UGC NET DEC 2019 PAPER I & II

(IFAS SOLVED PAPER)

1. Which of the learning outcomes are intended in teaching organized at understanding level?
(1) Longer recall and retention of facts
(3) Creative construction and critical interpretation of ideas
(2) Seeking of relationships and patterns among facts
(4) Mastery of facts and information

2. Which of the following statements differentiate teaching from learning?

(a) Teaching is a social act while learning is a personal act
(b) Teaching implies learning
(c) Teaching is like selling while learning is like buying
(d) Teaching can occur without learning taking place
(e) In teaching, influence is directed towards learning and learner, while in learning it is usually towards
oneself
Choose the correct answer from the following options:
(1) (a), (c) and (e)
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (c). (d) and (e)

3. Which of the following are classroom related factors that influence effectiveness of teaching?
(a) Prior task related behaviour of students
(b) Adherence to linear pattern of communication by the teacher
(c) Socio-economic status of the family to which learners belong
(d) Inappropriate use of technological resources by the teacher
(e) Cultural background of students
Choose your answer from the following options:
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (b) and (d)
(4) (c), (d) and (e)

4. In which of the following types of learning materials, the presentations are highly structured and
individualised?
(1) Textbooks prescribed by the universities
(2) Journals and the articles recommended for readings
(3) Writings of great thinkers selected for reflective readings
(4) Programmed instructional and modular learning material

5. Which of the following types of assessment is conducted periodically with an eye on standards?
(1) Formative assessment
(2) Summative assessment
(3) Portfolio assessment
(4) Performance assessment

6. A university teacher plans to improve the study habits of students in his/her class. Which type of
research paradigm will be helpful in this regard?
(1) Evaluative research paradigm
(2) Fundamental research paradigm
(3) Applied research paradigm
(4) Action research paradigm

7. A researcher intends to make use of ICT in his/her research. What considerations should weigh most
in such a decision?
(a) Appropriateness of the tool used
(b) Cost involved in procuring it
(c) Availability of tools in the department where research is to be undertaken
(d) Willingness of his/her supervisor to offer help
(e) The company from which the ICT equipment has been procured
Choose your answer from the following options:
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (c), (d) and (e)
(3) (a), (c) and (d)
(4) (b), (c) and (e)

8. Which of the following sampling procedures will be appropriate for conducting researches with
empirico-inductive research paradigm?
(1) Simple random sampling procedure
(2) Systematic sampling procedure
(3) Stratified sampling procedure
(4) Any of the non-probability sampling procedures

9. In which of the following formats 'Chapter Scheme of the document has to be formally approved by
a research degree committee in the university?
(1) Thesis/dissertation
(2) Seminar papers
(3) Research articles
(4) Research monographs

10. A research scholar while submitting his/her thesis, did not acknowledge in the preface the help
and support of the respondents of questionnaires used. This will be called an instance of
(1) Technical lapse
(2) Wilful negligence
(3) Unethical act
(4) Lack of respect

11. When there is an animated discussion between a teacher and his or her students in the classroom,
it can be classified as:
(1) Horizontal communication
(2) Mechanical communication
(3) Linear communication
(4) Categorical communication

12. Information overload in a classroom environment by a teacher will lead to

(1) High level participation
(2) Semantic precision
(3) Effective impression
(4) Delayed feedback

13. A verbal communication technique used in teaching is

(1) Slow expression of words
(2) Varying the speed of voice and tone
(3) Presenting without pause
(4) Resorting to sematic jugglery

14. Which of the following modes of communication can be employed in a classroom for effective
teaching?
(a) Top-down
(b) Iconic
(c) Associational
(d) Dissociational
(e) Symbolic
(f) Abstract
Choose the most appropriate option from the following:
(1) (a), (b) and (f)
(2) (c), (e) and (f)
(3) (b), (c) and (e)
(4) (a), (c) and (d)

15. Given below are two Statements - One is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason
(R):
Assertion (A): Use of slang in formal teaching makes communication lively and interesting.
Reasons (R): Academic decency demands the avoidance of slang in the classroom environment.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct option:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true

16. In a certain coding language. 'AEIOU is written as 'TNHDZ. Using the same coding language, 'BFJPV'
will be written as
(1) UOIEA
(2) AEIOU
(3) CGKQW
(4) WQKGC

17. If 3% of (𝑎 + 𝑏) = 7% of (𝑎𝑏) and 5% 𝑜𝑓 (𝑎 − 𝑏) = 4% of (𝑎𝑏) then what percentage of 𝑏 is ?

47
(1) %
23
23
(2) 47 %
4700
(3) 23
%
2300
(4) %
47

18. The sum of a number and its inverse is -4. The sum of their cubes is:
(1) -52
(2) 52
(3) 64
(4) -64

19. A certain principal invested at compound interest payable yearly amounts to Rs. 10816.00 in 3
years and Rs.11248.64 in 4 years. What is the rate of interest?
(1) 3%
(2) 4%
(3) 4.5%
(4) 5.5%

20. What is the exact equivalent discount of three successive discounts of 10%, 15% and 20% by sale
of an article?
(1) 35.8%
(2) 38.5%
(3) 35.5%
(4) 38.8%

21. Which one of the following hetwabhasa (fallacy) is involved in the argument. "Sound is element
because it is caused"?
(1) Viruddha or contradictory middle
(2) Satpratipaksa or inferentially contradicted middle
(3) Sadhyasama or the unproved middle
(4) Badhita or non-inferentially contradicted middle

22. Consider the following argument:

Statements: Some chairs are curtains. All curtains are bedsheets.
Conclusion: Some chairs are bedsheets.
What is the Mood of the above proposition?
(1) IAI
(2) IAA
(3) IIA
(4) AII

23. Which of the following is converse of 'Some S is P"?

(1) Some S is not P
(2) Some P is not S
(3) Some P is S
(4) No P is S

24. Which one of the following fallacious hetu (middle term) is not uniformly concomitant with the
major term?
(1) Asatpratipaksa
(2) Auyatireki
(3) Anyonya-Asiddha
(4) Suyabhicara

25. According to classical Indian school of logic, what is the correct sequence of steps involved in
Anumana (influence)?
(1) Upanaya, Pratijna, Hetu, Udaharaṇa, Nigmana
(2) Pratijna, Hetu, Upanaya, Udaharaṇa, Nigmana
(3) Pratijna, Upanaya, Hetu, Udaharana, Nigmana
(4) Pratijna, Hetu. Udaharana, Upanaya, Nigmana

Subject (Max. Marks) Percentage (%) of marks obtained

Maths Chemistry Physics Biology English
Name of student (150) (130) (120) (100) (100)
Ankit 90 50 80 60 70
Amar 100 60 70 40 80
Sanya 90 60 85 80 60
Rahul 80 75 65 90 90
 Puneet 80 80 70 75 50
Pooja 70 75 50 80 40

26. What is the overall percentage of marks obtained by Amar?

(1) 70%
(2) 72%
(3) 60%
(4) 58.33%

27. What was the aggregate of marks obtained by Sanya in all the five subjects?
(1) 375
(2) 395
(3) 455
(4) 475

28. What is the average marks obtained by all the six students in Chemistry?
(1) 86.66
(2) 76.66
(3) 66.66
(4) 60.00

29. How many students obtained 60% and above marks in all the subjects?
(1) Three
(2) Two
(3) One
(4) Zero

30. In which subject the performance of the students is worst in terms of percentage of marks?
(1) Chemistry
(2) Physics
(3) Biology
(4) English

31. Which one of the following tasks is associated with changing appearance of a document in word
processing?
(1) Editing
(2) Formatting
(3) Writing
(4) Printing

32. The term one gigabyte refers to:

(1) 1024 petabytes
(2) 1024 megabytes
(3) 1024 kilobytes
(4) 1024 bytes

33. _____________is a wireless technology built in electronic gadgets for transferring data over short
distance
(1) WiFi
(2) Bluetooth
(3) Modem
(4) USB

34. PCI stands for

(1) Partial Component Interconnect
(2) Partial Component Interaction
(3) Peripheral Component Interconnect
(4) Peripheral Component Interaction

35. The national agency for responding to computer security incidents as and when they occur, is
(1) CAT
(2) CDAC
(3) CCA
(4) ICERT

36. Identify from the options given below, the co-benefit of Montreal Protocol
(1) Impetus to development of energy efficient systems
(2) Reduction in carbon dioxide (equivalent) emissions
(3) Convergence of efforts of international community in addressing air pollution
(4) Control of transboundary movement of hazardous waste

37. Under Green India Mission. how many hectares of degraded forest land is to be brought under
afforestation?
(1) 02 million hectares
(2) 06 million hectares
(3) 08 million hectares
(4) 20 million hectares

38. The themes of some Sustainable Development Goals are

(a) Climate action
(b) Sustainable cities and communities
(c) Peace, justice and strong institutions
(d) Skill development and decent employment
(e) Green agriculture
(f) Responsible consumption and production
Choose the most appropriate from those given below:
(1) (a), (b), (c), (e) and (f)
(2) (b). (c). (e) and (f)
(3) (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (f)

39. The most dominant source of Benzene emissions in ambient air is

(1) Cement industry
(2) Cigarettes
(3) Car exhausts
(4) Paints and varnish

40. The most important pollutants that cause degradation of water quality in rivers and streams are
(a) Bacteria
(b) Nutrients
(c) Metals
(d) Total dissolved solids
(e) Algae
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) (a), (b), (d) and (e)
(4) (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e)

41. Database WOS stands for

(1) Web of Science
(2) Web of Sources
(3) World of Science
(4) Web of Service

42. The major barriers for access to higher education in India are:
(a) more opportunities of employment for less educated
(b) government policies
(c) language of instruction
(d) economic status
(e) competition from foreign universities
(f) gender discrimination in society
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (b), (c) and (e)
(3) (c), (d) and (f)
(4) (d). (e) and (f)

43. According to GATS (General Agreement on Trade and Services), higher education should be a
commodity in the
(1) domestic public sector
(2) domestic private sector
(3) non-trading sector
(4) global marketplace

44. Which of the following statements is true in the Indian context?

(1) Autonomous colleges can grant degrees independent of universities
(2) Autonomous colleges can grant only bachelor's degree independent of universities
(3) Except doctoral degrees, all other degrees and diplomas can be granted by autonomous colleges
(4) Whatever may be the degree or diploma, autonomous colleges can grant them under their own
name but under the seal of an affiliated university

45. Rashtriya Uchhatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA) aims to achieve the following in Higher Education
System:
(a) Equity
(b) Access
(c) 50% GER
(d) Excellence
Choose the correct option from those given below:
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (a). (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (b) and (d)
(4) (b), (c) and (d)

Read the passage carefully and answer questions that follow:

There is no doubt that the market as a reality and political economy as a theory played an important
role in the liberal critique. But liberalism is neither the consequence nor the development of these;
rather, the market played, in the liberal critique, the role of a "test", a locus of privileged experience
where one can identify the effects of excessive governmentality and even weigh their significance; the
analysis of the mechanisms of "dearth" or more generally, of the grain trade in the middle of the
eighteenth century, was meant to show the point at which governing was always governing too much.
Therefore, an anlaysis to make visible, in the form of evidence, the formation of the value and
circulation of wealth-or, on the contrary, an analysis pre-supposing the intrinsic invisibility of the
connection between individual profit-seeking and the growth of collective wealth-economics, in any
case, shows a basic incompatibility between the optimal development of the economic process and
maximisation of government procedures. It is by this. more than the play of ideas. The French or
English economists broke away from mercantilism and commercialism; they freed reflection on
economic practice from the hegemony of the "reason of state" and from the saturation of
governmental intervention. By using it as a measure of "governing too much". they placed it at the
limit of governmental action. Liberalism does not derive from juridical thought any more than it does
from an economic analysis. It is not the idea of a political society, but the result of search for a liberal
technology of government.

46. Which of the following played a role in the liberal critique?

(1) Liberalism as a consequence of market forces
(2) Liberalism as an offshoot of political economy
(3) Reality of market
(4) Political economy as a practice

47. The liberal critique examined the implications of

(1) market expansion
(2) too much governance
(3) growth of political economy
(4) politics of marketization

48. What kind of evidence was needed to make the liberal critique visible?
(1) Circulation of wealth
(2) Pre-supposing individual profit
(3) Dearth in supply of grain
(4) Incompatibility of growth

49. What is incompatible with optimal economic development?

(1) Play of ideas
(2) Absence of commercialism
(3) Political society
(4) Excessive government procedures

50. The passage is indicative of the author's preference to

(1) economic hegemony of individuals
(2) limit government control of economics
(3) seek liberalism from juridical thought
(4) promote individual profits

51. A basic feasible solution of an 𝑚 × 𝑛 transportation problem is said to be non-degenerate, if basic

feasible solution contains exactly _____________number of individual allocation in
____________positions.
(1) 𝑚 + 𝑛 + 1, independent
(2) 𝑚 + 𝑛 − 1, independent
(3) 𝑚 + 𝑛 − 1, appropriate
(4) 𝑚 − 𝑛 + 1, independent

52. Consider the following Linear programming problem (LPP):

Maximize 𝑧 = 𝑥1 + 𝑥2 Subject to the constraints:
𝑥1 + 2𝑥2 ≤ 2000
𝑥1 + 𝑥2 ≤ 1500
𝑥2 ≤ 600
and 𝑥1 , 𝑥2 ≥ 0
The solution of the above LPP is:
(1) 𝑥1 = 750, 𝑥2 = 750, 𝑧 = 1500
(2) 𝑥1 = 500, 𝑥2 = 1000, 𝑧 = 1500
(3) 𝑥1 = 1000, 𝑥2 = 500, 𝑧 = 1500
(4) 𝑥1 = 900, 𝑥2 = 600, 𝑧 = 1500

53. The Boolean expression AB+ AB+ AC+ AC is unaffected by the value of the Boolean variable
____________.
(1) 𝐴
(3) 𝐶
(2) 𝐵
(4) 𝐴, 𝐵 and 𝐶

54. What are the greatest lower bound (GLB) and the least upper bound (LUB) of the sets. 𝐴 =
{3, 9, 12} and 𝐵 = {1, 2, 4, 5, 10} if they exist in poset (𝑧 + ,/)?
(1) 𝐴(𝐺𝐿𝐵 − 3, 𝐿𝑈𝐵 − 36); 𝐵(𝐺𝐿𝐵 − 1, 𝐿𝑈𝐵 − 20)
(2) 𝐴(𝐺𝐿𝐵 − 3, 𝐿𝑈𝐵 − 12); 𝐵 (𝐺𝐿𝐵 − 1, 𝐿𝑈𝐵 − 10)
(3) 𝐴 (𝐺𝐿𝐵 − 1, 𝐿𝑈𝐵 − 36); 𝐵 (𝐺𝐿𝐵 − 2, 𝐿𝑈𝐵 − 20)
(4) 𝐴(𝐺𝐿𝐵 − 1, 𝐿𝑈𝐵 − 12); 𝐵(𝐺𝐿𝐵 − 2, 𝐿𝑈𝐵 − 10)

55. Let 𝑃 be the set of all people. Let 𝑅 be a binary relation on 𝑃 such that (𝑎, 𝑏) is in 𝑅 if a is 𝑎 brother
of 𝑏 Is 𝑅 symmetric transitive, an equivalence relation, 𝑎 partial order relation?
(1) NO, NO, NO, NO
(2) NO, NO, YES, NO
(3) NO, YES, NO, NO
(4) NO, YES, YES, NO

56. The weight of minimum spanning tree in graph 𝐺, calculated using Kruskal’s algorithm is:
(1) 14
(2) 15
(3) 17
(4) 18

57. A tree has 2𝑛 vertices of degree 1, 3𝑛 vertices of degree 2. 𝑛 vertices of degree 3. Determine the
number of vertices and edges in tree.
(1) 12.11
(2) 11,12
(3) 10.11
(4) 9.10

58. How many reflexive relations are there on a set with 4 elements?
(1) 24
(2) 212
(3) 42
(4) 2

59. A non-pipelined system takes 30ns to process a task. The same task can be processed in a four-
segment pipeline with a clock cycle of 10ns. Determine the speed up of the pipeline for 100 tasks.
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 3.91
(4) 2.91

60. A computer uses a memory unit of 512 K words of 32 bits each. A binary instruction code is stored
in one word of the memory. The instruction has four parts: an addressing mode field to specify one of
the two-addresssing mode (direct and indirect), an operation code. a register code part to specify one
of the 256 registers and an address part. How many bits are there in addressing mode part, opcode
part register code part and the address part?
(1) 1, 3, 9, 19
(2) 1, 4, 9, 18
(3) 1, 4, 8, 19
(4) 1, 3, 8, 20
61. A micro instruction format has micro-operation field which is divided into 2 subfields F1 and F2.
Each having 15 distinct micro operations, condition field CD for four status bits, branch field BR having
four options used in conjunction with address field AD. The address space is of 128 memory words.
The size of micro instruction is:
(1) 19
(2) 18
(3) 17
(4) 20

62. Given following equation: (142)𝑏 + (112)𝑏−2 = (75)𝑆 , find base 𝑏.

(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 7
(4) 5

63. The following program is stored in the memory unit of the basic computer. Give the content of
accumulator register in hexadecimal after the execution of the program.
Location Instruction
010 CLA
011 ADD 016
012 BUN 014
013 HLT
014 AND 017
015 BUN 013
016 C1A5
017 93C6
(1) 𝐴1𝐵4
(2) 81𝐵4
(3) 𝐴184
(4) 8184

64. What is the output of following 𝐶 program?

#include <stdio.h> Main ()
{ 𝑖𝑛𝑡 𝑖, 𝑗, 𝑥 = 0; 𝑓𝑜𝑟 (𝑖 = 0; 𝑖 < 5; + + 𝑖) 𝑓𝑜𝑟 (𝑗 = 0; 𝑗 < 𝑖: + +𝑗) { 𝑥 += (𝑖 + 𝑗 − 1); 𝑏𝑟𝑒𝑎𝑘; }
𝑝𝑟𝑖𝑛𝑡𝑓("%𝑑". 𝑥): }
(1) 6
(2) 5
(3) 4
(4) 3

65. Let 𝐴 be the base class in 𝐶 + + and 𝐵 be the derived class from 𝐴 with protected inheritance.
Which of the following statement is false for class 𝐵?
(1) Member function of class 𝐵 can access protected data of class 𝐴
(2) Member function of Class 𝐵 can access public data of class 𝐴
(3) Member function of class 𝐵 cannot access private data of class 𝐴
(4) Object of derived class 𝐵 can access public base class data

66. Which tag is used to enclose any number of javascript statements in 𝐻𝑇𝑀𝐿 document?
(1) < 𝑐𝑜𝑑𝑒 >
(2) < 𝑠𝑐𝑟𝑖𝑝𝑡 >
(3) < 𝑡𝑖𝑡𝑙𝑒 >
(4) < 𝑏𝑜𝑑𝑦 >

67. A rectangle is bound by the lines 𝑥 = 0; 𝑦 = 0; 𝑥 = 5 and 𝑦 = 3. The line segment joining (−1, 0)
and (4. 5).if clipped against this window will connect the points____________.
(1) (0, 1) and (3, 3)
(2)(0, 1) and (2, 3)
(3)(0, 1) and (4, 5)
(4)(0, 1) and (3, 5)

68. Which of the following algorithms is not used for line clipping?
(1) Cohen-Sutherland algorithm
(2) Southerland-Hodgeman algorithm
(3) Liang-Barsky algorithm
(4) Nicholl-Lee-Nicholl algorithm

69. If we want to resize a 1024 × 768 pixels image to one that is 640 pixels wide with the same
aspect ratio, what would be the height of the resized image?
(1) 420 Pixels
(2) 460 Pixels
(3) 480 Pixels
(4) 540 Pixels

70. Which of the component module of 𝐷𝐵𝑀𝑆 does rearrangement and possible ordering of
operations. eliminate redundancy in query and use efficient algorithms and indexes during the
exceution of a query?
(1) query compiler
(2) query optimizer
(3) Stored data manager
(4) Database processor
71. Given two tables 𝑅1(𝑥, 𝑦) and 𝑅2 (𝑦, 𝑧) with 50 and 30 number of tuples respectively. Find
maximum number of tuples in the output of natural join between tables 𝑅1 and 𝑅2 i.e. 𝑅1*𝑅2? ( ∗ -
Natural Join)
(1) 30
(2) 20
(3)50
(4)1500

72. Given two tables EMPLOYEE (EID, ENAME, DEPTNO) DEPARTMENT (DEPTNO, DEPTNAME) Find the
most appropriate statement of the given query:
Select count (∗) 'total'
from EMPLOYEE
where DEPTNO IN (D1, D2)
group by DEPTNO
having count (∗) >5
(1) Total number of employees in each department 𝐷1 and 𝐷2
(2) Total number of employees of department 𝐷1 and 𝐷2 if their total is >5
(3) Display total number of employees in both departments 𝐷1 and 𝐷2
(4) The output of the query must have atleast two rows

73. Find minimum number of tables required for converting the following entity relationship diagram
into relational database?

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 5

74. A counting semaphore is initialized to 8. 3 wait () operations and 4 signal () operations are applied.
Find the current value of semaphore variable.
(1) 9
(2) 5
(3) 1
(4) 4

75. Which of the following is not needed by an encryption algorithm used in Cryptography?
(1) KEY
(2) Message
(3) Ciphertext
(4) User details

76. Which of the following CPU scheduling algorithms is/are supported by LINUX operating system?
(1) Non-preemptive priority scheduling
(2) Preemptive priority scheduling and time sharing CPU scheduling
(3) Time sharing scheduling only
(4) Priority scheduling only

77. Consider a paging system where translation look aside buffer (TLB) a special type of associative
memory is used with hit ratio of 80%.
Assume that memory reference takes 80 nanoseconds and reference time to TLB is
20 nanoseconds. What will be the effective memory access time given 80% hit ratio?
(1) 110 nanoseconds
(2) 116 nanoseconds
(3) 200 nanoseconds
(4) 100 nanoseconds

78. Suppose a system has 12 magnetic tape drives and at time 𝑡0 , three processes are allotted tape
drives out of their need as given below:
Maximum Needs Current Needs
𝑃0 10 5
𝑃1 4 2
𝑃2 9 2
At time 𝑡0 , the system is in safe state. Which of the following is safe sequence so that deadlock is
avoided?
(1) 〈𝑃 0 , 𝑃1 , 𝑃2 〉
(2) 〈𝑃1 , 𝑃0 , 𝑃2 〉
(3) 〈𝑃₂, 𝑃1 , 𝑃𝑜 〉
(4) 〈𝑃1 , 𝑃2 , 𝑃1 〉

79. Which of the following interprocess communication model is used to exchange messages among
co-operative processes?
(1) Shared memory model
(2) Message passing model
(3) Shared memory and message passing model
(4) Queues

80. Given CPU time slice of 2ms and following list of processes.
 Process Burst time Arrival time
(ms)
𝑃1 3 0
𝑃2 4 2
𝑃3 5 5
Find average turnaround time and average waiting time using round robin CPU scheduling?
(1) 4, 0
(2) 5.66, 1.66
(3) 5.66, 0
(4) 7, 2

81. Which of the following methods are used to pass any number of parameters to the operating
system through system calls?
(1) Registers
(2) Block or table in main memory
(3) Stack
(4) Block in main memory and stack

82. Java Virtual Machine (JVM) is used to execute architectural neutral byte code. Which of the
following is needed by the JVM for execution of Java Code?
(1) Class loader only
(2) Class loader and Java Interpreter
(3) Class loader. Java Interpreter and API
(4) Java Interpreter only

83. In a system for a restaurant, the main scenario for placing order is given below:
(a) Customer reads menu
(b) Customer places order
(c) Order is sent to kitchen for preparation
(d) Ordered items are served
(e) Customer requests for a bill for the order
(f) Bill is prepared for this order
(g) Customer is given the bill
(h) Customer pays the bill
A sequence diagram for the scenario will have atleast how many objects among whom the messages
will be exchanged.
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6
84. An____________ chart is a project schedule representation that presents project plan as a
directed graph. The critical path is the___________ sequence of____________ tasks and it defines
project__________.
(1) Activity, Shortest. Independent, Cost
(2) Activity. Longest. Dependent, Duration
(3) Activity, Longest. Independent, Duration
(4) Activity, Shortest, Dependent, Duration

85. 𝐿𝑒𝑡 𝑎2𝑐 mod 𝑛= (𝑎𝑐 )² mod 𝑛 and 𝑎2𝑐+1 mod 𝑛 = 𝑎 . (𝑎𝑐 )2 mod 𝑛. For 𝑎 =7, 𝑏=17 and 𝑛 = 561,
what is the value of 𝑎𝑏 (mod 𝑛)?
(1) 160
(2) 166
(3) 157
(4) 67

86. A clique in an undirected graph 𝐺 = 〈𝑉, 𝐸 〉 is a subset 𝑉 ′ ⊆ 𝑉 of vertices, such that

(1) If (𝑢, 𝑣) ∈ 𝐸 then 𝑢 ∈ 𝑉′ and 𝑣 ∈ 𝑉′
(2) If (𝑢, 𝑣) ∈ 𝐸 then 𝑢 ∈ 𝑉′ or 𝑣 ∈ 𝑉′
(3) Each pair of vertices in 𝑉′ is connected by an edge
(4) All pairs of vertices in 𝑉′ are not connected by an edge

87. What is the worst case running time of Insert and Extract-min, in an implementation of a priority
queue using an unsorted array? Assume that all insertions can be accomodated.
(1) 𝜃(1), 𝜃(𝑛)
(2) 𝜃 (𝑛), 𝜃(1)
(3) 𝜃 (1), 𝜃(1)
(4) 𝜃 (𝑛), 𝜃(𝑛)

88. In a B-Tree, each node represents a disk block. Suppose one block holds 8192 bytes. Each key uses
32 bytes. In a B-tree of order M there are M 1 keys. Since each branch is on another disk block, we
assume a branch is of 4 bytes. The total memory requirement for a non-leaf node is
(1) 32 M-32
(2) 36 M-32
(3) 36 M-36
(4) 32 M-36

89. Give asymptotic upper and lower bound for 𝑇(𝑛) given below. Assume 𝑇(𝑛) is constant for
𝑛 ≤ 2. 𝑇(𝑛) = 4𝑇 (√𝑛) + 1𝑔²𝑛
(1) 𝑇(𝑛) = 𝜃(𝑙𝑔(𝑙𝑔2 𝑛) lg 𝑛)
(2) 𝑇(𝑛) = 𝜃(𝑙𝑔2 𝑛𝑔𝑛)
(3) 𝑇 (𝑛) = 𝜃(𝑙𝑔2 𝑛 𝑙𝑔 lg 𝑛)
(4) 𝑇(𝑛) = 𝜃(𝑙𝑔(lg 𝑛) lg 𝑛)

90. Consider a weighted directed graph. The current shortest distance from source 𝑆 to node 𝑥 is
represented by 𝑑[𝑥]. Let 𝑑[𝑣] = 29, 𝑑[𝑢] = 15, 𝑤[𝑢. 𝑣] = 12. What is the updated value of 𝑑[𝑣]
based on current information?
(1) 29
(2) 27
(3) 25
(4) 17

91. When using Dijkstra's algorithm to find shortest path in a graph. Which of the following statement
is not true?
(1) It can find shortest path within the same graph data structure
(2) Every time a new node is visited, we choose the node with smallest known distance/ cost (weight)
to visit first
(3) Shortest path always passes through least number of vertices
(4) The graph needs to have a non-negative weight on every edge

92. The time complexity to multiply two polynomials of degree n using Fast Fourier transform method
is:
(1) 𝜃(𝑛 𝑙𝑔 𝑛)
(2) 𝜃(𝑛²)
(3) 𝜃(𝑛)
(4) 𝜃(lg 𝑛)

93. Consider the following grammars:

𝐺1 : 𝑆 ⟶ 𝑎𝑆𝑏 | 𝑏𝑆𝑎 | 𝑎𝑎
𝐺2 : 𝑆 ⟶ 𝑎𝑆𝑏 |𝑏𝑆𝑎 |𝑆𝑆 |𝜆
𝐺3 : 𝑆 ⟶ 𝑎𝑆𝑏 |𝑏𝑆𝑎 |𝑆𝑆 |𝑎
𝐺4 : 𝑆 ⟶ 𝑎𝑆𝑏 | 𝑏𝑆𝑎 |𝑆𝑆 | 𝑆𝑆𝑆 |𝜆
Which of the following is correct w.r.t. the above grammars?
(1) 𝐺1 and 𝐺3 are equivalent
(2)𝐺2 and 𝐺3 are equivalent
(3) 𝐺₂ and 𝐺4 are equivalent
(4) 𝐺3 and 𝐺4 are equivalent

94. Consider the language 𝐿 = {𝑎𝑛 𝑏𝑛−3 |𝑛 > 2} on 𝛴 = {𝑎. 𝑏}. Which one of the following
grammars generates the language 𝐿?
(1) 𝑆 → 𝑎𝐴 |𝑎, 𝐴 → 𝑎𝐴𝑏 | 𝑏
(2) 𝑆 → 𝑎𝑎𝐴 |𝜆, 𝐴 → 𝑎𝐴𝑏 | 𝜆
(3) 𝑆 → 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝐴 |𝑎, 𝐴 → 𝑎𝐴𝑏 |𝜆
(4) 𝑆 → 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝐴 , 𝐴 → 𝑎𝐴𝑏 | 𝜆
 95. Consider the following grammar:
𝑆 → 0𝐴 | 0𝐵𝐵
𝐴 → 00𝐴 | 𝜆
𝐵 → 1𝐵 | 11𝐶
𝐶→ 𝐵
Which language does this grammar generate?
(1) 𝐿((00) ∗ 0 + (11) ∗ 1)
(2) 𝐿(0(11) ∗ +1(00) ∗)
(3) 𝐿((00) ∗ 0)
(4) 𝐿(0(11) ∗ 1)

96. Consider∑ = {𝑤, 𝑥} and = {𝑥, 𝑦, 𝑧). Define homomorphism ℎ by:

ℎ(𝑥) = 𝑥𝑧𝑦
ℎ(𝑤) = 𝑧𝑥𝑦𝑦
If 𝐿 is the regular language denoted by 𝑟 = (𝑤 + 𝑥 ∗)(𝑤𝑤) ∗, then the regular language ℎ(𝐿) is given
by
(1) (𝑧 𝑥 𝑦𝑦 + 𝑥 𝑧 𝑦) ( 𝑧 𝑥 𝑦𝑦)
(2) (𝑧 𝑥 𝑦𝑦 + (𝑥𝑧𝑦)∗ )(𝑧𝑥𝑦𝑦 𝑧𝑥𝑦𝑦 )∗
(3) (𝑧𝑥𝑦𝑦 + 𝑥𝑧𝑦)(𝑧𝑥𝑦𝑦) ∗
(4) (𝑧𝑥𝑦𝑦 + (𝑥𝑧𝑦)∗ )(𝑧𝑥𝑦𝑦 𝑧𝑦𝑦)

97. Consider the following statements with respect to the language 𝐿 = {𝑎𝑛 𝑏𝑛 \ 𝑛 ≥ 0}
𝑆₁: 𝐿2 is context free language
𝑆2 : 𝐿𝑘 is conext-free language for any given 𝑘 ≥ 1
𝑆3 : 𝐿̅ and 𝐿 ∗ are context free languages
Which one of the following is correct?
(1) only 𝑆1 and 𝑆2
(2) only 𝑆1 and 𝑆3
(3) only 𝑆2 and 𝑆3
(4) 𝑆1 , 𝑆2 and 𝑆3

98. Consider the following languages:

𝐿1 = {𝑎𝑛 𝑏𝑛 𝑐 𝑚 } ∪ {𝑎" 𝑏𝑚 𝑐"}, 𝑛. 𝑚 ≥ 0
𝐿2 = {𝑤𝑤 𝑅 |𝑤 ∈ {𝑎, 𝑏} ∗} Where R represents reversible operation.
Which one of the following is (are) inherently ambiguous language(s)?
(1) only 𝐿1
(3) both 𝐿1 and 𝐿2
(2) only 𝐿2
(4) neither 𝐿1 nor 𝐿2

99. Let 𝐺 = (𝑉, 𝑇, 𝑆. 𝑃) be any context-free grammar without any 𝜆 -productions or unit productions.
Let 𝐾 be the maximum number of symbols on the right of any production in 𝑃.
The maximum number of production rules for any equivalent grammar in Chomsky normal form is
given by:
(1) (𝐾 − 1) |𝑃 | + |𝐼𝑇𝐼 | − 1
(2) (𝐾 − 1) | 𝑃 | + |𝑇 |
(3) 𝐾 |𝑃 | + |𝑇 | − 1
(4) 𝐾 |𝑃 | + | 𝑇 |
Where |.| denotes the cardinality of the set.

100. Consider the following language families:

𝐿1 = The context - free languages
𝐿2 = The context-sensitive languages
𝐿3 = The recursively enumerable languages
𝐿4 = The recursive languages
Which one of the following options is correct?
(1) 𝐿1 ⊆ 𝐿2 ⊆ 𝐿3 ⊆ 𝐿4
(2) 𝐿2 ⊆ 𝐿1 ⊆ 𝐿3 ⊆ 𝐿4
(3) 𝐿1 ⊆ 𝐿2 ⊆ 𝐿4 ⊆ 𝐿3
(4) 𝐿2 ⊆ 𝐿1 ⊆ 𝐿4 ⊆ 𝐿3

101. Consider the following statements:

𝑆1 : These exists no algorithm for deciding if any two Turing machines 𝑀1 and 𝑀2 accept the same
language.
𝑆2 : Let 𝑀1 and 𝑀2 be arbitrary Turing machines. The problem to determine 𝐿(𝑀1 ) ⊆ 𝐿(𝑀2 ) is
undecidable.
Which of the statements is (are) correct?
(1) Only 𝑆1
(2) Only 𝑆2
(3) Both 𝑆1 and 𝑆2
(4) Neither 𝑆1 nor 𝑆2

102. Let 𝐴 = {001,0011,11,101} and = {01,111,111,010). Similarly, let 𝐶 = {00,001,1000} and

𝐷 = {0,11,011}.
Which of the following pairs have a post-correspondence solution?
(1) Only pair (𝐴, 𝐵)
(2) Only pair (𝐶, 𝐷)
(3) Both (𝐴, 𝐵) and (𝐶, 𝐷)
(4) Neither (𝐴, 𝐵) nor (𝐶, 𝐷)

103. Which of the following class of IP address has the last address as 223.255.255.255?
(1)Class A
(2)Class B
(3)Class C
(4)Class D

104. Consider a subnet with 720 routers. If a three-level hierarchy is chosen .with eight clusters
.each containing 9 regions of 10 routers, then total number of entries in hierarchical table of each
router is
(1) 25
(2) 27
(3) 53
(4) 72

105. Piconet is a basic unit of a bluetooth system consisting of___________ master node and up
to___________ active slave nodes.
(1) One, five
(3) Two, eight
(2) One, seven
(4) One, eight

106. A network with bandwidth of 10 Mbps can pass only an average of 12,000 frames per minute
with each frame carrying an average of 10,000 bits. What is the throughput of this network?
(1) 1,000,000 bps
(2) 2,000,000 bps
(3) 12,000,000 bps
(4) 1.200,00,000 bps

107. The full form of ICANN is

(1) Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers
(2) Internet Corporation for Assigned Numbers and Names
(3) Institute of Cooperation for Assigned Names and Numbers
(4) Internet Connection for Assigned Names and Numbers

108. According to Dempster-Shafer theory for uncertainty management.

(1) 𝐵𝑒𝑙(𝐴) + 𝐵𝑒𝑙(−𝐴) ≤ 1
(2) 𝐵𝑒𝑙(𝐴) + 𝐵𝑒𝑙(−𝐴) ≥ 1
(3) 𝐵𝑒𝑙(𝐴) + 𝐵𝑒𝑙(−𝐴) = 1
(4) 𝐵𝑒𝑙(𝐴) + 𝐵𝑒𝑙(−𝐴) = 0
Where 𝐵𝑒𝑙(𝐴) denotes Belief of event 𝐴.

109. Consider the following statements:

𝑆1 : ∀𝑥 𝑃(𝑥) ∨ ∀𝑥𝑄(𝑥) 𝑎𝑛𝑑 ∀𝑥 (𝑃(𝑥) ∨ 𝑄(𝑥)) are not logically equivalent.
𝑆2 : ∃𝑥 𝑃(𝑥) ∧ ∃𝑥 𝑄(𝑥) 𝑎𝑛𝑑 ∃𝑥 (𝑃(𝑥) ∧ 𝑄(𝑥)) are not logically equivalent
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(1) Only 𝑆1
(2) Only 𝑆2
(3) Both 𝑆1 and 𝑆2
(4) Neither 𝑆1 nor 𝑆2

110. Consider the game tree given below

Here and represent MIN and MAX nodes respectively. The value of the root node of the
game tree is;
(1) 14
(2) 17
(3) 111
(4) 112

111. Consider the following models:

𝑀1 : Mamdani model
𝑀2 : Takagi - Sugeno-Kang model
𝑀3 : Kosko's additive model (𝑆𝐴𝑀)
Which of the following option contains examples of additive rule model?
(1) Only 𝑀1 and 𝑀2
(2) Only 𝑀2 and 𝑀3
(3) Only 𝑀1 and 𝑀3
(4) 𝑀1 , 𝑀2 , and 𝑀3

112. A fuzzy conjunction operators, 𝑡(𝑥, 𝑦), and a fuzzy disjunction operator, 𝑠 (𝑥, 𝑦), form a pair
𝑥𝑦
if they satisfy: 𝑡(𝑥, 𝑦) = 1 − 𝑠(1 − 𝑥. 1 − 𝑦). If 𝑡(𝑥, 𝑦) = 𝑥+𝑦−𝑥𝑦
then 𝑠(𝑥, 𝑦) is given by
𝑥+𝑦
(1)
1−𝑥𝑦
𝑥+𝑦−2𝑥𝑦
(2) 1−𝑥𝑦
𝑥+𝑦−𝑥𝑦
(3) 1−𝑥𝑦
𝑥+𝑦−𝑥𝑦
(4) 1+𝑥𝑦
113. Let 𝑊𝑖𝑗 represents weight between node 𝑖 at layer 𝑘 and node 𝑗 at layer (𝑘 − 1) of a given
multilayer perceptron. The weight updation using gradient descent method is given by
𝜕𝐸
(1) 𝑊𝑖𝑗 (𝑡 + 1) = 𝑊𝑖𝑗 (𝑡) + 𝑎 ,0 ≤ 𝑎 ≤ 1
𝜕𝑊𝑖𝑗
𝜕𝐸
(2) 𝑊𝑖𝑗 (𝑡 + 1) = 𝑊𝑖𝑗 (𝑡) − 𝑎 ,0 ≤ 𝑎 ≤ 1
𝜕𝑊𝑖𝑗
𝜕𝐸
(3) 𝑊𝑖𝑗 (𝑡 + 1) = 𝑎 𝜕𝑊 , 0 ≤ 𝑎 ≤ 1
𝑖𝑗
𝜕𝐸
(4) 𝑊𝑖𝑗 (𝑡 + 1) = 𝑎 𝜕𝑊 , 𝑜 ≤ 𝑎 ≤ 1
𝑖𝑗

Where a and E represents learning rate and Error in the output respectively.

114. The order of schema ? 10? 101? and ? ? ? 0? ? 1 are__________ and ___________ respectively.
(1) 5.3
(2) 5.2
(3) 7.5
(4)8.7

115. Let the population of chromosomes in genetic algorithm is represented in terms of binary
number. The strength of fitness of a chromosome in decimal form, 𝑥. is given by 𝑆𝑓 (𝑥) =
𝑓(𝑥)
𝑤ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑒 𝑓 (𝑥) = 𝑥 2 The population is given by P where:
∑𝑓(𝑥)
𝑃 = {(01101, (11000), (01000), (10011)}
The strength of fitness of chromosome (11000) is___________.
(1) 24
(2) 576
(3) 14.4
(4) 49.2

116. Consider the following statements:

𝑆1 : If a group (𝐺.∗) is of order n, and 𝑎 = 𝐺 is such that 𝑎𝑚 = 𝑒 for some integer 𝑚 ≤ 𝑛. then 𝑚
must divide 𝑛.
𝑆2 : If a group (𝐺.∗) is of even order, then there must be an element 𝑎 ∈ 𝐺 such that 𝑎 ≠ 𝑒 and
𝑎 ∗ 𝑎 = 𝑒.
Which of the statements is (are) correct?
(1) Only 𝑆1
(2) Only 𝑆2
(3) Both 𝑆1 and 𝑆2
(4) Neither 𝑆₁ nor 𝑆₂

117. Consider the following statements with respect to duality in LPP:

(a) The final simplex table giving optimal solution of the primal also contains optimal solution of its
dual in itself.
(b) If either the primal or the dual problem has a finite optimal solution, then the other problem
also has a finite optimal solution.
(c) If either problem has an unbounded optimum solution, then the other problem has no feasible
solution at all.
Which of the statements is (are) correct?
(1) only (a) and (b)
(2) only (a) and (c)
(3) only (b) and (c)
(4) (a), (b) and (c)

118. The Reduced Instruction Set Computer (RISC) characteristics are:

(a) Single cycle instruction execution
(b) Variable length instruction formats
(c) Instructions that manipulates operands in memory
(d) Efficient instruction pipeline
Choose the correct characteristics from the options given below:
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (b) and (c)
(3) (a) and (d)
(4) (c) and (d)

119. Which of the following binary codes for decimal digits are self-complementing?
(a) 8421 code
(b) 2421 code
(c) excess-3 code
(d) excess-3 gray code
Choose the correct option:
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (b) and (c)
(3) (c) and (d)
(4) (d) and (a)

120. Consider the following statements with respect to approaches to fill area on raster systems:
𝑃: To determine the overlap intervals for scan lines that cross the area.
𝑄: To start from a given interior position and paint outward from this point until we encounter the
specified boundary conditions.
Select the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) 𝑃 only
(2) 𝑄 only
(3) Both 𝑃 and 𝑄
(4) Neither 𝑃 nor 𝑄
121. Which of the following statements are true regarding C++?
(a) Overloading gives the capability to an existing operator to operate on other data types.
(b) Inheritance in object oriented programming provides support to reusability.
(c) When object of a derived class is defined, first the constructor of derived class is executed then
constructor of a base class is executed.
(d) Overloading is a type of polymorphism.
Choose the correct option from those given below:
(1) (a) and (b) only
(2) (a), (b) and (c) only
(3) (a), (b) and (d) only
(4) (b), (c) and (d) only

122. Which of the following are legal statements in C programming language?

(a) 𝑖𝑛𝑡 ∗ 𝑃 = &44;
(b) 𝑖𝑛𝑡 𝑃 = &𝑟;
(c) 𝑖𝑛𝑡 𝑃 = &𝑎;
(d) 𝑖𝑛𝑡 𝑃 = 𝑎;
Choose the correct option:
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (b) and (c)
(3) (b) and (d)
(4) (a) and (d)

123. Two concurrent executing transactions 𝑇1 and 𝑇₂ are allowed to update same stock item say
′𝐴′ in an uncontrolled manner. In such scenario, following problems may occur:
(a) Dirty read problem
(b) Lost update problem
(c) Transaction failure
(d) Inconsistent database state
Which of the following option is correct if database system has no concurrency module and allows
concurrent execution of above two transactions?
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only
(2) (c) and (d) only
(3) (a) and (b) only
(4) (a), (b) and (d) only

124. Identify the circumstances under which pre-emptive CPU scheduling is used:
(a) A process switches from running state to Ready state
(b) A process switches from waiting state to Ready state
(c) A process completes its execution
(d) A process switches from Ready to waiting state
Choose the correct option:
(1) (a) and (b) only
(2) (a) and (d) only
(3) (c) and (d) only
(4) (a), (b), (c) only

125. The following multithreaded algorithm computes transpose of a matrix in parallel :

p Trans (𝑋, 𝑌, 𝑁)
if 𝑁 = 1
then 𝑌 [1,1] ⟵ 𝑋 [1,1]
else partition 𝑋 into four (𝑁/2) × (𝑁/2) submatrices 𝑋11 , 𝑋12 , 𝑋21 , 𝑋22
partition Yinto four (𝑁/2) × (𝑁/2) submatrices 𝑌11 , 𝑌12 , 𝑌21 , 𝑌22
spawn p Trans (𝑋11 , 𝑌11 , 𝑁/2)
spawn p Trans (𝑋12 , 𝑌12 , 𝑁/2)
spawn p Trans (𝑋21 , 𝑌21 , 𝑁/2)
spawn p Trans (𝑋22 , 𝑌22 , 𝑁/2)
What is the asymptotic parallelism of the algorithm?
(1) 𝑇1 /𝑇∞ 𝑜𝑟 𝜃(𝑁 2 /𝑙𝑔 𝑁)
(2) 𝑇1 /𝑇∞ 𝑜𝑟𝜃(𝑁/𝑙𝑔 𝑁)
(3) 𝑇1 /𝑇∞ 𝑜𝑟 𝜃(𝑙𝑔 𝑁/𝑁²)
(4) 𝑇1 /𝑇∞ 𝑜𝑟 𝜃(𝑙𝑔 𝑁/𝑁)

126. Consider the following statements:

(a) The running time of dynamic programming algorithm is alway 𝜃(𝑝) where p is number of sub
problems.
(b) When a recurrence relation has cyclic dependency, it is impossible to use that recurrence
relation (unmodified) in a correct dynamic program.
(c) For a dynamic programming algorithm, computing all values in a bottom-up fashion is
asymptotically faster than using recursion and memorization.
(d) If a problem X can be reduced to a known NP-hard problem, then X must be NP-hard.
Which of the statement(s) is (are) true?
(1) Only (b) and (a)
(2) Only (b)
(3) Only (b) and (c)
(4) Only (b) and (d)

127. Consider the following statements:

(a) Fiber optic cable is much lighter than copper cable.
(b) Fiber optic cable is not affected by power surges or electromagnetic interference.
(c) Optical transmission is inherently bidirectional.
Which of the statements is (are) correct?
(1) Only (a) and (b)
(2) Only (a) and (c)
(3) Only (b) and (c)
(4) (a), (b) and (c)

128. Consider the following statements:

(a) Windows Azure is a cloud-based operating system.
(b) Google App Engine is an integrated set of online services for consumers to communicate and
share with others.
(c) Amazon Cloud Front is a web service for content delivery.
Which of the statements is (are) correct?
(1) Only (a) and (b)
(2) Only (a) and (c)
(3) Only (b) and (c)
(4) (a), (b) and (c)

129. Consider the following statements with respect to network security:

(a) Message confidentiality means that the sender and the receiver expect privacy.
(b) Message integrity means that the data must arrive at the receiver exactly as they were sent.
(c) Message authentication means the receiver is ensured that the message is coming from the
intended sender.
Which of the statements is (are) correct?
(1) Only (a) and (b)
(2) Only (a) and (c)
(3) Only (b) and (c)
(4) (a), (b) and (c)

130. Consider the following:

(a) Trapping at local maxima
(b) Reaching a plateau
(c) Traversal along the ridge.
Which of the following option represents shortcomings of the hill climbing algorithm?
(1) (a) and (b) only
(2) (a) and (c) only
(3) (b) and (c) only
(4) (a), (b) and (c)

131. Consider the following learning algorithms:

(a) Logistic repression
(b) Back propogation
(c) Linear repression
Which of the following option represents classification algorithms?
(1) (a) and (b) only
(2) (a) and (c) only
(3) (b) and (c) only
(4) (a). (b) and (c)

132. Match List-I and List-II :

List I List II
(a) Physical layer (i)Provide token management service.
(b)Transport layer (ii)Concerned with transmitting raw bits
over a communication channel.
(c)Session layer (iii)Concerned with the syntax and
semantics of the information transmitted.
(d)Presentation layer (iv)True end-to-end from source to
destination.
Choose the correct option from those given below:
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

133. According to the 𝐼𝑆𝑂 − 9126 Standard Quality Model. Match the attributes given in List-I with
their definitions in List-II:
List I List II
(a) Functionality (i) Relationship between level of performance and amount of
resources.
(b) Reliability (ii) Characteristics related with achievement of purpose.
(c) Efficiency (iii) Effort needed to make for improvement.
(d) maintainability (iv) Capability of software to maintain performance of software.
Choose the correct option from the ones given below:
(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

134. Match the Agile Process models with the task performed during the model:
List I List II
(a) Scrum (i) CRC cards
(b) Adaptive software development (ii) sprint backlog
(c) Extreme programming (iv) < 𝑎𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 > 𝑡ℎ𝑒 < 𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑢𝑙𝑡 > < 𝑏𝑦/𝑓𝑜𝑟/𝑜𝑓/𝑡𝑜 >
𝑎(𝑛) < 𝑜𝑏𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡 >
(d) Feature-driven development (iv) Time box release plan
Choose the correct option from those given below:
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(2) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

135. Match List-I with List-II :

List I List II
(a) Frame attribute (i) to create link in HTML
(b) < 𝑡𝑟 > tag (ii) for vertical alignment of content in cell
(c) Valign attribute (iii) to enclose each row in table
(d) < 𝑎 > tag (iv) to specify the side of the table frame that
display border
Choose the correct option from those given below:
(1)(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(2)(a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

136. An instruction is stored at location 500 with its address field at location 501. The address field
has the value 400. A processor register R1 contains the number 200. Match the addressing mode
(List-I) given below with effective address (List-II) for the given instruction:
List I List II
(a) Direct (i) 200
(b) Register indirect (ii) 902
(c) Index with 𝑅1 as the index register (iii) 400
(d) Relative (iv) 600
Choose the correct option from those given below:
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(2) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

137. Match List-I and List-II :

List I List II
(a) Isolated I/O (i) same set of control signal for I/O and memory
communication.
(b) Memory mapped I/O (ii) separate instructions for I/O and memory communication
(c) I/O interface (iii) requires control signals to be transmitted between the
communicating units
(d) Asynchronous data transfer (iv) resolve the differences in central computer and
peripherals
Choose the correct option from those given below:
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(2) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

138. Match List-I with List-II :

List I List II
(a) Micro operation (i) Specify micro operations
(b) Micro programmed control unit (ii) Improve CPU utilization
(c) Interrupts (iii) Control memory
(d) Micro instruction (iv) Elementary operations performed on data
stored in registers.
Choose the correct option from those given below:
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

139.

Figure 1
The sequence diagram given in Figure 1 for the Weather Information System takes place when an
external system requests the summarized data from the weather station. The increasing order of
lifeline for the objects in the system are:
(1) Sat comms → Weather station → Commslink→ Weather data
(2) Sat comms → Comms link→ Weather station → Weather data
(3) Weather data → Comms link→ Weather station → Sat Comms
(4) Weather data → Weather station → Comms link→ Sat Comms

140. The Data Encryption Standard (DES) has a function consists of four steps. Which of the
following is correct order of these four steps?
(1) an expansion permutation, S-boxes, an XOR operation, a straight permutation
(2) an expansion permutation, an XOR operation, S-boxes, a straight permutation
(3) a straight permutation. S-boxes, an XOR operation. an expansion permutation
(4) a straight permutation, an XOR operation, S-boxes, an expansion permutation

Answer the following questions (91-95) based on flow graph F

A flow graph F with entry node (1) and exit node (11) is shown below:

141. How many nodes are there in flowgraph F?

(1) 9
(2) 10
(3) 11
(4) 12

142. What is the cyclomatic complexity of flowgraph F?

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

143. How many regions are there in flowgraph F?

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

144. How many nodes are there in the longest independent path?
(1) 6
(2) 7
(3) 8
(4) 9

145. How many predicate nodes are there and what are their names?
(1) Three (1. (2, 3), 6)
(2) Three: (1. 4. 6)
(3) Four: ((2, 3), 6, 10, 11)
(4) Four: ((2, 3), 6, 9, 10)

Answer question (96-100) based on the problem statement given below:

An organization needs to maintain database having five attributes 𝐴, 𝐵, 𝐶, 𝐷, 𝐸, these attributes are
functionally dependent on each other for which functionally dependency set 𝐹 is given as : (𝐴 → 𝐵𝐶,
𝐷 → 𝐸, 𝐵𝐶 → 𝐷, 𝐴 → 𝐷}. Consider a universal relation 𝑅(𝐴, 𝐵, 𝐶, 𝐷, 𝐸) with functional dependency
set 𝐹. Also all attributes are simple and take atomic values only.

146. Minimal cover 𝐹′ of functional dependency set 𝐹 is.

(1) 𝐹′ = {𝐴 → 𝐵, 𝐴 → 𝐶, 𝐵𝐶 → 𝐷, 𝐷 → 𝐸}
(2) 𝐹′ = {𝐴 → 𝐵𝐶, 𝐵 → 𝐷, 𝐷 → 𝐸}
(3) 𝐹 ′ = {𝐴 → 𝐵, 𝐴 → 𝐶, 𝐴 → 𝐷, 𝐷 → 𝐸}
(4) 𝐹′ = {𝐴 → 𝐵, 𝐴 → 𝐶, 𝐵 → 𝐷, 𝐶 → 𝐷, 𝐷 → 𝐸}

147. Identify primary key of table 𝑅 with functional dependency set 𝐹.

(1) 𝐵𝐶
(2) 𝐴𝐷
(3) 𝐴
(4) 𝐴𝐵

148. Identify the normal form in which relation 𝑅 belong to.

(1) 1 𝑁𝐹
(2) 2 𝑁𝐹
(3) 3 𝑁𝐹
(4) 𝐵𝐶𝑁𝐹

149. Identify the redundant functional dependency in 𝐹.

(1) 𝐵𝐶 → 𝐷
(2) 𝐷 → 𝐸
(3) 𝐴 → 𝐷
(4) 𝐴 → 𝐵𝐶

150. Assume that given table R is decomposed in two tables

𝑅1 (𝐴, 𝐵, 𝐶) with functional dependency set 𝑓₁ = {𝐴 → 𝐵, 𝐴 → 𝐶} and
𝑅2 (𝐴, 𝐷, 𝐸) with 𝐹𝐷 set 𝐹₂ = {𝐴 → 𝐷, 𝐷 → 𝐸}.
Which of the following option is true w.r.t. given decomposition?
(1) Dependency preservation property is followed
(2) 𝑅1 and 𝑅₂ are both in 2 𝑁𝐹
(3) 𝑅₂ is in 2 𝑁𝐹 and 𝑅3 is in 3 𝑁𝐹
(4) 𝑅1 is in 3 𝑁𝐹 and 𝑅₂ is in 2 𝑁𝐹