or knowledge gained from
in the core." observing and studying X-rays from supernovae.
The term "exhausted" means that the fuel has Q16 Text Solution:
been completely used up, leading to a drop in
Key Concept:
pressure.
Explanation:
Q11 Text Solution: The given sentence is in present perfect tense
Answer: D) rises which speaks about a group being free from a
Solution: The correct sentence is "As the crime but with a condition (being under
overlying layers rain down on the surface of the surveillance). Options B & C are eliminated
neutron star, the temperature rises, until with a because they don’t suggest any condition.
blinding flash of radiation, the collapse is Option D (presence of ‘have’) doesn’t make any
reversed." sense to the given context, so it is eliminated.
The word "rises" is the appropriate choice, Hence, the correct option is ‘A’ i.e., they are
indicating that the temperature increases. under the watch of police.

Q12 Text Solution: Q17 Text Solution:

Answer: C) through Key Concept: Clauses
Solution: The correct sentence is "A Explanation:
thermonuclear shock wave runs through the now A defining clause, also known as an essential
expanding stellar envelope, fusing lighter clause or a restricted clause, provides details that
elements into heavier ones..." are crucial to understanding the sentence's
The word "through" accurately describes the meaning.
movement of the shock wave within the stellar With defining clauses we use "that".
envelope. Nonessential or nonrestrictive clauses, also
known as non-defining clauses, do not constrain

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 Defence

the meaning of the sentence. Options A, B & D are eliminated as they don’t
​We use whatever as a pronoun or determiner to add any correct explanation to the given phrase.
refer to anything or everything of a particular Hence, the correct option is ‘C’ i.e., because of
kind. his nature.
We use "what", when there are numerous options Q21 Text Solution:
available, or when you are unsure of the number Option (c) is correct.
of options, use "what." The correct answer is option (C), because the
Complete Sentence: Not everything that sentence compares all the hotels in the town, and
happened was my fault. we need a superlative adjective.
Hence, the correct option is ‘A’ i.e., that
So, "cheapest" is an apt adjective. And
happened was my fault.
superlatives are always preceded by "the." Thus,
Q18 Text Solution: "the cheapest hotel."
Key Concept: Conjunctions Complete sentence: We stayed at the cheapest
Explanation: hotel in the town.
The sentence is in present perfect tense. It Q22 Text Solution:
specifies about an unpleasant/painful situation Key concept: Tenses
that the subject faces, (being at the receiving Explanation:
end.)
The sentence there is a way is grammatically
Option A is starting a contrasting fact, i.e., Sheela
correct and conveys the intended meaning.
is facing such a situation despite being an honest The proverb 'Where there is a will there's a way' is
person. Option B ja Incorrect because "and" joins used to say that if someone has the strong desire
two similar sentences. and determination to do something, he/ she can
Options C & D are eliminated, as they are in past certainly find a method to accomplish his/ her
tense. desire.
So a phrase starting with a conjunction ‘but’ will
Hence the answer is (b), i.e there is a way
be appropriate here.
Q23 Text Solution:
Hence, the correct option is ‘A’ i.e., but she is
Key concept: Modals
very honest.
Explanation:
Q19 Text Solution: Must:- express obligation.
Key Concept: Conjunction Should:-give advice and make suggestions.
Explanation: May:-denotes possibility.
The presence of the word ‘no’ states that it is a Can:- to ask for permission/ denotes abi
negative phrase. No options have a negative
The sentence can I turn on the lights? is
word in it, so the answer will be a positive phrase.
grammatically correct and conveys the intended
So, to join two contrasting statements, the use of meaning.
the conjunction ‘but’ is appropriate. This sentence effectively conveys the intended
Hence, the correct option is ‘B’ i.e., but to accept meaning, which is the speaker's request to be
the challenge. allowed to turn on the lights. It suggests that the
Q20 Text Solution: speaker recognizes that it is getting dark and
Key Concept: Conjunction wants to take the appropriate action to make it
Explanation: brighter. The use of "can" creates a polite and
The sentence is in past simple tense. The given respectful tone, as the speaker is asking for
phrase speaks about the subject (‘she’) marrying permission rather than making a command.
someone, so the next phrase should be one that Hence the answer is (d, i.e can I turn on the lights
will put forth a reason for the happening. ?".

Q24 Text Solution:

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 Defence

Key concept: Pronoun Eat like a bird- one who consumes very little
Explanation: food.
The sentence who said he had been to an
Q28 Text Solution:
ancient place" is grammatically correct and
The answer is 'Deeply in love.'
conveys the intended meaning.
This sentence effectively conveys the intended Head over heels- This expression is used
meaning, which is that the traveller told the when a person is deeply in love.

speaker about a place that he had visited. The

Q29 Text Solution:
use of the pronoun "who" is correct because "the
Option (d) "Out of touch with reality" is the
old man" is the antecedent for the relative
correct answer.
pronoun "who" and the past tense of the verb
To "live in an ivory tower" means to be out of
"say" creates a clear and concise description of
touch with reality, especially the problems of
the interaction between the speaker and the
everyday life.
traveller. The use of direct quotation allows the
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
speaker to directly report what the traveller said,
providing a clear and accurate representation of Q30 Text Solution:
the conversation. Call the shots- Those in positions of authority
Hence the answer is (a), i.e who said he had and influence can make decisions.
been to an ancient place. Example: His brother is the one who calls the
shots around here.
Q25 Text Solution:
Option C is the correct choice.
Key concept: Tenses and Prepositions
Explanation: Q31 Text Solution:
The sentence there is nothing beyond him is The correct answer is option C - SRPQ.
grammatically correct and effectively conveys Correct sentence- The Supreme Court of India’s
the intended meaning. stinging remarks on the manner in which the
In this sentence, "there is nothing beyond him" Mayor of Chandigarh was elected has confirmed
means that man is the greatest truth and there is suspicion that the victory of Manoj Sonkar was
nothing that surpasses him. The use of the word obtained through manipulation.
"beyond" implies a comparison between man and Q32 Text Solution:
other things and suggests that man is supreme The correct answer is Option B- RPSQ.
or superior. Complete sentence: Replying to a question in
The sentence is grammatically correct and its the Rajya Sabha, Ms. Sitharaman said Bhabha
structure is clear and straightforward. Atomic Research Centre (BARC) is working with
Hence the answer is (b), i.e there is nothing the government on de-humidification of onions
beyond him. through Gamma Rays to give it a longer shelf life.
Q26 Text Solution: Q33 Text Solution:
The answer is 'Being wrong.' The correct answer is Option D- PRQS.
Complete sentence: There has been a massive
Be off the mark- Being off the mark simply
expansion in social and economic infrastructure,
means being wrong.
a boost to entrepreneurship, rural
Example: He completely was off the mark with transformation, and a manifold increase in the
his reports. number of universities and colleges.
Q27 Text Solution: Q34 Text Solution:
The answer is 'one who consumes very little The correct answer is Option C- SQPR.
food.' Complete sentence: The explosive evolution of
Indian healthcare is a testament to the

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 Defence

transformative role the sector can play in our The correct answer is Participle.
quest for a developed nation and the time to In the sentence, "foretelling" describes the action
expand its contributions is now. of the clouds and clarifies what they are doing.

Q35 Text Solution: "Foretelling" is the present participle form of the

The correct answer is Option C- QPSR. verb "foretell."

Complete sentence: The first creature of God in Present participle is the form of a verb, ending in

the works of the days was the light of the sense; -ing in English, which is used in forming

the last was the light of reason; and his Sabbath continuous tenses.
Preposition - used before a noun, pronoun, or
work ever since is the illumination of his spirit.
noun phrase to show direction, time, place,
Q36 Text Solution:
location, spatial relationships, or to introduce an
In the sentence "The book about astronauts
object. Some examples of prepositions are words
fascinated me," "astronauts" functions as a noun.
like "in," "at," "on," "of," and "to."
Noun: "Astronauts" names a specific group of Adverb - modify or describe a verb, adjective,
people (space travelers), making it a noun. another adverb, or entire sentence.
Conjunction - a word used to connect clauses or
Verb: A word that indicates a physical
sentences or to coordinate words in the same
action.
clause (e.g. and, but, if ).
Preposition: A word or group of words
used before a noun, pronoun, or noun Q39 Text Solution:
phrase to show direction, time, place, Explanation:
location, spatial relationships, or to ‘The’ is an article here which is modifying the
introduce an object. noun ‘article’.
Adverb: A word that can modify or Q40 Text Solution:
describe a verb, adjective, another adverb, Explanation:
or entire sentence. ‘Awake’ is a verb in the sentence which means
'stop sleeping; wake from sleep.'
Q37 Text Solution:
The correct answer is Adverb. Q41 Text Solution:
Adverbs modify verbs, adjectives, or other Answer: C) Pessimistic and suspicious
adverbs. Explanation: Bregman suggests that we
In the sentence, "aimlessly" describes the generally see other people as selfish,
manner of his wandering. untrustworthy, and dangerous, leading us to
It clarifies the way he was moving and provides behave defensively and with suspicion.
context for his uncertainty. Q42 Text Solution:
Preposition - used before a noun, pronoun, or Answer: B) Bregman believes humans are
noun phrase to show direction, time, place, naturally good but corrupted by civilization.
location, spatial relationships, or to introduce an Explanation: Bregman aligns more with
object. Some examples of prepositions are words Rousseau, who argued that humans were born
like "in," "at," "on," "of," and "to." free and good but were corrupted by civilization,
Conjunction - a word used to connect clauses or unlike Hobbes, who believed humans are
sentences or to coordinate words in the same naturally selfish and need a strong state to
clause (e.g. and, but, if ). maintain order.
Gerund - a verb in its present participle form
Q43 Text Solution:
(root verb + “ing”) that acts as a noun in a
Answer: B) The discovery of agriculture and
sentence.
domestication of animals
Q38 Text Solution:

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 Defence

Explanation: Bregman attributes the emergence Q48 Text Solution:

of infectious diseases like measles and smallpox The answer is B) agitated.
to the shift from a nomadic lifestyle to
The underlined word "flurried" means
agriculture and the domestication of animals.
agitated, nervous or anxious.
Q44 Text Solution: Option A, "calmed" implies not showing or
Answer: C) Veneer theory feeling nervousness, anger or other strong
Explanation: Frans de Waal's "veneer theory" emotions, which contradicts the meaning of
posits that underneath a thin layer of civility, "flurried".
humans have an inherent bestial nature ready to Option C, "composed" is the opposite of
emerge. "flurried" because it means being calm and in
Q45 Text Solution: control of oneself.
Answer: B) It often leads to increased freedom Option B, "agitated" means feeling or
and cultural flourishing. appearing troubled or nervous.
Explanation: Bregman suggests that the collapse
Q49 Text Solution:
of civilizations can be seen as a reprieve where
The answer is C) astonishing.
enslaved individuals gain freedom and culture
flourishes, contrary to the traditional view of The underlined word "staggering" means
such periods as "dark ages." deeply shocking.
Option A, "continuing" implies ongoing.
Q46 Text Solution:
Option B, "staying" means remaining in same
The answer is C) mimicking.
place.
The underlined word "impersonating" means Option D, "carrying" means supporting and
pretend to be another person for moving from one place to another.
entertainment or fraud. Option C, "astonishing" accurately captures
Option A, "burlesque" implies a variety show. the idea that formally declares one's
Option B, "travesty" means a false, absurd or abandonment of (a claim, right, or possession).
distorted representation of something.
Option D, "direct" is the opposite of Q50 Text Solution:
"impersonating" because it means without The correct answer is B. dingy.
intervening factors or intermediaries. Somber means dark, dingy, gloomy, or
Option C, "mimicking" means imitate depressing.
especially in order to entertain or ridicule. Cloudless describes a sky with no clouds.
Jolly signifies happiness and cheerfulness,
Q47 Text Solution:
which contradicts the somber atmosphere.
The answer is D) tremendous.
Vibrant suggests liveliness and energy, also
The underlined word "outstanding" means contrasting with the somber mood.
exceptionally good.
Therefore, severe is the most similar in meaning
Option A, "mediocre" implies of only
to the underlined word "somber" in this context.
moderate quality, which contradicts the
meaning of "outstanding". Q51 Text Solution:
Option B, "unexceptional" means not out of Key Concept -
the ordinary. A periscope is an optical instrument that
Option C, "prosaic" means lacking poetic allows an observer to see over, around, or
beauty. through an object that prevents direct line-of-
Option D, "tremendous" means extremely sight. It consists of an outer case with mirrors
good or impressive.

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 Defence

at each end set parallel to each other at a 45°

angle.
Q53 Text Solution:
Explanation - Key Concept -

A periscope makes use of two plane mirrors. In physics, a plane mirror is a flat, reflective
Periscopes are used in order to see the objects surface that produces a virtual image of a real
that are not in direct line of sight. • Its work is object. When parallel beams of light hit a
based on the laws of reflection. plane mirror, they are reflected parallel to
Uses each other. The angle of reflection equals the
angle of incidence for light rays striking a
It is used by the submariners to view the
plane mirror.
objects at the surface of the water.
It is used in a nuclear reactor to observe the Explanation -
chemical reactions that are taking place.
The image formed by the plane mirror is
In the military periscopes are used to virtual and erect i.e. image cannot be
observe from their hiding position. projected or focused on a screen.
Hence, the correct option is 'A' The distance of the image 'behind' the mirror
is the same as the distance of the object in
Q52 Text Solution:
front of the mirror.
Key Concept
The size of the image formed is the same as
According to Ohm's law the current flowing in the size of the object.
a circuit is directly proportional to the The image is laterally inverted, i.e. left hand
potential difference across it. appears to be right hand when seen from the
P otential dif f erence (V ) = RI
plane mirror.
Where as R is resistance and I is current
Hence, the correct option is 'B'
There are mainly two ways of combination of
Q54 Text Solution:
resistance.
Key Concept -
When two or more resistances are connected one
after another such that the same current flows Heat transfer is defined as the process in
through them is called as resistance in series. which the molecules are moved from the
Equivalent resistance, R= R1 + R2 region of higher temperature to lower
When the terminals of two or more resistances temperature.
are connected at the same two points and Explanation -
potential difference across them is equal, they
are called as resistances in parallel. Convection: This involves transfer of heat
1
=
1
+
1 through air movement. While warm air rising
R R1 R2
from the fire can contribute some warmth, it's
Here, 1Ω at A and 1Ω at B are in parallel.
1 1 1 1 1 2 generally slower and less direct compared to
= + = + =
RAB RA

1
RB 2 1 1
radiation.
R AB = = 0.5Ω
2 Radiation: This refers to the transfer of heat
Now RAB and 1Ω are in series.
through electromagnetic waves, like infrared
So equivalent resistance
radiation emitted by the fire. This heat transfer
(R net ) = R AB + 1Ω = 0.5 + 1 = 1.5Ω
is direct and instantaneous, warming the
Now
person even without physical contact with the
According to ohm’s law;
fire. In the cold winter months, this immediate
V = RI
warmth is most desirable.
Current in the circuit (I )
V 1.5
= = = 1A
Rnet 1.5

Hence, the correct option is ‘C’ i.e. 1 V.

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 Defence

Conduction: While the fire heats objects P is the power (in watts),
directly touching it through conduction, sitting I is the current (in amperes), and
at a distance minimizes this effect. In this V is the voltage (in volts).
scenario, conduction plays a smaller role. Given that the power of the bulb
Convection + Radiation: Both contribute to
heating, but radiation will be the dominant P=100 W and the voltage (V) = 220 V, we can
and faster-acting mechanism in this context. rearrange the formula to solve for the current:
P
I =
Hence, the correct option is 'D' V

Substituting the given values:

Q55 Text Solution: 100
I =
Key Concept -
220

I = 0.45 A
The universal law of Gravitation- Every Hence, the correct option is 'A'
particle in the universe attracts every oth
Q57 Text Solution:
particle with a force that is proportional to the
Key Concept -
product of their masses and inversely
proportional to the square of the distance A magnet is a material or object that produces
between them. a magnetic field. This field is responsible for a
Sir Isaac Newton discovered Gravity. magnet's most notable property: a force that
pulls on other ferromagnetic materials, such as
Explanation -
iron, steel, nickel, and cobalt.
The phenomenons explained by the universal
Explanation -
law of gravitation:
Coulomb's law in magnetism:
The force that binds us to the earth.
It state's that the force of interaction between
The motion of the moon around the earth.
two stationary magnetic poles is directly
The motion of planets around the Sun.
proportional to the product of the pole
The tides due to the moon and the Sun
strengths.
So, The motion of the Sun around the planets," is The force of interaction between two
not explained by the universal law of gravitation stationary magnetic poles is inversely
because the Sun does not revolve around proportional to the square of the distance
planets. Rather, it is the planets that revolve between the two poles.
around the Sun due to the gravitational force The force between the two poles acts along
exerted by the Sun the straight line joining the two poles.
Hence, the correct option is 'C' Like poles repel each other and the unlike
poles attract each other.
Q56 Text Solution:
Key Concept - We know that force between two magnetic poles
is given as:
The power of a bulb is the rate at which it μ0 m1 m2
F = × − − − − 1
does work. The SI unit of power is the watt, 4π r
2

which is named after the scientist James Watt. By equation 1 it is clear that the force between
One watt is equal to one joule per second. two magnetic poles depends upon the medium,
pole strength, and the distance between the
Explanation -
poles.
To find the current flowing through the bulb, we
The force between two magnetic poles does not
can use the formula:
depend upon the shape of the magnet.
P = I × V
Hence, the correct option is 'B'
Where:
Q58 Text Solution:

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 Defence

Key Concept - produced by the primary coil is necessary for

inducing current in the secondary coil. DC
Electric charge (symbol q, sometimes Q) is the
(direct current) doesn't produce a changing
physical property of matter that causes it to
magnetic field and therefore cannot induce
experience a force when placed in an
current in the secondary coil.
electromagnetic field. Electric charge can be
The ratio of the number of turns in the
positive or negative.
primary and secondary coils determines the
Like charges repel each other and unlike
voltage and current transformation. More
charges attract each other.
turns in the secondary coil compared to the
Explanation - primary results in a "step-up" transformer,
Like charges indeed repel each other, and increasing the voltage and decreasing the
unlike charges attract each other. This is one current. Conversely, fewer turns in the
of the fundamental properties of electric secondary coil lead to a "step-down"
charges, as observed in various experiments. transformer, decreasing the voltage and
So, statement 1 is correct. increasing the current.
The SI unit of electric charge is not the Hence, the correct option is 'B'
ampere. The ampere is the SI unit of electric
Q60 Text Solution:
current. The SI unit of electric charge is the
Key Concept: The Eighth Schedule was intended
coulomb (C). So, statement 2 is not correct.
to promote the progressive use of Hindi and for
Electric charge is indeed conserved in an
the enrichment and promotion of that language
isolated system. This means that the total
in India.
electric charge in a closed system remains
Explanation:
constant over time, even though it may
redistribute within the system. This principle is The Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution
based on the law of conservation of electric deals with the official languages in India.
charge. So, statement 3 is correct. Originally there were 14 official languages
added in 1967. Thereafter three more
Hence, the correct option is 'B'
languages viz., Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali
Q59 Text Solution: were included in 1992. Subsequently Bodo,
Key concept - Dogri, Maithili and Santhali were added in
A transformer is a device that transfers 2004.
electrical energy from one circuit to another. At present there are 22 official languages
Transformers work by increasing or decreasing mentioned in the Indian Constitution.
the voltage without changing the frequency. Hence, the correct answer is c.

Explanation -

Transformer is used to step down or up the AC Q61 Text Solution:

voltages and currents. Key Concept: The term Panchayati Raj in India
Transformers are passive electrical devices signifies the system of rural local selfgovernment
that transfer electrical energy from one circuit and was constitutionalised through the 73rd
to another by changing the voltage and Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992.
current levels. They achieve this through the Explanation:

principle of mutual induction, where a L M Singhvi Committee was appointed in

changing current in one coil (primary) induces 1986, by the Rajiv Gandhi government with
a current in a nearby coil (secondary). the objective of ‘Revitalisation of Panchayati
Transformers only work with AC (alternating Raj Institutions for Democracy and
current) because the changing magnetic field

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 Defence

Development’ under the chairmanship of L.M. f = 37.5 cm = 0.375 m

Singhvi. Calculate power (P):
It recommedend that: Power (P) = 1/focal length (in meters)
The Panchayati Raj institutions should be P=
1

0.375
= 2.66 dioptres
constitutionally recognised, protected and Hence, the correct option is 'D'
preserved.
Q63 Text Solution:
It also suggested constitutional provisions to
Key Concept -
ensure regular, free and fair elections to the
Panchayati Raj bodies. A planet is a celestial body that orbits a star. A
Nyaya Panchayats should be established for a satellite is a celestial body that orbits a larger
cluster of villages. entity.
The villages should be reorganised to make Some differences between planets and satellites:
Gram Panchayats more viable and Village
Size: Planets are generally larger than
Panchayats should have more financial
satellites.
resources.
Rotation: Planets rotate on a fixed axis, while
Hence, the correct answer is b.
satellites only revolve in their orbits.
Composition: Planets have different types of
Q62 Text Solution: composition and may have an atmosphere.
Key Concept - Type: There are two types of satellites: natural
and artificial. Natural satellites are commonly
The lens formula describes the relationship
referred to as moons.
between the focal length, object distance, and
image distance of a lens. Explanation -
A lens is a thin, transparent material that can According to Newton's law of universal
focus or disperse a light beam through gravitation, every object with mass attracts
refraction. It can also converge or diverge every other object with mass. While Earth's
light. A simple lens is made of one piece of gravity weakens with distance, it never
transparent material, while a compound lens is diminishes entirely.
made of more than one simple lens. Satellites in orbit are continuously pulled
Explanation - towards Earth, albeit at a force balanced by
Here, we have to use the lens maker’s equation, their orbital velocity. However, due to various
factors like atmospheric drag, uneven
, where ‘f’ is the
1 1 1
= (n − 1) ( − )
gravitational pull from the Moon and Sun, and
f R1 R2

focal length of the lens, R1 and R 2 are its radii

other perturbations, the orbits of satellites
of curvature, n 2 is its refractive index and n 1 is
decay over time. This gradual decrease in
the refractive index of the medium in which the
altitude eventually brings them within the
lens is placed.
denser atmosphere, where drag significantly
In this case, R1 (radius of curvature of convex
increases, leading to their fiery re-entry and
face) = 15 cm, R2 (radius of plane face) = ∞ (as
destruction.
it's flat).
Therefore, remembering that the inherent pull
Substitute n = 1.4 (refractive index) and solve for
of Earth's gravity, as governed by the laws of
1 1

f
= (1. 4 − 1)(
15
− 0)
gravitation, is the primary cause for satellites
1
=
0.4 falling back to Earth is crucial for
15
understanding their orbital dynamics and
f

1
f =
0.4/15
= 37. 5
lifespan.
Convert focal length to meters:
Hence, the correct option is 'D'

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 Defence

Q64 Text Solution: The Planning Commission was charged with

Key Concept: Circular Motion serving all community service employment
Explanation: opportunities.
The Planning Commission did not derive its
The correct statement about the car's
origin from either the Constitution or the
acceleration on a circular track is:The
Statute but it was formed through Cabinet’s
acceleration is towards the center of the
decision.
circle.
Its objective was to promote a rapid rise in the
Even though the car is moving with constant
standard of living of Indians by productively
speed, its direction of motion is continuously
utilizing the country's resources, increasing
changing as it follows the curved path of the
production and providing opportunities for
circular track.
everyone for employment in the service of
Acceleration is the rate of change of velocity,
society.
which includes changes in speed or direction.
Slogan for 12th Five Year Plan "Faster,
In this case, the car's velocity is changing
Sustainable, and More Inclusive Growth."
because its direction is changing (it is
It was replaced by NITI Aayog, a more robust
constantly turning).
organization, on 1 January 2015. It is more of
This change in velocity (direction) means there
a think tank that works with stakeholders to
is acceleration, specifically centripetal
develop the country.
acceleration, which is directed towards the
center of the circle. Hence, the correct answer C, i.e 2, 3 and 4
This acceleration is necessary to keep the car
Q66 Text Solution:
moving in a curved path despite its constant Key Concept: Capacitor
speed. Explanation:
Hence, the correct answer is Option B. When a dielectric material is inserted between
the plates of a capacitor, the capacitance
increases.
This occurs because the dielectric reduces the
electric field strength inside the capacitor,
which allows for a greater amount of electric
flux (electric field lines per unit area) to exist
for a given charge on the plates.
The capacitance C of a parallel plate capacitor
with a dielectric material can be expressed as
C = κϵ 0 ​ A , where κ is the relative
d

permittivity (dielectric constant) of the

Q65 Text Solution: material, ϵ0 ​is the permittivity of free space, A
Explanation is the area of the plates, and d is the
Planning Commission separation between the plates.
It was established on March 15, 1950 and was Since κ>1 for most dielectric materials,
chaired by Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru. inserting a dielectric increases the capacitance
The Planning Commission of India was an C.
organization of the Government of India Hence, the correct answer is Option A.
which, among other things, formulated India's
Q67 Text Solution:
five-year plans(there were 12 Five Years Plans
Key concept-
till 2014).

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The photoelectric effect is a phenomenon It uses humorous expressions and

where electromagnetic radiation causes a storytelling through music and dance.
material to emit electrons. The electrons D) Jawara - Madhya Pradesh:
emitted in this way are called photoelectrons. Correct.

Explanation - Jawara is a harvest dance from Madhya

Pradesh, especially popular in the
The energy of a photon is directly related to
Bundelkhand region.
its frequency. Photons with higher frequencies
It symbolizes joy and prosperity, with
have higher energy. Visible light has a
dancers balancing baskets of grains on
spectrum of colors with violet having the
their heads.
highest frequency and red having the
lowest. Therefore, violet photons are more Hence, the correct answer is option (D).
energetic than red photons. Q69 Text Solution:
Here's a helpful formula to remember: Explanation:
E = h × f
Statement 1 is incorrect:
where:
In respect of the Armed Forces, a case for
E is the energy of the photon
the gallantry award is initiated by the Unit and
h is Planck's constant (a fundamental physical if found fit the same is forwarded to
constant) respective Services HQrs duly recommended
f is the frequency of the photon by Commanders in the chain, immediately
So, even though a single red photon might after the act of gallantry is performed.
have some energy, a single violet photon All such proposals are then considered by the
would have more energy due to its higher Awards Committee at Services HQrs before
frequency. recommending the proposals to the Ministry
of Defence with the approval of
Hence, the correct option is 'A'
the respective Chiefs.
Q68 Text Solution: The recommendations received from the
Explanation: Armed Forces and MHA are considered by the
A) Jhora - Haryana: Central Honours & Awards Committee
Incorrect. (CH&AC) composed of Raksha Mantri, three
Service Chiefs & Defence Secretary.
Jhora is a folk dance from Himachal
So, The General of the army has a role in the
Pradesh and Uttarakhand, not Haryana.
selection process of personnel for a gallantry
It is performed during festivals and social
award.
gatherings, typically in a circular formation.
Statement 2 is correct:
B) Phagua - Punjab: The recommendation for gallantry awards is
Incorrect. normally required to be sent to the Ministry
of Defence as early as possible after the act of
Phagua is a folk dance associated with
gallantry is performed.
Jharkhand, not Punjab.
In any case, the time limit for considering
It is performed during Holi celebrations and
gallantry awards should not be beyond two
is accompanied by lively songs and beats.
calendar years from the date on which the
C) Ottamthullal - Karnataka: act of gallantry is performed.
Incorrect.
Hence, the correct answer is Option (B).
Ottamthullal is a classical dance-drama
Q70 Text Solution:
from Kerala, not Karnataka.

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The potential energy of a stretched spring is Real GDP is said to be the value of all goods
U =
1

2
kx
2
and services determined in an economy
Here, k = spring constant, x = elongation in after taking into account the rate of
spring. inflation.
But given that, the elongation is 2cm. In other words, it is the inflation-adjusted
So, U =
1
k(2)
2
value of goods and services produced in an
2

⇒ U =
1
k × 4. economy in a year, therefore it is also known
2

If elongation is 10cm then potential energy as inflation-adjusted gross domestic product.

Real GDP in addition to inflation, also takes
U
′
=
1
k(10)
2
into account the deflation.
2
′ 1
U =
2
k × 100
GDP (Gross Domestic Product):

Measures the monetary value of all "final"

On dividing equation (ii) by equation (i), we have
′
1
k×100
goods and services produced in a country
U 2

U
=
1
×4
during a specific period.
k×4

U
′
′ "Final" goods and services are those bought
or = 25 ⇒ U = 25U
by the final user.
U

Q71 Text Solution:

Given: Four Key "Engines of GDP Growth":

Q = 3μC , V = 300V , C =? 1. Private Final Consumption Expenditure

Calculation: (PFCE):

The capacitance of a capacitor is given by the All money is spent by Indians for private
following formula: consumption.

⇒ C =
Q
2. Government Final Consumption Expenditure
V

⇒ C =
3×10
−6
C
⇒ 0. 01μF
(GFCE):
300 V

Hence, the correct option is B i.e. 0. 01μF All money spent by the government on
Q72 Text Solution: current consumption (e.g., salaries).
Key Concept: Combination of Resistance 3. Gross Fixed Capital Expenditure
Explanation: (Investment):
To find the total resistance of resistors connected
Investments made to boost productive
in series, you simply add their resistances
capacity, such as business firms investing in
together.
factories or governments building
Here, you have three resistors, each with a
infrastructure (roads, bridges).
resistance of 4 Ω, connected in series.
The formula for the total resistance Rtotal in a 4. Net Exports (NX):
series circuit is:
The net effect of exports (foreign spending
R total = R 1 + R 2 + R 3 + ⋯ + R n ​
on Indian goods) minus imports (Indian
In this case:
spending on foreign goods).
R total = 4 Ω + 4 Ω + 4 Ω

R total = 12 Ω R GDP Calculation Formula:

So, the total resistance of the combination is GDP = Private Consumption + Gross
12 Ω Investment + Government Investment +
Hence, the correct answer is Option A. Government Spending + (Exports - Imports)
Q73 Text Solution: GVA (Gross Value Added):
Explanation:

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 Defence

Calculates national income from the supply The Mediterranean climate occurs around the
side by adding up the value added across Mediterranean Sea, along the west coast of
different sectors. continents in subtropical latitudes between
30° - 40° latitudes, e.g. - Central California,
Key Points about GVA:
Central Chile, along the coast in
Value of Output - Intermediary Inputs: GVA southeastern and southwestern Australia.
of a sector is the value of output minus the These areas come under the influence of
value of intermediary inputs. subtropical highs in summer and westerly
Distribution of Value Added: The "value winds in winter.
added" is shared among the primary factors of Hence, the climate is characterised by hot,
production: labor and capital. dry summers and mild, rainy winters.
Sectoral Insights: GVA growth helps identify The monthly average temperature in summer
which sectors of the economy are robust or is around 25° C, and in winter below 10°C.
struggling. The annual precipitation ranges between 35 -
Hence the correct answer is option A. 90 cm.

Q74 Text Solution:

Explanation:

Temperate cyclones are also known as Extra-

tropical cyclones, with the term "Extra-
tropical" indicating that they often occur
outside of the tropics in latitudes ranging from
30° to 60°.
Extra-tropical cyclones are storm systems Fig: World distribution of Mediterranean Climate.
that form in the mid to high latitudes, away Q76 Text Solution:
from the tropics. Explanation:
They are low-pressure systems that include
Statement 1: "It lies to the north of the
cold fronts, warm fronts, and occluded
Marwar plateau":
fronts.
This is incorrect. The Central Highlands lie to
These cyclones form along the polar front.
the southeast of the Marwar Plateau, not to
Initially, the front remains stationary.
its north.
Tropical cyclones move east to west.
Statement 2: "It is characterized by rolling
Tropical cyclones affect a smaller region than
plains":
temperate cyclones.
This is correct. The Central Highlands are
A tropical cyclone's wind velocity is
indeed characterized by rolling plains and low
substantially higher, making it more
hills, such as the Malwa Plateau and
damaging.
Bundelkhand region.
Tropical cyclones form only in oceans with
Statement 3: "Banas, Kali Sindh, and Parbati
temperatures above 26-27 degrees Celsius
are some of the important rivers flowing in
and break down upon reaching land.
this region"
A tropical cyclone does not last more than
This statement is correct. The plateau,
seven days.
dominated by the Chambal river basin,
Hence, option (D) is correct. features tributaries such as Kali Sindh, Banas,
Q75 Text Solution: Parwan, and Parbati.
Ans: A Hence, the correct answer is option (A).
Exp:
Q77 Text Solution:

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 Defence

Explanation: Hence, the correct option is B i.e. Sound waves

having a frequency below 20 Hz are known as
Pre-monsoon showers refer to the
ultrasonic waves.
precipitation that takes a few months before
Additional Information-
the actual onset of monsoon, generally in the
month from March to May which plays an Hertz (Hz) is the unit of frequency.
important role in the agriculture of India. One kHz is equal to thousand Hz.
Pre-monsoon showers are called by different Q80 Text Solution:
names in some states according to the factor Given.
on which their effect is substantial. l = 4m, v = 10 m/s, B = 0. 8 W b/m
2

Some local names are as follows: Formula used,

Tea Shower or Bardoli Chherha - Assam E = Blv

Kalbaishakhi - West Bengal Solution,

Mango Showers - Kerala and Karnataka
2
E = 0. 8W b/m × 4m × 10m/s

Cherry Blossoms/ Coffee showers - Kerala E = 32V

and some parts of Karnataka Hence, the correct option is ‘A’

Hence, the correct answer is option (B). Q81 Text Solution:

Key Concept -
Q78 Text Solution:
Given, Ultrasonic sound is sound with frequencies
potential dif f erence, V = 60V current, greater than 20 kilohertz (kHz). This is the
I = 8A V ' = 80V approximate upper audible limit of human
Formula used, hearing in healthy young adults
V = IR
Explanation -
Solution,
R =
V
=
60
The correct answer is Ultrasonic sound has
I 8

R = 7. 5Ω frequencies above the audible range for

Now, if potential is increased to 80V, say humans.
V ' = 80V Ultrasonic sound refers to sound waves with
I' =
V'
=
80
frequencies higher than the upper limit of
R 7.5

I ' = 10. 6A
human hearing, which is typically considered
Hence, the correct option is ‘C’ i.e I ' = 10. 6A
to be around 20,000 Hz.
While humans can perceive sound waves
Q79 Text Solution:
within the audible range, which spans from
Explanation-
about 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz, ultrasonic
When a pattern of the disturbance is caused frequencies are beyond this range.
by the energy traveling away from a sound Ultrasonic sound finds various applications in
source known as sound wave. technology and industry due to its unique
These waves are longitudinal in nature. properties. Some common applications
The normal frequency range of sound waves include:
for humans is 20 Hz - 20 kHz and the sound
Medical Imaging: Ultrasonic imaging
wave with higher frequency than 20 kHz is
techniques, such as ultrasound scanning,
known as ultrasonic sound wave or
are used in medical diagnostics to visualize
ultrasound.
internal organs and tissues non-invasively.
Sounds having frequencies lower than 20 Hz
Cleaning: Ultrasonic cleaning devices use
are below audible level and are known as
high-frequency sound waves to remove
infrasonic sound.
dirt, grease, and contaminants from

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 Defence

surfaces, such as jewelry, surgical Explanation -

instruments, and electronic components.
At 0°C, the speed of sound in air is
Welding and Cutting: Ultrasonic welding
approximately 331 meters per second (m/s).
and cutting techniques are employed in
This value represents the speed of sound in
manufacturing processes to join or
dry air at sea level under standard
separate materials without the need for
atmospheric conditions. It's important to note
adhesives or heat.
that the speed of sound in air depends on
Hence, the correct option is 'B' various factors such as temperature, humidity,

Q82 Text Solution: and pressure.

Explanation: However, for simplicity, the standard value

often used in physics contexts is 331 m/s at
Statement 1 is true because a convex lens 0°C.
can be diverging if the refractive index of Sound travels through air in the form of
the lens is less than the refractive index of longitudinal waves, where particles of the
the surrounding medium. This is because the medium vibrate back and forth in the direction
light rays will bend away from the principal of wave propagation. The speed at which
axis when they pass through the lens. these vibrations propagate determines the
Statement 2 is false because the nature of a speed of sound in that medium.
lens does not depend only on the refractive
Hence, the correct option is 'A'
index of the lens and that of the surrounding
medium. It also depends on the shape of the Q84 Text Solution:
lens. Ans: B
A convex lens with a large radius of Exp:
curvature will be converging, while a convex
lens with a small radius of curvature will be
diverging.

Hence, the correct option is A i.e. 1 only.

Video Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: A horizon or surface soil,

Q83 Text Solution:
It is part of topsoil.
Key concept -
In this layer, organic matter is mixed with
Sound propagation is the movement of sound mineral matter.
waves through a medium. Sound is a It is the layer of mineral soil with the most
mechanical wave that moves through a organic matter accumulation and soil life.
medium by alternately contracting and Nutrients like iron, aluminum, clay, and organic
expanding parts of the medium. matter are sometimes dissolved and carried
Sound waves can propagate through solids, out in this layer.
liquids, or gases. However, sound waves This layer is depleted of (eluviated of) iron,
cannot travel through a vacuum because there clay, aluminum, organic compounds, and
are no molecules to carry the sound waves. other soluble constituents.

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 Defence

When depletion is pronounced, a lighter

colored “E” subsurface soil horizon is apparent
at the base of the “A” horizon.

Statement 2 is incorrect: B Horizon or Subsoil,

It is a subsurface layer reflecting chemical or

physical alteration of the parent material.
This layer accumulates all the leached minerals
from the A and E horizon.
Thus iron, clay, aluminum, and organic
compounds accumulate in this horizon
[illuviation (opposite of eluviation)].

Statement 3 is correct: C Horizon or Parent

rock

Partially Weathered parent material Q86 Text Solution:

accumulates in this layer, i.e. the parent Explanation:
material in sedimentary deposits.
Soil is a mixture of small rock particles/debris
It is the least weathered horizon. Also known
and organic materials/humus that form on the
as the saprolite, it is unconsolidated, loose
earth's surface to enable plant growth.
parent material.
In the ancient period, the classification was
This layer may accumulate more soluble
based on only two factors: whether the soil
compounds (inorganic material).
was beneficial or barren.
Q85 Text Solution: Bacteria will quickly extract organic materials
Ans: C from the soil due to the high temperature,
Exp: while trees and other plants will quickly
Statement 1 is correct: Convectional rainfall is a absorb humus. Thus, the humus content is low
type of precipitation that occurs as a result of in laterite soil.
the vertical motion of air masses, specifically Laterite soil is rich in iron and aluminum.
warm air, rising and cooling to the point of Laterite soil is lacking in nitrogen, potash,
condensation. This process is common in areas of potassium, lime, and humus.
intense heat and abundant moisture, typically in Red color of laterite soil is because of iron
tropical regions. oxide.
Statement 2 is correct: Convectional rainfall is The primary crops grown are rice, ragi,
most common in tropical regions, where sugarcane, and cashew nuts.
temperatures are high and solar radiation is
Hence, option (C) is correct.
intense. The belt of doldrums, located near the
equator, is a primary region for convectional
rainfall due to the convergence of trade winds Q87 Text Solution:
and the upward movement of warm, moist air. Ans: D
The Census in India is published by the Office of
the Registrar General and Census Commissioner,
which comes under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
According to the Census 2011, the growth rate (in
per cent) for the Indian states is:

Meghalaya comes up as the Indian state with

an growth rate of 27.82%. Hence, Option (a) is

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 Defence

incorrect. Gravitational mass refers to the property of an

Mizoram registered a growth rate of 23.48%. object that determines the strength of the
Hence, Option (b) is incorrect. gravitational attraction between it and
Arunachal Pradesh registered a growth rate another object. It is a measure of the amount
of 26.03%. Hence, Option (c) is incorrect. of matter in an object and remains constant
Nagaland registered the least percentage of regardless of the location in the universe.
growth. The decadal growth rate in Gravitational mass is responsible for the
Nagaland was around (-) 0.47%. It is the only gravitational force experienced by an object.
state that recorded negative population Weight, on the other hand, is the force with
growth in the 2011 Census. Hence, Option (d) which an object is attracted towards the
is correct. center of the Earth (or any other celestial
The Union Territory with the highest growth body) due to gravity. Weight depends on both
rate is Dadra and Nagar Haveli, with a growth the mass of the object and the acceleration
percentage of 55.50%. due to gravity at that location. Weight can
Lakshadweep is the Union Territory with the change based on the gravitational field
lowest rate of growth, which is 6.23%. strength, while gravitational mass remains
constant.
Q88 Text Solution:
Hence, the correct option is 'A'
The Jacobin Club was a radical political group
during the French Revolution that played a Q90 Text Solution:
significant role in revolutionary policies. Key concept -
Maximilien Robespierre was a prominent Boyle's law is an empirical gas law that
leader of this club and strongly supported the describes the relationship between the
Reign of Terror (1793-1794) to eliminate pressure and volume of a confined gas. It is
opposition. also known as the Boyle–Mariotte law or
His strict and authoritarian measures earned Mariotte's law.
him both admiration and criticism.
Explanation -
Robespierre's leadership ended when he was
executed in 1794 during a coup by moderate Volume always remains constant: This is
revolutionaries. False. According to Boyle's Law, if the
temperature is constant, changing the
Hence, the correct answer is B) Maximilien
pressure will affect the volume (and vice
Robespierre.
versa). For example, increasing the pressure
Q89 Text Solution:
will decrease the volume, and vice versa.
Key Concept -
The ratio of pressure and volume always
Mass and weight are related and proportional remains constant: This is False. While the
measurements. Mass is the amount of matter product of pressure and volume remains
in an object, while weight is the force of constant, their ratio changes as you adjust one
gravity on an object. Mass is constant, but of them according to Boyle's Law.
weight can change depending on the amount The product of pressure and volume always
of gravity acting on an object. remains constant: This is True. This statement
follows directly from Boyle's Law, which
Explanation -
states that for a fixed amount of ideal gas at
The correct answer is (a) Gravitational mass constant temperature, the product of pressure
depends on the mass of an object, while (P) and volume (V) remains constant. This can
weight depends on the force of gravity acting be expressed as P₁V₁ = P₂V₂, where P₁ and V₁
on the object.

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 Defence

are the initial pressure and volume, and P₂ and positive ions. Elements with low ionization
V₂ are the final pressure and volume. energies are considered electropositive.
Pressure always remains constant: This is
Explanation -
False. If the volume changes while the
temperature remains constant, the pressure S-block elements have the lowest ionization
will also change according to Boyle's Law. energies in the periodic table.
The s-block consists of group 1 (alkali metals)
Hence, the correct option is 'C'
and group 2 (alkaline earth metals). These
Q91 Text Solution: elements have one or two electrons in their
Key Concept - outermost s orbital, respectively.

In chemistry, valency is a measure of an atom's The mathematical relationship to understand

this is linked to the ionization energy, which is
ability to combine with other atoms to form
the energy required to remove an electron
molecules or chemical compounds. It's also
known as molecular weight. from an atom in its gaseous state. Alkali metals

Valency is equal to the number of electrons have one electron in their outermost orbital,

gained, lost, or shared by an atom to achieve and as this electron is removed easily due to

the nearest noble gas configuration. For its distance from the positive charge of the
nucleus, they have low ionization energy.
example, the valency of sodium (Na) is 1,
The trend in the periodic table is that
magnesium (Mg) is 2, and chlorine (Cl) is 1.
ionization energy increases from left to right
Explanation - (because of increasing nuclear charge and
Electrovalency, also known as ionic charge, decreasing atomic size), and it decreases from
refers to the number of electrons gained or top to bottom (increase in atomic size and
lost by an atom when it participates in ionic shielding effect). Therefore, s-block elements
bonding. Ionic bonds primarily involve the are more electropositive.
complete transfer of electrons between Hence, the correct option is 'B'
atoms, resulting in oppositely charged ions
Q93 Text Solution:
that attract each other electrostatically.
Key concept: Economic Model
Covalent Bond: In covalent bonding, atoms
Explanation:
share electrons instead of completely
The profit is not the motive of a socialist
transferring them. Therefore, there is no net
economy. The correct statements about a
gain or loss of electrons, and thus
Socialist Economy are:
electrovalency is not applicable.
A. Public ownership
Hydrogen Bond: Hydrogen bonds are weak
electrostatic attractions between molecules In a socialist economy, there is often a
containing hydrogen atoms bonded to highly significant degree of public or government
electronegative atoms like oxygen, nitrogen, ownership of the means of production, such
or fluorine. They don't involve electron as industries and key resources.
transfer like ionic bonds, so electrovalency
B. The central planning authority determines
isn't relevant.
prices.
Hence, the correct option is 'B'
In socialist economies, central planning
Q92 Text Solution: authorities often play a role in determining
Key Concept - prices and allocating resources. This is in
contrast to market economies where prices
Electropositivity refers to an element's
are primarily determined by supply and
propensity to donate electrons and form
demand in the market.

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 Defence

D. Social welfare is the primary objective of the across the Narmada (Daksinapatha route).
economy. Overland Route to the West: Passed via
Taxila (near Islamabad).
Socialist economies often involve a high
River Transport:
degree of government. Since social welfare is
the primary objective, the economy focuses River transport improved after state-
on providing essential services like healthcare, cleared forests around the valleys.
education, and employment opportunities River transport improved once the valleys'
rather than maximizing profits. forests had been cleared under state
initiative.
Hence, the correct option is (c).
Foreign Relations and Trade:
Q94 Text Solution:
Explanation: Friendly relations with the Greeks under
Mauryan kings Bindusara and Ashoka
Expansion of Commerce and Trade:
boosted trade.
The Mauryas expanded trade and
commerce, which helped augment their Artisan Guilds:

resources and revenue. Artisans during the Mauryan period were

Jatakas refer to caravan traders carrying organized into guilds (metallurgists,
large volumes of goods to distant places. carpenters, potters, etc.).
The Mauryan State provided security and The state made trade more efficient but
peace, making trade routes more secure. interfered only in production and
Arthashastra tells us that the north-west distribution.
was important for blankets, and south India The state directly employed artisans like
for its gold and precious stones armourers, shipbuilders, and stone builders

Key Trade Routes: and was exempt from taxes due to

compulsory labour services.
Major trade routes to West Asia and Central Other artisans were taxed, like spinners,
Asia passed through north-west India. weavers, and miners who worked for the
Major centres like Rajagriha (Magadha) and state.
Kaushambi (near present-day Prayagraj)
Spread of Urbanism:
were on key trade routes along the Ganges
and Himalayan foothills. Urbanism expanded to western and central
Pataliputra had a strategic location, giving India, the Deccan, and south India.
access to trade routes in all four directions. Rural settlements proliferated, with

Trade Routes Details: prosperous gahapatis (landowners) and

towns inhabited by merchants, traders,
Northern Route: Linked cities like and officials.
Kapilavastu, Shravasthi, Vaishali with Kalsi,
State-Founded Towns:
Hazara, and Peshawar.
Southern Route: Connected central India According to Kautilya’s Arthashastra, the
and Kalinga, extending to Andhra and state founded towns through durganivesa
Karnataka. or durgavidhana, inhabited by priests,
Eastern Route: Continued southward to the nobles, soldiers, merchants, and artisans.
Ganges delta, exiting at Tamralipti to the
Use of Metallic Money:
south and southeast.
Western Route: From Kaushambi to Ujjain, Metallic money became widespread due to
leading further to the Gujarat coast or increased commerce.

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 Defence

Coinage has been prevalent since the 6th promote actions to protect the environment.
century BCE. Statement 2: "The day was first established
Officials' salaries were paid in cash. by the United Nations Environment
Programme (UNEP) in 1970."Incorrect:
Hence, the correct answer is option C.
World Environment Day was established by
Q95 Text Solution: the United Nations General Assembly in 1972
Explanation: at the Stockholm Conference on the Human
Four Noble Truths: Environment, which took place from June 5-
The Four Noble Truths constitute the 16, 1972.
fundamental principles of Buddha's teachings, United Nations Environment Programme
elucidated in his initial sermon to former (UNEP) has led the event since its first
colleagues at Isipattana. Subsequent elaboration celebration in 1973.
on these truths is found in early Buddhist
scriptures. The essence of these truths can be Hence, the correct answer is option (A).

summarized as follows: Q97 Text Solution:

Key concept: Features related to the Quit India
1. Dukkha (Suffering):
Movement
The recognition that suffering exists in the Explanation:
world is the first noble truth.
Quit India Movement was launched on the 8th
2. Samudaya (Arising of Suffering): August 1942.
The second noble truth acknowledges the It was launched in the Bombay session of the
origin or arising of suffering. All India Congress committee.
It was known as August Kranti.
3. Nirodha (Cessation of Suffering):
The movement was launched due to the
The third noble truth emphasizes the failure of the Cripps mission.
possibility of the cessation or end of It is the movement where Gandhi gave the
suffering. slogan of Do or Die.
The Congress Working Committee in 1942
4. Magga (Path to the End of Suffering):
asked for complete independence.
The fourth noble truth asserts the existence The movement was openly supported by
of a path that leads to the ultimate end of Sardar Rajendra Prasad and Anugrah
suffering. Narayan Sinha.
These truths encapsulate Buddhism's core Hence the correct answer is Option C i.e. Quit
teachings, outlining the nature of suffering, its India Movement
origin, the possibility of its cessation, and the
Q98 Text Solution:
path to liberation from suffering.
Key concept: Revolutionary activities
Hence the correct answer is option C.
Explanation:
Q96 Text Solution: Above mentioned statement was given by Bagha
Explanation: Jatin.
Statement 1: "World Environment Day is Introduction:
celebrated annually on June 5th to raise
Jatin Mukherjee, also known as Bagha
awareness about environmental issues and
Jatin, is a lesser-known revolutionary
promote actions for protecting the
outside Bengal and Orissa, despite his
environment."Correct:
significant contributions.
It is celebrated annually on June 5th to raise
awareness about environmental issues and

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 Defence

In 1915, during World War I, Jatin led an The revolutionaries in exile sought
attempt to gain independence through an assistance from Germany during the war.
armed insurrection with German A plan was devised to bring arms (30,000
cooperation. This was a precursor to rifles and Rs. 2 lakhs) via a ship named
Subhas Chandra Bose’s Indian National Maverick, which was to be diverted to
Army (INA) in 1945. Bengal for revolutionary use.
Early Life: Failure of the Arms Shipment:

Born in 1879 in Koya, Kushtia (now in The arms shipment was planned to be
Bangladesh). received at Rai Mangal in the Sunderbans,
Joined Calcutta's Central College in 1895 with divisions for eastern Bengal,
and was inspired by religious nationalists Calcutta, and Orissa.
like Swami Vivekananda and Aurobindo Jatin Mukherjee was tasked with
Ghosh. organizing activities in the region around
Known for his bravery after killing a tiger Balasore.
with a dagger in 1904, earning him the
Discovery and Pursuit by British Forces:
title "Bagha" (Tiger).
The British police investigated a business
Involvement in the Revolutionary Movement:
called the "Universal Emporium" in
Influenced by Vivekananda and Balasore, which was linked to the
Aurobindo, Jatin’s nationalism took a revolutionaries.
militant form. On 6 September 1915, British police
In 1905, he organized Chhatra Bhandar, discovered weapons and documents at
which was a cover for a revolutionary Kaptipada, leading to a massive manhunt.
group.
Final Battle and Death:
Pre-Revolutionary Activities:
On 9 September 1915, a battle broke out
The First World War and discontent with between Jatin Mukherjee’s group and the
British rule led to revolutionary activities. British forces in Chashakhand, Balasore.
Jatin Mukherjee and others, including M.N. Jatin Mukherjee and his associates were
Roy, sought support from international surrounded. The clash lasted 75 minutes,
revolutionaries, such as the Ghadr resulting in casualties on both sides.
movement in Canada and the USA. Jatin Mukherjee was severely wounded,
captured, and later died in custody at
Sedition and Dacoity Activities:
Barabati Hospital in Balasore.
Jatin and his associates were involved in
Hence the correct answer is Option C.
several criminal activities to raise funds for
the revolution. Q99 Text Solution:
Notably, the Garden Reach dacoity in Key Concept -
February 1915 aimed to intercept a large In chemistry, a salt is a neutral compound
sum of money being transported by Bird made up of positively charged cations and
& Co. for the revolution. negatively charged anions. The ions are held
Involved in several murders, including that together by electrostatic forces called ionic
of Nirod Haldar in Calcutta, and the
bonds.
shooting of Inspector Suresh Chandra
Mukherjee. Explanation -

German Support and Arms Plan: Statement 1: Salts are ionic compounds
formed by the reaction between an acid and a

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 Defence

base. between the two carbon atoms and two

bromine atoms attached to one of the carbon
This statement is correct. Salts are formed
atoms.
through the neutralization reaction
between an acid and a base, where the Hence, the correct option is 'D'
hydrogen ion from the acid combines with Q101 Text Solution:
the hydroxide ion from the base to form Explanation:
water, and the remaining ions combine to
form the salt. The continental slope is the region that
Statement 2. The properties of salts are connects the continental shelf and the ocean
primarily determined by the cation and anion basins.
present in their structure. Canyons and trenches are observed in the
continental slope of the ocean floor.
This statement is correct. The properties of Continental slope:
salts are determined by the ions they The continental slope is the area where the
contain. The cation and anion present in the continental shelf's bottom drops off into a
salt structure influence its physical and
steep slope.
chemical properties.
The continental slope connects the
Statement 3: Some salts exhibit characteristic continental shelf to the ocean basins.
colours when dissolved in water. The slope's depth ranges from 200 to 3,000
meters.
This statement is correct. Some salts, such
The continental slope boundary marks the end
as FeCl3 and NiCl2 form colored
of the continents.
solutions when dissolved in water

Hence, the correct option is 'C'

Q100 Text Solution:

Key Concept -

Hydrocarbons are organic compounds made

up of carbon and hydrogen. They are usually
colorless and hydrophobic, and have a faint
odor that may be similar to lighter fluid or
gasoline

Explanation -
Hence, the correct answer is option (A).
When acetylene (C₂H₂) reacts with hydrogen
Q102 Text Solution:
bromide (HBr), an addition reaction occurs
Ans: D
across the triple bond of the acetylene
Exp:
molecule. This reaction follows Markovnikov's
Statement 1 is incorrect: Duns are longitudinal
rule, stating that the hydrogen atom from HBr
valleys that are formed in between the Lesser
adds to the carbon atom with the most
Himalayas and Shiwaliks.When the rivers were
hydrogen atoms, and the bromine atom adds
able to cut their courses through the lakes filled
to the carbon with fewer hydrogen atoms.
with conglomerate deposits, the lakes were
The reaction scheme can be represented as
drained away leaving behind plains called ‘duns’
follows:
or ‘doons’ in the west and ‘duars’ in the east.
CH ≡ CH + HBr → CH3 CHBr2 Dehra Dun in Uttarakhand is the best example
[75 km long and 15-20 km wide] Kotah, Patli
This product is ethylidene bromide, with the
formula CH₃CHBr₂. It has a double bond

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 Defence

Kothri, Chumbi, Kyarda, Chaukhamba, Udhampur occur at coastal mountain ranges, offshore
and Kotli are other important duns. islands, and in the oceans. Apart from this, a
Statement 2 is incorrect: They are found in both few volcanoes also occur at the interiors of
the western and eastern parts of the Himalayan the continents.
range. They are called ‘duns’ in the west and
Hence, option (A) is correct.
‘duars’ in the east. Duars are alluvial flood plains
that lie to the south of the outer foothills of the Q104 Text Solution:

Himalayas. Key Concept:

The Great Bath is one of the best-known
Q103 Text Solution:
structures among the ruins of the Harappan
Explanation:
Civilization, excavated at Mohenjo-daro in the
Statement-I is correct: present-day Sindh province of Pakistan.
The Circum-Pacific Belt, also known as the Explanation:
Pacific Ring of Fire, is an area around the
The Great Bath was discovered in Mohenjo-
Pacific Ocean characterized by a high level of
daro, which is located in the Sindh province
seismic and volcanic activity.
of present-day Pakistan.
This belt is home to more than 2/3rd of the
The Great Bath is a large, rectangular pool
world's volcanoes, making it a significant
constructed with tightly fitted bricks and a
hotspot for volcanic activity.
waterproof lining, possibly made of bitumen.
Several tectonic plates responsible for this
The Great Bath was possibly used for
formation are the Pacific, Juan de Fuca,
important religious ceremonies or
Cocos, Indian-Australian, Nazca, North
purification rituals.
American, and Philippine Plates.
The pool was filled with water, possibly
Statement-II is correct:
sourced from wells or channels connected to
The Circum-Pacific Belt is associated with the
the nearby Indus River.
convergence of several tectonic plates.
Surrounding the Great Bath, there were
In particular, the Pacific Plate, which is an
corridors and rooms that may have served as
oceanic plate, is surrounded by several
changing areas or gathering spaces for the
continental plates.
bathers.
When an oceanic plate collides with a
Dholavira is another significant archaeological
continental plate, the denser oceanic plate is
site of the Indus Valley Civilization, located in
forced beneath the lighter continental plate in
present-day Gujarat, India.
a process called subduction.
The excavations at Dholavira have revealed a
This subduction process creates deep ocean
well-planned city with remarkable
trenches and can lead to the formation of
architectural features including a large
volcanic arcs along the continental margins.
fortified citadel, water reservoirs, and
These volcanic arcs are responsible for most of
streets
the volcanic activity observed within the
Although no ruins of temples were found
Circum-Pacific Belt.
during the excavation.
A volcano is an opening in the Earth’s crust
In the city of Dholavira a large stadium was
that allows molten rocks and gases to
found.
escape. Volcanic activities are associated with
City of Dholavira is also famous for its water
crustal disturbances, particularly where there
harvesting system.
are zones of weakness due to deep faulting or
The discovery of seals and figurines, along
folding of mountains. There are more than
with various ritual artifacts, suggests the
1350 active volcanoes and thousands of
presence of religious beliefs and practices in
dormant and extinct volcanoes. They may
their culture.

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 Defence

Hence the correct answer is option B. Corrosion is a natural process that causes
refined metals to gradually deteriorate into a
Q105 Text Solution:
more chemically stable oxide. It's a chemical or
Explanation:
electrochemical reaction between materials
Badampahar, Dalli Rajhara and Bailadila are and their environment.
famous for Iron ore deposits.
Explanation -
India is the largest Iron ore reserve and the
second largest producer in Asia. Correct. Corrosion is indeed a process by
Major Iron ore reserves in India as follows: which metals undergo deterioration due to
chemical reactions with their surrounding
Odisha - Gurumahisani, Sulaipat,
environment, leading to the formation of
Badampahar (Mayurbhaj), Kiruburu
undesirable compounds.
(Kendujhar) and Bonai (Sundergarh)
Correct. Rusting is a type of corrosion specific
Jharkhand - Noamundi and Gua in
to iron and its alloys, occurring when iron
Singhbhum districts, Daltenganj
reacts with oxygen and moisture in the air to
Karnataka -Kemmangundi in Baba Budan
form iron oxides, commonly known as rust.
hills of Chikmagalur district and Sandur and
Incorrect. Corrosion is generally considered
Hospet in Bellary.
an irreversible process. Once corrosion occurs,
Chhattisgarh - Dalli Rajhara, Bailadila
it can be challenging to reverse the damage
Ratnagiri of Maharashtra, Burdawan of
caused to the metal.
West Bengal, Kozhikode of Kerala .
Correct. Galvanization is a method used to
Hence, the correct answer is option (A). protect iron and steel from corrosion. It
Q106 Text Solution: involves applying a layer of zinc to the surface
Key concept - of the metal through processes such as hot-
dip galvanizing or electroplating. The zinc
The Rutherford model of the atom, also known
layer acts as a sacrificial anode, corroding
as the planetary model, was proposed by
preferentially to protect the underlying iron or
Ernest Rutherford in 1911. It describes an atom
steel.
as having a dense, positively charged nucleus
at its centre, with electrons orbiting around it. Hence, the correct option is 'C'

Explanation - Q108 Text Solution:

Key Concept -
Statement 1: True. The nucleus of the atom
contains positively charged protons and To calculate the number of moles of a
electrically neutral neutrons, which are substance, you can use the formula:
Given Mass

densely packed together at the centre of the Moles =

Molar Mass

atom. The molar mass of a substance is the mass in

Statement 2: True. According to the grams of one mole of that substance. You can
Rutherford model, the nucleus contains almost find the molar mass of a substance by using
all of the atom's mass, with the electrons the atomic weight of the chemical unit that
orbiting around it at a relatively large distance. makes up that substance in atomic mass units
Statement 3: True. The electrons revolve (amu).
around the nucleus in circular paths. Explanation -
Hence, the correct option is 'C' Molar mass of
Q107 Text Solution: NH3 = (1 × 14) + (3 × 1) = 14

Key Concept - + 3 = 17 g/ mol

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 Defence

Mass = number of moles × molar He holds office until a new panel of

mass chairpersons is nominated.
⇒ Mass = 0. 3 × 17 = 5. 1 g When a member of the panel of chairpersons
Hence, the correct option is 'B' is also not present, any other person as
determined by House acts as the Speaker.
Q109 Text Solution:
A member of the panel of
Key Concept: State Legislature
chairpersons cannot preside over the
Explanation:
House, when the office of the Speaker or the
The composition and creation of the Deputy Speaker is vacant.
Legislative Council has been described in During such time, the Speaker’s duties are to
Article 169 of the Constitution. be performed by such member of the House
The structure of the Legislative Council is as the President may appoint for the purpose.
described in Article 171 of the Constitution. It The elections are held, as soon as possible, to
is made clear in this that the maximum fill the vacant posts.
number of the Legislative Council cannot be Hence, the correct answer is a.
more than ⅓ of the Legislative Assembly and
Q111 Text Solution:
the minimum number cannot be less than
Key Concept: The Constitution of India under
40.
Article 148 provides for an independent office of
The creation of a Legislative Council requires
the Comptroller and Auditor General of India
a special majority in the Legislative
(CAG). He is the head of the Indian Audit and
Assembly of the concerned state, followed by
Accounts Department
the approval of the Parliament.
Explanation:
The Legislative Council is a permanent house
which is never dissolved. Only ⅓ of its He is the guardian of the public purse and
members retire every two years. controls the entire financial system of the
The tenure of the members of the Legislative country at both levels–the Centre and the
Council is 6 years. state.
Presently, six states in India have bicameral The CAG is appointed by the president of
legislature namely: Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, India by a warrant under his hand and seal.
Karnataka, Maharashtra, Telangana, and He holds office for a period of six years or
Uttar Pradesh. upto the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
Hence, the correct answer is c. He can resign any time from his office by
addressing the resignation letter to the
Q110 Text Solution: president.
Key Concept: Parliament He is provided with the security of tenure. He
Explanation: can be removed by the president only in
Lok Sabha has its presiding officer i.e. Speaker accordance with the procedure mentioned in
and a Deputy Speaker and in their absence the the Constitution.
Lok Sabha is presided over by a member from a Thus, he does not hold his office till the
panel of chairpersons for the Lok Sabha. pleasure of the president, though he is

Under the Rules of Lok Sabha, the Speaker appointed by him.

nominates from amongst the members a He submits his audit reports relating to the

panel of not more than ten chairpersons. accounts of the Centre to the President, who

Any of them can preside over the House in shall, in turn, place them before both the

the absence of the Speaker or the Deputy Houses of Parliament (Article 151).

Speaker. He acts as a guide, friend, and philosopher of

the Public Accounts Committee of the

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 Defence

Parliament. 1540 and written in the Hindustani language

Hence, the correct answer is c. of Awadhi. It stands as one of the oldest
surviving Awadhi texts of significant
Q112 Text Solution:
importance.
Explanation -

Gypsum is a naturally occurring mineral, while Tarikh- i - Firoz Shahi:

plaster of Paris is a building material. Both Ziauddin Barani authored the historical
contain calcium sulfate as a major constituent. chronicle known as "Tarikh-i-Firoz Shahi".
It provides insights into the Delhi Sultanate up
Key Concept -
to the reign of Firuz Shah Tughlaq, offering a
Plaster of Paris is obtained by heating gypsum detailed account of the era's political
at a temperature of around 150°C to 160°C. landscape and historical developments.
This process drives off the water of
Hence, the correct answer is option C.
crystallization from gypsum, converting it into
calcium sulfate hemihydrate, which is Plaster Q114 Text Solution:
of Paris. So, option 1 is incorrect. Key Concept:
While both Plaster of Paris and gypsum are
The Bhakti movement was a socio-religious
forms of calcium sulfate, they have different
movement that emerged in medieval India,
chemical compositions. Plaster of Paris is
particularly between the 7th and 17th
calcium sulfate hemihydrate (CaSO4 . ),
1
H2 0
2 centuries.
whereas gypsum is calcium sulfate dihydrate (
CaSO4 . 2H2 O ). So, option 2 is incorrect. Explanation:
When mixed with Water (H2 O), Plaster of Alvar Saints:
Paris takes on a unique property of hardening The Alvars were Tamil-speaking saints who
into a solid mass. As a result, when Water is composed devotional poetry
added to Plaster of Paris, it hardens in roughly They expressed deep devotion and love for
half an hour. When Plaster of Paris combines Lord Vishnu.
with Water, it forms Gypsum crystals that There are traditionally considered to be 12
harden to form a hard, solid mass. So, option Alvar saints.
3 is correct. The 12 Alvar saints are - Poigai Alvar,
Hence, the correct option is 'C' Bhoothath Alvar, Pey Alvar, Thirumalisai
Alvar, Nammalvar, Madhurakavi Alvar,
Q113 Text Solution:
Kulashekhara Alvar, Periyalvar, Andal,
Key Concept:
Thondaradippodi Alvar, Thiruppaan Alvar
During the later medieval period in India, several
and Thirumangai Alvar
significant literary works were produced across
Alvar saints were devoted to Lord Vishnu in
various languages and regions.
various manifestations, such as Rama and
Explanation:
Krishna.
Mattavilasa Prahasana
The Alvars' hymns are compiled in the "Divya
It is a brief one-act Sanskrit drama believed to Prabandham," a collection of 4,000 verses.
have been composed by Pallava King
Nayanar Saints:
Mahendravarman I in Tamil Nadu during the
early seventh century. The Nayanar saints composed devotional
hymns called "Thevaram" in Tamil.
Padmavat:
They were primarily devoted to Lord Shiva.
The epic poem "Padmavat" was authored by There are traditionally considered to be 63
the Sufi poet Malik Muhammad Jayasi in Nayanar saints.

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 Defence

Prominent Nayanars include Appar, Sundarar, Nayakas held land in the form of military
Manickavacakar (Tirugnana Sambandar), and chief, known as amaram tenure.
others. In return, they had to maintain a certain
The hymns of Nayanar saints are found in the number of troops and provide them to the
"Tirumurai," a collection of Tamil hymns. king during wars.
They also had to contribute a fixed
Hence the correct answer is "option C".
financial amount to the central treasury.
Q115 Text Solution: Nayakas were not protected if they failed
Key Concept: to perform their duties.
In Vijayanagara, the land was considered the Consequences of Non-Compliance:
property of the king. The king had the authority
to distribute land to his dependents. According to Nuniz, Nayakas could be

Explanation: ruined and their properties confiscated if

Nayakas: they did not meet their obligations.

Societal Linkages:
Individuals who received land from the king.
Ruled over their granted territories with European feudalism chained society
significant autonomy. They performed the together through land tenure.
duties mentioned below: The Nayankara system linked only a section
of the population.
1. Financial Contribution:
Subinfeudation was not as prevalent in the
Remit an annual financial contribution to Vijayanagara Empire as in Europe.
the imperial exchequer.
Hence, the correct answer is option C
2. Military Service:

Maintain a sufficient number of troops. Q116 Text Solution:

Serve the king during wars. Key Concept -
Nayakas often leased their lands to The periodic table, also known as the periodic
tenants on similar terms. table of elements, organizes chemical
Similar to European feudalism's elements into rows and columns. It is a
subinfeudation. chemistry icon and is widely used in physics

Differences from European Feudalism: and other sciences.

Fealty: Explanation -

In Europe, individual small landholders Chloride formula: The formula indicates that
paid homage to lords, receiving land as a element X forms a chloride with two chlorine
fief in exchange for services and atoms. This suggests an element with two
protection. valence electrons to share with the chlorine
This process of fealty was absent in the atoms.
Nayankara system. Solid with high melting point: This implies that
element X is a metal or a metalloid, as non-
Element of Subservience: metals with two valence electrons typically
European feudalism featured a strong form gaseous chlorides with lower melting
element of subservience to a politically points.
superior lord.
Looking at the elements in the given options:
This was lacking in the Nayankara
system. Na (Sodium): It belongs to Group 1 (Alkali
metals). While it forms NaCl, it has only one
Amaram Tenure:

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 Defence

valence electron and wouldn't have a high an atom of an element to achieve the nearest
melting point chloride. noble gas configuration
Mg (Magnesium): It belongs to Group 2
Explanation -
(Alkaline Earth metals). It has two valence
electrons and forms MgCl2, which is a solid Valency is the capacity of an atom to form
with a high melting point. covalent bonds with other atoms.
Al (Aluminum): It belongs to Group 13 (Boron In contrast, valence electrons are the number
group). While it has three valence electrons, it of electrons that are needed for a complete
forms AlCl3, not a chloride with two chlorine outer shell in a compound.
atoms. Carbon has 4 electrons in its outer shell, thus
Si (Silicon): It belongs to Group 14 (Carbon needing four more for completion.
group). It has four valence electrons and forms As a result, its valency and number of
SiCl4, a gas with a low melting point. valence electrons are the same.
Hence, the correct option is 'B' The valency of Nitrogen is 3 and it has a total
Q117 Text Solution: of 5 valence electrons.
Key Concept - The valency of Sulphur is 2 and it has a total
of 6 valence electrons.
Molecular mass is the mass of a molecule, and
is often expressed in daltons. It is calculated Hence, the correct option is 'C'
by multiplying the atomic mass of an element Q119 Text Solution:
by the number of atoms in the molecule, and Key Concept -
then adding the masses of all the elements in
An element is a pure substance that cannot be
the molecule
broken down into simpler substances by
Explanation - chemical means.
Molecular mass is the sum of the atomic Explanation -
masses of all the atoms in a molecule. This
All elements are made up of atoms: This is
sum provides the total mass of the atoms
true. All elements are composed of unique
present in a molecule. So, statement 1 is
types of atoms, each with a specific atomic
correct.
number and properties.
The molecular mass of a compound is indeed
Elements can be broken down into simpler
equal to the sum of the atomic masses of all
substances.: This is incorrect. Elements are
the atoms in the compound's molecular
the simplest pure substances that cannot be
formula. This sum represents the total mass of
broken down further.
the atoms in a single molecule of the
There are over 100 known elements: This is
compound. So, statement 2 is correct.
true. As of today, there are 118 known
Hence, the correct option is 'C' elements on the periodic table.
Q118 Text Solution: Elements can exist in different states of
Key Concept - matter (solid, liquid, gas): This is true.
Elements can exist as solids, liquids, or gases
Valency is a measure of an atom's ability to
depending on the temperature and pressure
combine with other atoms to form molecules
conditions.
and chemical compounds.
Valency is also defined as the number of Hence, the correct option is 'B'
electrons that an atom gains, loses, or shares Q120 Text Solution:
during a chemical reaction. It is equal to the Key concept -
number of electrons gained, lost, or shared by

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 Defence

A physical change affects the form of a atmosphere in wet or dry forms. This can
substance, but not its chemical composition. A include rain, snow, fog, hail or even dust that is
chemical change occurs when one or more acidic
substances combine to produce a new
Explanation -
substance.
Nitrogen oxides and sulphur oxides: When
Explanation -
these gases are released into the atmosphere,
Physical changes involve a change in the they react with water and other chemicals to
chemical composition of substances. form acidic solutions, such as sulfuric and
nitric acid.
This statement is incorrect. Physical
changes involve alterations in the physical These acids then fall back to the earth as
properties of substances, such as shape, rain, snow, or fog, causing acid rain. Sulphur
size, or state, without changing their oxides are primarily emitted from the
chemical composition. burning of fossil fuels like coal and oil, while
nitrogen oxides come from vehicle exhaust
Chemical changes can typically be reversed
and industrial processes.
by physical means.
Therefore, remembering that nitrogen
This statement is incorrect. Chemical oxides and sulphur oxides are the primary
changes typically involve the formation of culprits behind acid rain is crucial for
new substances with different chemical understanding its environmental impact
compositions. Reversing chemical changes and potential solutions.
usually requires chemical reactions, not just
Hence, the correct option is 'B'
physical means.
Q122 Text Solution:
The melting of ice is an example of a physical
Key concept -
change.
Explanation -
This statement is correct. Melting of ice is a
Bacteria and Protista: In modern taxonomy,
physical change because it involves a
Protista is not considered a valid domain.
change in state (solid to liquid) without
Instead, organisms previously classified as
altering the chemical composition of water
protists are now distributed across various
molecules.
eukaryotic kingdoms like Protista, Animalia,
The rusting of iron is an example of a physical Plantae, and Fungi. Bacteria are prokaryotic,
change. so this option is incorrect.

This statement is incorrect. Rusting of iron Bacteria and Archaea: This is the current and

is a chemical change. It involves the accurate classification system according to the

reaction of iron with oxygen and water to Three-Domain system used in modern biology.

form iron oxide (rust), which has a different The two main domains of prokaryotes are
chemical composition from iron. Bacteria and Archaea. They share some
characteristics but also have significant
Hence, the correct option is 'C'
differences in cell wall structure, metabolic
Q121 Text Solution: pathways, and genetic machinery.
Key Concept - Archaea and Eukarya: While Archaea and
Eukarya are both distinct forms of life, they
Acid rain, or acid deposition, is a broad term
are both eukaryotic (possess a nucleus and
that includes any form of precipitation with
other membrane-bound organelles).
acidic components, such as sulfuric or nitric
Prokaryotes, conversely, lack these features.
acid that fall to the ground from the
This option is incorrect.

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 Defence

Eukarya and Monera: In older classification Here Cenozoic Era is divided into following
systems, prokaryotes were placed in the periods-
kingdom Monera. However, this classification
1. Quaternary Period- It has two Epoch
is no longer used in modern taxonomy due to
its lack of phylogenetic accuracy. Both 1. Halocene
Eukarya and Monera are not valid domains in 2. Pliestocene
the current system. 2. Neogene Period - It has two Epoch-
Hence, the correct option is 'D' 1. Pliocene
Q123 Text Solution: 2. Miocene
Key points : 3. Paleogene Period- It has three Epoch-
The protein that gives the structural support to
1. Oligocene
the chromosome is histone proteins .
2. Eocene
Keratin is the protein found in the epithelial cells
3. Paleocene
and line the inner and outer surface of the body
like - nails , hairs etc. Hence, option (D) is the correct answer.
Chromatin is made up of DNA and proteins to
Q125 Text Solution:
form the chromosome .
Explanation:
Glycoproteins are the molecules of proteins and
carbohydrates chains which are involved in The atmosphere of the Earth is divided into
different physiological functions like providing four layers: Troposphere, Stratosphere,
immunity etc. Mesosphere, Thermosphere, Ionosphere and
Explanation : Exosphere.
They are separated based on temperature.
The chromosome is made up of the molecules
of the DNA that can fit the nucleus , and in
Lowest layer
order to fit the large strands of DNA into a
Troposphere Weather phenomenon
small nucleus a protein is needed around
Cloud formation
which the DNA can wrap and form a compact
chromosome .
Histone is a positively charged protein
because it is made up of amino acids such as Presence of ozone layer
lysine and arginine , due to their positively Stratosphere
Aeroplanes fly in this layer
charged nature the negative charge DNA
strand can easily wrap around the histone
protein and gets fitted inside the nucleus .

Hence the correct answer is “D” Meteors burn in this layer

Mesosphere
Sounding rockets
Q124 Text Solution:
Explanation:
- As per Geological time scale-
Karman line
The Phanerozoic Eon is classified into three
Thermosphere Highest temperature
Era which are as follows-
Aurora phenomenon
1. Paleozoic
2. Mesozoic
Ionosphere Radio waves
3. Cenozoic

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 Defence

Exosphere Weather satellite

Hence the correct answer is option (C).

Q126 Text Solution:

Explanation:

Mediterranean climate:
During the summer months, Mediterranean
regions typically experience hot and dry
weather due to subtropical high-pressure
systems and the influence of descending air Delta:
masses. Deltas are landforms formed at the mouth of
In contrast, winters are mild and wet because rivers where they deposit sediment carried
of the shift of the prevailing westerlies, which downstream.
bring moist air from the ocean, leading to They are primarily formed by fluvial (river)
moderate precipitation. action.
This type of climate is found around the Meander:
Mediterranean Sea, parts of California, central Meanders are curves or bends in a river's
Chile, the Western Cape of South Africa, and channel, formed by fluvial action through
southwestern Australia. erosion and deposition.
Tundra climate: Sand dune:
Tundra regions experience short, cool Sand dunes are formed by aeolian (wind)
summers with temperatures that rarely action, where wind deposits sand in mounds
exceed 10°C (50°F). or ridges.
The winters are long and extremely cold, Hence, the correct answer is option (C).
with temperatures often dropping well below
Q128 Text Solution:
freezing, even down to -30°C (-22°F) or lower.
Explanation:
Snowfall is moderate, and the ground remains
- Major important ocean currents and their
frozen (permafrost) for much of the year,
locations are as follows:
limiting vegetation growth.
Currents Region
Hence, the correct answer is option (A).
Kurile or Oyashio Current North Pacific Ocean
Q127 Text Solution: Humboldt or Peruvian
Explanation: South Pacific Ocean
Current
Moraine: Falkland Current South Atlantic Ocean
Glacial moraines are accumulations of Canary Current North Atlantic Ocean
unconsolidated debris (rock and soil) that are Southern Ocean & South
Western Australian Current
deposited by glaciers as they move. Indian Ocean
These deposits form various types of
landforms such as terminal moraines (at the Agulhas current South west indian ocean
edge of glaciers), lateral moraines (along the
sides), and medial moraines (where two
Brazilian current South atlantic ocean
glaciers merge).

Tsushima current Japan sea

Kuroshio current Pacific Ocean

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 Defence

of membrane around it , from the given options

Hence, option (C) is the correct answer. the correct one is A i,e. Lysosomes and vacuoles
,both of them are single membranous structures .
Q129 Text Solution:
Explanation :
Ans: D
Exp: The single membranous cell organelles
Pair 1 is correctly matched: Radial pattern is the includes - Endoplasmic reticulum , Golgi
drainage pattern in which rivers originate from a bodies , lysosomes , vacuoles .
hill and flow in all directions. The rivers that The double membranous cell organelles
originate from the Amarkantak range, such as includes - Mitochondria , Chloroplast , Nucleus
Son, Narmada, etc., have this pattern. ; these organelles are bounded by two
Pair 2 is correctly matched: A dendritic river membranes .
pattern resembles the branches of a tree; There is one cell organelle that does not have
generally, rivers of the northern plains, such as any membrane i,e. Ribosome .
the Ganga and its tributaries, such as the Hence, the correct option is “A”
Yamuna, Ghagra, Gandak, etc represent such a
Q131 Text Solution:
pattern.
Key Concept -
Pair 3 is correctly matched: Parallel drainage
systems develop in regions of parallel, elongated Metallurgy is a field of materials science and
landforms where there is a pronounced slope to engineering that studies the physical and
the surface. The Tributary streams tend to stretch chemical properties of metallic elements, their
out in a parallel-like fashion, following the slope inter-metallic compounds, and their mixtures,
of the surface. e.g., The rivers originating in the known as alloys.
Western Ghats; Godavari, Kaveri, Krishna, and
Explanation -
Tungabhadra.
Cast Iron: This contains high amounts of
carbon (2-4%) along with silicon and other
impurities. While it's relatively inexpensive, it's
not considered pure iron.
Pig Iron: This is the product directly obtained
from smelting iron ore and contains even
higher carbon content (4-5%) along with other
impurities like sulfur and phosphorus. It's not
used directly but serves as a raw material for
steel production.
Steel: This is an alloy of iron with varying
amounts of carbon (usually less than 2%) and
other elements like manganese, chromium,
and nickel. While having higher purity than
cast iron, it's still not the purest form due to
the presence of additional elements.
Wrought Iron: This is produced by refining pig
(Fig: Types of Drainage pattern) iron and contains a very low carbon content

Q130 Text Solution: (less than 0.08%). It's known for its

Key points : malleability and ductility due to its purity and

The single membranous organelles are those is closer to pure iron than any other option

organelles which are composed of only one layer listed.

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 Defence

Therefore, wrought iron, with its carbon dioxide, water, and a large amount of
significantly lower carbon content and ATP.
fewer impurities, stands out as the closest
Hence, the correct option is 'C'
to the purest form of iron among the given
options. Q134 Text Solution:
Key Concept -
Hence, the correct option is 'B'
Plants, like all living things, require an
Q132 Text Solution:
excretory system to remove excess water from
Key Concept -
their bodies. Transpiration is the process of
Thiamin (thiamine), or vitamin B1, is a water- eliminating surplus water from the plant body.
soluble vitamin found naturally in some foods,
Explanation -
added to foods, and sold as a supplement.
Thiamin plays a vital role in the growth and Transpiration is the process by which water
function of various cells. [1] Only small vapour escapes from the aerial parts of plants,
amounts are stored in the liver, so a daily primarily through the stomata (tiny pores)
intake of thiamin-rich foods is needed. present on the surface of leaves.

Explanation - However, transpiration can also occur

through other aerial plant parts, such as
Beriberi is a deficiency disorder caused by the
stems and flowers.
lack of vitamin B1 (thiamine) in the diet.
It is a vital physiological process in plants as
Thiamine plays a crucial role in energy
it helps in the uptake of water and minerals
metabolism and the proper functioning of the
from the soil, maintains cell turgidity, cools
nervous system.
the plant, and facilitates the transport of
Symptoms of beriberi include weakness,
nutrients.
fatigue, nerve damage, and heart problems.
Option a) is incorrect because while stomata
Hence, the correct option is 'B'
are one of the primary sites of transpiration,
Q133 Text Solution: water loss can also occur through the cuticle
Key Concept - and lenticels.
Option b) is incorrect because transpiration is
Respiration is a fundamental process in living
organisms where energy is released from not purely mechanical; it is a biological

glucose molecules to fuel various cellular process regulated by various factors such as

activities. It occurs in multiple stages, environmental conditions (humidity,

including glycolysis, the Krebs cycle, and temperature, wind), plant factors (stomatal
density, leaf structure), and physiological
oxidative phosphorylation.
factors (plant water status, hormone
Explanation - regulation).
Statement 1 is correct: Respiration is a Option d) is incorrect because transpiration
biochemical process that liberates energy rates are generally highest during the day
stored in glucose molecules. This energy is when environmental conditions such as high
harnessed in the form of ATP, which provides light intensity and low humidity promote
the necessary energy for cellular functions. stomatal opening and water loss.
Statement 2 is correct: Aerobic respiration is Hence, the correct option is 'C'
the most efficient pathway for energy
Q135 Text Solution:
production in cells. During aerobic respiration,
Explanation
glucose undergoes a series of enzymatic
reactions in the presence of oxygen to yield

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 Defence

The above-mentioned personality is Lala conquest and to protect the country from
Lajpat Rai. Mongol invasion.
In 1928, the British government set up the The Mongols attacked at the worst time
Simon Commission, headed by Sir John possible for Alauddin Khilji – when he was
Simon, to report on the political situation in busy laying siege to Chittor.
India.
Hence the correct answer is option B.
Political parties in India boycotted the
commission after it did not accept Indians as Q137 Text Solution:

members, leading to nationwide protests. Explanation:

When the Committee visited Lahore on Johannes Gutenberg is often credited with
October 30, 1928, Lala Rajpat Rai led a silent the invention of the printing press around
protest march. Metropolitan Police 1440.
Department James A. Scott ordered the Gutenberg's printing press was a revolutionary
police to fight back. invention that facilitated the mass production
He was severely wounded and died on of books and other written materials.
November 17, 1928. to avenge Lajpat's death, Before the printing press, books were
Bhagat Singh and his associates plot Scott's painstakingly copied by hand, making them
assassination. expensive and inaccessible to the general
But the revolutionaries J.P. Sanders, along population. Gutenberg's invention allowed for
with Superintendent of Police Scott, killed the rapid and cost-effective reproduction of
him instead. texts, leading to a dramatic increase in the
availability of knowledge and information.

Hence, the correct answer is option B, i.e. Lala

Lajpat Rai

Q136 Text Solution: Hence the correct answer is option C.

Explanation: Q138 Text Solution:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Key Concept -

The first Mongol invasion of India took place Xylem and phloem are two types of vascular
during the reign of Sultan Shams-ud-din tissue in plants that work together to
lltutmish when Genghis Khan reached the transport materials.
Indus River. Xylem transports and stores water and water-

Statement 2 is correct: soluble nutrients in vascular plants. Phloem is

responsible for transporting sugars, proteins,
During the reign of Alauddin Khalji, one of and other organic molecules in plants.
the Mongol invasions reached the outskirts of Vascular plants are able to grow higher than
Delhi city and besieged it. other plants due to the rigidity of xylem cells,
Alauddin established a huge permanent, which support the plant.
standing army to satisfy his ambition of
Explanation -

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 Defence

Statement 1 is correct. Phloem is responsible 3. Salivary amylase also known as ptyalin is a

for transporting organic nutrients, mainly salivary enzyme and pepsin is an enzyme
sugars produced during photosynthesis, from produced in the stomach.
the leaves (where they are synthesized) to Hence, correct answer is “A”
other parts of the plant, such as roots, stems,
Q140 Text Solution:
and developing fruits.
Key features:
Statement 2 is correct. The xylem is
responsible for transporting water and The wrong statements in the given question

minerals absorbed by the roots from the soil are 2nd and 3rd options.

to the leaves and other parts of the plant, Explanation:

where they are used for various physiological
1. Cerebrum is part of the forebrain and
processes.
considered as the seat of intelligence
Statement 3 is correct. Phloem consists of
This statement is correct. The cerebrum is
four main types of cells: sieve tube elements,
indeed a part of the forebrain, and it plays
companion cells, parenchyma cells, and
a crucial role in cognitive functions such as
sclerenchyma fibers.
intelligence, memory, and thought
Sieve tube elements are responsible for processes.
transporting sugars, companion cells assist 2. Brain has a large lymph vessel called the
in the functioning of sieve tube elements, cerebral aqueduct
parenchyma cells provide support and This statement is incorrect. The cerebral
storage, and sclerenchyma fibers provide aqueduct is not a lymph vessel; it is a
mechanical strength. narrow channel that connects the third and
Statement 4 is incorrect. Unlike phloem, fourth ventricles in the brain, allowing

xylem consists of non-living cells. These cells, cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) to flow between

called tracheary elements (such as tracheids them.

and vessel elements in angiosperms), are dead 3. Hindbrain containing pons, cerebellum,

at maturity and function primarily in water and medulla oblongata is the largest part

transport. They form hollow tubes through of the brain

which water and dissolved minerals can This statement is incorrect. The cerebrum,

passively move from the roots to the rest of which is part of the forebrain, is the largest

the plant. part of the brain, not the hindbrain.

4. Two hemispheres of the cerebrum are
Hence, the correct option is 'C'
connected by a tract of nerve fibers
Q139 Text Solution: called the corpus callosum
Key points: This statement is correct. The corpus
Salivary amylase also known as ptyalin is a callosum is a bundle of nerve fibers that
salivary enzyme and pepsin is an enzyme connects the left and right hemispheres of
produced in the stomach. the cerebrum, allowing communication
Explanation: between them.
1. The pancreas is a leaf like structure present
Based on the analysis, the incorrect
between the limbs of c-shaped duodenum
statements are 2 and 3.
2. It produces pancreatic juices and pancreatic
Correct answer: B. 2 and 3
enzymes like
trypsin,chymotrypsin,procarboxypeptidase,pancr Q141 Text Solution:
eatic amylase and pancreatic lipase which Explanation.
perform various activities Culex mosquito.

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 Defence

Filariasis, also known as lymphatic filariasis or The rocket utilizes a generic-fuel-based

Elephantiasis. hybrid motor and an electrically triggered
Filariasis is a tropical, infectious helminthic parachute deployer, making it 100%
disease. pyrotechnic-free and TNT-free.
Symptom swelling and enlargement of RHUMI-1 combines the advantages of both
affected body parts. Like blocking the liquid and solid fuel propellant systems to
lymphatic system. improve efficiency and reduce operational
The most common species of worms that costs.
cause filariasis are Wuchereria bancrofti. The reusable nature of the rocket is
expected to substantially lower the costs of
Hence option 'B' is correct.
launches, making space exploration more
Q142 Text Solution: accessible.
Key Concept: National News The successful launch of RHUMI-1 represents
Why in News: The “VIRAASAT” exhibition, a significant milestone in India's space
marking the 10th National Handloom Day, technology and the growing role of private
recently commenced at Handloom Haat in players in the space sector
Janpath. Hence, the correct answer is c.
Explanation:
Q144 Text Solution:
Statement 1 is correct: “VIRAASAT” is indeed Key Concept: Places in news
hosted by the National Handloom
Explanation:
Development Corporation Ltd (NHDC) under
Srinagar has earned the World Craft City
the Ministry of Textiles.
(WCC) tag from the World Crafts Council
Statement 2 is incorrect: The exhibition marks
(WCC), a non-government organisation
the 10th National Handloom Day, not the 15th.
working to empower artisans and safeguard
Statement 3 is correct: The exhibition is
craft heritage globally.
specifically associated with the 10th National
This is likely to reopen Kashmir's centuries old
Handloom Day and is held at Handloom Haat
linkages with craft centres in Central Asia and
in Janpath.
Iran.
Hence the correct answer is option C Under the World Craft City Programme,
Q143 Text Solution: Jaipur (Rajasthan), Mammalapuram (Tamil
Key Concept: Science and Technology Nadu) and Mysore (Karnataka) have been
Why in news? added as craft cities from India.
Hence, the correct answer is b.
India successfully launched its first reusable
hybrid rocket, RHUMI-1, developed by Q145 Text Solution:
Chennai-based startup Space Zone India in Key Concept: Defence and Security
collaboration with Martin Group. Why in news?
Explanation: INS Trikand and Dornier Maritime Patrol
The rocket was launched from a mobile Aircraft, participated in the Indo-Oman
platform in Thiruvidandhai, Chennai, using a bilateral naval exercise Naseem-Al-Bahr with
mobile launcher. the Royal Navy of Oman Vessel Al Seeb off
RHUMI-1 carried a payload of 3 CubeSats and Goa from 13 to 18 October 24.
50 PICO satellites to collect data for Explanation:
research on global warming and climate
The exercise was conducted in two phases:
change.
with harbour phase from 13 to 15 October 24,

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 Defence

followed by the sea phase. include other tribes such as the Paudi
As part of harbour activities, personnel from Bhuyans, Juangs, and Chuktia Bhunjia.
both Navies engaged in professional This development is a significant step towards
interactions, including Subject Matter Expert securing the rights and preserving the
Exchanges and planning conferences. heritage of vulnerable tribal communities in
During the sea phase of the exercise India.
conducted from 16 to 18 Oct 24, both ships
Hence, the correct answer is d.
carried out various evolutions, including gun
firings at surface inflatable targets, close- Q147 Text Solution:

range anti-aircraft firings, manoeuvres, and Key Concept: Summit and Conference

Replenishment at Sea Approaches (RASAPS). Why in the News?

Oman is the first Gulf country with which all The COP16 nature summit in October 2024
three wings of India’s defense forces—Army, focuses on negotiations regarding the use of
Navy, and Air Force—hold joint exercises. genetic information from nature, known as
Hence, the correct answer is Option A i.e. India Digital Sequence Information (DSI).

and Royal Navy Oman. Explanation:

The Cali Fund, established at COP16, is a global
Q146 Text Solution: fund designed to share the benefits derived from
Key Concept: Art and Culture the use of Digital Sequence Information (DSI),
Explanation: which involves the digital representation of
genetic data. The fund aims to ensure a fairer
The Saora tribe has recently been recognized
deal for nature and communities by ensuring that
as the fifth Particularly Vulnerable Tribal
companies profit from nature’s genetic resources
Group (PVTG) in Odisha.
in a sustainable and equitable manner.
This designation allows them to receive
Hence the correct answer is option B.
habitat rights over their ancestral lands, as
approved by the district-level committee in Q148 Text Solution:
Gajapati under the Forest Rights Act (FRA). Key Concept: Awards and Honors
The habitat rights cover 128 villages in the Explanation:
Mohana and R Udayagiri blocks, enabling the The Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine
Saora community to protect and preserve for 2024 has been awarded to Victor Ambros
their natural environment, sacred sites, and and Gary Ruvkun for the discovery of
cultural practices. microRNA and its role in post-transcriptional
About Saora Tribe: gene regulation.
The Saoras are one of Odisha's ancient tribes, The Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences
mentioned in epics like awarded the 2024 Nobel Prize in Physics to
the Ramayana and Mahabharata. They have a John J. Hopfield and Geoffrey E. Hinton for
unique cultural identity and maintain their foundational contributions to machine
traditional practices. learning through artificial neural networks.

Habitat Rights: The rights granted under The 2024 Nobel Prize for Chemistry has

section 3(1)(e) of the FRA allow the Saora to been awarded to David Baker, Demis

continue their customary religious and cultural Hassabis, and John Jumper on October 9,

ceremonies without hindrance. 2024, in Stockholm, Sweden.

With this recognition, Odisha has become the The Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences on

only state in India to provide habitat rights October 14 awarded the Sveriges Riksbank

to the highest number of PVTGs, which Prize in Economic Sciences in Memory of

Alfred Nobel for 2024 to three US-based

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 Defence

economists — Daron Acemoglu, Simon The National Coastal Mission Scheme (NCM)
Johnson, and James A Robinson — “for under the National Coastal Management
studies of how institutions are formed and Program is implemented with the following
affect prosperity”. components:

Hence, the correct answer is option (A) i.e. 1- B,

2-A, 3-D, 4-C.
1. Management Action Plan on Conservation of
Q149 Text Solution: Mangroves and Coral Reefs
Key Concept: Polity 2. Research & Development in Marine and
Why in news? Coastal ecosystem

The Rajasthan Government recently approved 3. Sustainable Development of Beaches under

Beach Environment & Aesthetic Management
33% reservation for women in the police
Service
force by deciding to amend the State Police
4. Capacity Building / Outreach Programme of
Subordinate Service Rules, 1989.
Coastal States/UTs on conservation of marine
Explanation: and coastal ecosystem including beach
The State Cabinet took the decision at its cleaning drive.
meeting held here, fulfilling a promise made The implementing agencies of NCM are: the
by the BJP in its manifesto for the 2023 State Governments of Coastal States and
Assembly election to increase the Union Territory (UT) Administrations.
representation of women. A sum of ₹7.94 crore has been released from
States like Bihar, Gujarat, Odisha, and 2018-19 till 2023-24 under the EAP
Maharashtra have also provided for women (Externally Aided Programme) and non-EAP
quotas in the police force. Hence, 1 is not component for the development of
correct. infrastructure facilities, pollution abatement,
Police' and 'Public order' are State subjects safety surveillance and beach cleaning in
under the Seventh Schedule to the Andhra Pradesh.
Constitution of India. Hence, 2 is not correct. Government of India through MoEFCC has
The responsibilities to maintain law and order, implemented Integrated Coastal Zone
protection of life and property of the citizens Management project (ICZMP) that has
including crime against women are with the contributed to, inter-alia, mapping of hazard
respective State Governments. line, eco-sensitive Area, sediment cell for the
Hence, the correct answer is d. entire coastline of India including coastline of
Andhra Pradesh.
Q150 Text Solution:
Hence, the correct answer is c.
Key Concept: Government Scheme
Explanation:

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