Module 15, Gas Turbine Engine

15.1 GAS TURBINE ENGINE Fundamentals.

Question Number 1. On an axial flow, dual compressor forward fan engine, the fan turns the same speed as
Option A. low pressure turbine.
Option B. high pressure compressor.
Option C. forward turbine wheel.

QUE 2. A turbo jet engine gives.

Option A. large acceleration to a small mass of air.
Option B. large acceleration to a large weight of air.
Option C. small acceleration to a large mass of air.

QUE 3. The basic gas turbine engine is divided into two main sections: the cold section and the hot section.
Option A. The cold section includes the engine inlet, compressor, and turbine sections.
Option B. The hot section includes the combustor, diffuser, and exhaust.
Option C. The hot section includes the combustor, turbine, and exhaust.

QUE 4. A jet engine derives its thrust by.

Option A. drawing air into the compressor.
Option B. impingement of the propelling gases on the outside air.
Option C. reaction of the propelling gases.

QUE 5. Which of the following might be used to identify turbine discharge pressure?.
Option A. Pt7.
Option B. Pt2.
Option C. Tt7.

QUE 6. In a free turbine.

Option A. there is a clutch between compressor and power output shaft.
Option B. there is a direct drive with a free-wheel unit.
Option C. there is no mechanical connection with the compressor.

QUE 7. Bernoulli's Theorem states that at any point in a flow of gas.

Option A. the static pressure and dynamic pressure are equal.
Option B. the static pressure is less than the dynamic pressure.
Option C. the total energy remains constant.

QUE 8. The working fluid of a gas turbine engine is.

Option A. gasoline.
Option B. kerosene.
Option C. air.

QUE 9. Which statements are true regarding aircraft engine propulsion?.

Option A. Turbojet and turbofan engines impart a relatively large amount of acceleration to a smaller mass
of air.
Option B. In modern turboprop engines, nearly 50 percent of the exhaust gas energy is extracted by turbines
to drive the propeller and compressor with the rest providing exhaust thrust.
Option C. An engine driven propeller imparts a relatively small amount of acceleration to a large mass of
air.

QUE 10. As subsonic air flows through a convergent nozzle the velocity.
Option A. decreases.
Option B. increases.
Option C. remains constant.

QUE 11. In a twin spool compressor system, the first stage turbine drives the.
Option A. N2 compressor.
Option B. N1 and N2 compressors.
Option C. N1 compressor.

QUE 12. At what point in an axial flow turbojet engine will the highest gas pressures occur?.
Option A. At the compressor outlet.
Option B. At the turbine entrance.
Option C. Within the burner section.

QUE 13. Which of the following units are generally used to measure aircraft noise?.
Option A. Effective perceived noise decibels (E P N d B).
Option B. Decibels (dB).
Option C. Sound pressure.

QUE 14. The diffuser section is located between.

Option A. the burner section and the turbine section.
Option B. station No. 7 and station No. 8.
Option C. the compressor section and the burner section.

QUE 15. If the LP shaft shears.

Option A. turbine runaway occurs.
Option B. compressor overspeed occurs.
Option C. compressor underspeed occurs.

QUE 16. The term Pt7 means.

Option A. pressure and temperature at station No. 7.
Option B. the total pressure at station No. 7.
Option C. the total inlet pressure.
Correct Answer is. the total pressure at station No. 7.
Explanation. NIL.

QUE 17. What section provides proper mixing of the fuel and efficient burning of the gases?.
Option A. Diffuser section and combustion section.
Option B. Combustion section and compressor section.
Option C. Combustion section only.

QUE 18. Of the following, which engine type would most likely have a noise suppression unit installed?.
Option A. Turboprop.
Option B. Turbojet.
Option C. Turboshaft.
QUE 19. The pressure of supersonic air as it flows through a divergent nozzle.
Option A. decreases.
Option B. increases.
Option C. is inversely proportional to the temperature.

QUE 20. The symbol for designating the speed of a LP compressor in a twin spool engine is.
Option A. N.
Option B. NG.
Option C. N1.

QUE 21. A turbojet engine is smoother running than a piston engine because.
Option A. the lubrication is better.
Option B. it runs at a lower temperature.
Option C. it has no reciprocating parts.

QUE 22. A gas turbine engine comprises which three main sections?.
Option A. Compressor, diffuser, and stator.
Option B. Turbine, compressor, and combustion.
Option C. Turbine, combustion, and stator.

QUE 23. When a volume of air is compressed.

Option A. heat is gained.
Option B. no heat is lost or gained.
Option C. heat is lost.

QUE 24. The pressure of subsonic air as it flows through a convergent nozzle.
Option A. increases.
Option B. remains constant.
Option C. decreases.

QUE 25. If a volume of a mass of air is 546 cubic feet at 273K, at 274K it will be.
Option A. 2 cubic feet greater.
Option B. 1/273 less by weight.
Option C. 2 cubic feet smaller.
Correct Answer is. 2 cubic feet greater.
Explanation. NIL.

QUE 26. In what section of a turbojet engine is the jet nozzle located?.
Option A. Exhaust.
Option B. Turbine.
Option C. Combustion.

QUE 27. Newton's First Law of Motion, generally termed the Law of Inertia, states:.
Option A. To every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.
Option B. Force is proportional to the product of mass and acceleration.
Option C. Every body persists in its state of rest, or of motion in a straight line, unless acted upon by some
outside force.
QUE 28. A high bypass engine results in.
Option A. overall slower airflow and greater propulsive efficiency.
Option B. overall faster airflow.
Option C. greater propulsive efficiency.

QUE 29. Bernoulli's Theorem states that at any point in a flow of gas.
Option A. the static pressure and dynamic pressure are equal.
Option B. the static pressure is less than the dynamic pressure.
Option C. the total energy remains constant.

QUE 30. The Brayton cycle is known as the constant.

Option A. temperature cycle.
Option B. mass cycle.
Option C. pressure cycle.

QUE 31. In a choked nozzle, velocity increases, and.

Option A. density decreases.
Option B. pressure decreases.
Option C. pressure increases.
Correct Answer is. pressure increases.
Explanation. Jepperson Gas Turbine Powerplant Page 2-23. As the nozzle goes sonic the pressure starts to
increase as a result of the shock wave.

QUE 32. Using standard atmospheric conditions, the standard sea level temperature is.
Option A. 29°C.
Option B. 59°F.
Option C. 59°C.

QUE 33. Standard sea level pressure is.

Option A. 29.92 inches Hg.
Option B. 29.29 inches Hg.
Option C. 29.00 inches Hg.

QUE 34. The highest pressure in a gas turbine is.

Option A. at the nozzle exit.
Option B. at the burner exit.
Option C. just after the last compressor stage but before the burner.

QUE 35. The velocity of subsonic air as it flows through a convergent nozzle.
Option A. remains constant.
Option B. increases.
Option C. decreases.

QUE 36. A turboprop engine derives its thrust by.

Option A. impingement of the prop-wash on the outside air.
Option B. reaction of the prop-wash.
Option C. reaction of the propulsion gases.

QUE 37. Adiabatic compression is.

Option A. an isothermal process.
Option B. one where there is an increase in kinetic energy.
Option C. one where there is no loss or gain of heat.

QUE 38. In a ducted fan engine, the fan is driven by the.

Option A. turbine.
Option B. air passing over the compressor.
Option C. accessory gearbox.

QUE 39. A modular constructed gas turbine engine means that.

Option A. all engines have a specific component layout.
Option B. the engine is constructed by the vertical assembly technique.
Option C. its major components can be removed and replaced without disturbing the rest of the engine.

QUE 40. The accessory gearbox of a high bypass engine is.

Option A. on the HP Compressor housing.
Option B. in the forward bearing housing.
Option C. attached to the turbine casing.
Correct Answer is. on the HP Compressor housing.
Explanation. Jeppesen Aircraft Powerplant Page 3-9.

QUE 41. On a gas turbine engine, what is the fan driven by?.
Option A. I P turbine.
Option B. LP turbine.
Option C. H P turbine.

QUE 42. Which law relates to the kinetic, pressure, and potential energy in a fluid flow?.
Option A. Bernoulli's theorem.
Option B. Newton's laws.
Option C. Charles's law.

QUE 43. The density of gas may be expressed as.

Option A. volume/weight.
Option B. weight/volume.
Option C. pressure/volume.

QUE 44. E S HP is.

Option A. Horsepower/efficiency.
Option B. Shaft horse power + exhaust efflux.
Option C. Power available at the turbine less the power required to drive the.
Correct Answer is. Shaft horse power + exhaust efflux.
Explanation. Effective Shaft Horse Power is the measure of total power of a turbo prop engine.

QUE 45. A divergent duct will cause subsonic flow to decrease in.
Option A. velocity, increase pressure.
Option B. velocity, pressure remains constant.
Option C. pressure, increase velocity.
QUE 46. The Brayton cycle is.
Option A. the name given to the intermittent cycling of an electrical de-icing system.
Option B. the continuous combustion cycle taking place in a gas turbine engine.
Option C. the constant velocity cycle taking place in a gas turbine engine.

QUE 47. The purpose of a diffuser is to.

Option A. increase the kinetic energy of the air.
Option B. induce a swirl to the air prior to combustion.
Option C. increase the static pressure of the air.

QUE 48. On a triple spool engine, the first stage of turbines drive.
Option A. the LP compressor.
Option B. the HP compressor.
Option C. the I P compressor.

QUE 49. Ram effect is.

Option A. the increase of dynamic pressure at the face of the compressor.
Option B. conversion of static pressure to kinetic pressure at the face of the compressor.
Option C. Conversion of kinetic energy to pressure energy at the face of the compressor.
Correct Answer is. conversion of kinetic energy to pressure energy at the face of the compressor.
Explanation. The greater the ram effect the greater the efficiency of the propulsion system.

QUE 50. Which of the following statements is true on a high bypass ratio turbofan?.
Option A. Both the compressor and combustion system are larger than their turbojet equivalent.
Option B. The compressor assembly is larger and combustion chamber smaller than their turbojet
equivalent.
Option C. Both the compressor and combustion chamber are smaller than the turbojet equivalent.

QUE 51. In the dual axial flow or twin spool compressor system with a free power turbine, Nf would be an
indication of.
Option A. turbine thrust indication.
Option B. first stage compressor speed.
Option C. free power turbine speed.

QUE 52. A waisted drive shaft is primarily to.

Option A. achieve dynamic balance.
Option B. reduce weight.
Option C. provide a fuse if the driven component is overloaded.

QUE 53. The 'core engine' or 'gas generator' is made up of the following components:.
Option A. Inlet, compressor, combustion chamber, turbine, exhaust.
Option B. Turbine, combustion chamber, compressor.
Option C. Compressor, turbine, exhaust, propelling nozzle.

QUE 54. The principle of jet propulsion is.

Option A. the calorific value of fuel burnt is equal to aircraft.
Option B. the interaction of fluids and gases.
Option C. every action has a equal and opposite reaction.
QUE 55. Boyle's law states that, at constant temperature, if a gas is compressed.
Option A. its absolute pressure is proportional to its volume.
Option B. its absolute temperature is proportional to it's volume.
Option C. its absolute pressure is inversely proportional to its volume.

QUE 56. What part of a jet engine has the most potential energy?.
Option A. Immediately after the combustion chamber.
Option B. Just before the combustion chamber.
Option C. Immediately after the HP compressor.
15.2 Engine Performance.
QUE 1. Ram effect' due to aircraft forward speed will cause the efficiency of the engine to.
Option A. remain constant.
Option B. decrease.
Option C. increase.
Correct Answer is. increase.

QUE 2. The efficiency of a gas turbine engine at altitude.

Option A. decreases.
Option B. remains constant.
Option C. increases.

QUE 3. Which statement is true regarding jet engines?.

Option A. At the higher engine speeds, thrust increases rapidly with small increases in RPM.
Option B. At the lower engine speeds, thrust increases rapidly with small increases in RPM.
Option C. The thrust delivered per pound of air consumed is less at high altitude.

QUE 4. Some turboprop and turbojet engines are equipped with two spool or split compressors. When
these engines are operated at high altitudes, the.
Option A. low pressure rotor will increase in speed as the compressor load decreases in the lower density
air.
Option B. low pressure rotor will decrease in speed as the compressor load decreases in the lower density
air.
Option C. throttle must be retarded to prevent overspeeding of the high pressure rotor due to the lower
density air.

QUE 5. Ram effect' due to aircraft forward speed will cause the thrust of the engine to.
Option A. remain constant.
Option B. decrease.
Option C. increase.
Correct Answer is. remain constant.
Explanation. Thrust is constant, but efficiency will increase.

QUE 6. With a fixed throttle, and with increased mass airflow, what happens to EPR?.
Option A. EPR goes up.
Option B. EPR remains constant.
Option C. EPR goes down.

QUE 7. At what stage in a gas turbine engine are gas pressures the greatest?
Option A. Compressor outlet.
Option B. Turbine outlet.
Option C. Compressor inlet.

QUE 8. Increasing ram effect with increased speed.

Option A. reduces thrust due to reduced compressor efficiency.
Option B. increases thrust due to increased maximum airflow.
Option C. reduces thrust due to reduced turbine temperature.
Correct Answer is. increases thrust due to increased maximum airflow.
Explanation. Jepperson Gas Turbine Powerplants Page 2-35 refers.

QUE 9. The highest heat to metal contact in a jet engine is the.

Option A. burner cans.
Option B. turbine inlet guide vanes.
Option C. turbine blades.
Correct Answer is. turbine inlet guide vanes.
Explanation. NIL.

QUE 10. Which compressor type gives the greatest advantages for both starting flexibility and improved
high altitude performance?.
Option A. Single spool, axial flow.
Option B. Dual stage, centrifugal flow.
Option C. Split spool, axial flow.
Correct Answer is. Split spool, axial flow.
Explanation. NIL.

QUE 11. Which of the following is the ultimate limiting factor of turbine engine operation?.
Option A. Compressor inlet air temperature.
Option B. Burner can pressure.
Option C. Turbine inlet temperature.

QUE 12. At altitude, idling RPM is.

Option A. same as at sea level.
Option B. higher than at sea level.
Option C. lower than at sea level.
Correct Answer is. higher than at sea level.
Explanation. Due to decreased density there is less resistance to rotation.

QUE 13. Thrust.

Option A. increases with high temperature.
Option B. increases with low temperature.
Option C. decreases with low temperature.

QUE 14. Which of the following variables affect the inlet air density of a turbine engine?.
Option A. Altitude of the aircraft, Ambient temperature.
Option B. Compression ratio, Turbine inlet temperature, Altitude of the aircraft, Ambient temperature.
Option C. Speed of the aircraft, Compression ratio, Turbine inlet temperature,Altitude of the aircraft.

QUE 15. The propulsive efficiency is.

Option A. low, with a low mass flow acceleration.
Option B. high, with a low mass flow acceleration.
Option C. high, with a high mass flow acceleration.
Correct Answer is. high, with a low mass flow acceleration.
Explanation. Jeppesen Gas Turbine Powerplants Page 2-37 Refers - a large mass of air moved slowly!.

QUE 16. The RPM for maximum power would be.

Option A. lower on a colder day.
Option B. lower on a hotter day.
Option C. greater on a colder day.

QUE 17. How does engine thrust vary with temperature?.

Option A. Increase in temperature gives greater thrust because of low friction in compressors.
Option B. Low temperatures give low thrust.
Option C. Low temperature gives greater mass flow and therefore greater thrust.

QUE 18. A method of comparing engine efficiencies is by comparing.

Option A. fuel consumption.
Option B. thrust to weight ratio.
Option C. specific fuel consumption.

QUE 19. With a fixed throttle in a climb.

Option A. RPM will increase.
Option B. RPM will remain constant.
Option C. RPM will decrease.

QUE 20. The point of maximum velocity in the engine is in the.

Option A. exhaust exit nozzle.
Option B. combustion chamber.
Option C. nozzle guide vanes.

QUE 21. At constant RPM, the pressure ratio of the compressor and the temperature rise across the
compressor.
Option A. increases with height.
Option B. remains constant irrespective of height.
Option C. decrease with height.

QUE 22. With the aircraft stationary, propulsive efficiency.

Option A. depends on RPM.
Option B. is minimum.
Option C. is maximum.

QUE 23. The efficiency of conversion of kinetic energy into propulsive work is a measure of.
Option A. mechanical efficiency.
Option B. propulsive efficiency.
Option C. thermal efficiency.

QUE 24. What effect does high atmospheric humidity have on the operation of a jet engine?.
Option A. Decreases compressor and turbine RPM.
Option B. Decreases engine pressure ratio.
Option C. Has little or no effect.

QUE 25. Power is adjusted in a gas turbine engine by.

Option A. increasing fuel flow.
Option B. increasing air and fuel flow.
Option C. increasing airflow to the combustion chamber.
QUE 26. The engine rating plug.
Option A. is permanently connected to the E E C.
Option B. is connected to the EPR transmitter.
Option C. is permanently connected to the Engine casing.

QUE 27. Flat Rated thrust is defined as.

Option A. the thrust at the ambient temperature point above which thrust drops below 100%.
Option B. that power achieved at idle RPM.
Option C. that power achieved at maximum EGT.

QUE 28. Thrust rating on an FADEC controlled engine can be changed by.
Option A. varying the ballast resistor in the EGT system.
Option B. changing the engine rating plug.
Option C. varying the EPR datum plug.

QUE 29. Propeller torque is analogous to.

Option A. engine RPM.
Option B. shaft horsepower.
Option C. propeller RPM.
Explanation. Propeller torque is equal and opposite to SHP under steady state conditions.

QUE 30. The total power in a turboprop engine is the.

Option A. SHP.
Option B. BHP.
Option C. E S HP .

QUE 31. In a dive, with the throttles fixed, the EPR will.
Option A. not change.
Option B. increase.
Option C. decrease.

QUE 32. With an increase in forward speed, the engine thrust.

Option A. decreases slightly but recover due to ram effect.
Option B. increases.
Option C. decreases.

QUE 33. The main factor considered when designing an engine is.
Option A. maximum fuel consumption.
Option B. maximum turbine temperature.
Option C. maximum tip speed.

QUE 34. To ensure an engine maintains self sustaining speed.

Option A. idle remains same for any density.
Option B. idle increases with density decrease.
Option C. idle increases with density increase.

QUE 35. A factor that limits EGT is the.

Option A. jet pipe.
Option B. compressors.
Option C. turbine.

QUE 36. Thrust will.

Option A. increase at high temperatures.
Option B. decrease at low temperatures.
Option C. increase at low temperatures.

QUE 37. Across the turbines, there is.

Option A. a general temperature rise.
Option B. a general temperature drop.
Option C. an isometric expansion.

QUE 38. If the throttle position remains constant.

Option A. with increasing OAT, RPM and TGT will increase.
Option B. with decreasing OAT, RPM will increase.
Option C. with increasing OAT, TGT will increase.
Correct Answer is. with increasing OAT, RPM and TGT will increase.
Explanation. As OAT increases the air is thinner RPM increases but thrust decreases due to the thin air. Extra
fuel is required to increase thrust therefore TGT increases.

QUE 39. If an aircraft climbs with a fixed throttle position.

Option A. thrust decreases and RPM increases.
Option B. thrust and RPM remain the same.
Option C. thrust increases and RPM remains the same.

QUE 40. Ram pressure recovery will generally take effect at aircraft speeds of.
Option A. mach 1.
Option B. mach 0.1 - 0.2.
Option C. only when the aircraft is stationary with engines running.

QUE 41. As the air is passed through the turbine, due to the convergent shape formed between adjacent
blades.
Option A. pressure decreases, velocity increases, temperature increases.
Option B. pressure increases, velocity increases, temperature constant.
Option C. pressure decreases, velocity increases, temperature decreases.

QUE 42. The hottest component in a gas turbine engine is.

Option A. the nozzle guide vanes.
Option B. the turbines.
Option C. the combustion chamber.

QUE 43. The basic equation for thrust is.

Option A. thrust = force * acceleration.
Option B. thrust = mass * velocity.
Option C. thrust = mass * acceleration.

QUE 44. To maintain the selected RPM of a gas turbine at altitude.

Option A. the pilot will have to throttle back.
Option B. more fuel will automatically be added.
Option C. the fuel will automatically be reduced as the aircraft climbs.

QUE 45. The term Pb means.

Option A. burner pressure measured at the diffuser case.
Option B. burner pressure measured at the NGV.
Option C. burner pressure measured at the combustion chamber.

QUE 46. Which of the following is not an engine rating?.

Option A. Maximum Continuous.
Option B. Idle.
Option C. Maximum Take Off.
Correct Answer is. Idle.
Explanation. NIL.

QUE 47. At higher then standard day ambient temperatures, compressor speed will be.
Option A. lower than standard day speed.
Option B. no different.
Option C. higher than standard day speed.

QUE 48. Ram Recovery' is a measure of.

Option A. intake efficiency.
Option B. net thrust.
Option C. forward air speed.

QUE 49. most likely parameter limiting the height at which a jet engine powered aircraft can operate would
be insufficient.
Option A. lift to support the aircraft weight.
Option B. mass airflow to maintain 15:1 air/fuel ratio.
Option C. oxygen to support combustion.

QUE 50. With increasing ram effect.

Option A. turbine temperatures decreases.
Option B. propulsive efficiency decreases.
Option C. propulsive efficiency increases.

QUE 51. Full reverse power is approximately.

Option A. 95% of forward thrust.
Option B. 75% of forward thrust.
Option C. 50% of forward thrust.

QUE 52. The efficiency of a gas turbine would be greatest at.

Option A. cold temperatures.
Option B. low pressure.
Option C. hot temperatures

QUE 53. In a gas turbine engine, turbine section.

Option A. temperature decreases along with pressure and velocity.
Option B. velocity decreases and pressure increases.
Option C. velocity increases and pressure decreases.

QUE 53. In a gas turbine engine, turbine section.

Option A. temperature decreases along with pressure and velocity.
Option B. velocity decreases and pressure increases.
Option C. velocity increases and pressure decreases.

QUE 54. As air density changes the RPM of a gas turbine engine will change. How is RPM kept at a constant
speed?.
Option A. It is not.
Option B. Automatically by a simple engine device.
Option C. Manually by the pilot.

QUE 55. With fixed throttle and increasing altitude, the fan on a high by-pass engine will.
Option A. decrease RPM.
Option B. increase RPM.
Option C. stay the same RPM.

QUE 56. Through turbine rotor blades, the pressure.

Option A. increases, temperature increases, velocity decreases.
Option B. decreases, temperature and velocity decreases.
Option C. remains constant, temperature increases.

QUE 57. Temperature of the mass airflow through a Gas Turbine Engine.
Option A. increases from the inlet, through the compressor and the diffuser into the burner, and decreases
through the turbine into the exhaust.
Option B. increases from the inlet, through the compressor and remains constant through the diffuser and
increases at the burner, and decreases through the turbine into the exhaust.
Option C. remains constant at the inlet, increases from the compressor and the diffuser into the burner, and
decreases through the turbine into the exhaust.
Correct Answer is. increases from the inlet, through the compressor and the diffuser into the burner, and
decreases through.
Explanation. NIL.
15.3 Engine Inlet.
QUE 1. If an electrical de-icing system is operating, thrust will.
Option A. decrease.
Option B. remain constant.
Option C. increase.
Correct Answer is. remain constant.
Explanation. Hot air anti icing will reduce thrust, not electrical.

QUE 2. A bellmouth compressor inlet is used on.

Option A. helicopters.
Option B. supersonic aircraft.
Option C. aircraft with low ground clearance.

QUE 3. Electrical de-icing operates.

Option A. continuously and intermittently.
Option B. cyclically independent of ambient air temperature.
Option C. cyclically dependent on ambient air temperature.

QUE 4. The inlet door on a variable geometry intake is open at.

Option A. idle speed.
Option B. supersonic speeds.
Option C. subsonic speeds.

QUE 5. Anti-ice is recommended during.

Option A. OAT +10°Centigrade and visible moisture.
Option B. thunderstorms.
Option C. OAT below 10°Centigrade .

QUE 6. A pitot intake is divergent from front to rear because it.

Option A. reduces ram compression.
Option B. produces the maximum amount of ram compression.
Option C. speeds up the air before it hits the compressor face.

QUE 7. Anti icing of jet engine air inlets is commonly accomplished by.
Option A. electrical heating elements located within the engine air inlet cowling.
Option B. electrical heating elements inside the inlet guide vanes.
Option C. engine bleed air ducted through the critical areas.

QUE 8. The term 'Ram Ratio' in regard to air intakes is the relationship between.
Option A. ambient pressure and ambient temperature.
Option B. ambient temperature and compressor inlet temperature.
Option C. ambient pressure and compressor inlet pressure.

QUE 9. An increase in the Ram Ratio of an intake will.

Option A. have no effect upon the temperature of the air.
Option B. increase the temperature of the air.
Option C. decrease the temperature of the air.

QUE 10. As an aircraft approaches the transonic range, the aerodynamic efficiency of a Pitot type intake.
Option A. increases due to the ram effect.
Option B. decreases due to the shock wave.
Option C. is not effected by forward speed.

QUE 11. Inlet guide vanes are anti-iced with.

Option A. rubber boots.
Option B. thermal blankets.
Option C. engine bleed air.

QUE 12. Intake air turbulence.

Option A. decreases the efficiency of the compressor.
Option B. increases the efficiency of the compressor.
Option C. has little effect on the efficiency of the compressor.

QUE 13. What will be the effect of operating the intake anti-icing system of a gas turbine engine?.
Option A. A decrease in power.
Option B. Increased power at altitude.
Option C. Increased power for take off.

QUE 14. A Pitot intake is divergent from front to rear because it.
Option A. produces the maximum amount of ram compression.
Option B. reduces ram compression and turbulence.
Option C. speeds up the air before it hits the compressor face.

QUE 15. With an electrical ice protection system, the heating elements operate.
Option A. continuously.
Option B. part continuous - part intermittent.
Option C. intermittently.

QUE 16. The purpose of a bellmouth compressor inlet is to.

Option A. provide an increased ram air effect at low airspeeds.
Option B. maximize the aerodynamic efficiency of the inlet.
Option C. provide an increased pressure drop in the inlet.

QUE 17. The vortex dissipators installed on some turbine-powered aircraft to prevent engine FOD utilize.
Option A. variable geometry inlet ducts.
Option B. variable inlet guide vanes (IGV) and/or variable first stage fan blades.
Option C. a stream of engine bleed air blown toward the ground ahead of the engine.

QUE 18. Variable Ramp Intakes restrict airflow by.

Option A. diverting the airflow around the intake.
Option B. reducing the area of the intake.
Option C. creating shock-waves in the intake.

QUE 19. The inlet door of a variable geometry intake at supersonic speeds will be.
Option A. closed.
Option B. open.
Option C. mid-Position.
QUE 20. When operating an engine in icing conditions, care should be taken when the.
Option A. temperature is below +10°Centigrade with visible moisture.
Option B. temperature is below 10°Centigrade.
Option C. temperature is below 0°Centigrade.

QUE 21. Anti-icing for a turboprop is achieved by.

Option A. bleed air supply from compressor.
Option B. electric bonded heater mats.
Option C. hot oil supply from lubrication system.

QUE 22. A divergent intake is.

Option A. divergent from front to rear.
Option B. convergent/divergent from front to rear.
Option C. divergent/convergent from front to rear.

QUE 23. What purpose does the nose cone serve on the(N1) fan on a high bypass engine?.
Option A. Streamlined fairing.
Option B. Reduce and straighten any turbulent air.
Option C. Assist in diffusing airflow.

QUE 24. A variable geometry intake at subsonic speeds.

Option A. jet pipe area is increased.
Option B. throat area is decreased.
Option C. throat area is increased.
Explanation. The inlet is only reduced at mach 1.0 or above.

QUE 25. Electrical anti-ice.

Option A. heats oil which is distributed around engine.
Option B. heats elements, placed under mats around engine.
Option C. heats air which is distributed around engine.

QUE 26. The cycling speed of the electrical de-icing mat.

Option A. comes in 4 speeds.
Option B. is not affected by weather conditions.
Option C. is affected by weather conditions.

QUE 27. The variable inlet guide vanes are operated.

Option A. by fuel pressure.
Option B. electrically from cockpit.
Option C. using N1 fan speed.
Explanation. IGV's have traditionally been electrically controlled and fuel operated, within an IGV actuator.

QUE 28. The intake of a gas turbine engine is designed to.

Option A. protect compressor from FOD .
Option B. provide turbulent free air.
Option C. provide streamlined fairing for aircraft.
QUE 29. The velocity of air on entry to compressor inlet on an aircraft flying supersonic speed would be
controlled at.
Option A. Mach 2.2.
Option B. Mach 1.
Option C. Mach 0.4.
Explanation. The variable ramp causes a normal shock wave to form in the intake thus Mach 1 is the
maximum speed through it; however it is further slowed by diffusion in the divergent portion of the intake
duct. Jeppesen a+p Technician Powerplant Textbook page 5-18.

QUE 30. If an inlet is choked then the velocity.

Option A. increases and pressure decreases.
Option B. increases and pressure increases.
Option C. decreases and pressure increases.

QUE 31. In an aircraft flying at supersonic speed, to reduce the air velocity at the compressor, the variable
intake.
Option A. exhaust jet cone area increased.
Option B. throat area is decreased.
Option C. throat area is increased.

QUE 32. A well designed intake will take advantage of forward speed by.
Option A. converting kinetic energy into pressure energy.
Option B. converting velocity energy into kinetic energy.
Option C. converting pressure energy of the air into kinetic energy.
Explanation. This is known as Ram effect.

QUE 33. In subsonic multi-engine aircraft, a normal inlet duct will.

Option A. decrease and then increase in size, front to rear, along length of the duct.
Option B. increase in size, front to rear, along length of the duct.
Option C. increase and then decrease in size, front to rear, along length of the duct.

QUE 34. What type of intake is one that decreases gradually in area and then increases?.
Option A. Convergent.
Option B. Convergent / Divergent.
Option C. Divergent.

QUE 35. In an electrical de-icing system, the main elements will be on.
Option A. intermittently, 8 times a minute, dependant on OAT .
Option B. intermittently, 4 times a minute, dependant on OAT .
Option C. continuously and intermittently.

QUE 36. Intakes are designed to.

Option A. decrease the intake air pressure.
Option B. decelerate the free air stream flow.
Option C. accelerate the free air stream flow.

QUE 37. The air intake for a gas turbine powered subsonic aircraft would be of.
Option A. convergent form.
Option B. divergent form.
Option C. convergent/divergent form.

QUE 38. turboprop engine inlet anti-ice system operates.

Option A. continuously.
Option B. cyclically dependant on weather conditions.
Option C. cyclically independent on weather conditions.

QUE 39. What is true for a bellmouth intake?.

Option A. Pressure increases and velocity decreases.
Option B. Velocity increases and pressure decreases.
Option C. Pressure and velocity decrease.

QUE 40. What is the system that breaks up ice formations on a turboprop engine nose cowl called?.
Option A. Nose cowl heating.
Option B. De-icing.
Option C. Anti-icing.

QUE 41. In a variable geometry intake, the velocity of the air on the engine compressor face is controlled
by.
Option A. ramp and spill doors.
Option B. intake augmentation doors.
Option C. shock-wave pattern, ramp and spill doors.
15.4 Engine Compressors.
QUE 1. A bypass engine LP compressor.
Option A. supplies less air than is required for combusti15.4 Compressors
Option B. supplies more air than is required for combustion.
Option C. supplies only the required quantity for combustion.

QUE 2. How does a dual axial flow compressor improve the efficiency of a turbojet engine?.
Option A. The velocity of the air entering the combustion chamber is increased.
Option B. More turbine wheels can be used.
Option C. Higher compression ratios can be obtained.

QUE 3. In a reverse flow system, the last stage of an axial flow compressor is often centrifugal. This is to.
Option A. provide initial turning of the airflow.
Option B. prevent compressor surge.
Option C. increase the temperature rise.

QUE 4. What are the two main functional components in a centrifugal compressor?.
Option A. Bucket and expander.
Option B. Impeller and diffuser.
Option C. Turbine and compressor.

QUE 5. A bypass ratio of 5:1 indicates that the bypass flow is.
Option A. equal to 1/5 of the hot stream.
Option B. five times the hot stream.
Option C. five times the cold stream.

QUE 6. The stator vanes in an axial-flow compressor.

Option A. direct air into the first stage rotor vanes at the proper angle.
Option B. convert velocity energy into pressure energy.
Option C. convert pressure energy onto velocity energy.

QUE 7. What units in a gas turbine engine aid in stabilisation of the compressor during low thrust engine
operations?.
Option A. Bleed air valves.
Option B. Stator vanes.
Option C. Inlet guide vanes.

QUE 8. What purpose do the diffuser vanes of a centrifugal compressor serve?.

Option A. To convert pressure energy into kinetic energy.
Option B. To increase the air velocity.
Option C. To convert kinetic energy into pressure energy.

QUE 9. During the high RPM range on an axial flow gas turbine engine, in what position are the variable
intake guide vanes and bleed valves?.
Option A. At maximum swirl position, bleed valves open.
Option B. At minimum swirl position, bleed valves closed.
Option C. At maximum swirl position, bleed valves closed.
QUE 10. What is the purpose of the diffuser section in a turbine engine?.
Option A. To convert pressure to velocity.
Option B. To reduce pressure and increase velocity.
Option C. To increase pressure and reduce velocity.

QUE 11. The fan speed of a twin spool axial compressor engine is the same as the.
Option A. low pressure compressor.
Option B. forward turbine wheel.
Option C. high pressure compressor.

QUE 12. Bleed valves are normally spring loaded to the.

Option A. closed position.
Option B. open position.
Option C. mid-position.

QUE 13. What is the function of the stator vane assembly at the discharge end of a typical axial flow
compressor?.
Option A. To increase air swirling motion into the combustion chambers.
Option B. To direct the flow of gases into the combustion chambers.
Option C. To straighten airflow to eliminate turbulence.

QUE 14. In a turbine engine with a dual spool compressor, the low speed compressor.
Option A. always turns at the same speed as the high speed compressor.
Option B. seeks its own best operating speed.
Option C. is connected directly to the high speed compressor.

QUE 15. What units in a gas turbine engine aid in guiding the airflow during low thrust engine operations?.
Option A. Stator vanes.
Option B. Bleed air valves.
Option C. Inlet guide vanes.

QUE 16. What is one purpose of the stator blades in the compressor section?.
Option A. Increase the velocity of the airflow.
Option B. Stabilize the pressure of the airflow.
Option C. Control the direction of the airflow.

QUE 17. Compressor stall is caused by.

Option A. a low angle of attack airflow through the first stages of compression.
Option B. rapid engine deceleration.
Option C. a high angle of attack airflow through the first stages of compression.

QUE 18. What is used to aid in stabilization of compressor airflow?.

Option A. Variable guide vanes and/or compressor bleed valves.
Option B. Pressurization and dump valves.
Option C. Stator vanes and rotor vanes.

QUE 19. What is the primary factor which controls the pressure ratio of an axial flow compressor?.
Option A. Compressor inlet temperature.
Option B. Compressor inlet pressure.
Option C. Number of stages in compressor.

QUE 20. The non-rotating axial-flow compressor airfoils in an aircraft gas turbine are known as.
Option A. stator vanes.
Option B. bleed vanes.
Option C. pressurization vanes.

QUE 21. The purpose of a bleed valve, located in the beginning stages of the compressor is to.
Option A. vent some of the air overboard to prevent a compressor stall.
Option B. control excessively high RPM to prevent a compressor stall.
Option C. vent high ram air pressure overboard to prevent a compressor stall.

QUE 22. During the low RPM range on an axial flow gas turbine engine, in what position are the variable
intake guide vanes and bleed valves?.
Option A. At maximum swirl position, bleed valves open.
Option B. At maximum swirl position, bleed valves closed.
Option C. At minimum swirl position, bleed valves closed.

QUE 23. The energy changes that take place in the impeller of a centrifugal compressor are.
Option A. pressure decrease, velocity decrease, temperature increase.
Option B. pressure increase, velocity decrease, temperature increase.
Option C. pressure increase, velocity increase, temperature increase.

QUE 24. What is the primary advantage of an axial flow compressor over a centrifugal compressor?.
Option A. High frontal area.
Option B. Greater pressure ratio.
Option C. Less expensive.

QUE 25. Compression occurs.

Option A. across stators and rotors.
Option B. across rotors.
Option C. across stators.

QUE 26. Which of the following can cause fan blade shingling in a turbofan engine?.
Option A. Large, rapid throttle movements and FOD.
Option B. Engine over temperature, large, rapid throttle movements and FOD.
Option C. Engine overspeed and large, rapid throttle movements.

QUE 27. Severe rubbing of turbine engine compressor blades will usually cause.
Option A. cracking.
Option B. bowing.
Option C. galling.

QUE 28. Which two elements make up the axial flow compressor assembly?.
Option A. Rotor and stator.
Option B. Stator and diffuser.
Option C. Compressor and manifold.
QUE 29. If the RPM of an axial flow compressor remains constant, the angle of attack of the rotor blades
can be changed by.
Option A. changing the compressor diameter.
Option B. changing the velocity of the airflow.
Option C. increasing the pressure ratio.

QUE 30. The gas turbine Compressor Pressure Ratio is.

Option A. Compressor inlet pressure divided by Compressor discharge pressure.
Option B. Mass of air bypassing the combustion system divided by Mass of air going through the combustion
system.
Option C. Compressor discharge pressure divided by Compressor inlet pressure.

QUE 31. An advantage of the centrifugal flow compressor is its high.

Option A. ram efficiency.
Option B. pressure rise per stage.
Option C. peak efficiency.

QUE 32. The compression ratio of an axial flow compressor is a function of the.
Option A. number of compressor stages.
Option B. air inlet velocity.
Option C. rotor diameter.

QUE 33. Jet engine turbine blades removed for detailed inspection must be reinstalled in.
Option A. the same slot.
Option B. a specified slot 180°away.
Option C. a specified slot 90°away in the direction of rotation.

QUE 34. The procedure for removing the accumulation of dirt deposits on compressor blades is called.
Option A. the purging process.
Option B. the soak method.
Option C. field cleaning.

QUE 35. The two types of centrifugal compressor impellers are.

Option A. impeller and diffuser.
Option B. single entry and double entry.
Option C. rotor and stator.

QUE 36. Between each row of rotating blades in a compressor, there is a row of stationary blades which act
to diffuse the air. These stationary blades are called.
Option A. stators.
Option B. rotors.
Option C. buckets.

QUE 37. Bleed valves are.

Option A. closed at low RPM.
Option B. always slightly open.
Option C. closed at high RPM.

QUE 38. Compressor field cleaning on turbine engines is performed primarily in order to.
Option A. prevent engine oil contamination and subsequent engine bearing wear or damage.
Option B. prevent engine performance degradation, increased fuel costs, and damage or corrosion to gas
path surfaces.
Option C. facilitate flight line inspection of engine inlet and compressor areas for defects or FOD.

QUE 39. If the LP compressor shaft severed.

Option A. the LP turbine will speed up and the LP compressor will slow down.
Option B. the LP compressor of cruise thrust.
Option C. the HP compressor will slow down.

QUE 40. An advantage of a centrifugal compressor is.

Option A. it is dynamically balanced.
Option B. it is unaffected by turbulence.
Option C. it is robust and can stand some shock from icing-up.

QUE 41. Variable inlet guide vanes prevent.

Option A. compressor runaway.
Option B. engine flame out at high speed.
Option C. compressor stalling.

QUE 42. An axial flow compressor surges when.

Option A. later stages are stalled.
Option B. all stages are stalled.
Option C. early stages are stalled.

QUE 43. As a consequence of tapping air from the compressor, the TGT will.
Option A. fall.
Option B. remain constant.
Option C. rise.

QUE 44. Compressor air bleeds promote the flow of air through the early stages by.
Option A. opening to allow air in.
Option B. closing.
Option C. opening to allow air out.

QUE 45. Compressor blades have a reduced angle of attack at the tips.
Option A. to prevent turbine stall.
Option B. to increase the velocity.
Option C. to allow uniform axial velocity.

QUE 46. Compressor surge is caused by.

Option A. over fuelling.
Option B. rapid closing of the throttle.
Option C. prolonged engine running at high RPM.
Explanation. Jeppesen Gas Turbine Powerplant Page 3-26 refers to fuel system malfunction - over fuelling.

QUE 47. Pressure rise across a single spool axial flow compressor is in the order of.
Option A. four to one.
Option B. two to one.
Option C. up to fifteen to one.

QUE 48. What purpose do the diffuser vanes of a centrifugal compressor serve?.
Option A. To convert pressure energy into kinetic energy.
Option B. To increase the air velocity.
Option C. To convert kinetic energy into pressure energy.

QUE 49. The purpose of the rotating guide vanes on a centrifugal compressor is to.
Option A. direct the air smoothly into the impeller.
Option B. provide initial diffusing of the air.
Option C. prevent damage by solid objects.
Explanation. Rolls Royce The Jet Engine page 21 refers.

QUE 50. What is the surge margin of an axial flow compressor?

Option A. The margin between the compressor working line and the surge line.
Option B. The margin between minimum and maximum pressure ratio obtained at constant RPM.
Option C. The margin between the stall condition and the surge condition.

QUE 51. The compression ratio of a jet engine is.

Option A. the compressor outlet pressure divided by the number of compressor stages.
Option B. the ratio between turbine pressure and compressor outlet pressure.
Option C. the ratio between compressor outlet pressure and compressor inlet pressure.

QUE 52. Variable inlet guide vanes help to prevent.

Option A. compressor runaway.
Option B. ice build up on compressor blades.
Option C. compressor stalling.

QUE 53. Air through the compressor, before entering the combustion chamber, passes.
Option A. through divergent passage to increase the pressure.
Option B. through nozzles to increase the velocity.
Option C. through divergent passage to decrease the pressure.

QUE 54. Low mass airflow through a compressor will produce.

Option A. stalling of rear stages.
Option B. stalling of early stages.
Option C. no effect.

QUE 55. A bleed valve.

Option A. relieves compressor choking at low RPM.
Option B. controls air intake pressure.
Option C. bleeds air from compressor for intake deicing.

QUE 56. If a compressor has a compression ratio of 9:1 and an intake compression of 2:1, what is the
overall compression ratio?.
Option A. 9:1 intake compression does not add to the overall compression ratio of the system.
Option B. 18:1.
Option C. 11:1.
QUE 57. A compressor stage stalls when.
Option A. adiabatic temperature rise is too high.
Option B. compression ratio is too high.
Option C. smooth airflow is disrupted.

QUE 58. Inlet guide vanes are fitted to.

Option A. control the quantity of air entering the intake.
Option B. guide the airflow onto the turbine rotor first stage.
Option C. control the angle of airflow into the compressor.

QUE 59. Why, in an axial flow compressor is the cross sectional area of the compressor air duct reduced at
each stage?.
Option A. To decrease the velocity of the air rising under pressure.
Option B. To maintain the velocity of the air under rising pressure.
Option C. To permit stronger, shorter blades to be used in the later stages.

QUE 60. An abradable lining around the fan is to.

Option A. provide less leakage for anti-icing.
Option B. prevent fan blade tip rub.
Option C. strengthen the EPR value.

QUE 61. Allowable damage on the first stage compressor blade is restricted to.
Option A. middle third of the blade to the outer edge.
Option B. outer third of the blade to the outer edge.
Option C. root end of the blade.

QUE 62. Tip speed of a centrifugal compressor can reach.

Option A. Mach 1.3.
Option B. Mach 1.0.
Option C. Mach 0.8.

QUE 63. What is the profile of a compressor blade?.

Option A. A cutout that reduces blade tip thickness.
Option B. The leading edge of the blade.
Option C. The curvature of the blade root.

QUE 64. The resultant velocity of air exiting an axial compressor stage depends upon.
Option A. aircraft forward speed.
Option B. compressor RPM.
Option C. Both of the above.

QUE 65. What is a compressor stage?.

Option A. One compressor rotor and one nozzle guide vane.
Option B. One rotor plus one stator.
Option C. One Nozzle Guide Vane and one rotor.

QUE 66. If the bypass ratio is 0.7:1, the 0.7 pounds of air is.
Option A. fed into H.P compressor compared to 1 pound fed around it.
Option B. fed around the engine to 1 pound fed into H.P. compressor.
Option C. bypassed for every 1 pound at the intake.

QUE 67. Advantage of an axial flow over a centrifugal flow gas turbine engine.
Option A. power required for starting is less.
Option B. low weight.
Option C. high peak efficiencies.

QUE 68. Compressor blades reduce in length.

Option A. from tip to root to maintain uniform velocity in compressor.
Option B. from L.P to H.P section to maintain uniform velocity in compressor.
Option C. from root to tip to maintain correct angle of attack.

QUE 69. Deposit build-up on compressor blades.

Option A. airflow is too fast for deposits to build up.
Option B. will not decrease efficiency but may cause corrosion.
Option C. can decrease compressor efficiency and cause corrosion.

QUE 70. The diffuser after the compressor, before the combustion chamber.
Option A. increases velocity, decreases pressure.
Option B. decreases velocity, pressure increases.
Option C. increases velocity, pressure remains constant.

QUE 71. In a compressor, diffusion action takes place across.

Option A. rotors.
Option B. rotors and stators.
Option C. stators.

QUE 72. The ring of fixed blades at the intake of an axial flow compressor are called.
Option A. inlet guide vanes. (shroud ring)
Option B. first stage stator blades.
Option C. first stage diffuser blades.

QUE 73. What is the purpose of pressure balance seal?.

Option A. To ensure the location bearing is adequately loaded throughout the engine thrust range.
Option B. To ensure LP compressor is statically balanced.
Option C. To ensure HP compressor is dynamically balanced.

QUE 74. The optimum air speed for entrance into the compressor is approximately.
Option A. same as aircraft speed.
Option B. Mach 0.4.
Option C. Mach 1.

QUE 75. What is the acceptable damage on stator blades that have been blended?.
Option A. One third along from root to tip.
Option B. One third from tip to root.
Option C. One third chord wise.
Explanation. The root of the blade has tighter tolerance than the tip, and chord wise indentations are also
critical so our best guess is from tip to root
QUE 76. With regard to compressor blades, which of the following is true? No damage is permissible on.
Option A. a shroud fillet area.
Option B. the lip of a blade.
Option C. the last third of the outboard leading edge.
Explanation. Shroud fillets are critical areas whereas the outer third of the blade is less so. Unshrouded
tips are also less critical than shroud fillets.

QUE 77. Identify a function of the cascade vanes in a turbojet engine compressor section.
Option A. To remove air swirl before the combustion chamber.
Option B. To direct the flow of air to strike the turbine blades at a desired angle.
Option C. To decrease the velocity of air to the combustor.

QUE 78. The pressure ratio can be influenced by.

Option A. compressor inlet temperature.
Option B. number of stages in compressor.
Option C. compressor inlet pressure.

QUE 79. Air bleed valves are.

Option A. closed at low RPM.
Option B. open at high RPM.
Option C. open at low RPM.

QUE 80. The compressor case annulus is.

Option A. convergent.
Option B. divergent.
Option C. parallel.

QUE 81. If the tip clearance in a centrifugal compressor is too small.

Option A. there would be pressure losses through leakage.
Option B. there is danger of seizure.
Option C. aerodynamic buffeting would cause vibration.

QUE 82. A 1st stage LP compressor blade is able to continue in service if the damage is within limits, and
within the.
Option A. middle third of blade chord-wise.
Option B. outer third only.
Option C. root section only.

QUE 83. What is meant by a compressor stage?.

Option A. One rotor and one stator assembly.
Option B. All rotors and stators.
Option C. One rotor and one guide vane assembly.

QUE 84. What is the normal pressure rise across each compressor stage of an axial flow compressor?.
Option A. 1.5:1.
Option B. 1.2:1.
Option C. 5:1.
QUE 85. Where does compression take place as air passes through an axial flow compressor?.
Option A. Rotor blades.
Option B. Stator Blades.
Option C. Rotor and Stator blades.

QUE 86. Nozzle Guide Vane bow is an indication of.

Option A. engine overspeed.
Option B. engine overheat.
Option C. engine shock loading.

QUE 87. A build up of foreign objects and dirt on compressor blades.

Option A. has a large effect on compressor efficiency and may cause corrosion.
Option B. has no effect on the efficiency of the compressor but may cause corrosion.
Option C. has no effect on compressor efficiency due to the speed of rotation.

QUE 88. What is the purpose of the stator vanes in the compressor section of a gas turbine engine?.
Option A. Increase the velocity of the airflow.
Option B. Control direction of the airflow.
Option C. Prevent compressor surge.

QUE 89. In a twin spool compressor, the LP section runs at.

Option A. a lower RPM than the HP spool.
Option B. a higher RPM than the HP spool.
Option C. the same RPM than the HP spool.
15.5 Combustion Section.
QUE 1. In a turbojet engine, combustion occurs at.
Option A. constant velocity.
Option B. constant volume.
Option C. constant pressure.

QUE 2. A tubo-annular gas turbine combustion system consists of.

Option A. a number of flame tubes in an annular air casing.
Option B. a number of flame tubes each with its own air casing.
Option C. an annular flame tube in an annular air casing.

QUE 3. In which type of turbine engine combustion chamber is the case and liner removed and installed as
one unit during routine maintenance?.
Option A. Cannular.
Option B. Annular.
Option C. Can.

QUE 4. In a turboprop engine, combustion takes place at constant.

Option A. pressure.
Option B. density.
Option C. volume.

QUE 5. The air passing through the combustion chamber is.

Option A. entirely combined with fuel and burned.
Option B. used to support combustion and to cool the engine.
Option C. speeded up and heated by the action of the turbines.

QUE 6. The air used for combustion is.

Option A. Primary and secondary.
Option B. Primary.
Option C. Secondary.

QUE 7. Combustion chamber flame temperature is in the order of.

Option A. 2000°Centigrade.
Option B. 2000°Fahrenheit.
Option C. 2000°K.

QUE 8. Hot spots in the combustion section of a turbojet engine are possible.
Option A. dirty compressor blades.
Option B. malfunctioning fuel nozzles.
Option C. faulty igniter plugs.

QUE 9. Another name for a cannular combustion chamber is.

Option A. turbo-annular.
Option B. multiple can.
Option C. can-annular.
QUE 10. Another name for a cannular combustion chamber is.
Option A. annular.
Option B. tubo-annular.
Option C. multiple can.
Correct Answer is. tubo-annular.
Explanation. NIL.

QUE 11. The approximate percentage of the mass airflow taken in by the flame tube snout is.
Option A. 82%.
Option B. 8%.
Option C. 18%.

QUE 12. What component creates a vortex in a gas turbine flame tube?.
Option A. Tertiary hole.
Option B. Swirl vanes.
Option C. Cascade vanes.

QUE 13. In the combustion chamber.

Option A. static pressure and volume remains constant.
Option B. static pressure decreases slightly and volume increases.
Option C. static pressure and volume decreases.

QUE 14. Which of the following types of combustion sections are used in aircraft turbine engines?.
Option A. Annular, variable, and cascade vane.
Option B. Multiple can, annular, and can-annular.
Option C. Can, multiple can, and variable.

QUE 15. Secondary air in the combustion chamber is used for.

Option A. increasing axial velocity of gases.
Option B. combustion.
Option C. cooling.

QUE 16. Duplex burners have.

Option A. two calibrated outlets.
Option B. variable orifices.
Option C. a spring.

QUE 17. The overall air/fuel ratio of a combustion chamber can vary between.
Option A. 45:1 and 130:1.
Option B. 130:1 and 200:1.
Option C. 10:1 and 45:1.

QUE 18. When light-up takes place.

Option A. the nozzle guide vanes spread the heat to adjacent flame tubes.
Option B. interconnectors spread the heat to adjacent flame tubes.
Option C. each flame tube is isolated from its neighbours.
QUE 19. Why do the holes in the body of the duple burner provide air to the shroud around the burner
head?
Option A. To assist atomisation of the fuel at slow running.
Option B. To reduce burner temperature.
Option C. To minimise carbon formation on the burner face.
Correct Answer is. To minimise carbon formation on the burner face.
Explanation. Rolls Royce The Jet Engine figure 10.18 refers.

QUE 20. The air passing through the combustion chamber of a jet engine is.
Option A. entirely combined with fuel and burned.
Option B. used to support combustion and to cool the engine.
Option C. speeded up and heated by the action of the turbines.

QUE 21. A toroidal vortex is.

Option A. a vapour trail visible in moist air conditions.
Option B. a region in the combustion chamber of low velocity re-circulation.
Option C. a bull-nosed cowling for deflecting air from the static.

QUE 22. Why is it necessary to have a combustion drain system?.

Option A. To prevent pressure build up in the combustion chamber.
Option B. To prevent initial over-fuelling on start up or hot start.
Option C. To allow water in the combustor to drain away.

QUE 23. What is a cannular combustion system?.

Option A. One common flame tube closed in a common air casing.
Option B. A set of flame tubes, each mounted in a separate air casing.
Option C. A set of flame tubes, enclosed in a common air casing.

QUE 24. The flame temperature is approximately.

Option A. 1400°Centigrade.
Option B. 2000°Centigrade.
Option C. 500°Centigrade.

QUE 25. Fuel entering the combustion chamber from an atomizer spray nozzle enters as.
Option A. fuel in air pulses.
Option B. a fuel/air mixture.
Option C. fuel continuously.

QUE 26. An advantage of an annular combustion system is.

Option A. unrestricted airflow at maximum RPM.
Option B. diameter of engine is reduced due to the cans being smaller.
Option C. decrease in combustor length compared to a tubo-annular combustor of the same output.

QUE 27. How is the combustion chamber drain valve closed?.

Option A. By 12th stage compressor air pressure.
Option B. By a return spring.
Option C. By combustion chamber gas pressure.
QUE 28. Which statement is true regarding the air passing through the combustion section of a jet engine?.
Option A. Most is used for engine cooling.
Option B. Most is used to support combustion.
Option C. A small percentage is frequently bled off at this point to be used for air-conditioning and/or other
pneumatic powered systems.

QUE 29. How are combustion liner walls cooled in a gas turbine engine?.
Option A. By secondary air flowing through the combustion chamber.
Option B. By bleed air vented from the engine air inlet.
Option C. By the pattern of holes and louvers cut in the diffuser section.

QUE 30. Dilution air is placed.

Option A. in the dilution zone of the combustion chamber after the primary zone.
Option B. in the primary zone of the combustion chamber.
Option C. in the swirl vanes of the combustor.

QUE 31. A Duplex burner uses.

Option A. small burner at low RPM and both burner at high RPM.
Option B. small burner at low RPM and large burner at high RPM.
Option C. both burners at low and hi RPM.

QUE 32. The approximate percentage of the mass airflow which bypasses the flame tube snout is.
Option A. 8%.
Option B. 82%.
Option C. 18%.

QUE 33. Flame stabilization in a combustion chamber is achieved by.

Option A. the correct burner pressure.
Option B. the airflow pattern.
Option C. the correct air/fuel ratio.
Correct Answer is. the airflow pattern.
Explanation. Rolls Royce The Jet Engine page 36 refers.

QUE 34. Fuel nozzles are cleaned.

Option A. with a rag and solvent.
Option B. in-situ with carbon solution.
Option C. in-situ with detergent solution.

QUE 35. When heat is added to the combustion chamber.

Option A. pressure increases rapidly volume remains constant.
Option B. pressure changes slightly and volume increases.
Option C. pressure rises at chamber outlet.

QUE 36. A shroud placed around fuel nozzles.

Option A. flakes the carbon to minimise accumulations.
Option B. prevents carbon build up.
Option C. builds up carbon deposits to assist atomisation.
QUE 37. Carbon forming on fuel spray nozzles will have the effect of.
Option A. increasing the combustion chamber pressure ratio.
Option B. producing turbulent air flow.
Option C. changing the fuel spray angle.

QUE 38. Combustor air that is not used to support combustion.

Option A. will film cool the liner and dilute combustion chamber exit temperature.
Option B. is by-pass air.
Option C. is considered as the total air flow.

QUE 39. At high rotational speed at sea level, a duple burner would be passing fuel via the.
Option A. main nozzle.
Option B. primary nozzle.
Option C. primary and the main nozzle.

QUE 40. The fabricated liner of a flame tube is achieved mainly by.
Option A. argon arc process.
Option B. electric resistance welding.
Option C. oxyacetylene welding.
Explanation. an argon arc (T.I.G) welding is used to repair combustion liners, it is assumed that this is also the
manufacturing process. can anyone confirm this with a reference.

QUE 41. Why is it necessary to have a combustion chamber drain?.

Option A. To allow unburnt fuel to drain away.
Option B. To prevent pressure build-up in the combustion chamber.
Option C. To allow fuel to return to LP when H.P cock is closed.

QUE 42. The purpose of the swirl vanes in the combustion chamber is to produce.
Option A. flame re-circulation.
Option B. gas re-circulation.
Option C. adequate mixing of fuel and air.

QUE 43. A vaporising burner injects fuel vapour.

Option A. with the airflow.
Option B. across the airflow.
Option C. against the airflow.

QUE 44. A duplex burner in a gas turbine engine has 2 orifices.

Option A. one for water injection and one for fuel flow.
Option B. one for low speed conditions the second used for high speed conditions.
Option C. one for normal flow conditions and the 2nd one to increase the normal maximum flow.

QUE 45. A combustion chamber has a.

Option A. convergent inlet, divergent outlet.
Option B. convergent inlet, convergent outlet.
Option C. divergent inlet, convergent outlet.
15.6 Turbine Section.
QUE 1. The three main types of turbine blades are.
Option A. impulse, vector, and impulse-vector.
Option B. reaction, converging, and diverging.
Option C. impulse, reaction, and impulse-reaction.

QUE 2. What are the two main basic components of the turbine section in a gas turbine engine?.
Option A. Stator and rotor.
Option B. Hot and cold.
Option C. Impeller and diffuser.

QUE 3. Turbine impulse blading forms a.

Option A. constant area duct.
Option B. divergent duct.
Option C. convergent duct.

QUE 4. The turbine section.

Option A. increases air velocity to create thrust.
Option B. uses heat energy to expand and accelerate the gas flow.
Option C. drives the compressor section.

QUE 5. Where do stress rupture cracks usually appear on turbine blades?.

Option A. Across the blade root, parallel to the fir tree.
Option B. Across the leading or trailing edge at a right angle to the edge.
Option C. Along the leading edge, parallel to the edge.

QUE 6. What is meant by a shrouded turbine?.

Option A. The turbine blades are shaped so that their ends form a band or shroud.
Option B. The turbine wheel has a shroud or duct which provides cooling air to the turbine blades.
Option C. The turbine wheel is enclosed by a protective shroud to contain the blades in case of failure.

QUE 7. Turbine nozzle diaphragms located on the upstream side of each turbine wheel, are used to.
Option A. decrease the velocity of the heated gases flowing past this point.
Option B. direct the flow of gases parallel to the vertical line of the turbine blades.
Option C. increase the velocity of the heated gases flowing past this point.

QUE 8. Reduced blade vibration and improved airflow characteristics in turbines are brought by.
Option A. shrouded turbine rotor blades.
Option B. impulse type blades.
Option C. fir tree blade attachment.

QUE 9. What term is used to describe a permanent and cumulative deformation of turbine blades?.
Option A. Stretch.
Option B. Creep.
Option C. Distortion.
QUE 10. What is the major function of the turbine assembly in a turbojet engine?.
Option A. Directs the gases in the proper direction to the tailpipe.
Option B. Supplies the power to turn the compressor.
Option C. Increases the temperature of the exhaust gases.

QUE 11. Gas pressure through the turbine section will generally.
Option A. increase.
Option B. remain the same.
Option C. decrease.

QUE 12. A condition known as 'hot streaking' in turbine engines is caused by

Option A. a partially clogged fuel nozzle.
Option B. excessive fuel flow.
Option C. a misaligned combustion liner.

QUE 13. Temperature through the turbine stages generally.

Option A. remains the same.
Option B. decreases.
Option C. increases.

QUE 14. Shrouded blades allow.

Option A. smaller inlets to be used.
Option B. higher turbine inlet temperatures.
Option C. thinner more efficient blade sections to be used.

QUE 15. Continued and/or excessive heat and centrifugal force on turbine engine rotor blades is likely to
cause.
Option A. galling.
Option B. creep.
Option C. profile.

QUE 16. N.G.V's form.

Option A. convergent ducts.
Option B. parallel ducts.
Option C. divergent ducts.

QUE 17. Dirt particles in the air going into the compressor of a turbine engine will form a coating on all but
which of the following?.
Option A. Turbine blades.
Option B. Casings.
Option C. Inlet guide vanes.

QUE 18. Reduced blade vibration and improved airflow characteristics in gas turbines are brought about
by.
Option A. shrouded turbine rotor blades.
Option B. fir tree blade attachment.
Option C. impulse type blades.

QUE 19. A purpose of the shrouds on the turbine blades of an axial flow engine is to.
Option A. reduce air entrance.
Option B. increase tip speed.
Option C. reduce vibration.

QUE 20. Hot section inspections for many modern turbine engines are required.
Option A. on a time or cycle basis.
Option B. only when an over temperature or overspeed has occurred.
Option C. only at engine overhaul.

QUE 21. Why do some turbine engines have more than one turbine wheel attached to a single shaft?.
Option A. To facilitate balancing of the turbine assembly.
Option B. To extract more power from the exhaust gases than a single wheel can absorb.
Option C. To help stabilize the pressure between the compressor and the turbine.

QUE 22. When aircraft turbine blades are subjected to excessive heat stress, what type of failures would
you expect?.
Option A. Bending and torsion.
Option B. Stress rupture.
Option C. Torsion and tension.

QUE 23. Which of the following conditions is usually not acceptable to any extent in turbine blades?.
Option A. Cracks.
Option B. Dents.
Option C. Pits.

QUE 24. The forces driving a turbine round are due to.
Option A. impulse only.
Option B. reaction only.
Option C. impulse and reaction.

QUE 25. Nozzle guide vanes give a.

Option A. pressure increase, velocity decrease.
Option B. pressure increase, velocity increase.
Option C. pressure decrease, velocity increase.

QUE 26. Shrouding of stator blade tips is to.

Option A. minimise vibration.
Option B. ensure adequate cooling.
Option C. prevent tip turbulence.

QUE 27. Why are two or more turbine wheels coupled?.

Option A. To keep turbine rotor diameter small.
Option B. So power output is doubled.
Option C. To simplify dynamic balancing.

QUE 28. Running clearance on a turbine disk is kept to a minimum to reduce.

Option A. temperature loss
Option B. aerodynamic buffeting.
Option C. tip losses.
QUE 29. Two basic types of turbine blades are.
Option A. impulse and vector.
Option B. reaction and impulse.
Option C. tangential and reaction.

QUE 30. Why are nozzle guide vanes fitted?.

Option A. To decrease velocity of the gas flow.
Option B. To increase velocity of the gas flow.
Option C. To increase velocity of the air flow.

QUE 31. A turbine disk is.

Option A. a disk at the core of the engine that the blades are attached to.
Option B. a segmented or complete shroud on blade tips that reduces leakage.
Option C. a shroud around the stators of the turbine.

QUE 32. .When carrying out a borescope the damage on turbine blades that would indicate a failure is.
Option A. speckling.
Option B. tip curl.
Option C. colour changes.

QUE 33. The active clearance control system aids turbine engine efficiency by.
Option A. automatically adjusting engine speed to maintain a desired EPR.
Option B. adjusting stator vane position according to operating conditions and power requirements.
Option C. ensuring turbine blade to engine case clearances are kept to a minimum by controlling case
temperatures.

QUE 34. Turbine rear struts.

Option A. straighten the gas flow.
Option B. increase the velocity of the gas flow.
Option C. increase the pressure of the gas flow.

QUE 35. Bowing of turbine blades indicates an.

Option A. over-temperature condition.
Option B. over-speed condition.
Option C. under-temperature condition.

QUE 36. On an impulse-reaction turbine blade it is.

Option A. impulse at the root and reaction at the tip.
Option B. reaction at the root and impulse at the tip.
Option C. impulse and reaction all the away along the blade.

QUE 37. Turbine creep effects.

Option A. turbine blades.
Option B. turbine disks.
Option C. N.G.Vs.

QUE 38. Creep is.

Option A. not found in turbines.
Option B. a temporary deformation of turbine.
Option C. a permanent deformation of turbine.

QUE 39. Creep, overall.

Option A. has no effect on turbine diameter.
Option B. increases turbine diameter.
Option C. decreases turbine diameter.

QUE 40. How are turbine disks attached to the shaft in gas turbine engine?.
Option A. Splined.
Option B. Curvic couplings.
Option C. Bolted.

QUE 41. Fir tree turbine blade attachment locates the blade.
Option A. allows slight movement.
Option B. radially.
Option C. axially.

QUE 42. Creep may occur to turbine blades due to.

Option A. prolonged low RPM use.
Option B. over-temp with excessive centrifugal loads.
Option C. high back pressures.

QUE 43. Creep may occur to turbine blades due to.

Option A. prolonged low RPM use.
Option B. over-temp with excessive centrifugal loads.
Option C. high back pressures.

QUE 44. Forces driving the turbine are due to.

Option A. aerodynamic lift imposing impulse on blades.
Option B. momentum and directional acceleration of gases.
Option C. expansion of gases.

QUE 45. Impulse turbine blades run cooler than reaction blades because.
Option A. impulse spin faster radially.
Option B. temperature drop across N.G.V is greater.
Option C. converging rotors increase velocity.

QUE 46. An increase in turbine diameter is caused by.

Option A. prolonged high temperatures and centrifugal loads.
Option B. products of combustion.
Option C. over speed.

QUE 47. Which of the following is most likely to occur in the turbine section of a gas turbine engine?.
Option A. Pitting.
Option B. Galling.
Option C. Cracking.

QUE 48. Aluminium deposits on the turbine show up as.

Option A. white or silver speckles.
Option B. white powder traces.
Option C. black stains.
It also says titanium speckles are blue or gold.

QUE 49. An impulse/reaction turbine is designed to ensure.

Option A. greater axial velocity at the blade root.
Option B. uniform axial velocity from blade root to tip.
Option C. greater axial velocity at the blade tip.

QUE 50. Excessive turbine temperatures can lead to.

Option A. turbine blade creep and an increase in the diameter of the turbine.
Option B. not a serious problem as long as engine oil pressure is within limits.
Option C. a serious fire risk in the engine.

QUE 51. What are blue and golden deposits evidence of, on a turbine blade?.
Option A. Titanium.
Option B. Aluminium.
Option C. Magnesium.
Explanation. Aluminium and magnesium leave white powder deposits

QUE 52. Necking and mottling of turbine blades.

Option A. is due to thermal stress.
Option B. is formed during manufacture.
Option C. is due to bending when the gas hits the blades.

QUE 53. Impulse blades operate cooler than reaction blades because.
Option A. impulse blades rotate at higher speeds.
Option B. the N.G.V's cool the air.
Option C. the airflow has a higher velocity through a impulse turbine N.G.V.

QUE 54. During a borescope check of the H.P turbine blades.

Option A. dry motor the engine at minimum speed.
Option B. hand turn the turbine wheel.
Option C. attach a device to the accessory gearbox and rotate slowly.

QUE 55. The turbine section of a jet engine.

Option A. converts dynamic pressure into mechanical energy.
Option B. circulates air to cool the engine.
Option C. extracts heat energy to drive the compressor.

QUE 56. The temperature and centrifugal loads which the turbine is subjected to during normal engine
operation causes.
Option A. fatigue failure.
Option B. elastic stretching.
Option C. creep loading.

QUE 57. Impulse-reaction turbine blades form.

Option A. tip half reaction, root half Impulse.
Option B. 1 stage impulse, 1 stage reaction.
Option C. tip half Impulse, root half reaction.

QUE 58. A fir tree root.

Option A. allows compressor cooling air to alleviate thermal stress.
Option B. attaches turbine blades to the turbine disk.
Option C. allows individual turbine blades to be changed without engine disassembly.

QUE 59. The passage between adjacent nozzle guide vanes forms a.
Option A. convergent duct.
Option B. divergent duct.
Option C. parallel duct.

QUE 60. As the hot gasses flow through an impulse turbine blading, the velocity.
Option A. will decrease.
Option B. remains constant.
Option C. will increase.

QUE 61. What is the normal range of turbine efficiency?.

Option A. 90% - 95%.
Option B. 70% - 85%.
Option C. 30% - 40%.
Explanation. Rolls Royce The Jet Engine page 51 Para 11 refers to 92%.

QUE 62. Turbine engine components are never manufactured by.

Option A. electrical resistance welding.
Option B. argon arc welding.
Option C. gas welding.

QUE 63. How is a radial turbine driven?.

Option A. By impulse.
Option B. By change of momentum and angle of airflow.
Option C. By reaction.

QUE 64. Turbine disk growth is due to.

Option A. a permanent change in disk diameter.
Option B. an overall increase in blade length.
Option C. a build up of carbon deposits.

QUE 65. A nozzle guide vane is.

Option A. hollow in construction to allow for thermal expansion.
Option B. hollow in construction to allow for flow of cooling air.
Option C. solid in construction to support the guide vane.

QUE 66. A slow constant growth in a turbine blade is known as.

Option A. primary creep.
Option B. secondary creep.
Option C. tertiary creep.
15.7 Engine Exhaust.
QUE 1. The function of the exhaust cone assembly of a turbine engine is to.
Option A. swirl and collect the exhaust gases into a single exhaust jet.
Option B. collect the exhaust gases and act as a noise suppressor.
Option C. straighten and collect the exhaust gases into a solid exhaust jet.

QUE 2. A nozzle is 'choked' when the gas flow or air flow at the throat is.
Option A. sonic.
Option B. subsonic.
Option C. supersonic.

QUE 3. The struts on the exhaust cone.

Option A. straighten the gas flow only.
Option B. support the exhaust cone and straighten the gas flow.
Option C. support the exhaust cone only.

QUE 4. A nozzle is 'choked' when the engine inlet airflow is.

Option A. subsonic.
Option B. supersonic.
Option C. subsonic or supersonic.

QUE 5. What is the maximum practical angle through which the gas flow can be turned during thrust
reversal?.
Option A. 180°.
Option B. 50°.
Option C. 135°.

QUE 6. A supersonic duct is.

Option A. convergent then divergent along its length.
Option B. divergent then convergent along its length.
Option C. a convergent duct that is choked at the largest end at mach 1.

QUE 7. Noise from the jet wake when untreated by suppression is.
Option A. high frequency, high decibel.
Option B. low frequency, low decibel.
Option C. low frequency, high decibel.

QUE 8. Hot spots on the tail cone of a turbine engine are possible indicators of a malfunctioning fuel nozzle
or.
Option A. a faulty igniter plug.
Option B. an improperly positioned tail cone.
Option C. a faulty combustion chamber.

QUE 9. An exhaust cone placed aft of the turbine in a jet engine will cause the pressure in the first part of
the exhaust duct to.
Option A. increase and the velocity to decrease.
Option B. decrease and the velocity to increase.
Option C. increase and the velocity to increase.

QUE 10. A convergent-divergent nozzle.

Option A. requires the aircraft to be travelling at supersonic speeds.
Option B. makes maximum use of pressure thrust.
Option C. produces a type of thrust known as kinetic thrust.

QUE 11. The velocity of supersonic air as it flows through a divergent nozzle.
Option A. decreases.
Option B. increases.
Option C. is inversely proportional to the temperature.

QUE 12. The Jet Pipe of a gas turbine engine.

Option A. protects the airframe from heat damage.
Option B. has an inner cone to protect the rear turbine disc.
Option C. is convergent in shape to increase the velocity as much as possible.

QUE 13. For what purpose is the propelling nozzle of a gas turbine engine designed?.
Option A. To increase the velocity and decrease the pressure of the gas stream leaving the nozzle.
Option B. To decrease the velocity and increase the pressure of the gas stream leaving the nozzle.
Option C. To increase the velocity and pressure of the gas stream leaving the nozzle.

QUE 14. If the exit area of the nozzle was too large, the effect is.
Option A. exit velocity lower causing loss of thrust.
Option B. will choke at a lower gas temperature.
Option C. exit velocity lower, negligible effect on thrust.

QUE 15. A choked nozzle.

Option A. increases thrust.
Option B. decreases thrust.
Option C. has no effect on the thrust.

QUE 16. The exhaust section is designed to.

Option A. increase temperature, therefore increasing velocity.
Option B. decrease temperature, therefore decreasing pressure.
Option C. impart a high exit velocity to the exhaust gases.

QUE 17. Reverse thrust can only be selected when the throttle is.
Option A. closed.
Option B. 75% power position.
Option C. open.

QUE 18. A Convergent-Divergent nozzle.

Option A. makes maximum use of Pressure thrust.
Option B. produces a type of thrust known as kinetic thrust.
Option C. requires the aircraft to be travelling at supersonic speeds.
QUE 19. On front fan engines, to obtain thrust reversal, the.
Option A. hot and cold streams are reversed.
Option B. hot stream is reversed.
Option C. cold stream is reversed.

QUE 20. Exhaust noise can be reduced by.

Option A. lowering the vibration frequency.
Option B. increasing the mixing rate.
Option C. increasing the jet velocity.

QUE 21. Operating thrust reversers at low ground speeds can sometimes cause.
Option A. sand or other foreign object ingestion, hot gas re-ingestion.
Option B. hot gas re-ingestion, compressor stalls.
Option C. sand or other foreign object ingestion, hot gas re-ingestion, compressor stalls.

QUE 22. Thrust reversers utilizing a pneumatic actuating system, usually receive operating pressure from.
Option A. the engine bleed air system.
Option B. high pressure air reservoirs.
Option C. an on-board hydraulic or electrical powered compressor.

QUE 23. The purpose of cascade vanes in a thrust reversing system is to.
Option A. turn the exhaust gases forward just after exiting the exhaust nozzle.
Option B. form a solid blocking door in the jet exhaust path.
Option C. turn to a forward direction the fan and/or hot exhaust gases that have been blocked from
exiting through the exhaust nozzle.

QUE 24. A convergent exhaust nozzle produces mainly.

Option A. momentum and pressure thrust.
Option B. momentum thrust.
Option C. pressure thrust.

QUE 25. The rearward thrust capability of an engine with the thrust reverser system deployed is.
Option A. equal to or less than its forward capability, depending on ambient conditions and system design.
Option B. less than its forward capability.
Option C. equal to its forward capability.

QUE 26. Which statement is generally true regarding thrust reverser systems?.
Option A. Engine thrust reversers on the same aircraft usually will not operate independently of each other
(must all be simultaneously).
Option B. It is possible to move some aircraft backward on the ground using reverse thrust.
Option C. Mechanical blockage system design permits a deployment position aft of the exhaust nozzle only.

QUE 27. What is the proper operating sequence when using thrust reversers to slow an aircraft after
landing?.
Option A. Advance thrust levers up to takeoff position as conditions require, select thrust reverse, de-select
thrust reverser, retard thrust levers to ground idle.
Option B. Retard thrust levers to ground idle, raise thrust reverser levers as required, and retard thrust
reverser levers to ground idle.
Option C. Select thrust reverse, advance thrust reverser levers no higher than 75% N1, and retard thrust
reverser levers to idle at approximately normal taxi speed.

QUE 28. Most exhaust system failures result from thermal fatigue cracking in the areas of stress
concentration. This condition is usually caused by.
Option A. the high temperatures at which the exhaust system operates.
Option B. improper welding techniques during manufacture.
Option C. the drastic temperature change which is encountered at altitude.

QUE 29. Thrust reversal on a high bypass engine is achieved by.

Option A. blocker doors.
Option B. clamshell configuration.
Option C. bucket type doors.

QUE 30. If damage is found to the reverse thrust cascade vanes and they need replacing, you can.
Option A. replace damaged vanes with 45 degree vanes.
Option B. only replace vanes with new ones that have the correct part as the originals removed.
Option C. interchange the cascade vanes as they are interchangeable.

QUE 31. When should thrust reversers be used?.

Option A. At low RPM and low forward speed.
Option B. At high RPM and high forward speed.
Option C. At high RPM and low forward speed.

QUE 32. If the area of the nozzle was too large the effect is.
Option A. will 'choke' at mach 1.
Option B. exit velocity lower causing loss of the thrust.
Option C. exit velocity lower, negligible effect on thrust.

QUE 33. Lobe type exhaust noise suppressors are made from.
Option A. heat resistant alloy.
Option B. composite Material.
Option C. steel.

QUE 34. What indication does the pilot receive that thrust reversers have deployed?.
Option A. An audible warning.
Option B. A sequence of lights.
Option C. A feeling of rapid deceleration.
Explanation. Boeing 757/767 use the word 'rev' in amber for unlocked and green for deployed on the upper
EICAS screen.

QUE 35. What angle are the exhaust gasses turned through in a clamshell type thrust reverser?.
Option A. 180 degrees.
Option B. 135 degrees.
Option C. 45 degrees.

QUE 36. The purpose of a propelling nozzle is to.

Option A. increase the velocity of the air and increase thrust.
Option B. decrease the velocity of the exhaust to increase static pressure.
Option C. direct the air onto the turbines.

QUE 37. If a thrust reverser is deployed at lower than normal landing speed.
Option A. exhaust gases can be ingested into the engine.
Option B. the thrust reverser will be ineffective.
Option C. if the EGT gets too high the thrust reverser will automatically restow.

QUE 38. The size of the exhaust section is dictated by.

Option A. cone or diffuser size and location.
Option B. size of engine only.
Option C. size and location of the engine.

QUE 39. On a Clamshell door type thrust reverser. The Clamshell doors redirect the exhaust gas stream.
Option A. 0 degrees to the thrust line.
Option B. 45 degrees to the thrust line.
Option C. 90 degrees to the thrust line.

QUE 40. Normal gas turbine engine's exhaust duct is.

Option A. divergent.
Option B. convergent/divergent.
Option C. convergent.

QUE 41. As the air flows out at the outflow of a choked nozzle.
Option A. velocity increases and pressure decreases.
Option B. velocity and pressure decrease.
Option C. velocity decreases and pressure increases.
15.8 Bearings and Seals.
QUE 1. Main bearing oil seals used with turbine engines are usually what type(s)?.
Option A. Teflon and synthetic rubber.
Option B. Labyrinth and/or carbon rubbing.
Option C. Labyrinth and/or silicone rubber.

QUE 2. If, during inspection at engine overhaul, ball or roller bearings are found to have magnetism but
otherwise have no defects, they.
Option A. are in an acceptable service condition.
Option B. cannot be used again.
Option C. must be degaussed before use.

QUE 3. A carbon seal has which type of sealing arrangement?.

Option A. Full contact with race.
Option B. Full contact with casing.
Option C. Full contact with labyrinth.

QUE 4. The highest turbine bearing temperature takes place.

Option A. all the time.
Option B. at start-up.
Option C. at shut-down.

QUE 5. Indentations on bearing races caused by high static loads are known as.
Option A. fretting.
Option B. galling.
Option C. brinelling.

QUE 6. The function of a labyrinth seal is to create.

Option A. a restricted leakage of air between fixed and rotating components.
Option B. an airtight seal between fixed and rotation components.
Option C. an airtight seal between fixed adjacent casing surfaces.

QUE 7. The bearings of a compressor rotor are usually.

Option A. ball and roller.
Option B. plain.
Option C. sintered.

QUE 8. Bearing seal failure would most probably cause.

Option A. high oil temperature.
Option B. high oil consumption.
Option C. low oil pressure.

QUE 9. Why are oil seals pressurised?.

Option A. To ensure minimum oil loss.
Option B. To ensure oil is forced into the bearings.
Option C. To ensure that the oil is prevented from leaving the bearing housing.
QUE 10. What bearing is used to take axial loads on a main rotation shaft of a gas turbine engine?
Option A. Plain bearing.
Option B. Roller bearing.
Option C. Ball bearing.

QUE 11. Seals on a gas turbine engine restrict leakage of oil by.
Option A. spring pressure.
Option B. closely tolerated contacting components.
Option C. air pressure.

QUE 12. An abradable lining in the fan case.

Option A. prevents fan blade tip rub.
Option B. produces less leakage at tips for anti-ice.
Option C. provides acoustic medium.

QUE 13. Squeeze film bearings are usually found on.

Option A. H.P compressor section.
Option B. the turbine section.
Option C. LP compressor section.
Explanation. Squeeze film bearings utilise the oil film to dampen radial out of balance. The largest rotor is
normally going to have the largest out of balance. hence L.P compressor section is our best guess. No
reference can be found.

QUE 14. Taper roller bearings accept loads in which direction?

Option A. Axial loads only.
Option B. Radial and axial in both directions.
Option C. Radial and axial in one direction only.

QUE 15. Some labyrinth seals.

Option A. control the outflow of air at the turbine.
Option B. are self lubricating.
Option C. are spring loaded.

QUE 16. The purpose of 'squeeze film' type bearing is to.

Option A. increase the flow of oil to the rolling element.
Option B. minimise the effect of vibration.
Option C. improve outer race cooling.

QUE 17. In a jet engine the rotating assembly oil seals are maintained oil tight by means of.
Option A. a garter seal.
Option B. an annular expander ring.
Option C. air pressure.
15.9 Lubricants and Fuels.
QUE 1. Kerosene will burn effectively at an air/fuel ratio of.
Option A. 150:1.
Option B. 15:1.
Option C. 45:1.

QUE 2. When using Prist or Biopor.

Option A. it is left and burnt with the fuel.
Option B. it is diluted with water to a 3-1 mix.
Option C. it is flushed out immediately.

QUE 3. What is D.E.R.D 2494?.

Option A. Oil.
Option B. Wide cut gasoline.
Option C. Kerosene.

QUE 4. A high viscosity index means the oil viscosity.

Option A. will vary greatly with temperature change.
Option B. has a large index number.
Option C. will not vary greatly with temperature change.

QUE 5. A fuel system icing inhibitor is a fuel additive which.

Option A. prevents both the water and the fuel freezing.
Option B. prevents the fuel from freezing.
Option C. prevents the water in the fuel freezing.

QUE 6. What will be the result of operating an engine in extremely high temperatures using a lubricant
recommended by the manufacturer for a much lower temperature?.
Option A. The oil pressure will be lower than normal.
Option B. The oil temperature and oil pressure will be higher than normal.
Option C. The oil pressure will be higher than normal.

QUE 7. The time in seconds required for exactly 60 cubic centimeters of oil to flow through an accurately
calibrated orifice at a specific temperature is recorded as a measurement of the oil's.
Option A. specific gravity.
Option B. flash point.
Option C. viscosity.

QUE 8. Upon what quality or characteristic of a lubricating oil is its viscosity index based?.
Option A. Its rate of flow through an orifice at a standard temperature.
Option B. Its rate of change in viscosity with temperature change.
Option C. Its resistance to flow at a standard temperature as compared to high grade paraffin base oil at the
same temperature.

QUE 9. Compared to reciprocating engine oils, the types of oils used in turbine engines.
Option A. are required to carry and disperse a higher level of combustion by-products.
Option B. have less tendency to produce lacquer or coke.
Option C. may permit a somewhat higher level of carbon formation in the engine.

QUE 10. If all other requirements can be met, what type of oil should be used to achieve theoretically
perfect engine lubrication?.
Option A. An oil that combines high viscosity and low demulsibility.
Option B. The thinnest oil that will stay in place and maintain a reasonable film strength.
Option C. An oil that combines a low viscosity index and a high neutralization number.

QUE 11. In addition to lubricating (reducing friction between moving parts), engine oil performs what
functions?.
Option A. Cools, seals, prevents corrosion.
Option B. Cools, seals, prevents corrosion, cushions shock loads.
Option C. Cools and seals.

QUE 12. The viscosity of a liquid is a measure of its.

Option A. weight, or density.
Option B. rate of change of internal friction with change in temperature.
Option C. resistance to flow.

QUE 13. Which of the following factors helps determine the proper grade of oil to use in a particular
engine?.
Option A. Adequate lubrication in various attitudes of flight.
Option B. Operating speeds of bearings.
Option C. Positive introduction of oil to the bearings.

QUE 14. Specific gravity is a comparison of the weight of a substance to the weight of an equal volume of.
Option A. oil at a specific temperature.
Option B. mercury at a specific temperature.
Option C. distilled water at a specific temperature.

QUE 15. What advantage do mineral base lubricants have over vegetable oil base lubricants when used in
aircraft engines?.
Option A. Cooling ability.
Option B. Chemical stability.
Option C. Friction resistance.

QUE 16. High tooth pressures and high rubbing velocities, such as occur with spur type gears, require the
use of.
Option A. an E.P lubricant.
Option B. metallic ash detergent oil.
Option C. straight mineral oil.

QUE 17. Which of these characteristics is desirable in turbine engine oil?.

Option A. High volatility.
Option B. High flash point.
Option C. Low flash point.
QUE 18. What action is taken to protect integral fuel tanks from corrosion due to micro biological
contamination?.
Option A. Rubber liners are installed in the tank.
Option B. A biocidal additive is added to the fuel.
Option C. The inside of the tank is coated with yellow chromate.

QUE 19. What should be checked/changed to ensure the validity of a turbine engine performance check if
an alternate fuel is to be used?.
Option A. Maximum RPM adjustment.
Option B. Fuel specific gravity setting.
Option C. EPR gauge calibration.

QUE 20. Kerosene is used as turbine engine fuel because.

Option A. kerosene has more heat energy per gallon and lubricates fuel system components.
Option B. kerosene has very high volatility which aids in ignition and lubrication.
Option C. kerosene does not contain any water.

QUE 21. Calorific value is the.

Option A. amount of heat or energy in one pound of fuel.
Option B. vaporisation point of fuel.
Option C. fuel boiling temperature.

QUE 22. The specific gravity of fuel affects.

Option A. thrust rating.
Option B. aircraft range.
Option C. engine efficiency.

QUE 23. Oil used in a gas turbine engine is usually.

Option A. mineral.
Option B. natural.
Option C. synthetic.

QUE 24. An oil spectroscope measures.

Option A. contaminants suspended in the oil.
Option B. S.G. of the oil.
Option C. contaminants in the surface of the oil.

QUE 25. Ignition of fuel depends upon.

Option A. volatility.
Option B. atomisation.
Option C. both volatility and atomisation.

QUE 26. Kerosene is used instead of gasoline because.

Option A. kerosene is highly volatile and has good lubrication qualities.
Option B. Kerosene is less volatile and has good lubrication properties.
Option C. kerosene has a higher volatility than gasoline and has good lubrication abilities.

QUE 27. If the specific gravity of a fuel is increased, the weight of a tank of fuel will.
Option A. decrease.
Option B. remain the same.
Option C. increase.

QUE 28. Reid vapour pressure, is the vapour pressure exerted by a fuel when heated to.
Option A. 38°C.
Option B. 48°C.
Option C. 15°C.
15.10 Lubrication Systems.
QUE 1. The oil pressure in the cooler is.
Option A. same as the fuel pressure.
Option B. lower than the fuel pressure.
Option C. higher than the fuel pressure.

QUE 2. When rotating, the gear type oil pump.

Option A. draws oil into the pump and carries it round between the gear teeth and casing.
Option B. draws oil into the pump and through the intermeshing gears to the outlet.
Option C. draws oil into the pump, half being carried around between pump and casing, the other half
passing between the gears to the outlet.

QUE 3. A scavenge filter is incorporated in a gas turbine lubrication system to.

Option A. protect the scavenge pump.
Option B. protect the oil cooler.
Option C. protect the pressure pump.

QUE 4. The working fluid of a constant speed drive (C.S.D) is.

Option A. from separate tank.
Option B. within the unit.
Option C. taken from the engine lubrication system.

QUE 5. What is the possible cause when a turbine engine indicates no change in power setting parameters,
but oil temperature is high?.
Option A. High scavenge pump oil flow.
Option B. Turbine damage and/or loss of turbine efficiency.
Option C. Engine main bearing distress.

QUE 6. How is engine oil usually cooled?.

Option A. By a fuel/oil cooler.
Option B. By ram air.
Option C. By bleed air.

QUE 7. What filters are used to protect oil pressure spray jets?.
Option A. Felt/paper filters.
Option B. In-line thread filters.
Option C. Micronic filters.
Explanation. thread type filters are used as last chance filters.

QUE 8. The chip detector in the oil system is a.

Option A. window in the pump casing.
Option B. window in the oil pump.
Option C. magnetic plug in the return line.
QUE 9. When rotating, the gyroter (gerotor) type oil pump.
Option A. oil is drawn into the pump and through the intermeshing gears to the outlet.
Option B. oil is drawn into the pump, half being carried around between pump and casing, the other half
passing between the gears to the outlet.
Option C. draws oil into the pump and carries it round between the gear teeth and casing.

QUE 10. Oil picks up the most heat from which of the following turbine engine components?.
Option A. Compressor bearing.
Option B. Rotor coupling.
Option C. Turbine bearing.

QUE 11. In a jet engine which uses a fuel oil heat exchanger, the oil temperature is controlled by a
thermostatic valve that regulates the flow of.
Option A. both fuel and oil through the heat exchanger.
Option B. oil through the heat exchanger.
Option C. fuel through the heat exchanger.

QUE 12. What is the purpose of the last chance oil filters?
Option A. To filter the oil immediately before it enters the main bearings.
Option B. To assure a clean supply of oil to the lubrication system.
Option C. To prevent damage to the oil spray nozzle.

QUE 13. Which of the following is a function of the fuel oil heat exchanger on a turbojet engine?
Option A. Aerates the fuel.
Option B. Emulsifies the oil.
Option C. Increases fuel temperature.

QUE 14. At cruise RPM, some oil will flow through the relief valve of a gear type engine oil pump. This is
normal as the relief valve is set at a pressure which is.
Option A. higher than pressure pump capabilities.
Option B. lower than the pressure pump capabilities.
Option C. lower than the pump inlet pressure.

QUE 15. What will happen to the return oil if the oil line between the scavenger pump and the oil cooler
separates?.
Option A. Oil will accumulate in the engine.
Option B. The scavenger return line check valve will close and force the oil to bypass directly to the intake
side of the pressure pump.
Option C. The return oil will be pumped overboard.

QUE 16. The oil dampened main bearing utilized in some turbine engines is used to.
Option A. dampen surges in oil pressure to the bearings.
Option B. provide lubrication of bearings from the beginning of starting rotation until normal oil pressure is
established.
Option C. provide an oil film between the outer race and the bearing housing in order to reduce vibration
tendencies in the rotor system, and to allow for slight misalignment.
QUE 17. After making a welded repair to a pressurized type turbine engine oil tank, the tank should be
pressure checked to.
Option A. not less than 5 PSI plus the maximum operating pressure of the tank.
Option B. not less than 5 PSI plus the average operating pressure of the tank.
Option C. 5 PSI.

QUE 18. Possible failure related ferrous metal particles in turbine engine oil cause an (electrical) indicating
type magnetic chip detector to indicate their presence by.
Option A. bridging the gap between the detector center (positive) electrode and the ground electrode.
Option B. generating a small electric current that is caused by the particles being in contact with the
dissimilar metal of the detector tip.
Option C. disturbing the magnetic lines of flux around the detector tip.

QUE 19. What would be the probable result if the oil system pressure relief valve should stick in the open
position on a turbine engine?.
Option A. Increased oil pressure.
Option B. Decreased oil temperature.
Option C. Insufficient lubrication.

QUE 20. What is the primary purpose of the oil to fuel heat exchanger?.
Option A. De aerate the oil.
Option B. Cool the oil.
Option C. Cool the fuel.

QUE 21. Low oil pressure can be detrimental to the internal engine components. However, high oil
pressure.
Option A. has a negligible effect.
Option B. will not occur because of pressure losses around the bearings.
Option C. should be limited to the engine manufacturer's recommendations.

QUE 22. What is the primary purpose of the oil breather pressurization system that is used on turbine
engines?.
Option A. Prevents foaming of the oil.
Option B. Allows aeration of the oil for better lubrication because of the air/oil mist.
Option C. Provides a proper oil spray pattern from the main bearing oil jets.

QUE 23. What type of oil system is usually found on turbine engines?.
Option A. Dry sump, dip, and splash.
Option B. Dry sump, pressure, and spray.
Option C. Wet sump, spray, and splash.

QUE 24. How are the teeth of the gears in the accessory section of an engine normally lubricated?.
Option A. By surrounding the load bearing portions with baffles or housings within which oil pressure can be
maintained.
Option B. By splashed or sprayed oil.
Option C. By submerging the load bearing portions in oil.

QUE 25. Manufacturers normally require turbine engine oil servicing within a short time after engine
shutdown primarily to.
Option A. prevent over servicing.
Option B. help dilute and neutralize any contaminants that may already be present in the engine's oil system.
Option C. provide a better indication of any oil leaks in the system.

QUE 26. In order to relieve excessive pump pressure in an engine's internal oil system, most engines are
equipped with a.
Option A. vent.
Option B. relief valve.
Option C. bypass valve.

QUE 27. The type of oil pumps most commonly used on turbine engines are classified as.
Option A. positive displacement.
Option B. constant speed.
Option C. variable displacement.

QUE 28. If the oil in the oil cooler core and annular jacket becomes congealed, what unit prevents damage
to the cooler?.
Option A. Oil pressure relief valve.
Option B. Airflow control valve.
Option C. Surge protection valve.

QUE 29. What will result if an oil filter becomes completely blocked?.
Option A. Oil flow to the engine will stop.
Option B. Oil will flow at the normal rate through the system.
Option C. Oil will flow at a reduced rate through the system.

QUE 30. A turbine engine dry sump lubrication system of the self contained, high pressure design.
Option A. stores oil in the engine crankcase.
Option B. has no heat exchanger.
Option C. consists of pressure, breather, and scavenge subsystems.

QUE 31. What is the primary purpose of the hopper located in the oil supply tank of some dry sump engine
installations?.
Option A. To reduce the time required to warm the oil to operating temperatures.
Option B. To impart a centrifugal motion to the oil entering the tank so that the foreign particles in the oil
will separate more readily.
Option C. To reduce surface aeration of the hot oil and thus reduce oxidation and the formation of sludge
and varnish.

QUE 32. What determines the minimum particle size which will be excluded or filtered by a cuno type
(stacked disc, edge filtration) filter?.
Option A. Both the number and thickness of the discs in the assembly.
Option B. The spacer thickness.
Option C. The disc thickness.

QUE 33. A full flow oil system has.

Option A. a single fixed minimum oil pressure.
Option B. a variable oil pressure dependant upon throttle setting.
Option C. a hot and cold oil pressure limit.
QUE 34. A felt filter in an oil lubrication system should be.
Option A. removed and cleaned in M.E.K.
Option B. removed and replaced with a new filter element.
Option C. removed and cleaned in a container of lead free petrol.

QUE 35. What filter is used in a oil scavenge pump in the inlet side of the pump?.
Option A. Wire wound filter.
Option B. Threaded filter.
Option C. Wire mesh filter.
Explanation. coarse strainer fatted to the inlet of oil pumps. Wire mesh is considered to be the same thing.

QUE 36. A vane type oil pump output is controlled by.

Option A. outlet pressure against spring pressure.
Option B. outlet pressure controlling servo.
Option C. output pressure controlling plate angle.

QUE 37. The sump in a dry sump oil system.

Option A. is used as a collecting point only.
Option B. houses all the engine oil.
Option C. provides lubrication for the main bearings.

QUE 38. A jet engine gear box breather is prevented from leaking oil to atmosphere by the action of.
Option A. air or oil valve.
Option B. oil thrower ring and centrifugal force.
Option C. impeller and centrifugal force.

QUE 39. The air-cooled-oil-cooler has an anti-surge valve in order to.

Option A. protect the cooler.
Option B. restrict the engine max oil pressure.
Option C. stop oil draining from the system when the cooler is removed.

QUE 40. A thread type oil seal in a lubrication system.

Option A. screws oil back into the bearing sump when the shaft rotates
Option B. has a thread on a stationary portion to prevent fluid leaks.
Option C. only seals when stationary.

QUE 41. The oil system generally used on most modern turboprop engines is.
Option A. dry sump type.
Option B. wet sump type.
Option C. A low pressure system.

QUE 42. A spur gear pump operating in a lubrication system promotes.

Option A. high flow at low pressure.
Option B. low flow at low pressure.
Option C. low flow at high pressure.

QUE 43. Last chance' filters in a lubrication system are serviced during.
Option A. line maintenance.
Option B. routine oil change.
Option C. engine overhaul.

QUE 44. The identification of a lubrication fluid line is the word 'lubrication'.
Option A. followed by a caution.
Option B. followed by squares.
Option C. followed by circles.
15.11 Fuel Systems.
QUE 1. If the swash plate of a positive displacement swash plate pump is perpendicular to the axis of the
pump, the flow will be.
Option A. reversed.
Option B. zero.
Option C. maximum.

QUE 2. What moves the swash plate away from the minimum stroke position?.
Option A. Reduced inlet pressure.
Option B. A spring.
Option C. Increased servo pressure.

QUE 3. The burner fuel flow is at maximum at.

Option A. 10°Centigrade above I.S.A. sea level.
Option B. I.S.A. sea level.
Option C. altitude.

QUE 4. How is servo pressure, which is used to control fuel pump 'Swash Plate' angle obtained?.
Option A. From pump delivery pressure through variable restrictions.
Option B. From pump delivery pressure through fixed restrictions.
Option C. From pump inlet pressure through fixed restrictions.

QUE 5. What would be the effect on the engine if the B.P.C half ball valve in the servo line sticks open?.
Option A. A reduction of fuel flow, therefore a decrease in RPM .
Option B. The B.P.C would be ineffective at sea level only.
Option C. An increase of fuel flow, therefore an increase in RPM .

QUE 6. Why is an A.C.U fitted to a gas turbine engine?.

Option A. It increases the rate of acceleration of the engine.
Option B. It controls the operation of the metering block during sudden acceleration.
Option C. It limits the rate of increase in fuel flow during sudden acceleration.

QUE 7. If fuel pump servo pressure is reduced, pump output will.

Option A. increase.
Option B. decrease.
Option C. remain constant.

QUE 8. Why is the B.P.C fitted in a gas turbine engine fuel system?.
Option A. To vary pressure pump output in relation to the pressure variation at the intake.
Option B. To proportion the fuel flow between primary and main burner lines.
Option C. To decrease the fuel flow to the burners with increased air intake pressure.

QUE 9. What must be done after the fuel control unit has been replaced on an aircraft gas turbine engine?.
Option A. You must recalibrate the fuel nozzles.
Option B. You must retrim the engine.
Option C. You must perform a full power engine run to check fuel flow.
QUE 10. A kinetic valve is a device used to control H.P pump output. This is achieved by movement of a.
Option A. needle valve.
Option B. diaphragm and half ball valve.
Option C. knife blade.

QUE 11. Specific fuel consumption at altitude will.

Option A. decrease.
Option B. remain constant.
Option C. increase.

QUE 12. During any stabilised running condition, the spill or half ball valve is.
Option A. lightly seated.
Option B. closed fully.
Option C. open fully.

QUE 13. What is the purpose of the attenuator fitted between the H.P fuel pump and the B.P.C in a fuel
system?.
Option A. It restricts the pressure feed top the B.P.C.
Option B. It ensures a supply of fuel free from foreign matter to the BC half ball valve.
Option C. It damps out pulsations in the fuel delivery to the B.P.C.

QUE 14. Why is the hydromechanical governor fitted to a gas turbine engine fuel pump?.
Option A. To enable the engine to operate over a wide range of fuel SGs.
Option B. To enable efficient control of fuel flow to be maintained at altitude.
Option C. To enable the engine to operate over a wide range of fuel flow.

QUE 15. A barometric Pressure Controller controls.

Option A. barometric pressure.
Option B. fuel flow to suit atmospheric pressure changes.
Option C. fuel tank pressure at altitude.

QUE 16. Kinetic valves are used because.

Option A. they are less likely to leak.
Option B. they are more sensitive.
Option C. they are not subjected to wear.

QUE 17. When considering a centrifugal type engine speed governor, an increase in fuel S.G. will cause.
Option A. no change in maximum RPM .
Option B. an increase in maximum RPM .
Option C. a reduction in maximum RPM .

QUE 18. On a FADEC engine.

Option A. A channel uses control alternator and B channel uses aircraft bus power.
Option B. A channel uses a separate winding of the control alternator to B channel.
Option C. A and B channel use the same phases of the motor.

QUE 19. Normal fuel/air ratio for successful combustion is.

Option A. 15:1.
Option B. 25:1.
Option C. 10:1.

QUE 20. Which of the following influences the operation of an automatic fuel control unit on a turbojet
engine?.
Option A. Exhaust gas temperature.
Option B. Mixture control position.
Option C. Burner pressure.

QUE 21. What is the purpose of the L.P. pump?.

Option A. To ensure rapid acceleration when the throttle is opened.
Option B. To prevent cavitation of the H.P Fuel pump.
Option C. To ensure the engine will continue to run if the H.P. fuel pump fails.

QUE 22. The fuel pump plungers are lubricated by.

Option A. synthetic anti-freeze oil.
Option B. grease packed bearings.
Option C. the Fuel.

QUE 23. Which forces control the maximum RPM governor in a non-hydromechanical swashplate type of
pump?.
Option A. Rotor centrifugal pressure opposed to tension spring loading.
Option B. Rotor centrifugal pressure plus tension spring loading opposed to pump delivery pressure.
Option C. Rotor centrifugal pressure plus tension spring loading opposed to pump inlet pressure.

QUE 24. Why do the holes in the body of the duple burner provide air to the shroud around the burner
head?
Option A. To reduce burner temperature.
Option B. To assist atomisation of the fuel at slow running.
Option C. To minimise carbon formation on the burner face.

QUE 25. A fuel heater prevents.

Option A. Neither.
Option B. LP filter icing.
Option C. H.P filter icing.

QUE 26. On a FADEC engine the E.E.C.

Option A. has electronic control of the hydro-mechanical fuel control in some modes.
Option B. has mechanical control of the hydro-mechanical fuel control system.
Option C. has electronic control of the hydro-mechanical fuel control unit in all modes.

QUE 27. During normal running conditions, combustion is.

Option A. continuously supported by ignition.
Option B. self supporting.
Option C. intermittently supported by ignition.

QUE 28. On a FADEC engine, the channel reset.

Option A. always selects A channel.
Option B. selects B channel.
Option C. selects standby which becomes active on the next start.
QUE 29. With a decrease in fuel SG, what is the result when the engine is fitted with an uncompensated
fuel governor?.
Option A. No effect.
Option B. Maximum RPM decrease.
Option C. Maximum RPM increase.

QUE 30. The maximum RPM of a turbine engine is limited by.

Option A. a temperature sensitive device which reduces the fuel pump speed.
Option B. diversion of some of the fuel pump outlet flow by a spill valve sensitive to burner fuel pressure.
Option C. reduction of the fuel pump stroke by a spill valve sensitive to centrifugally generated fuel
pressure.

QUE 31. To what condition does the fuel flow respond during aircraft acceleration?.
Option A. Mass airflow rate through the engine.
Option B. The effect of 'ram-air' at altitude.
Option C. The change in pressure at the compressor intake.

QUE 32. During acceleration, the fuel flow is increased at a controlled rate in order to.
Option A. prevent fuel pump damage.
Option B. increase s.f.c.
Option C. prevent surge and the risk of flame-out.

QUE 33. The B.P.C controls the F.C.U by.

Option A. pressure sensing.
Option B. temperature sensing.
Option C. density sensing.

QUE 34. If the swash plate of a positive displacement swash plate pump is perpendicular to the axis of the
pump, the flow will be.
Option A. zero.
Option B. reversed.
Option C. maximum.

QUE 35. The burner fuel flow is at maximum at.

Option A. altitude.
Option B. 10°Centigrade above I.S.A. sea level.
Option C. I.S.A. sea level.

QUE 36. The type of fuel control unit most commonly used in modern jet engines is.
Option A. mechanical.
Option B. hydro-mechanical.
Option C. electrical.

QUE 37. How is servo pressure, which is used to control fuel pump swash plate angle, obtained?.
Option A. From pump inlet pressure through fixed restrictions.
Option B. From pump delivery pressure through fixed restrictions.
Option C. From pump delivery pressure through variable restrictions.
QUE 38. Why is the Barometric Pressure Control fitted in a turboshaft engine fuel system?.
Option A. To proportion the fuel flow between primary and main burner lines.
Option B. To vary pressure pump output in relation to the pressure variation at the intake.
Option C. To decrease the fuel flow to the burners with increased air intake pressure.

QUE 39. During any stabilised running condition, the spill or half ball valve is.
Option A. always varying between fully closed and fully seated.
Option B. lightly seated.
Option C. open fully.

QUE 40. The swash plate in a fuel pump, when static is.
Option A. at some intermediate position.
Option B. in the minimum position.
Option C. in the maximum position.

QUE 41. A kinetic valve is a device used to control H.P pump output. This is achieved by movement of a.
Option A. diaphragm and half ball valve.
Option B. knife blade. (kinetic)
Option C. needle valve.

QUE 42. Why is it necessary to control fuel supply to the engine during rapid acceleration?.
Option A. To prevent compressor stall above cruise RPM .
Option B. To control maximum RPM .
Option C. To prevent excessively high EGT and possible compressor surge.

QUE 43. Which component corrects for air density effects on fuel/air mixture in a gas turbine engine?.
Option A. The barometric pressure control unit.
Option B. The adjustable throttle valve.
Option C. The pressurising valve.

QUE 44. Why is the high pressure fuel pump fitted in a gas turbine engine aircraft?.
Option A. To maintain a vapour free pressure from the aircraft fuel tanks to the LP fuel pump.
Option B. As an emergency in case of failure of the LP pump.
Option C. To provide the majority of the fuel pressure to the engine.

QUE 45. What are the positions of the pressurization valve and the dump valve in a jet engine fuel system
when the engine is shut down?.
Option A. Pressurization valve open, dump valve open.
Option B. Pressurization valve closed, dump valve open.
Option C. Pressurization valve closed, dump valve closed.

QUE 46. The density of air is very important when mixing fuel and air to obtain a correct fuel to air ratio.
Which of the following weighs the most?.
Option A. 75 parts of dry air and 25 parts of water vapor.
Option B. 100 parts of dry air.
Option C. 50 parts of dry air and 50 parts of water vapor.
QUE 47. A mixture ratio of 11:1 normally refers to.
Option A. 1 part air to 11 parts fuel.
Option B. a stoichiometric mixture.
Option C. 1 part fuel to 11 parts air.

QUE 48. For what primary purpose is a turbine engine fuel control unit trimmed?.
Option A. To obtain maximum thrust output when desired.
Option B. To properly position the power levers.
Option C. To adjust the idle RPM .

QUE 49. Which type of fuel control is used on most of today's turbine engines?.
Option A. Hydromechanical or electronic.
Option B. Mechanical.
Option C. Electronic.

QUE 50. Under which of the following conditions will the trimming of a turbine engine be most accurate?.
Option A. No wind and low moisture.
Option B. High moisture and low wind.
Option C. High wind and high moisture.

QUE 51. An H.M.U receives its signals from.

Option A. E.E.C.
Option B. ADC.
Option C. thrust lever resolvers.

QUE 52. In order to stabilize cams, springs, and linkages within the fuel control, manufacturers generally
recommend that all final turbine engine trim adjustments be made in the.
Option A. decrease direction.
Option B. increase direction.
Option C. decrease direction after over-adjustment.

QUE 53. When trimming a turbine engine, the fuel control is adjusted to.
Option A. set idle RPM and maximum speed or E.P.R.
Option B. produce as much power as the engine is capable of producing.
Option C. allow the engine to produce maximum RPM without regard to power output.

QUE 54. A supervisory electronic engine control (E.E.C) is a system that receives engine operating
information and.
Option A. controls engine operation according to ambient temperature, pressure, and humidity.
Option B. adjusts a standard hydromechanical fuel control unit to obtain the most effective engine
operation.
Option C. develops the commands to various actuators to control engine parameters.

QUE 55. In a FADEC system, active control switchover occurs.

Option A. when channels A and B are healthy.
Option B. on shutdown.
Option C. on engine start up only.
QUE 56. What causes the fuel divider valve to open in a turbine engine duplex fuel nozzle?.
Option A. An electrically operated solenoid.
Option B. Bleed air after the engine reaches idle RPM .
Option C. Fuel pressure.

QUE 57. The valve on a vane type fuel flow measuring device becomes stuck. What safety backup is
available for the engine fuel flow?.
Option A. A differential pressure bypass valve.
Option B. A bypass valve.
Option C. A fuel bleed valve.

QUE 58. What are the principal advantages of the duplex fuel nozzle used in many turbine engines?
Option A. Allows a wider range of fuels and filters to be used.
Option B. Restricts the amount of fuel flow to a level where more efficient and complete burning of the fuel
is achieved.
Option C. Provides better atomization and uniform flow pattern.

QUE 59. What is the purpose of the flow divider in a turbine engine duplex fuel nozzle?.
Option A. Allows an alternate flow of fuel if the primary flow clogs or is restricted.
Option B. Provides a flow path for bleed air which aids in the atomization of fuel.
Option C. Creates the Primary and Secondary fuel supplies.

QUE 60. Which of the following turbine fuel filters has the greatest filtering action?.
Option A. Stacked charcoal.
Option B. Small wire mesh.
Option C. Micron.

QUE 61. Where is the engine fuel shutoff valve usually located?.
Option A. Aft of the firewall.
Option B. Adjacent to the fuel pump.
Option C. Downstream of the engine driven fuel pump.

QUE 62. Supervisory E.E.C sends its output to the.

Option A. fuel valve.
Option B. H.M.U/F.F.G.
Option C. EGT thermocouple circuit.

QUE 63. If a FADEC loses its ADC input. In the short term it will.
Option A. go to limit protection mode.
Option B. go into hard reversion.
Option C. go into soft reversion.

QUE 64. The primary purpose of an E.E.C is.

Option A. to change analogue inputs into digital format to provide glass cockpit information and reduce flight
crew workload.
Option B. to save fuel, reduce crew workload and reduce maintenance costs.
Option C. to change analogue inputs into digital format to reduce flight crew workload and provide
maintenance information.
QUE 65. When both FADEC channels are healthy they will alternate.
Option A. as selected on the flight deck.
Option B. when one channel fails.
Option C. on each engine start.

QUE 66. The purpose of the LP fuel pump is to.

Option A. ensure the H.P fuel pump does not cavitate.
Option B. pump fuel from the aircraft fuel tanks to the engine.
Option C. ensure the fuel flow governor gets enough fuel.
Maintains about 40 psi to the inlet of the H.P Pump.

QUE 67. In a FADEC system, what is the result of Channel A failing to receive information from a sensor?.
Option A. Channel A will take the information from the backup sensor.
Option B. Channel A will take the information from channel B.
Option C. Channel B will assume control.

QUE 68. In a FADEC engine with a hydromechanical fuel system, how is fuel flow controlled?.
Option A. By oil hydraulics.
Option B. By fuel pressure.
Option C. By electro-hydraulic servo valves (E.H.S.Vs).

QUE 69. On the approach.

Option A. RPM should be above the minimum idle for maximum acceleration.
Option B. RPM should be high.
Option C. RPM should be lower than minimum for maximum acceleration.
Explanation. A high (or flight) idle setting is used for maximum acceleration in the event of overshoot.

QUE 70. The air data inputs to the FADEC E.C.U fails. The result will be:.
Option A. a lack of flight data.
Option B. the E.C.U reverts to the fail-safe mode.
Option C. uncorrected data from hard wired analogue sensors is utilised.

QUE 71. A FADEC system consists of.

Option A. H.M.U, A.D.C and sensors.
Option B. E.E.C, A.D.C and sensors.
Option C. H.M.U, sensors and an E.E.C.

QUE 72. A fuel heater prevents.

Option A. entrained water in fuel freezing.
Option B. LP fuel filter icing.
Option C. pipelines freezing.

QUE 73. When re-light is required in flight on a FADEC engine, the pilot selects.
Option A. one igniter.
Option B. igniter selected automatically.
Option C. both igniters.

QUE 74. The position of fuel heater in fuel system is.

Option A. between the fuel control unit and the burner manifold.
Option B. after the LP fuel filter and before the H.P pump.
Option C. before the LP fuel filter.

QUE 75. The E.E.C receives its primary power from.

Option A. 115V AC emergency BUS.
Option B. separate permanent magnet alternator.
Option C. 115V AC main BUS.
Explanation. Jeppesen Aircraft Gas Turbine Powerplant page 7-22 refers. note that answers a and b are back
up power supplies.

QUE 76. The fuel trimmer on a turbo-prop engine is operated.

Option A. manually, to prevent high EGT due to altitude increase.
Option B. automatically controlled in conjunction with FCU.
Option C. manually to prevent excessive RPM at high altitude.

QUE 77. The main advantage of FADEC is.

Option A. it has electrical control of hydro mechanical unit in all modes.
Option B. efficiency is always maximum.
Option C. it changes T.L.A to most efficient E.P.R rating.

QUE 78. Inlet side of a fuel pump has a.

Option A. threaded micron filter.
Option B. wire mesh filter.
Option C. wire wound filter.

QUE 79. When a throttle is selected to increase power, the pressure drop across the Fuel Control Unit
throttle orifice.
Option A. increases then decreases due to decreasing pump output.
Option B. drops then increases due to increasing pump output.
Option C. remains the same.

QUE 80. When the E.E.C supervisory circuit senses a fault on the engine, the fault annunciator
light will be on and the E.E.C will.
Option A. remove fuel, down trimming signal only when E.E.C switch selected off.
Option B. remove fuel, down trimming signal immediately.
Option C. remove fuel, down trimming signal only after landing.

QUE 81. In-Flight the engine E.E.C controls.

Option A. EGT.
Option B. throttle position.
Option C. fuel flow.

QUE 82. A FADEC does not have which of the following?.

Option A. Control of thrust reverser operation.
Option B. An automatic starting capability.
Option C. Automatic control of engine fire bottles.

QUE 83. A FADEC consists of.

Option A. Electronic controls, sensors and an H.M.U.
Option B. Electronic control and throttle position transmitter.
Option C. Electronic control only.

QUE 84. During aerobatic manoeuvres, what prevents fuel from spilling out of fuel tank vents?.
Option A. Booster pump differential pressure.
Option B. Baffle plates in tanks.
Option C. Float operated valves.

QUE 85. After a bag tank replacement, where would you disconnect the system to carry out the flow
checks?.
Option A. At the engine.
Option B. At tank outlet.
Option C. Tank isolation cock.

QUE 86. What is the purpose of a silver strip on a fuel filter?.

Option A. To detect excess metal.
Option B. To detect sulphur in fuel.
Option C. To strain oil for contamination.

QUE 87. The basic concept of an H.P fuel control is.

Option A. automatic adjustment of the fuel control unit by preventing excess fuel reaching the burners.
Option B. the bleeding of excess fuel back to the input of the H.P pump swash plate piston.
Option C. constant adjustment of the swash plate angle of the H.P fuel pump.

QUE 88. To prevent compressor surge and overheating of the combustion chamber due to over fuelling.
Option A. a barometric unit is fitted.
Option B. a throttle unit is fitted.
Option C. an acceleration control unit is fitted.

QUE 89. When FADEC is in normal mode.

Option A. channel A or B will be in command.
Option B. channel A will be in command.
Option C. channel B will be in command.

QUE 90. Out of the following thrust lever resolver angles, which one is the forward idle setting?.
Option A. 5 degrees.
Option B. 85 degrees.
Option C. 40 degrees.
T.L.A of 0 degrees will be max reverse, and 85 will be max forward therefore 40 is the idle figureure.

QUE 91. Trimming is a term applied to adjusting the.

Option A. idle speed and maximum thrust.
Option B. fuel specific gravity.
Option C. part trim stop.

QUE 92. Fuel boost pumps are cooled using.

Option A. ram air.
Option B. Fuel pumps do not require cooling.
Option C. fuel.
QUE 93. A fuel trimmer unit is adjusted at altitude.
Option A. automatically, via a fuel trim unit.
Option B. manually to compensate for propeller torque.
Option C. manually to compensate for EGT change.

QUE 94. Baffles in a rigid fuel tank.

Option A. help prevent micro-biological corrosion.
Option B. strengthen the tank structure.
Option C. prevent surge.

QUE 95. In a FADEC system, what does the E.E.C measure along with RPM ?.
Option A. Pressure and Temperature.
Option B. Pressure.
Option C. Temperature.
Normally the E.E.C reads as a minimum To Po Ps3 and T25.

QUE 96. In a FADEC system, how are the power supply windings for channel A and Channel B wound?.
Option A. Two independent generators.
Option B. On one generator with 2 separate windings.
Option C. One generator and one winding.
Correct Answer is. On one generator with 2 separate windings.
There may also be a third winding that is used to indicate H.P RPM (H.P tachometer) within the same
housing.

QUE 97. If an Engine FADEC system loses air-data permanently, the pilot will.
Option A. turn that E.E.C Off.
Option B. select alternate pitot static.
Option C. switch to Alt on the relevant E.E.C.
By switching to Alternate mode manually the E.E.C uses cornerstone Pamb and Tamb.

QUE 98. A FADEC system takes measurements from Engine Speed,.

Option A. Temperature and Pressure.
Option B. and Temperature.
Option C. and Pressure.

QUE 99. Main purpose of the fuel boost pumps is to provide.

Option A. emergency dump jettison.
Option B. cross-feed fuel from one tank to another.
Option C. fuel pressure to both engine pumps.

QUE 100. The swash plate in the fuel pump of an axial flow gas turbine engine is controlled by.
Option A. servo hydraulic pressure.
Option B. electrical servo control.
Option C. servo fuel pressure.

QUE 101. The end fittings on a fuel non-return valve are normally of different sizes to.
Option A. prevent incorrect installation.
Option B. facilitate bleeding the system.
Option C. allow a full fuel flow through the valve.
QUE 102. E.E.C receives signals from RPM sensor and.
Option A. pressure sensors.
Option B. pressure and temperature sensors.
Option C. temperature sensors.

QUE 103. When does E.E.C channel change over occur?.

Option A. On engine start up.
Option B. On engine shut down.
Option C. On fault.

QUE 104. The possible combined output from all the scavenge pumps in a lubrication system will be.
Option A. greater than the pressure pump output.
Option B. less than the pressure pump output.
Option C. the same as the pressure pump output.

QUE 105. If the knife-edge blade in a kinetic valve is fully in.

Option A. pump pressure is constant.
Option B. servo pressure is being bled off.
Option C. servo pressure is increasing.
15.12 Air Systems.
QUE 1. Engine anti-ice is taken from the.
Option A. turbine.
Option B. H.P compressor.
Option C. LP compressor.

QUE 2. In an axial flow turbine engine, compressor bleed air is sometimes used to aid in cooling the.
Option A. inlet guide vanes.
Option B. turbine, vanes, blades, and bearings.
Option C. fuel.

QUE 3. If air is taken from the compressor for air conditioning or anti-icing.
Option A. thrust will increase EGT will increase.
Option B. thrust will decrease EGT will increase.
Option C. thrust will decrease EGT will decrease.

QUE 4. Turbine case cooling utilizes.

Option A. LP compressor air.
Option B. fan air.
Option C. H.P compressor air.

QUE 5. Air for anti-icing is taken from the.

Option A. accessory Gearbox.
Option B. LP compressor.
Option C. H.P compressor.

QUE 6. As air is bled off the engine, EGT will.

Option A. remain constant.
Option B. decrease.
Option C. increase.

QUE 7. The heat absorbed by internal components can be detrimental to thrust and is prevented by.
Option A. reducing fuel flow to reduce internal temperature.
Option B. bleeding air off the compressor to heat the components.
Option C. bleeding air off the compressor to cool the components.

QUE 8. On a gas turbine engine, thermal wing de-icing system derives air.
Option A. via air from the H.P turbine.
Option B. through a pressure regulating shut-off valve (P.R.S.O.V).
Option C. through a pressure relief system.

QUE 9. Inlet for cooling air for the first stage turbine blades is fed via the.
Option A. blade root.
Option B. grill holes.
Option C. leading edge of the blade.
QUE 10. Air bleed for an anti-ice system is.
Option A. tapped directly off the compressor.
Option B. sent through a pressure regulator.
Option C. sent through the air conditioning.

QUE 11. With bleed valves open for anti-ice.

Option A. thrust is unaffected.
Option B. thrust decreases, fuel consumption decreases.
Option C. thrust decreases, fuel consumption increases.
15.13, Starting and Ignition Systems.
QUE 1. In the H.E.I.U. the discharge resistors.
Option A. allows the capacitors to discharge when the unit is switched off.
Option B. allows sufficient voltage to be stored to provide relight facilities up to 55,000 ft.
Option C. protects the unit from excessive voltages.

QUE 2. In the H.E.I.U. the choke.

Option A. prolongs the life of the plug.
Option B. protects the unit from excessive high voltages.
Option C. prolongs the discharge.

QUE 3. In an electrical starting system, the slow start resistor is short circuited by the.
Option A. centrifugal Switch.
Option B. time switch.
Option C. overspeed switch.

QUE 4. The advantage of an air starter system is.

Option A. it provides a more rapid start.
Option B. it is light, simple and economical.
Option C. there is no risk of engine fire during starting.

QUE 5. An advantage of a gas turbine starter is.

Option A. it provide high power for low weight.
Option B. it does not require external connections.
Option C. it uses a low volatile fuel.

QUE 6. If the engine fails to light-up, the starter cycle is canceled by.
Option A. a centrifugal switch.
Option B. a low pressure relay.
Option C. a time switch.

QUE 7. For starting the engine, the H.P cock should be initially.
Option A. in a position which depends on the fuel system.
Option B. open.
Option C. closed.

QUE 8. On light up, the gas temperature will.

Option A. rise slowly.
Option B. rise rapidly, then fall as RPM increases to idle.
Option C. rise rapidly.

QUE 9. Self sustaining RPM means that.

Option A. The engine can accelerate to full power in under 5 seconds.
Option B. There is sufficient power for ground maneuvering.
Option C. The engine will run independently of external help.
QUE 10. A 'hot start' with excessive temperatures may be caused by.
Option A. wrong grade of fuel.
Option B. throttle partly open.
Option C. high electrical power supply.

QUE 11. A dry motoring cycle would be required to.

Option A. clear the engine after a wet start.
Option B. check engine run down time.
Option C. check the operation of the igniters.

QUE 12. What type of turbine blade is most commonly used in air starter motors?.
Option A. Reaction.
Option B. Impulse.
Option C. Impulse-reaction.

QUE 13. Ignitor plugs are cleaned by.

Option A. compressed air and brushing lightly with soft brush.
Option B. light sand blasting.
Option C. steel wool.

QUE 14. An H.E.I.U works by.

Option A. a discharging capacitor.
Option B. ac busbar.
Option C. a contact breaker.

QUE 15. When is ignition used?.

Option A. For relight and start up.
Option B. For continuous relight.
Option C. At high altitudes.

QUE 16. An ignitor plug for a large gas turbine takes the form of a.
Option A. glow' plug.
Option B. sparking plug.
Option C. surface discharge plug.

QUE 17. The spark in the High Energy igniter is supplied by.
Option A. a capacitor.
Option B. a contact circuit breaker.
Option C. the AC busbar.

QUE 18. Self sustaining speed is.

Option A. V1 speed.
Option B. the RPM at which the engine continues without external assistance.
Option C. take off velocity.

QUE 19. During normal running conditions.

Option A. combustion is intermittently supported by ignition.
Option B. combustion is self supporting
Option C. combustion is continuously supported by ignition.
QUE 20. High energy ignition is required because of the.
Option A. high flash point of the fuel.
Option B. absorbed moisture content.
Option C. low flash point of the fuel.

QUE 21. In the H.E.I.U. the discharge resistors.

Option A. allow sufficient voltage to be stored to provide relight facilities up to 55,000 ft.
Option B. allow the capacitors to discharge when the unit is switched off.
Option C. protect the unit from excessive voltages.

QUE 22. The rate of discharge of a H.E.I.U. is.

Option A. 4 discharges per revolution.
Option B. 60 - 100 per second.
Option C. 60 - 100 per minute.

QUE 23. Why do turbine engine ignition systems require high energy?.
Option A. Because the applied voltage is much greater.
Option B. To ignite the fuel under conditions of high altitude and high temperatures.
Option C. To ignite the fuel under conditions of high altitude and low temperatures.

QUE 24. The type of ignition system used on most turbine aircraft engines is.
Option A. low tension.
Option B. capacitor discharge.
Option C. high resistance.

QUE 25. A safety feature usually employed in pneumatic starters that is used to prevent the starter from
reaching burst speed if inlet air does not terminate on schedule is the.
Option A. stator nozzle design that chokes airflow and stabilizes turbine wheel speed.
Option B. drive shaft shear point.
Option C. spring coupling release.

QUE 26. A safety feature usually employed in pneumatic starters that is used if the clutch does not release
from the engine drive at the proper time during start is the.
Option A. spring coupling release.
Option B. drive shaft shear point.
Option C. flyweight cutout switch.

QUE 27. Airflow to the pneumatic starter from a ground unit is normally prevented from causing starter
overspeed during engine start by.
Option A. a preset timed cutoff of the airflow at the source.
Option B. stator nozzle design that chokes airflow and stabilizes turbine wheel speed speed.
Option C. activation of a flyweight cutout switch.

QUE 28. Air turbine starters are generally designed so that reduction gear distress or damage may be
detected by.
Option A. inspection of a magnetic chip detector.
Option B. characteristic sounds from the starter assembly during engine start.
Option C. breakage of a shear section on the starter drive shaft.
QUE 29. Inspection of pneumatic starters by maintenance technicians usually includes checking the.
Option A. stator and rotor blades for FOD.
Option B. oil level and magnetic drain plug condition.
Option C. rotor alignment.

QUE 30. Pneumatic starters are usually designed with what types of airflow impingement systems?.
Option A. Radial inward flow turbine and axial-flow turbine.
Option B. Centrifugal compressor and axial-flow compressor.
Option C. Double entry centrifugal outward flow and axial-flow turbines.

QUE 31. A clicking sound heard at engine coast-down in a pneumatic starter incorporating a sprag clutch
ratchet assembly is an indication of.
Option A. gear tooth and/or pawl damage.
Option B. one or more broken pawl springs.
Option C. the pawls re-contacting and riding on the ratchet gear.

QUE 32. The primary advantage of pneumatic (air turbine) starters over comparable electric starters for
turbine engines is.
Option A. high power-to-weight ratio.
Option B. reduction gearing not required.
Option C. a decreased fire hazard.

QUE 33. The purpose of an under current relay in a starter-generator system is to.
Option A. keep current flow to the starter-generator under the circuit capacity maximum.
Option B. disconnect power from the starter-generator and ignition when sufficient engine speed is
reached.
Option C. provide a backup for the starter relay.

QUE 34. How does the ignition system of a gas turbine engine differ from that of a reciprocating engine?.
Option A. Magneto to engine timing is not critical.
Option B. One igniter plug is used in each combustion chamber.
Option C. A high energy spark is required for ignition.

QUE 35. In a gas turbine engine D.C capacitor discharge ignition system, where are the high voltage pulses
formed?.
Option A. At the rectifier.
Option B. At the triggering transformer.
Option C. At the breaker.

QUE 36. Igniter plugs used in turbine engines are subjected to high intensity spark discharges and yet they
have a long service life because they.
Option A. operate at much lower temperatures.
Option B. are not placed directly into the combustion chamber.
Option C. do not require continuous operation.

QUE 37. Great caution should be exercised in handling damaged hermetically sealed turbine engine igniter
transformer units because.
Option A. some contain toxic chemicals.
Option B. some contain radioactive material.
Option C. compounds in the unit may become a fire or explosion hazard when exposed to the air.

QUE 38. Generally, when removing a turbine engine igniter plug, in order to eliminate the possibility of the
technician receiving a lethal shock, the ignition switch is turned off and.
Option A. disconnected from the power supply circuit.
Option B. the transformer exciter input lead is disconnected and the center electrode grounded to the
engine after disconnecting the igniter lead from the plug and waiting the prescribed time.
Option C. the igniter lead is disconnected from the plug and the center electrode grounded to the engine
after disconnecting the transformer-exciter input lead and waiting the prescribed time.

QUE 39. What is the first engine instrument indication of a successful start of a turbine engine?.
Option A. A rise in the engine fuel flow.
Option B. A rise in oil pressure.
Option C. A rise in the exhaust gas temperature.

QUE 40. H.E.I.U ignitor plugs receive their electrical supply from.
Option A. discharge inductor.
Option B. starter system electrical circuit.
Option C. discharge capacitor.

QUE 41. An H.E.I.U is rated in.

Option A. Joules.
Option B. Watts.
Option C. Amps.

QUE 42. A glow plug operates.

Option A. manually.
Option B. by heat action.
Option C. electrically.

QUE 43. The resistor in a D.C. starter motor.

Option A. prevents over speed.
Option B. prevents current surge when motor is at low rpm.
Option C. used when D.C. motor fails.

QUE 44. Where does the high voltage type turbine ignition receive its voltage pulse from?.
Option A. Primary windings.
Option B. Rectifier.
Option C. Trigger transformer.

QUE 45. On a gas turbine engine DC starting circuit, if there is an open circuit on the contact of the over
speed relay.
Option A. starter motor will stop only when starter switch selected off.
Option B. starter motor will continue to run for 30 sec and then stop.
Option C. no power supply is connected to the starter motor.

QUE 46. The field of the D.C. starter motor used on gas turbine engine is.
Option A. series only.
Option B. shunt or compound.
Option C. series or compound.

QUE 47. When 'blow out' is selected on the Gas Turbine Engine starting circuit.
Option A. the starter motor is stopped when starter switch selected off or when the timer switch cuts out.
Option B. the over-speed relay will de-energise the starter circuit.
Option C. ignition is continuously on.
The blow out circuit is used to blow out any jet pipe fire. In this mode there is no ignition or fuel hence the
starter cannot overspeed.

QUE 48. After an unsuccessful start of an engine.

Option A. the engine has to be left for some time before another start.
Option B. unburnt fuel can be drained from fuel drainage lines.
Option C. unburnt fuel can be evacuated by motoring the engine with H.P cock closed.

QUE 49. A glow plug may be used in place of a spark plug on.
Option A. low temperature engines.
Option B. large engines.
Option C. small engines.

QUE 50. When an engine being started by an air starter reaches self sustaining speed.
Option A. the motor is disconnected by the flyweight cut out switch.
Option B. the starter valve is disconnected by the fly weight cut-out switch in the air starter.
Option C. the motor is disconnected by the pilot.

QUE 51. When reconnecting a H.E.I.U , which cable must be reconnected first?.
Option A. It makes no difference.
Option B. L.T before H.T.
Option C. H.T before L.T.

QUE 52. An aircraft flying through heavy rain may use, as a precaution.
Option A. airframe deicing.
Option B. engine intake deicing.
Option C. continuous ignition.

QUE 53. The starter light is on during a start cycle (low voltage electrical starter).
Option A. Indicates electrical power is flowing to the starter.
Option B. If the light stays on after 30 seconds action is required.
Option C. This is normal for 30 seconds, take no action.

QUE 54. A D.C starter motor disconnects due to.

Option A. current decreasing switching off an overspeed relay.
Option B. current increasing switching off an overspeed relay.
Option C. a centrifugal switch that acts like an overspeed relay.

QUE 55. What is the purpose of the current limiting resistor in a starter circuit?.
Option A. To prevent the starter from over speeding in the final phase of starting.
Option B. To provide overall control of the the speed of the starter.
Option C. To prevent an initial current surge.
QUE 56. On a low energy dual ignition system (<3 joules), if a relight is necessary.
Option A. it occurs automatically.
Option B. the pilot selects both ignitors.
Option C. the pilot selects one of the two ignitors.
15.14, Engine Indication Systems.
QUE 1. The compensation device on an E.G.T system must be re-calibrated after.
Option A. each time a part of the system is replaced.
Option B. does not need calibration.
Option C. manufacture and overhaul.

QUE 2. When testing an E.G.T system.

Option A. the O.A.T is always taken into consideration.
Option B. the O.A.T is neglected.
Option C. O.A.T is only taken into consideration when over20°C.

QUE 3. What is the Engine Pressure Ratio (E.P.R.) used for?.

Option A. To limit the maximum exhaust gas temperature.
Option B. To indicate the thrust produced by the engine.
Option C. As a cross check for minimum acceptable thrust.

QUE 4. What happens when bulb type thermometer resistive element goes open circuit?.
Option A. Reads less than ambient.
Option B. No reading given.
Option C. Reads more than ambient.

QUE 5. On an E.G.T thermocouple system, the hot junction.

Option A. is placed up stream of the combustion chamber.
Option B. is placed in cockpit.
Option C. is placed downstream of the combustion chamber.

QUE 6. On an RPM system using a synchronous generator, the pointer is deflected by.
Option A. a potentiometer.
Option B. a Wheatstone bridge.
Option C. an AC servomotor.

QUE 7. Torque pressure is usually read from a.

Option A. torque meter.
Option B. direct reading pressure gauge.
Option C. tension gauge.

QUE 8. The drag cup in a tacho-generator is balanced by.

Option A. calibrated hairspring.
Option B. adjustable counterbalance weights.
Option C. adjustment screw.

QUE 9. Fuel flow indication is taken from.

Option A. after the H.P pump.
Option B. after either H.P Pump or LP Pump.
Option C. after the LP pump.
QUE 10. What power is required for E.G.T gauge indication?.
Option A. No power - it is self generating.
Option B. 115V AC.
Option C. 28V DC.

QUE 11. A Bourdon tube instrument may be used to indicate.

Option A. position and quantity.
Option B. pressure and temperature.
Option C. pressure, temperature, position and quantity.

QUE 12. What instrument on a gas turbine engine should be monitored to minimize the possibility of a
'hot' start?.
Option A. RPM indicator.
Option B. Turbine inlet temperature.
Option C. Torquemeter.

QUE 13. oil temperature thermocouples are usually constructed of.

Option A. iron constantan.
Option B. alumel constantan.
Option C. chromel alumel.

QUE 14. The RPM indication of a synchronous AC motor tachometer is governed by the generator.
Option A. current.
Option B. frequency.
Option C. voltage.

QUE 15. Instruments that measure relatively high fluid pressures, such as oil pressure gauges, are usually
what type?.
Option A. Bourdon tube.
Option B. Vane with calibrated spring.
Option C. Diaphragm or bellows.

QUE 16. Instruments that provide readings of low or negative pressure, such as manifold pressure gauges,
are usually what type?.
Option A. Diaphragm or bellows.
Option B. Vane with calibrated spring.
Option C. Bourdon tube.

QUE 17. In what units are gas turbine engine tachometers calibrated?.
Option A. Percent of engine pressure ratio.
Option B. Percent of engine RPM.
Option C. Actual engine RPM.

QUE 18. In a turbine engine, where is the turbine discharge pressure indicator sensor located?.
Option A. At a location in the exhaust cone that is determined to be subjected to the highest pressures.
Option B. Immediately aft of the last turbine stage.
Option C. At the aft end of the compressor section.
QUE 19. The exhaust gas temperature (E.G.T ) indicator on a gas turbine engine provides a relative
indication of the.
Option A. turbine inlet temperature.
Option B. temperature of the exhaust gases as they pass the exhaust cone.
Option C. exhaust temperature.

QUE 20. Engine pressure ratio is determined by.

Option A. dividing engine inlet total pressure by turbine outlet total pressure.
Option B. multiplying engine inlet total pressure by turbine outlet total pressure.
Option C. dividing turbine outlet total pressure by engine inlet total pressure.

QUE 21. A red triangle, dot, or diamond mark on an engine instrument face or glass indicates.
Option A. the maximum limit for high transients such as starting.
Option B. a restricted operating range.
Option C. the maximum operating limit for all normal operations.

QUE 22. What is the primary purpose of the tachometer on an axial compressor turbine engine?.
Option A. Monitor engine RPM during cruise conditions.
Option B. Monitor engine RPM during starting and to indicate overspeed conditions.
Option C. It is the most accurate instrument for establishing thrust settings under all conditions.

QUE 23. Engine pressure ratio is the total pressure ratio between the.
Option A. front of the engine inlet and the aft end of the compressor.
Option B. front of the compressor and the rear of the turbine.
Option C. aft end of the compressor and the aft end of the turbine.

QUE 24. On an aircraft turbine engine, operating at a constant power, the application of engine anti-icing
will result in.
Option A. an increase in E.P.R.
Option B. noticeable shift in E.P.R.
Option C. a false E.P.R reading.

QUE 25. The indicator of a tachometer system is responsive to change in.

Option A. voltage.
Option B. frequency.
Option C. current flow.

QUE 26. The fuel flow indication data sent from motor driven impeller and turbine, and motorless type fuel
flow transmitters is a measure of.
Option A. fuel mass flow.
Option B. fuel volume flow.
Option C. engine burner pressure drop.

QUE 27. In addition to fuel quantity, a computerized fuel system (C.F.S) with a totalizer indicator provides
indication of how many of the following?.
Option A. Fuel flow rate, Fuel used since reset or initial start up, Fuel time remaining at current power
setting.
Option B. Fuel flow rate, Fuel used since reset or initial start up, Fuel time remaining at current power
setting, Fuel temperature.
Option C. Fuel flow rate, Fuel used since reset or initial start up, Fuel temperature.

QUE 28. The fuel flow indicator rotor and needle for a motor impeller and turbine indicating system is
driven by.
Option A. direct coupling to the motor shaft.
Option B. an electrical signal.
Option C. a mechanical gear train.

QUE 29. Motor driven impeller and turbine fuel flow transmitters are designed to transmit data.
Option A. using aircraft electrical system power.
Option B. mechanically.
Option C. by fuel pressure.

QUE 30. What unit in a tachometer system sends information to the indicator?.
Option A. The two phase AC generator.
Option B. The three phase AC generator.
Option C. The synchronous motor.

QUE 31. Engine oil temperature gauges indicate the temperature of the oil.
Option A. entering the oil cooler.
Option B. entering the engine.
Option C. in the oil storage tank.

QUE 32. Thermocouple leads.

Option A. may be repaired using solderless connectors.
Option B. are designed for a specific installation and may not be altered.
Option C. may be installed with either lead to either post of the indicator.

QUE 33. Why do helicopters require a minimum of two synchronous tachometer systems?.
Option A. One indicates engine RPM and the other tail rotor RPM.
Option B. One indicates main rotor RPM and the other tail rotor RPM.
Option C. One indicates engine RPM and the other main rotor RPM.

QUE 34. If the thermocouple leads were inadvertently crossed at installation, what would the E.G.T gauge
pointer indicate?.
Option A. Moves off scale on the high side of the meter.
Option B. Moves off scale on the zero side of the meter.
Option C. Normal temperature for prevailing condition.

QUE 35. A common type of electrically operated oil temperature gauge utilizes.
Option A. either a wheatstone bridge or ratiometer circuit.
Option B. a thermocouple type circuit.
Option C. vapour pressure and pressure switches.

QUE 36. The indication on a thermocouple-type E.G.T indicator is produced by.

Option A. resistance changes in two dissimilar metals.
Option B. a difference in the voltage between two dissimilar metals.
Option C. a current generated by the temperature difference between dissimilar metal hot and cold
junctions.
QUE 37. What is the Engine Pressure Ratio (E.P.R) used to indicate?.
Option A. The power produced by the engine.
Option B. The thrust produced by the engine.
Option C. As a cross check for minimum acceptable thrust.

QUE 38. Where is Turbine Outlet Temperature (T.O.T) measured?.

Option A. Upstream of the turbine.
Option B. Downstream of the turbine.
Option C. In the combustion chamber.

QUE 39. A thermocouple indicator is basically a.

Option A. milliammeter.
Option B. millivoltmeter.
Option C. milliohmeter.

QUE 40. A thermocouple indicator is connected to the.

Option A. cold junction.
Option B. hot junction.
Option C. difference between the hot junction and the cold junction.

QUE 41. Thrust in a high bypass fan engine is indicated by.

Option A. N3 RPM or P1/P4 ratio.
Option B. N1 RPM or N3 RPM.
Option C. N1 RPM or E.P.R.

QUE 42. How is the N1 and N2 measured on a triple spool engine?.

Option A. Tachometer connected to the internal gearbox.
Option B. Tachometer connected to the external gearbox.
Option C. Pulse type speed probes.

QUE 43. Modern oil pressure servo transmitters sense.

Option A. absolute pressure.
Option B. H.P oil pressure.
Option C. differential pressure.

QUE 44. E.G.T thermocouples are usually made of.

Option A. nickel and platinum.
Option B. chromel and platinum.
Option C. chromel and alumel.

QUE 45. Thrust in a high bypass engine is indicated by measuring.

Option A. N3 RPM.
Option B. neither of the above, thrust is not indicated in flight.
Option C. fuel flow.

QUE 46. What power supply is required for a thermocouple system to work?.
Option A. Alternating current.
Option B. Direct current.
Option C. Neither of the above.
QUE 47. In a thermocouple temperature sensing system, what is the purpose of the compensating
resistor?.
Option A. To correct for varying ambient temperatures at the hot junction.
Option B. To correct for varying ambient temperatures at the cold junction.
Option C. To standardise the reading for different engine types.

QUE 48. In a tachometer generator.

Option A. the frequency output is inversely proportional to engine speed.
Option B. frequency output is proportional to engine speed.
Option C. the frequency output is constant.

QUE 49. Vibration pick-ups are located.

Option A. on both fan and turbine cases.
Option B. on the fan/compressor case.
Option C. on the turbine case.

QUE 50. In a capacitive type fuel quantity indicating system the tank units are connected in.
Option A. series.
Option B. parallel.
Option C. series/parallel.

QUE 51. Torque measurement in a gas turbine engine is.

Option A. not always reliable.
Option B. highly reliable.
Option C. required only when the turbine drives a propeller.

QUE 52. Vibration signals, when picked up,.

Option A. go straight to indicator.
Option B. go through half wave rectifier to indicator.
Option C. the frequencies are filtered to exclude unwanted frequencies.

QUE 53. E.G.T is displayed in.

Option A. Kelvin.
Option B. degrees centigrade.
Option C. degrees Fahrenheit.

QUE 54. N2 is taken from.

Option A. a speed transducer on the fan rear frame.
Option B. a tachometer attached on the N1 gearbox.
Option C. a tachometer on the accessory gearbox.

QUE 55. Engine vibration is monitored using.

Option A. electromechanical devices.
Option B. Fenwall type sensors.
Option C. piezoelectric accelerometer.

QUE 56. Integrating fuel flow gives.

Option A. average fuel flow.
Option B. total fuel consumed.
Option C. fuel flow and acceleration.
QUE 57. The gauge on a bulb type temperature indicator shows zero. This could be caused by.
Option A. open circuit in the wiring.
Option B. temperature bulb going open circuit.
Option C. two cables shorting together by the sensor.

QUE 58. In a thermocouple system, the size of the E.M.F that is produced is a result of.
Option A. the difference between the hot and cold junction.
Option B. the cold junction only.
Option C. the hot junction only.

QUE 59. A ballast resistor is fitted.

Option A. in parallel, to give identical readings for all engines.
Option B. in series, to give identical resistance values for all engines.
Option C. in series, to give identical resistance values to all airframes.
15.15, Power Augmentation Systems
QUE 1. When reheat is used, E.P.R.
Option A. is reduced.
Option B. remains constant.
Option C. is increased.

QUE 2. When reheat is selected and in operation, the mass gas flow.
Option A. decreases.
Option B. remains the same.
Option C. increases.

QUE 3. Screech liners in the afterburning jet pipe.

Option A. prevent unstable combustion.
Option B. prevent cyclic vibrations of large amplitude.
Option C. acts as noise suppressors.

QUE 4. Water methanol for cooling is injected into the.

Option A. compressor inlet or outlet.
Option B. engine hot zone.
Option C. combustion chamber.

QUE 5. On an injection system.

Option A. methanol is injected neat.
Option B. town water/methanol is injected.
Option C. demineralized water/methanol is injected.

QUE 6. When using water methanol in an axial flow compressor, it is injected into the.
Option A. compressor inlet or burner section.
Option B. burner.
Option C. intake.

QUE 7. The main reason for adding methanol to the water is to.
Option A. temper the cooling effect of the water to prevent distortion.
Option B. supply the additional heat required.
Option C. prevent mixture freezing.

QUE 8. The primary purpose of water injection is to.

Option A. decrease mass airflow.
Option B. increase the calorific value of the fuel.
Option C. cool the turbine.

QUE 9. Water used in a thrust augmentation system should be demineralised to prevent.

Option A. blocking the jet.
Option B. carbon formation.
Option C. fouling the blades and vanes.
QUE 10. The quantity of water usually carried by an aircraft equipped with water injection is enough for.
Option A. three take-offs.
Option B. one take-off.
Option C. two take-offs.

QUE 11. Water methanol injection will increase thrust by up to.

Option A. 70%.
Option B. 50%.
Option C. 30%.

QUE 12. Injection of water/methanol into compressor inlet causes.

Option A. increase in power due to the burning of methanol alone.
Option B. increase in power without the need for burning extra fuel.
Option C. increased efficiency of the engine due to reduced icing in the airflow.

QUE 13. Reheat is the term used to describe.

Option A. adding fuel in the exhaust section.
Option B. adding of fuel in the turbine section.
Option C. adding of fuel in the compressor section.

QUE 14. Water/methanol is injected.

Option A. at high temperatures.
Option B. at high temperature, at high altitudes.
Option C. at high temperatures or high altitudes.

QUE 15. The reheat ignition system which incorporates a platinum/rhodium element is known as.
Option A. catalytic ignition.
Option B. hot-shot ignition system.
Option C. spark ignition system.

QUE 16. Water or water/methanol injected into the combustion chamber inlet increases.
Option A. mass airflow through the turbine.
Option B. combustion chamber outlet temperatures.
Option C. fuel to air ratio by up to 20%.

QUE 17. Methanol is added to water when augmenting thrust in order to.
Option A. reclaim lost pressure at the compressor.
Option B. increase the density of air entering the compressor.
Option C. reclaim lost heat at the turbines.

QUE 18. Afterburning is initiated in order to.

Option A. heat the exhaust to prevent choking at subsonic gas velocities.
Option B. burn off the fuel that is not combusted in the combustion section.
Option C. increase the local speed of sound at the jet nozzle.

QUE 19. How is the flame stabilised in the reheat system of a gas turbine engine?.
Option A. By creating a greater potential between inlet & jet pipe temperatures.
Option B. By ensuring that the gas velocity is greater than the flame velocity.
Option C. By ensuring that the flame velocity is greater than the gas velocity.
QUE 20. During operation of the engine equipped with water injection system, the metering of the coolant
to the system is.
Option A. selected by the pilot.
Option B. due to atmospheric pressure.
Option C. due to altitude change.

QUE 21. Water methanol injection is used.

Option A. at high altitude take off conditions only.
Option B. at a combination of higher than normal air temperatures and high altitude take off conditions.
Option C. at higher than normal ambient air temperatures only.
15.16, Turbo-prop Engines
QUE 1. A free turbine is usually found on a.
Option A. turbo-jet.
Option B. turbo-fan.
Option C. turbo prop.

QUE 2. A free turbine is.

Option A. not directly connected to the power output shaft.
Option B. connected directly to the propeller and compressor.
Option C. connected directly to the power output shaft.

QUE 3. The fuel flow in a turboprop engine within the constant speed range is controlled.
Option A. automatically.
Option B. manually.
Option C. No Control.

QUE 4. Torque measurement is taken from the.

Option A. reduction gearbox.
Option B. prop shaft.
Option C. free turbine shaft.
Correct Answer is. reduction gearbox.
Explanation. Rolls Royce The Jet Engine Page 137 refers.

QUE 5. Electrical propeller de-icing pads are.

Option A. at the root.
Option B. at the tip.
Option C. on the trailing edge.

QUE 6. Fuel trimming on a turboprop engine is.

Option A. pilot controlled.
Option B. governor controlled.
Option C. automatic.

QUE 7. What controls the fuel trimmer on a turboprop engine?.

Option A. The blade angle.
Option B. Propeller Control Unit.
Option C. Engine Speed Governor.

QUE 8. What is the purpose of the reduction gear on a propeller driven engine?.
Option A. To maintain a constant propeller blade speed.
Option B. To enable torque measurement.
Option C. To prevent the propeller tips reaching the speed of sound.
QUE 9. If an E.P.R gauge is installed on turbofans as a measure of power output, what is used on a
turboprop?.
Option A. E.P.R gauge.
Option B. Torque-meter.
Option C. Thermocouples.

QUE 10. What type of reduction gear is used on most turboprop modern engines?.
Option A. Helical cut parallel spur gears.
Option B. Epicyclic reduction gear.
Option C. Straight cut parallel spur gears.
15.17, Turbo-Shaft Engines.
QUE 1. A turbo-shaft engine has.
Option A. a mechanical connection between compressor and turbine.
Option B. a power shaft which is not connected to the compressor.
Option C. none of the above.

QUE 2. On a twin spool turbo-shaft engine, the free turbine is connected to the.
Option A. output gearbox.
Option B. L.P gearbox.
Option C. H.P gearbox.

QUE 3. In the majority of helicopters, the thrust generated by the gas generator is absorbed by the.
Option A. L.P turbine.
Option B. Free power turbine.
Option C. H.P turbine.

15.18, Auxiliary Power Units (APUs).

QUE 1. An A.P.U has.
Option A. automatically controlled thrust and is self contained.
Option B. variable speed and is self contained.
Option C. constant speed and is self contained.

QUE 2. An A.P.U shut down is initiated by.

Option A. high oil pressure, fire warning, hot oil temperature.
Option B. low oil pressure, fire warning, hot oil temperature.
Option C. low oil pressure, fire warning.

QUE 3. An A.P.U start cycle is completed at.

Option A. 100% RPM.
Option B. 75% RPM.
Option C. 95% RPM.

QUE 4. An A.P.U power lever is located.

Option A. behind the throttles.
Option B. at the Flight Engineer Station.
Option C. An A.P.U is fully automatic and does not require a power lever.
QUE 5. An A.P.U consists of.
Option A. a power compressor and load compressor.
Option B. a power compressor and directly connected turbine.
Option C. a load compressor and free turbine.

QUE 6. When necessary, A.P.U engine cooling before shutdown may be accomplished by.
Option A. closing the bleed air valve.
Option B. opening the bleed air valve.
Option C. unloading the generator(s).

QUE 7. Frequently, an aircraft's auxiliary power unit (A.P.U) generator.

Option A. is identical to the engine-driven generators.
Option B. has a higher load capacity than the engine-driven generators.
Option C. supplements the aircraft's engine-driven generators during peak loads.

QUE 8. Fuel scheduling during A.P.U start and under varying pneumatic bleed and electrical loads is
maintained.
Option A. automatically by the A.P.U fuel control system.
Option B. manually through power control lever position.
Option C. Jeppesen A&P Technician Propulsion Textbook 3-37.

QUE 9. An A.P.U is usually rotated during start by.

Option A. a pneumatic starter.
Option B. a turbine impingement system.
Option C. an electric starter.

QUE 10. Usually, most of the load placed on an A.P.U occurs when.
Option A. the bleed air valve is opened.
Option B. an electrical load is placed on the generator(s).
Option C. the bleed air valve is closed.

QUE 11. The function of an A.P.U air inlet plenum is to.

Option A. stabilize the pressure of the air before it enters the compressor.
Option B. increase the velocity of the air before entering the compressor.
Option C. decrease the pressure of the air before entering the compressor. .

QUE 12. In a large commercial passenger transport aircraft the A.P.U supplies.
Option A. pneumatics and electrics.
Option B. electrics.
Option C. pneumatics.

QUE 13. When in operation, the speed of an A.P.U.

Option A. remains at or near rated speed regardless of the load condition.
Option B. remains at idle and automatically accelerates to rated speed when placed under load.
Option C. is controlled by a cockpit power lever.

QUE 14. When maximum A.P.U shaft output power is being used in conjunction with pneumatic power.
Option A. electrical loading will be automatically modulated to maintain a safe E.G.T.
Option B. temperature limits and loads must be carefully monitored by the operator to maintain a safe E.G.T.
Option C. pneumatic loading will be automatically modulated to maintain a safe E.G.T.

QUE 15. For an A.P.U to run 'unmanned' it must be equipped with.

Option A. an automatic fire extinguishing system.
Option B. both an audible fire warning and an automatic fire extinguishing system.
Option C. an audible fire warning.

QUE 16. An A.P.U is.

Option A. a self contained constant speed gas turbine engine.
Option B. a reserved engine in case of a main engine failure.
Option C. a self contained variable speed gas turbine engine.

QUE 17. When the A.P.U is running and pneumatics are on.
Option A. bleed valve is closed, surge valve is open.
Option B. bleed valve is open, surge valve is closed.
Option C. bleed valve is open, surge valve is modulating.

QUE 18. When is the A.P.U at its greatest load?.

Option A. With generator loads on line.
Option B. With bleeds closed.
Option C. With bleeds open and with generator loads on line.

QUE 19. Auxiliary power units provide.

Option A. hydraulic and electrical power.
Option B. pneumatic and electrical power.
Option C. hydraulic and pneumatic power.

QUE 20. When starting an A.P.U what would the normal duty cycle be on a
modern aircraft?.
Option A. 6 attempted starts per half hour with 5 minutes between attempts.
Option B. 3 attempted starts per hour with 5 minutes between each attempt.
Option C. 6 attempted starts per hour with 5 minutes between attempts.

QUE 21. From where does the A.P.U receive a fire signal?.
Option A. It has its own system.
Option B. It is dependent on the airframe system.
Option C. It is dependent on the engine fire system.

QUE 22. What are the two most important signals when monitoring an A.P.U?.
Option A. E.G.T and RPM.
Option B. Oil Pressure and Inlet Pressure.
Option C. E.G.T and Oil Pressure.

QUE 23. One of the accessories driven from the A.P.U gearbox in a centrifugal switch, the purpose of which
is to.
Option A. arm the governed speed indication circuits and max. RPM governor.
Option B. cancel the ignition circuits and arm the overspeed protection circuits.
Option C. control starting and automatic extinguishing circuits.
QUE 24. What iniates A.P.U shutdown?.
Option A. Fire detection, low oil pressure, high oil temperature.
Option B. Overspeed, fire detection, low oil quantity.
Option C. Low oil pressure, low oil pressure, high oil temperature.

15.19, Powerplant Installation.

QUE 1. Pipes, electrical cables and associated components of a fire-detection system should be.
Option A. fire resistant.
Option B. fire proof.
Option C. fire retardant.

QUE 2. The minimum bend radius for a continuous loop type fire wire is.
Option A. 1/2 inch.
Option B. 1/8 inch.
Option C. 1 inch.

QUE 3. Acoustic linings made from composite materials are used in what section of the engine?
Option A. Not used to suppress noise.
Option B. Hot section & Cold Section.
Option C. Cold section only.

QUE 4. Vibration mounts are used for.

Option A. stopping vibrations entering the engines.
Option B. preventing engine vibration loads being transmitted to the airframe structure.
Option C. damping out vibration stresses on engine when being transported on an engine stand.

QUE 5. An aircraft has a heavy landing and on inspection of the engine mounting bolts the bolts torque
loading has reduced, you should.
Option A. add washers to take up any gap or slackness and re-torque to correct value.
Option B. remove bolt and carry out inspection as the bolt may have increased in length due to heavy
landing.
Option C. re-torque bolt up to correct torque value.

QUE 6. Forward engine mounts take which loads?.

Option A. Thrust, vertical and shear loads.
Option B. Centrifugal, thrust and axial.
Option C. Thrust, vertical and impact.
QUE 7. Forward engine mounts take which form?.
Option A. Castings.
Option B. Forgings.
Option C. Fabricated sheet steel.

QUE 8. Pipes around engines are.

Option A. aluminium.
Option B. mild seamless steel.
Option C. stainless steel.

QUE 9. Fibrous metallic lining for noise suppression is used.

Option A. for lobe type noise suppressors.
Option B. in cold area.
Option C. in hot area.

QUE 10. Noise lining in the fan area is made from.

Option A. layers of bonded resin.
Option B. porous type Honeycomb and backing sheet.
Option C. felt with aluminium sheet.

QUE 11. A powerplant consists of.

Option A. a basic engine plus E.C.U.
Option B. a basic engine plus thrust reverser, exhaust system and gear box with accessories.
Option C. the complete engine as it would be found on aircraft including all connections, controls,
cowlings, intake etc.

QUE 12. Acoustic blankets are installed to.

Option A. reduce noise levels.
Option B. increase thermal efficiency.
Option C. aid the streamlining of the engine.

QUE 13. When checking the effect of inertia on the engine after heavy landing you would first check the.
Option A. thrust line.
Option B. compressor shaft for distortion.
Option C. module alignment.

QUE 14. Following the reports of a heavy landing you would.

Option A. carry out a complete visual examination of the power plant.
Option B. examine the engine mountings and borescope the nozzle guide vanes and turbine.
Option C. examine the engine mountings and fuse pins.

QUE 15. The purpose of spring back and cushion on an engine power lever is.
Option A. used when friction builds up in a system.
Option B. used to prevent the controls hitting the fuel control stops.
Option C. used when full travel is used but slight movement is still required on the fuel control unit.

QUE 16. What are sometimes installed in an engine mounting system to tune out the worst engine
vibrations?.
Option A. Spring cushioned mounting pads.
Option B. Vibration absorbers of calibrated weight.
Option C. Rubber encased wire-mesh vibration isolators.

QUE 17. Where are the lifting points on a high bypass turbine engine?.
Option A. On the fan and compressor casing.
Option B. On the fan, turbine and compressor casing.
Option C. On the fan and turbine casing.

QUE 18. Rubber anti-vibration pads are fitted to engine.

Option A. components to prevent fatigue.
Option B. cradles to prevent damage during transportation.
Option C. pylons to prevent vibration through the airframe.

QUE 19. Engine thrust is transmitted through mountings that.

Option A. are designed to transmit eng thrust equally through front and rear supports.
Option B. are designed to prevent the thrust line of the engine varying.
Option C. allow for radial and axial expansion.

QUE 20. If you reduced the length of bellcrank (2) what would happen to the input to the F.C.U?.
Option A. remain the same.
Option B. reduce.
Option C. increase.
Reducing the arm from points 1 to 2 would decrease the arm length from the centre of rotation on the F.C.U
to the connection on the belcrank. This would INCREASE the amount of rotary movement into the F.C.U.
15.20 Fire Protection Systems
QUE 1. A fire wire is installed.
Option A. to withstand inertia, vibration, etc, encountered during normal operation.
Option B. vertically.
Option C. horizontally.

QUE 2. Resistive and capacitive type firewires are tested with.

Option A. megger/voltmeter.
Option B. megger/ohmmeter.
Option C. multimeter.

QUE 3. Fire wire clips have rubber in them to.

Option A. stop heat transfer to the element.
Option B. insulate the fire wire electrically.
Option C. support the wire.

QUE 4. Fire extinguishers work by.

Option A. combining with remaining oxygen to get rid of it.
Option B. creating more oxygen.
Option C. reducing oxygen.

QUE 5. Fire detection systems which are routed through another zone.
Option A. must be protected by the use of heat sinks.
Option B. must be protected from heat sources in the zone.
Option C. are not allowed.

QUE 6. The test switch of a continuous loop detector gives a.

Option A. continuity check.
Option B. insulation check.
Option C. bonding check.

QUE 7. What are the types of continuous fire detection system?.

Option A. Capacitance.
Option B. Capacitance and resistance.
Option C. Inductance and capacitance.

QUE 8. What is the operating principle of the spot detector sensor in a fire detection system?.
Option A. A conventional thermocouple that produces a current flow.
Option B. A bimetallic thermoswitch that closes when heatedto a high temperature.
Option C. Resistant core material that prevents current flow at normal temperatures.

QUE 9. In a fixed fire-extinguishing system, there are two small lines running from the system and exiting
overboard. These line exit ports are covered with a blowout type indicator disc. Which of the following
statements is true?.
Option A. When the red indicator disc is missing, it indicates the fire extinguishing system has been normally
discharged.
Option B. When the green indicator disc is missing, it indicates the fire extinguishing system has had a
thermal discharge.
Option C. When the yellow indicator disc is missing, it indicates the fire extinguishing system has been
normally discharged.

QUE 10. Two continuous-loop fire detection systems that will not test due to a broken detector element
are the.
Option A. thermocouple system and the Lindberg system.
Option B. Kidde system and the Fenwal system.
Option C. Kidde system and the Lindberg system.

QUE 11. Which of the following fire detection systems measures temperature rise compared to a reference
temperature?.
Option A. Lindberg continuous element.
Option B. Thermocouple.
Option C. Thermal switch.

QUE 12. A fire involving energized electrical equipment is defined as a.

Option A. class B fire.
Option B. class D fire.
Option C. class C fire.

QUE 13. How are most aircraft turbine engine fire extinguishing systems activated?.
Option A. Manual remote control valve.
Option B. Pushrod assembly.
Option C. Electrically discharged cartridges.

QUE 14. A fire detection system that operates on the rate of temperature rise is a.
Option A. thermocouple system.
Option B. thermal switch system.
Option C. continuous loop system.

QUE 15. Why does one type of Fenwal fire detection system use spot detectors wired in parallel between
two separate circuits?.
Option A. So that a single fault may exist in the system without sounding a false alarm.
Option B. To provide an installation that is equal to two separate systems: a primary system and a
secondary, or back-up system.
Option C. So that a double fault may exist in the system without sounding a false alarm.

QUE 16. How does carbon dioxide (CO2) extinguish an aircraft engine fire?.
Option A. By lowering the temperature to a point where combustion will not take place.
Option B. The high pressure spray lowers the temperature and blows out the fire.
Option C. Contact with the air converts the liquid into snow and gas which smothers the flame.

QUE 17. A fuel or oil fire is defined as a.

Option A. class B fire.
Option B. class C fire.
Option C. class A fire.
QUE 18. Which of the following is the safest fire extinguishing agent to use from a standpoint of toxicity
and corrosion hazards?
Option A. Bromotrifluoromethane (Halon 1301).
Option B. Bromochlorodifluoromethane (Halon 1211).
Option C. Dibromodifluoromethane (Halon 1202).

QUE 19. The explosive cartridge in the discharge valve of a fire extinguisher container is.
Option A. not a life dated unit.
Option B. a life dated unit.
Option C. mechanically fired.

QUE 20. A fire detection system operates on the principle of a buildup of gas pressure within a tube
proportional to temperature. Which of the following systems does this statement define?.
Option A. Thermal switch system.
Option B. Lindberg continuous element system.
Option C. Kidde continuous loop system.

QUE 21. The most satisfactory extinguishing agent for an intake fire is.
Option A. methyl bromide.
Option B. dry chemical.
Option C. carbon dioxide.

QUE 22. How is the fire extinguishing agent distributed in the engine section?.
Option A. Spray nozzles and perforated tubing.
Option B. Spray nozzles and fluid pumps.
Option C. Nitrogen pressure and slinger rings.

QUE 23. What is the principle of operation of the continuous loop fire detector system sensor?.
Option A. Core resistance material which prevents current flow at normal temperatures.
Option B. A bimetallic thermoswitch which closes when heated to a high temperature.
Option C. Fuse material which melts at high temperatures.

QUE 24. The fire detection system that uses a single wire surrounded by a continuous string of ceramic
beads in a tube is the.
Option A. Kidde system.
Option B. thermocouple system.
Option C. Fenwal system.

QUE 25. The fire detection system that uses two wires imbedded in a ceramic core within a tube is the.
Option A. Lindberg system.
Option B. Kidde system.
Option C. Fenwal system.

QUE 26. A continuous loop fire detector is what type of detector?.

Option A. Rate of temperature rise detector.
Option B. Spot detector.
Option C. Overheat detector.
QUE 27. Which of the following fire detection systems will detect a fire when an element is inoperative but
will not test when the test circuit is energized?.
Option A. The Kidde system and the Fenwal system.
Option B. The thermocouple system and the Lindberg system.
Option C. The Kidde system and the thermocouple system.

QUE 28. After a fire is extinguished, or overheat condition removed in aircraft equipped with a Systron-
Donner fire detector, the detection system.
Option A. must be manually reset.
Option B. automatically resets.
Option C. sensing component must be replaced.

QUE 29. For fire detection and extinguishing purposes, aircraft powerplant areas are divided into fire zones
based on.
Option A. the volume and smoothness of the airflow through engine compartments.
Option B. engine type and size.
Option C. hot and cold sections of the engine.

QUE 30. What is the function of a fire detection system?.

Option A. To discharge the powerplant fire extinguishing system at the origin of the fire.
Option B. To activate a warning device in the event of a powerplant fire.
Option C. To identify the location of a powerplant fire.

QUE 31. What retains the nitrogen charge and fire extinguishing agent in a high rate of discharge (HRD)
container?.
Option A. Pressure gauge and cartridge.
Option B. Breakable disk or fusible disk.
Option C. Pressure switch and check tee valve.

QUE 32. The use of water on class D fires.

Option A. will cause the fire to burn more violently and can cause explosions.
Option B. has no effect.
Option C. is most effective if sprayed in a fine mist.

QUE 33. The pulling out (or down) of an illuminated fire handle in a typical large jet aircraft fire protection
system commonly accomplishes what events?.
Option A. Closes fuel shutoff, closes hydraulic shutoff, disconnects the generator field, and arms the fire
extinguishing system.
Option B. Closes fuel shutoff, closes hydraulic shutoff, closes the oxygen shutoff, disconnects the generator
field, and arms the fire-extinguishing system.
Option C. Closes all firewall shutoff valves, disconnects the generator, and discharges a fire bottle.

QUE 34. The most satisfactory extinguishing agent for an electrical fire is.
Option A. carbon tetrachloride.
Option B. methyl bromide.
Option C. carbon dioxide.

QUE 35. Which of the following fire detectors are commonly used in the power section of an engine
nacelle?
Option A. Rate of temperature rise detectors.
Option B. CO detectors.
Option C. Smoke detectors.

QUE 36. Which of the following fire detection systems uses heat in the normal testing of the system?.
Option A. The Kidde system and the Fenwal system.
Option B. The thermocouple system and the Lindberg system.
Option C. The thermocouple system and the Fenwal system.

QUE 37. How are extinguisher spray rings checked for freedom from obstruction?.
Option A. Firing the system.
Option B. Blowing through with compressed air.
Option C. Pumping water through the system.

QUE 38. What is used as an extinguishant in fire bottles?.

Option A. Freon compounds.
Option B. Halogenated hydrocarbons.
Option C. Water.

QUE 39. The advantage of the two shot fire bottle system is.
Option A. one bottle can be discharged after certain time delay from the other bottle.
Option B. both bottles can be used in either of the engines.
Option C. one bottle can be used twice.

QUE 40. To check a fire bottle in situ is serviceable.

Option A. weigh it, check blow out discs, check pressure.
Option B. check blow out disc only.
Option C. check blow out disc, pop up indicators, expiry date and pressure.

QUE 41. Resistive type fire-wires are tested using.

Option A. megger/ohmmeter.
Option B. ammeter/ohmmeter.
Option C. megger/voltmeter.

QUE 42. When testing an installed fire bottle.

Option A. a multimeter used.
Option B. a lamp and 1.5V cell used.
Option C. a safety ohmmeter is used.

QUE 43. On checking a fault free fire detection system.

Option A. use megger as per normal.
Option B. a megger is never to be used.
Option C. use a megger only for a short while as it can polarise the element.

QUE 44. 3 ways to test serviceability of a fixed fire bottle in situ are.
Option A. weigh, pressure, blow-out disc.
Option B. weigh, pressure, pop up indicator.
Option C. pressure, pop up indicator, blow-out disc.
QUE 45. When installing a flow valve on a 'two shot' fire extinguishing system care must be taken to make
sure.
Option A. flow arrow should be in a correct direction.
Option B. flow valve is pointing towards the respective bottle.
Option C. priority system must have the bigger flow side.

QUE 46. Omission of crushable washer on engine fire-wire connector will.

Option A. allow moisture ingress.
Option B. affect fire wire continuity.
Option C. affect fire wire capacitance.

QUE 47. Discharge cartridges of the fire bottle have.

Option A. life time in hours/calendar and replace which ever is longer.
Option B. life time in hours/or calendar and replace which ever is sooner.
Option C. no life time it is only replaced when unserviceable.

QUE 48. The Kidde Fault Free Fire detection system has how many internal wires in the sensing element?.
Option A. 1.
Option B. 3.
Option C. 2.

QUE 49. When testing a two pin fire bottle connector.

Option A. continuity test 1 pin then short two together.
Option B. short two pins together.
Option C. continuity test 1 pin, then the other, then short two together.

QUE 50. Gas type fire-wires operate by utilising.

Option A. the change in the gas pressure.
Option B. the change in the gas dielectric level.
Option C. the change in the electrical resistance of the gas.

QUE 51. On a fire bottle, if the indicator pin was protruding, this would indicate.
Option A. the bottle is under weight.
Option B. extinguisher had been fired.
Option C. an over pressure had occurred in the bottle.

QUE 52. When testing a squib on a fire bottle, you use a.

Option A. multimeter (AVO).
Option B. low current ohmmeter.
Option C. lamp and 1.5V cell.

QUE 53. In a two shot fire extinguishing system.

Option A. extinguishers distributed once to either engine compartment.
Option B. extinguisher distributed twice to each enginecompartment.
Option C. one squib can be fired, if that fails then the 2nd squib can be fired.

QUE 54. Methyl Bromide fire extinguisher are installed with neck.
Option A. horizontal.
Option B. at the bottom.
Option C. at the top.

QUE 55. In a Fenwall fire detection system.

Option A. the tube is inconel and wire is nickel.
Option B. inner electrode is inconel wire.
Option C. outer electrode is nickel tube.

QUE 56. When a fire extinguisher is discharged the immediate action is.
Option A. operate engine to idle.
Option B. clean with cold water.
Option C. clean with hot water.

15.21, Engine Monitoring and Ground Operation.

QUE 1. Who establishes the recommended operating time between overhauls (T.B.O) of a gas turbine
engine.
Option A. The engine manufacturer.
Option B. The operator (utilizing manufacturer data and trend analysis) working in conjunction with the
Airworthiness Authority.
Option C. The Airworthiness Authority alone.

QUE 2. What is the first engine instrument indication of a successful start of a turbine engine?.
Option A. A rise in oil pressure.
Option B. A rise in the engine fuel flow.
Option C. A rise in the exhaust gas temperature.

QUE 3. A hung start is indicated by the.

Option A. exhaust gas temperature exceeds specified limits.
Option B. fails to reach idle RPM.
Option C. RPM exceeds specified operating speed.

QUE 4. The blending of blades and vanes in a turbine engine.

Option A. may sometimes be accomplished with the engine installed, ordinarily using power tools.
Option B. should be performed parallel to the length of the blade using smooth contours to minimize stress
points.
Option C. is usually accomplished only at engine overhaul.
Correct Answer is. No Answer.
Explanation. NIL.

QUE 5. During inspection, turbine engine components exposed to high temperatures may only be marked
with such materials as allowed by the manufacturer. These materials generally include.
Option A. layout dye, commercial felt tip marker or chalk.
Option B. layout dye, commercial felt tip marker, wax or grease pencil.
Option C. layout dye, commercial felt tip marker, wax or grease pencil, chalk or graphite lead pencil.
QUE 6. When the leading edge of a first stage turbine blade is found to have stress rupture cracks, which of
the following should be suspected?.
Option A. Faulty cooling shield.
Option B. Over speed condition.
Option C. Over temperature condition.

QUE 7. A magnetic chip detector inspection should be carried out.

Option A. within a specified time from shut down.
Option B. with engine cold.
Option C. with engine running.
The engine M.C.D be checked after 20mins but before 2 hrs since shut down.

QUE 8. What is the proper starting sequence for a turbojet engine?.

Option A. Starter, ignition, fuel.
Option B. Starter, fuel, ignition.
Option C. Ignition, starter, fuel.

QUE 9. Foreign object damage on a compressor, when boroscoping, is indicated by.

Option A. tip curl.
Option B. nicks and scores.
Option C. flats.

QUE 10. Turbine blades are generally more susceptible to operating damage than compressor blades
because of.
Option A. higher temperature stresses.
Option B. higher centrifugal loading.
Option C. high pressure and high velocity gas flow.

QUE 11. A magnetic chip detector detects.

Option A. particles held in suspension.
Option B. particles which are too small for the naked eye.
Option C. ferrous particles only.

QUE 12. A cool-off period prior to shutdown of a turbine engine is done to.
Option A. prevent vapor lock in the fuel control and/or fuel lines.
Option B. prevent seizure of the engine bearings.
Option C. allow the turbine wheel to cool before the case contracts around it.

QUE 13. When starting a turbine engine, the starter should be disengaged.
Option A. only after the engine has reached full idle RPM.
Option B. when the ignition and fuel system are activated.
Option C. after the engine has reached self-sustaining speed.

QUE 14. What should be done initially if a turbine engine catches fire when starting?.
Option A. Continue starting attempt in order to blow out the fire.
Option B. Continue engine start rotation and discharge a fire extinguisher into the intake.
Option C. Turn off the fuel and continue engine rotation with the starter.
QUE 15. A turbine engine hot section is particularly susceptible to which kind of damage?.
Option A. Scoring.
Option B. Galling.
Option C. Cracking.

QUE 16. If a turbine engine is unable to reach takeoff E.P.R before its E.G.T limit is reached, this is an
indication that the.
Option A. fuel control must be replaced.
Option B. E.G.T controller is out of adjustment.
Option C. compressor may be contaminated or damaged.

QUE 17. Which of the following engine variables is the most critical during turbine engine operation?.
Option A. Compressor RPM.
Option B. Turbine inlet temperature.
Option C. Compressor inlet air temperature.

QUE 18. With the engine running at idle, the E.P.R system reads just over 1.
Option A. The system has failed and needs attention.
Option B. The system needs re-calibration back to '1'.
Option C. This is a normal condition and does not need attention.

QUE 19. The recurrent ingestion of dust or other fine airborne particulates into an engine can result in.
Option A. the need for less frequent abrasive grit cleaning of the engine.
Option B. foreign object damage to the compressor section.
Option C. erosion damage to the compressor and turbine sections.

QUE 20. When the engine is not running, and engine blanks are installed. The E.P.R gauge shows 1.0, then.
Option A. the transmitter is faulty.
Option B. the receiver is faulty.
Option C. it is normal.

QUE 21. Which of the following may be used to accomplish internal inspection of an assembled gas turbine
engine?.
Option A. Ultrasound, and fluorescent penetrant and ultraviolet light.
Option B. X-ray and a borescope.
Option C. Infrared photography and fluorescent penetrant and ultraviolet light.

QUE 22. Run down time is indicative of.

Option A. an F.C.U malfunction.
Option B. compressor malfunction.
Option C. the freedom of rotation of the compressor.

QUE 23. A hung start or false start is one in which.

Option A. light up' occurs, but the RPM does not increase.
Option B. there is no 'light up'.
Option C. the engine does not rotate.
QUE 24. What would be the possible cause if a gas turbine engine has high exhaust gas temperature, high
fuel flow, and low RPM at all engine power settings?
Option A. Fuel control out of adjustment.
Option B. Loose or corroded thermocouple probes for the E.G.T indicator.
Option C. Turbine damage or loss of turbine efficiency.

QUE 25. In regard to using a turbine engine oil analysis program, which of the following is NOT true?.
Option A. It is best to start an oil analysis program on an engine when it is new.
Option B. A successful oil analysis program should be run over an engine's total operating life so that normal
trends can be established.
Option C. Generally, an accurate trend forecast may be made after an engine's first oil sample analysis.

QUE 26. Which of the following is the least likely indication of a main bearing failure?.
Option A. High oil consumption.
Option B. High oil temperature.
Option C. High oil pressure.

QUE 27. After shutdown, flames are present in the exhaust pipe. The probable cause is.
Option A. a defective fuel control unit (F.C.U).
Option B. a defective pressurizing and dump valve.
Option C. a defective H.P cock.

QUE 28. If the L.P. cock is used to shutdown an engine.

Option A. the F.C.U will continue to function.
Option B. flames will appear in the exhaust.
Option C. the H.P fuel pump will run dry.

QUE 29. When accelerating from 'light-up' to ground idling speed, the E.G.T will.
Option A. remain constant.
Option B. increase above idle value then decrease to normal.
Option C. decrease below idle value then increase to normal.

QUE 30. A gas turbine engine is stopped by closing.

Option A. L.P cock.
Option B. H.P cock.
Option C. throttle valve.

QUE 31. A 'wet start' is indicated by.

Option A. no temperature indication.
Option B. low RPM.
Option C. a prolonged cranking period.

QUE 32. The engine accelerates to idling by.

Option A. gas flow.
Option B. combined efforts of starter motor and gas flow.
Option C. starter motor.

QUE 33. An oil emission spectrometer measures.

Option A. particles in suspension.
Option B. particles on the surface.
Option C. specific gravity of the oil.
QUE 34. A broadband vibration reading indicates.
Option A. the total vibration sensed by the transducer.
Option B. the peak allowable vibration.
Option C. the N1 vibration.

QUE 35. Vibration analysers determine which component is vibrating by analysing.

Option A. voltage.
Option B. amplitude.
Option C. frequency.

QUE 36. High frequency vibration.

Option A. causes engine components to crack.
Option B. energises air particles prior to compression.
Option C. can give an indication of a fluctuating (E.P.R).

QUE 37. Engine oil sampling analysis is taken.

Option A. after engine shut down.
Option B. at specific time after engine shut down.
Option C. when oil level is high.

QUE 38. With external power applied, the engine will not run up to idle after reaching starting speed. The
likely fault would be with the.
Option A. Fuel Control Unit.
Option B. clutch.
Option C. battery.

QUE 39. When running down an engine.

Option A. it should be done as slowly as possible to assist thermal stress.
Option B. it should be done as quickly as possible to stop excess of fuel gathering.
Option C. it should be done as slowly as possible to reduce thermal stres.

QUE 40. What may be an indication of a bleed valve stuck in the closed position?.
Option A. Over speed.
Option B. Low E.G.T reading.
Option C. Compressor stalling at low RPM.

QUE 41. Excessive E.G.T can.

Option A. cause N.G.V to creep.
Option B. cause damage to turbine.
Option C. cause damage to jet pipe.

QUE 42. A jet engine has a high oil temperature but all other power parameters are normal. The probable
cause is.
Option A. a large quantity of oil being returned to tank.
Option B. gear box leakage.
Option C. a main bearing in distress.
QUE 43. When cleaning salt from a compressor.
Option A. use water then manufacturer's cleaning solution.
Option B. use water at low power then water at high power.
Option C. never use water, use only the recommended solution.

QUE 44. A hot start refers to.

Option A. early ignition.
Option B. high E.G.T before idle RPM is achieved.
Option C. too much fuel being supplied.

QUE 45. If a compressor surge occurs, it is recognized by.

Option A. coughing in the compressor and vibration.
Option B. fluctuating RPM and fuel flow.
Option C. fluctuating E.G.T and thrust.

QUE 46. Cracks may occur in hot section components of a turbine engine if they are marked during
inspection with.
Option A. a lead pencil.
Option B. chalk.
Option C. layout dye.

QUE 47. What must not be used during an engine compressor wash?.
Option A. Chlorine.
Option B. Desalinization solution.
Option C. Crushed almond.

QUE 48. Trend monitoring of spectrometric oil analysis is carried out how often?.
Option A. During each scheduled maintenance period.
Option B. At set periods once the rate of wear has been established.
Option C. After every repair or modification.

QUE 49. Starting an engine with a bleed valve stuck closed would cause:.
Option A. low E.G.T.
Option B. possible stalling of the engine.
Option C. high E.G.T.

QUE 50. Galling is a condition caused by excessive.

Option A. chafing.
Option B. scoring.
Option C. temperatures.

QUE 51. If a burner was down, in a multi-can system, the engine would tend to.
Option A. hang up.
Option B. run up.
Option C. surge.

QUE 52. If the rundown time is less than the minimum stated for a given engine.
Option A. unacceptable wear is occurring at the main bearings.
Option B. the rotating assembly is free.
Option C. the rotating assembly is being restricted.

QUE 53. When running an engine the following lights should be on:.
Option A. anti-collision and nav-lights (if fitted).
Option B. nav-lights (if fitted).
Option C. anti-collision (if fitted).

QUE 54. With spectral oil analysis program (S.O.A.P), samples are taken.
Option A. when the oil tank is full.
Option B. at a specified interval.
Option C. when the oil is warm.

QUE 55. During start, if a bleed valve is stuck closed.

Option A. E.G.T is unaffected.
Option B. E.G.T will be higher than normal.
Option C. E.G.T will be lower than normal.

QUE 56. Dynamic balance testing locates unbalance in.

Option A. all planes.
Option B. two planes.
Option C. one plane.

QUE 57. On a gas turbine engine with baked oil deposits, how would you carry out grit blast cleaning With
the engine at?.
Option A. stationary.
Option B. idle speed (low).
Option C. high speed.

QUE 58. A rotation pad on an accessory drive gear box is provided for.
Option A. N2 rotation.
Option B. both are correct.
Option C. alternate tachogenerator fitment.

QUE 59. What would be indicative of a hung start?.

Option A. Starter would fail to disengage.
Option B. High E.G.T.
Option C. Engine would fail to reach self sustaining speed.
15.22, Engine Storage and Preservation.
QUE 1. Fuel system inhibiting oil is.
Option A. mineral oil.
Option B. light anti-freeze oil.
Option C. kerosene.

QUE 2. After placing an engine in an M.V.P envelope.

Option A. check humidity indicator after 12 hours.
Option B. check humidity indicator after 24 hours.
Option C. check humidity indicator after 48 hours.

QUE 3. On a vapour proof cocoon, there is a.

Option A. temperature indicator.
Option B. moisture indicator.
Option C. humidifier.

QUE 4. When an installed engine is not to be used for a period of up to 7 days.

Option A. it is necessary to inhibit the engine.
Option B. it is only necessary to blank off all apertures.
Option C. run the engine as prescribed in the Flight Manual.

QUE 5. Installed engines must be re-preserved after preservation at least every.

Option A. six weeks.
Option B. six days.
Option C. six months.

QUE 6. On storage of an engine, the desiccant is.

Option A. looked at within 24 hrs if its blue its OK.
Option B. looked at 24 hrs later if its blue its OK.
Option C. looked at 24 hrs later if blue it should be replaced.

QUE 7. After placing an engine into storage, details would be recorded in.
Option A. Technical Log.
Option B. Engine log book.
Option C. Aircraft log book.

QUE 8. When storing an engine the fuel system is to be inhibited. How is this done?.
Option A. Remove plugs rotate engine then add oil.
Option B. Rotate engine whilst adding oil then remove plugs.
Option C. Add oil leaving plugs in.

QUE 9. An engine in storage for 7 days should.

Option A. have storage oil placed in engine.
Option B. be run twice in that week.
Option C. be fitted with covers and blanks and apertures covered.
QUE 10. On a (VP) cocoon bag, if the humidity indicator turns pink/lilac.
Option A. desiccant is effective and does not need changing.
Option B. desiccant is ineffective and needs changing.
Option C. desiccant is changed weekly.

QUE 11. To inhibit the fuel system of an installed engine.

Option A. pump oil into the engine when stationary.
Option B. dry motor the engine.
Option C. remove the ignitor plugs.

QUE 12. When is the humidity indicator checked on a preserved engine?.

Option A. 1 Month.
Option B. 1 Year.
Option C. 6 Months.

QUE 13. With an engine in storage, desiccant is used.

Option A. as an insecticide.
Option B. as a corrosion inhibitor.
Option C. to remove moisture from the air.

QUE 14. Small cuts in a M.V.P. engine storage bag can be repaired.
Option A. with adhesive PVC tape.
Option B. by vulcanising.
Option C. by replacing M.V.P.

QUE 15. When removing an engine for long-term storage, bleed valves should be.
Option A. removed.
Option B. locked closed.
Option C. open but blanked.
15.23
QUE 1. The types of water present in aviation fuel are.
Option A. free and entrained both harmful.
Option B. free that is harmful and entrained that is harmless.
Option C. free that is harmless and entrained that is harmful.

QUE 2. Oil pressure and scavenge pumps are usually.

Option A. spur gear pumps.
Option B. multi-plunger pumps.
Option C. diaphragm pumps.

QUE 3. The purpose of a pressure filter in a lubrication system is to.

Option A. protect the pressure pump.
Option B. protect the oil jets.
Option C. protect the scavenge pumps.

QUE 4. a curvic coupling.

Option A. converts rotary motion to reciprocating motion.
Option B. absorbs misalignment between the driving and driven shafts.
Option C. accurately aligns the driving and the driven shafts.

QUE 5. Feeders are.

Option A. conduits used to carry electrical cable.
Option B. fluid supply hoses.
Option C. heavy duty electrical generator cables.

QUE 6. High air humidity will.

Option A. have no affect on thrust.
Option B. reduce the thrust output.
Option C. increase the thrust output.

QUE 7. C.I.T sensor is made up of.

Option A. Iron-constantan.
Option B. Chromel-alumel.
Option C. Platinum-rhodium.

QUE 8. What is the maximum value of pressure with reference to a jet engine?.
Option A. 1 Bar.
Option B. 1 Kg/cm.
Option C. 1 Atmospheric Pressure.

QUE 9. The hottest casing is the.

Option A. H.PT.
Option B. combustion chamber.
Option C. L.PT.
QUE 10. Centrifugal compressor maximum tip speed is.
Option A. 0.8 Mach.
Option B. 1.2 Mach.
Option C. 0.5 Mach.

QUE 11. What type of oil is used in a gas turbine engine?.

Option A. Synthetic.
Option B. Phosphate Ester.
Option C. Mineral.
Discharge register in ignition switch
> Residual store energy in capacitor, dissipate after shutdown

in Dual spool, Fan is connected to

> IP shaft

diffuser
> convert kinetic to pressure

impulse raction
>uniform velocity & pressure drop throughout entire blade

Impulse turbine
>Pressure decrease & Velocity increase

Dischage indication
> red thermal
yellow crew

moisture removing agent must

>Around & inside of engine

function of centrifugal switch in APU

> Starting & igniting circuit, Governed ignition circuit, Overspeed protection circuit

Operating flexibility
>engine ability to run desired performance engine smoothly at all speed, from idle to high power

Self aligning ball bearing compensate angular misalignment

> radial load + small thrust load

deep groove ball bearing

>Radial load + substantial thrust load in either direction, at very high speed,

normally starting sequence

>1. Rotate compressor with starter, 2. turn ignition on, 3. switch on the fuel v/v either by moving throttle to
idle, or moving the shutoff v/v lever or turning the switch
> successful start will noted by rise in EGT

impulse blade
> merely change direction of flow, no change in pressure or velocity
Engine cowl
> upper, lower, fixed, & hinged removable panel

Turboshaft
> 2/3rd of energy production used by gas generator

turboshaft
> gas generator (compressor, combustion chamber ignitor, fuel nozzle, & one or more turbine stages) + power
section ( additional stages of turbine, reduction gear system, & output shaft)

In APU
> electrical power output is much important than pneumatic extraction

to prevent compressor stall

> design to have first VIGV + first stage VSGV

torquemeter assembly (housing + Shaft assembly)

> Air inlet housing + Reduction gear assembly

function of noise suppressor to

> reduce noise about 25 db to 30 db

water injection
> compressor inlet or diffuser case

tank - Deareator - Reduce oil foaming (air vented through check v/v ourboard)
gearbox - deoiler

TR- maximum 135

Clamshell - 45 or (135= 90+45)
Blocker door 135 (high bypass engine)
bucket type doors.

QUE 22. The rate of discharge of a H.E.I.U. is 60-100 per minute

On normal shutdowns combustors and fuel manifolds are drained through the drain manifold.
After an unsuccessful start there will be fuel throughout the hot section. Hence a dry run is needed to purge
the engine.
With the aircraft stationary and engines running intake pressure is negative. As the aircraft begins its take off
run the pressure recovers to above ambient (ram recovery.

The blow out circuit is used to blow out any jet pipe fire. In this mode there is no ignition or fuel hence the
starter cannot overspeed.

Safety feature
Pneumatic starter- pneumatic choke
Pneumatic clutch- flywheel cutout switch.

Water methanol injection will increase thrust by up to.

Option A. 70%.
Option B. 50%.
Option C. 30%.
Correct Answer is. 30%.
( 10-15% so 30% is nearest)

Airflow impegment system- Radial inward flow turbine and axial-flow turbine.

D.C capacitor discharge ignition system, where are the high voltage pulses - At the triggering transformer.

When removing a turbine engine igniter plug, in order to eliminate the possibility of the technician
receiving a lethal shock,
1. the ignition switch is turned off and
2. igniter lead is disconnected from the plug and
3. the center electrode grounded to the engine after disconnecting the transformer-exciter input lead and
4. waiting the prescribed time.

The indicator light indicates power to the igniter. The Full current time switch cuts out the circuit after a
period of time.

The engine M.C.D be checked after 20mins but before 2 hrs since shut down.