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polity question 2

This document is a test booklet for General Studies - Paper I, focusing on Indian Polity II, containing instructions for candidates regarding the examination process. It outlines the structure of the test, including the number of questions, marking scheme, and penalties for incorrect answers. The booklet also includes sample questions related to various aspects of Indian polity and governance.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
16 views22 pages

polity question 2

This document is a test booklet for General Studies - Paper I, focusing on Indian Polity II, containing instructions for candidates regarding the examination process. It outlines the structure of the test, including the number of questions, marking scheme, and penalties for incorrect answers. The booklet also includes sample questions related to various aspects of Indian polity and governance.

Uploaded by

bhimaraybhimu0
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 22

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com/

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

PRESTORMINGTM
Test Booklet Series
TEST BOOKLET
T.B.C : P-SIA-A-GS
GENERAL STUDIES - PAPER – I
Serial : P-GSI-242508
INDIAN POLITY II
TEST – 08
A
Time Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks : 200

INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT
THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS,
ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOK SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE
APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box
provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises
four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In
case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the
best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in
the Answer Sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks.

7. Sooner than you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet,
you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your
Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take
away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for Wrong answers :
THERE WILL BE A PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE
TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong
answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.66) of the marks assigned to that question
will be deducted as a penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the
given answers happens to be correct and there will be the same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.
DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

(1-A)
SIA-A-GS I

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1. Consider the following : 4. With reference to Kangaroo courts, consider the

1. Education following statements :


2. Protection of wild animals and birds 1. It is an unofficial court held by a group of
3. Banking retired High Court judges.
4. Inter-state trade and commerce 2. Their judgments or verdicts are legally
5. Administration of justice
binding on the parties.
How many of the above mentioned subjects
3. Appeal against this judgment is available
was/were originally in the State List but later
within 30 days before the district High
moved to the Concurrent List through
Courts.
constitutional amendment ?
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(c) All three
(d) Only four
(d) None

2. Which of the following doctrines is based on the

rule of conduct that “What cannot be done 5. Consider the following statements with respect

directly, cannot also be done indirectly” ? to the Impeachment of the President:

(a) Doctrine of Pith and Substance 1. It is a quasi-judicial procedure.

(b) Doctrine of Harmonious Construction 2. He can only be impeached for violating the
(c) Doctrine of Colourable Legislation Constitution.
(d) Doctrine of Eclipse 3. The resolution to impeach the President can

be moved in either House of Parliament.


3. Consider the following :
4. The resolution should be passed by a
1. Single Constitution
special majority.
2. Flexibility of the Constitution
5. The president cannot represent himself in
3. Rigidity of the Constitution
person at such an investigation.
4. Supremacy of the Constitution
How many of the statements given above are
How many of the above reflect the federal
correct?
features of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Only two
(a) Only one
(b) Only three
(b) Only two

(c) Only three (c) Only four

(d) All four (d) All five

(3-A)
SIA-A-GS I

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6. Which of the following is/are the sources of law 8. The terms Snowblind, tiny banker and Zeus or

in India? Zbot, which often appeared in the news, are


related to :
1. Constitution
(a) Economic crisis, where demand is high but
2. Statutes
no supply of goods and services.
3. Customary law (b) Government bonds yield higher prices than

4. Executive legislation private players.


(c) Malware and viruses that attack computers
Select the correct answer using the code given
and personal devices.
below:
(d) New frog species found in the Caribbean
(a) 1 , 3 and 4 only
Islands.
(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only 9. When a law is enacted on a subject enumerated


in the concurrent list, the power to execute the
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
law rests with :
(a) The Union, unless the law specifically
7. Consider the following statements: confers it on the States.
1. The Constitution of India limits the number (b) The States, unless the law specifically

of members who represent the Union confers it on the Union.


(c) The Union, under all circumstances.
territories in parliament.
(d) The States, under all circumstances.
2. According to the Constitution of India, the

territorial constituencies of the Member of 10. Which of the following is applicable to the Office
Parliament should have a similar of Whip in the Indian political system ?
1. Legislative Member representing political
population.
party
3. The allocation of seats in the House of the
2. Nominated Legislative Member in Rajya
People to the States is readjusted based on
Sabha
the 2011 census. 3. Independent Legislative Member in

How many of the statements given above are parliament


Select the correct answer using the codes given
correct?
below:
(a) Only one
(a) 1 only
(b) Only two (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) All three (c) 2 and 3 only

(d) None (d) 1, 2 and 3

(4-A)
SIA-A-GS I

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11. Which of the following is not a factor that limits Which one of the following is correct in respect
of the above statements?
the sovereignty of the Indian Parliament?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(a) Federal system of government correct and Statement-II explains
(b) System of Judicial Review Statement-I.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(c) Written Constitution
correct, but Statement-II does not explain
(d) Directive Principles of State Policy Statement-I.
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is
incorrect.
12. With reference to the Syntrichia caninervis, (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is
consider the following statements : correct.

1. The species can be found in arid and semi-


14. Consider the following statements :
arid areas. 1. The Indian Constitution defines the role of
Cabinet Committees.
2. It grows on soil and rocks and can be found
2. The Prime Minister always acts as the
on all continents except Antarctica. Chairperson of all Cabinet Committees.
3. It can withstand higher temperatures but is 3. Only Cabinet Ministers can be members of
Cabinet Committees.
not adapted to cold environments.
How many of the above statements is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) Only one
correct ?
(b) Only two
(a) 1 only (c) All three
(b) 2 only (d) None

(c) 3 only
15. Regarding the procedure for amendment,
(d) 1, 2 and 3 which of the following statements is not
correct?
(a) It can be initiated by the introduction of a
13. Consider the following statement: bill for the purpose in either House of
Statement-I: Parliament or the state legislature.
(b) The bill can be introduced either by a
The President of India can grant pardons to
minister or by a private member and does
any person convicted of any offence. not require prior permission of the
President.
Statement-II:
(c) There is no provision for holding a joint
The pardoning powers are given to the sitting of the two houses for the purpose of
President for removing the extreme rigidity deliberation and passage of the bill.
(d) The bill must be passed in each house by a
in the criminal laws.
special majority.

(5-A)
SIA-A-GS I

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16. With reference to additional Tier I and Tier II 18. For how many of the following elections in India
bonds, consider the following statements : is it mandatory for a candidate to meet a
domicile requirement from that particular
1. Additional tier I bonds have no maturity
constituency?
date but have a call option.
1. Election to Lok Sabha Constituency
2. Tier II bonds carry a higher risk than 2. Election to Rajya Sabha Seat
Additional Tier I bonds. 3. Election to State Legislative Assembly
3. Both bonds can be converted to equity if constituency

the bank's capital falls below a threshold. Select the correct answer using the codes :
(a) Only one
How many of the above statements are correct?
(b) Only two
(a) Only one
(c) All three
(b) Only two (d) None
(c) All three
(d) None 19. Consider the following pairs :
Tax category Taxes
1. Taxes levied by the - Stamp duties on
17. With reference to Motions as procedural devices
Centre but collected bills of exchange,
for raising matters of public interest in the
and appropriated by cheques, and
Legislatures, consider the following statements:
the States promissory notes.
1. A Calling Attention Motion is an Indian 2. Taxes levied, collected - Taxes on the
innovation in Parliamentary procedure and and retained by the consignment of

also finds mention in the Rules of States goods in the


course of inter-
Procedure.
state trade or
2. An Adjournment Motion can be used only
commerce.
in the Lower House of a Legislature as it 3. Taxes levied and - Taxes on
involves an element of censure against the collected by the centre professions,
government. but assigned to the trades, callings

3. A Motion of No-confidence can be passed States and


employments.
only against the Council of Ministers as a
4. Taxes levied and - Cess levied for
body and not against an individual
collected by the Centre specific purposes
minister. but distributed
Which of the statements given above are between the Centre
correct? and the States
How many of the above pairs is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) Only one
(b) 1 and 3 only
(b) Only two
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) Only three
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All four
(6-A)
SIA-A-GS I

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20. The Financial Inclusion Index 2024 is released 23. Consider the following statements with respect
by : to Chief Minister :
(a) NITI Aayog 1. She/He has the duty to communicate to the
(b) Ministry of Finance Governor of the State all decisions related
(c) Reserve Bank of India to proposal for legislation.
(d) World Bank 2. She/He can be dismissed by the Governor
of the State at any time.
21. Consider the following statements : 3. She/He are members of the National
1. Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS) are Development Council.
those schemes which are implemented by
4. She/He advises the Governor on the
the state government but sponsored by the
appointment of the State Election
central government with a defined
Commissioner.
shareholding.
5. She/He is responsible for allocating
2. Central sector schemes are implemented by
portfolios among the council of ministers.
the central government and the budget or
Which of the statements given above are
finance needed for the scheme is entirely
correct?
sourced by the central government.
(a) 1, 4 and 5 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
correct ?
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
(a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
24. Which of the following rivers are the tributaries
(d) Neither 1 Nor 2
of the River Cauvery ?

22. Consider the following statements : 1. Arkavati

1. The Speaker of Lok Sabha can be removed 2. Shimsha

by an ordinary majority. 3. Lakshmantirtha

2. The Speaker of Lok Sabha submits their 4. Amaravati

resignation to the President of India. 5. Sabari

3. The Speaker vacates the office once the 6. Maner

newly elected Lok Sabha meets. 7. Noyyal


How many of the above statements is/are Select the correct answer using the code given
correct ? below :
(a) Only one (a) Only two
(b) Only two (b) Only four
(c) All three (c) Only five
(d) None (d) Only six
(7-A)
SIA-A-GS I

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25. Consider the following statements : Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
1. The Public Accounts Committee and not correct?
Committee on Estimates have only (a) 1 only
members from Lok Sabha. (b) 2 only
2. The Indian Constitution provides for the
(c) Both 1 and 2
formation of both the Public Accounts
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Committee and the Committee on
Estimates.
28. Consider the following statements with
3. The finance minister heads both of these
committees. reference to Mars :

How many of the above statements is/are 1. The temperature on Mars varies between 20

correct ? degrees Celsius and -153 degrees Celsius.

(a) Only one 2. Mars has three times more gravitational


(b) Only two force than the Earth.
(c) All three 3. Mar’s atmosphere is thinner than the
(d) None Earth’s atmosphere and contains 95 %

carbon dioxide.
26. Consider the following statements :
Which of the statements given above is/are
1. The resignation of the Prime Minister leads
correct ?
to the dissolution of the Council of
(a) 1 and 2 only
Ministers.
2. A person who is not a member of Parliament (b) 1 and 3 only

can never be the Prime Minister in India. (c) 1 only

Which of the statements given above is/are not (d) 2 and 3 only

correct ?
(a) 1 only 29. Consider the following:
(b) 2 only 1. Article 240
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. Article 244
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Article 245
How many of the above-mentioned provisions
27. Consider the following statements:
of the Indian constitution place limitations on
1. The Governor must act on the advice of the
the territorial jurisdiction of Parliament ?
Council of Ministers, except in specific
(a) Only one
situations provided by the Constitution.
2. The advice tendered by Ministers to the (b) Only two

Governor can be inquired only in the (c) All three

Supreme Court. (d) None

(8-A)
SIA-A-GS I

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30. Consider the following : 3. This scheme is jointly implemented by the


1. Hilly and difficult terrain Ministry of Science and Technology and the
2. High population density Ministry of Environment, Forest and
3. Strategic location along borders with Climate Change.
neighbouring countries. How many of the statements given above are
4. Economic and Infrastructure correct ?
backwardness.
(a) Only one
5. Non-viable nature of state finances.
(b) Only two
Which of the above factors are required criteria
(c) All three
for granting special category status in Indian
(d) None
States ?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
33. Which of the following schedules of the
(b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
Constitution of India prescribes the oath or
(c) 2, 3 and 5 only
affirmation of a candidate for Parliamentary
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
election ?

31. In which of the following cases is the (a) First Schedule

Constitutional position of a State Legislative (b) Second Schedule

Council equal to that of a State Legislative (c) Third Schedule

Assembly? (d) Fourth Schedule


1. Approval of ordinances issued by the
Governor 34. Which of the following statements regarding
2. Ratification of a Constitutional Amendment the Centre’s power to legislate on State matters
bill is correct ?
3. Enlargement of the jurisdiction of the State 1. Parliament can legislate on a State matter
Public Service Commission during a national emergency.
Select the correct codes from the options given 2. In case of a conflict between Central and
below: state laws on Concurrent List subjects, the
(a) 1 and 2 only
Central law prevails even if the state law
(b) 1 and 3 only
has received the President’s assent.
(c) 2 and 3 only
3. Parliament can legislate on a State matter if
(d) 1, 2 and 3
two or more states consent.
Select the correct codes from the options given
32. Consider the following statements with respect
below:
to the PRITHvi VIgyan Scheme :
(a) 1 and 2 only
1. This scheme will holistically address all the
(b) 1 and 3 only
five components of the earth system
(c) 2 and 3 only
2. It aims to develop technologies for mapping
marine living and non-living resources. (d) 1, 2 and 3

(9-A)
SIA-A-GS I

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35. With respect to ‘Recognized’ and ‘Registered’ 37. Consider the following statements with respect

political parties in India, consider the following to Zonal Councils:


1. They are established under the provisions
statements:
of the States Re-organisation Act, 1956.
1. The Representation of the People Act of
2. They are chaired by the Prime Minister.
1951 lays down the requirement for the 3. The ministers of the state nominated by the
registration of a political party with the Chief Minister act as members of Zonal

Election Commission of India. Councils.


4. The Chief Secretaries of the States
2. While all ‘Registered’ political parties are
represented in the Zonal Councils act as the
‘Recognized’, the reverse is not true.
Secretary of the respective Council.
3. Registered political parties enjoy the legal How many of the statements given above are

benefit of having a common symbol for not correct?


(a) Only one
contesting general elections to the Lok
(b) Only two
Sabha or State Assemblies.
(c) Only three
Which of the statements given above are (d) All four
correct?

(a) 1 only 38. Consider the following statements:


1. The total number of Ministers, including
(b) 1 and 3 only
the Prime Minister in the Union Council of
(c) 2 and 3 only
Ministers, was limited to 15% of the total
(d) 1, 2 and 3 strength of Lok sabha.
2. The constitution mandates that a State

36. Which of the following statements is correct Council Ministers must have atleast 12
members.
about Exercise Red Flag 2024?
3. In the Union Territory of Jammu and
(a) It was the first time the US Air Force
Kashmir, the maximum number of
conducted the exercise. Ministers in its Council of Ministers is
(b) It was jointly carried out by the Indian Air restricted to 10% of the total strength of its
Assembly.
Force, the Australian Air Force and the US
Which one of the statements given above are
Air Force.
correct?
(c) The Indian Air Force's Rafale aircraft made (a) 1 and 2 only
its debut in this exercise. (b) 1 and 3 only

(d) It is conducted biannually by the US Air (c) 2 and 3 only


(d) 1, 2 and 3
Force.
(10-A)
SIA-A-GS I

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39. Which of the following grants is/are made by Which of the statements given above is/are
the Parliament under extraordinary or special correct?
circumstances? (a) 1 only
1. Token Grant (b) 1 and 3 only
2. Supplementary Grant
(c) 2 only
3. Grant-in-Aid
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
42. With reference to the Finance Bill, consider the
(a) 3 only
(b) 2 only following statements:

(c) 1 and 2 only 1. It is subject to all the conditions applicable

(d) 1, 2 and 3 to a Money Bill.


2. The passage of the Bill into an Act legalises
40. Consider the following statements : the expenditure side of the budget and
1. It is a large bird found only in India. completes the process of Budget
2. It is a key indicator species of the grassland enactment.
habitat.
3. According to the Constitution of India, the
3. It is listed in Schedule I of the Indian
Bill must be enacted within 75 days of its
Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
introduction.
4. It breed mostly during the monsoon season
Which of the statements given above is/are
when females lay a single egg on open
correct?
ground.
Which of the following species is described (a) 1 only

above ? (b) 1 and 2 only


(a) Lesser Florican (c) 2 and 3 only
(b) Great Indian Bustard (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Black-necked crane
(d) Himalayan quail 43. Who constitutes the electoral college for the
election of Vice President of India ?
41. Consider the following statements:
(a) Only elected members of both the Houses of
1. PART XV of the Constitution deals with
Parliament
elections.
(b) Only elected and nominated members of
2. According to the constitution, the power to
both Houses of Parliament
decide on disputes related to the election of
Members of Parliament is vested in the high (c) Only elected members of the House of the

court. People and the Legislative Assemblies of


3. All the recognised National and State States
parties are provided free access to the state- (d) Only elected and nominated members of the
owned electronic media for campaigning. Council of States

(11-A)
SIA-A-GS I

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44. The terms “SEBEX 2, SITBEX 1 and SIMEX 4”, Which one of the following is correct in respect
recently seen in the news, is related to : of the above statements ?
(a) Fertilizers used for particular crop
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
cultivation
(b) Vaccines for malaria correct and Statement-II explains

(c) Missiles developed by DRDO Statement-I.


(d) Military explosives
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are

correct, but Statement-II does not explain


45. Consider the following statements with respect
to Waqf Amendment bill 2024 : Statement-I.

1. The Central Waqf Council consists of (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is
muslim and non-muslim members to
incorrect.
advise the central and state governments
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is
and Waqf Boards.
2. It empowers the CAG to audit the accounts correct.
of the waqf board.
3. All the government property identified as
47. Consider the following statements with respect
Waqf will be ceased.
to the Governor of the state :
4. The decisions of the Waqf Tribunal are final
and appeals against its decisions in Courts 1. The Office of the Governor is an
are prohibited. independent constitutional office under the
How many of the above statements are correct?
control of the Union Government.
(a) Only one
(b) Only two 2. No civil and criminal proceedings can be

(c) Only three instituted against him during his tenure.


(d) All four 3. In case of the death of the Governor, the

Chief Justice of the concerned High Court


46. Consider the following statements :
Statement-I : can be appointed to discharge the functions

The Inter-State Water Disputes Act of the governor.


empowers the central government to set up
How many of the statements given above are
an ad hoc tribunal to adjudicate Interstate
not correct ?
river water disputes.
Statement-II : (a) Only one

As per the Constitution, Parliament has the (b) Only two


authority to adjudicate disputes or
(c) All three
complaints regarding the inter-state rivers
(d) None
or river valleys.
(12-A)
SIA-A-GS I

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48. Which of the following statements is correct Which of the bills mentioned above can be
with respect to the Expunction in Parliament ? introduced by a Private Member of the house ?
1. It means the deletion of words or phrases (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
from the parliamentary proceedings in the (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
House if it is defamatory. (c) 3 and 4 only
2. The Secretary General of each house has (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
the authority to decide the portion to be
expunged. 51. Consider the following statements :

3. It is mentioned in the rules of procedure of 1. A Member of Parliament enjoys freedom

both the Houses of Parliament. from arrest in any case for a period of 40

Select the correct answer using the codes given days before and after the session of

below : parliament.

(a) 1 and 2 only 2. A Member of Parliament enjoys the freedom

(b) 2 and 3 only of exemption from attending as a witness in

(c) 1 and 3 only a Court.


3. The Parliament of India can punish a
(d) 1, 2 and 3
member or a non-member in the case of
contempt of Parliament.
49. Consider the following statements :
How many of the statements given above are
1. The Speaker of the House has the absolute
correct ?
power to decide cases pertaining to the
(a) Only one
disqualification of members on the grounds
(b) Only two
of defection.
(c) All three
2. A person shall not be disqualified if his
(d) None
original political party merges with another,
provided that more than one-third of the
52. With respect to Rudhram I missile, consider the
members of the party agreed to the merger.
following statements :
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
1. It is India’s first indigenous anti-radiation
correct ?
missile developed by the Defence Research
(a) 1 only
and Developmental Organization (DRDO).
(b) 2 only
2. It is equipped with INS-GPS navigation and
(c) Both 1 and 2
a Passive Homing Head to ensure precise
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
targeting of radiation-emitting sources.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
50. Consider the following :
correct ?
1. Money Bill
(a) 1 only
2. Finance Bill - I
(b) 2 only
3. Finance Bill - II (c) Both 1 and 2
4. Constitutional Amendment Bill (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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53. If the President of India exercises his power as 56. Recently, the Zoological Survey of India (ZSI)
provided under Article 352 of the Constitution recorded a new species named ‘Xenophrys
in respect of a particular State, then apatani’ in Talle Wildlife Sanctuary in achal

(a) The state legislature ceases to function. Pradesh. It is a species variety of :

(b) The fundamental rights of the citizens are (a) Mammal

not affected. (b) Reptiles


(c) Horned Frog
(c) The relationship of the centre with the state
(d) Deer
undergoes a modification.
(d) The Parliament must pass a resolution for
57. Consider the following :
its revocation.
1. Rules of procedure in Parliament
2. Quorum in Parliament
54. According to the constitution of India, which
3. Union territories
one of the following statements is not correct ?
4. Delimitation of constituencies
(a) The executive power of the Union shall be
5. Use of official language
vested in the President of India. How many of the above provisions in the
(b) The President of India is bound to act on the Constitution can be amended by a simple
advice of the Council of Ministers. majority of the two houses of parliament
(c) An election to fill a vacancy in the office of outside the scope of Article 368 ?
President occurring by reason of his death (a) Only two
shall be held within six months. (b) Only three
(d) The President shall be elected by all the (c) Only four
members of both House of Parliament and (d) All five

Legislative Assemblies.
58. Consider the following statements :

55. Consider the following concepts : 1. The Speaker of Lok Sabha has the power to
cast a vote in the first instance.
1. Concept of Due Process of Law
2. The Vice President of India cannot preside
2. Application of Public Interest Litigation
over the Joint sitting of the parliament.
3. Doctrine of Basic Structure
3. The President of India addresses the joint
4. Judicial Review
session of the parliament for the first
How many of the above were inspired from the
session of the year.
external political system towards Indian
Which of the statements given above is/are
Political system?
correct ?
(a) Only one
(a) 1 only
(b) Only two
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) Only three (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All four (d) 1, 2 and 3
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59. With respect to the Deputy Chief minister of a 62. Consider the following statements about the
state, consider the following statements :
distribution of executive powers between the
1. Only senior Members of the State
Legislature, both by age and experience, Centre and the states :
can become the Deputy Chief Minister of a
1. The executive power of the Centre extends
state.
2. Only one person at a time can be appointed to matters in the Union List.
to the post of deputy chief minister.
2. In the case of concurrent subjects, the
3. The Governor of that state administers the
oath of office to the person as a deputy chief executive power generally rests with the
minister.
Centre.
Which of the statements given above is/are not
correct ? Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 only
correct ?
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 only

60. The Moidams, which is a Mound-Burial (c) Both 1 and 2


System, has been officially inscribed on the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
UNESCO World Heritage List from which of the
following states ?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
63. Consider the following statements :
(b) Assam
(c) Odisha 1. Definiteness in policies
(d) Manipur
2. Responsible government

61. Consider the following situation in the context 3. Harmony between legislature and executive
of Indian political system :
4. Chances of an alternate government
A person X is the President of India and whose
tenure ends on November 11th, 2024. Suppose without fresh elections
if no one takes oath of office as the Next
How many of the above statements is /are the
President of India on that day, then what will
happen ? merits of the Indian Parliamentary system over
(a) Mr X will continue in Office till the next
the Presidential system of Government in
president takes the oath of office.
(b) The Vice President of India will assume the the US ?
office of President of India.
(a) Only one
(c) The Chief Justice of India will assume the
office of president for the time being. (b) Only two
(d) The Office of the President will be
(c) Only three
declared vacant by the Election
Commission of India. (d) All four

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64. With respect to Fly ash, consider the following 66. With reference to the Centre-state financial
statements : relations, consider the following statements :
1. It is made from the combustion of
1. There are 13 subjects enumerated on the
pulverised coal in a thermal Power Plant.
Concurrent list in which both the
2. Its composition is rich in silicon dioxide and
Parliament and State legislature can levy
calcium oxide.
3. It consists of silt-sized particles ranging taxes.

from 10 to 100 microns. 2. A State legislature cannot impose tax on the


4. It is used as structural fill for road sale of electricity to the centre.
construction and to make bricks and
3. A State legislature is prohibited from
ceramic tiles.
imposing a tax on the supply of goods that
How many of the above statements is/are
takes place outside the state.
not correct ?
(a) Only two How many of the above statements are correct?

(b) Only three (a) Only one

(c) All four (b) Only two


(d) None
(c) All three

(d) None
65. Consider the following statements :
1. Article 2 empowers Parliament to admit or
establish states that were not previously 67. Consider the following statements :

part of India. 1. An eminent jurist in the opinion of the

2. Article 3 allows Parliament to reorganize President of India is qualified to be


existing states but requires the affected
appointed as the Attorney General of India.
state legislature’s consent.
2. The Attorney General of India must have
3. Article 2 also grants Parliament the
the same qualifications as that of a judge of
authority to adjust the territories of
constituent states within the Union of the Supreme Court.

India. Which of the statements given above is/are

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?


correct ?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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68. ‘Earth energy imbalance (EEI) ’best refers to Which of the statements given above is/are
which one of the following statements? correct ?
(a) It refers to a period when the global (a) 1 and 2 only
temperature rises above 1.5°C and then (b) 2 and 3 only
cools down again. (c) 3 and 4 only
(b) It refers to the difference between the
(d) 1 and 4 only
incoming energy from the Sun and the
outgoing energy from the Earth.
71. If Mr. Y wishes to become the Member of
(c) It refers to the effect of long-term shifts in
Parliament from his/her constituency. Then,
temperature and weather patterns over the
which of the following qualifications Mr. Y must
oceans on Earth.
possess as expressly prescribed in the
(d) None of the above.
Constitution of India ?

69. Consider the following statements : (a) He/she must be a citizen of India.

1. Governors are responsible for notifying (b) He/she must not be less than 30 years of

Scheduled Areas within their States. age in the case of both Lok Sabha and Rajya
2. Governors of the concerned States are Sabha elections.
required to submit annual reports to the (c) He/she must be registered as an elector for
Prime Minister on the administration of a parliamentary constituency.
Scheduled Areas in the States. (d) He/she must be a member of a scheduled
Which of the statements given above is/are caste or tribe in any state if they want to
correct ?
contest a seat reserved for them.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
72. With reference to National Crisis Management
(c) Both 1 and 2
Committee (NCMC), consider the following
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
statements:
1. It has been constituted under the
70. Consider the following statements :
In a scenario when the resolution for the chairmanship of the Cabinet Secretary.

removal of the Speaker is under consideration, 2. It gives directions to the Crisis Management

then Group, where it reviews the measures


1. The Speaker can preside over the House. required to deal with a natural calamity.
2. The Speaker shall have the right to speak in Which of the statements given above is/are not
the House correct ?
3. The Speaker can take part in the (a) 1 only
proceedings of the House (b) 2 only
4. The Speaker shall have the right to vote for (c) Both 1 and 2
equality of votes.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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73. Regarding the role of the President in the Which one of the following is correct in respect
Parliament, how many of the following is/are of the above statements ?
mentioned in the Constitution ? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
1. The President of India is an integral part of correct and Statement-II explains
the Parliament Statement-I
2. The President shall not be a member of (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
either House of Parliament or of a House of
correct, but Statement-II does not explain
the Legislature
Statement-I
3. The President is authorised to dissolve the
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is
Lok Sabha at any time that can be
incorrect
challenged in a court of law
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is
4. The emoluments and allowances of the
correct
President shall not be diminished during
his term of office.
76. The 120-km “Blue Line” is a United Nations-
Select the correct answer :
(a) Only one recognized demarcation line between which of

(b) Only two the following ?

(c) Only three (a) Israel and Egypt

(d) All four (b) Israel and Lebanon


(c) Israel and the Gaza Strip
74. Which of the following election processes of the (d) Israel and the West Bank
Union Executive is not explicitly mentioned in
the Indian Constitution ? 77. Which of the following provisions can be
(a) Election to the office of Vice-President amended by a Special Majority of Parliament
(b) Election to the office of President and the Consent of States ?
(c) Election to the office of Prime Minister 1. List I in the Seventh schedule
(d) None of the above
2. Representation of states in Parliament
3. Goods and Services Tax Council
75. Consider the following statements :
4. Power of Parliament to amend the
Statement-I :
Constitution and its procedures
In the concurrent subject, the ordinance-
5. Delimitation of constituencies
making power is the discretionary power of
Select the correct answer using the codes given
the Governor.
below :
Statement-II :
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
The Governor's ordinance-making power
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
relating to concurrent subjects will prevail
if it is made in pursuance of ‘instructions’ (c) 2, 3 and 4 only

of the President. (d) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only

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78. Regarding Financial committees in the How many of the above statements is/are
Parliament, which of the following statements correct ?

is not correct ? (a) Only one


(b) Only two
(a) All the financial committees consist of only
(c) Only three
Lok Sabha members.
(d) All four
(b) A minister cannot be elected as a member
of any financial committees. 81. With respect to Cabinet committees, consider
(c) The term of office of the member of any the following statements :
financial committee does not exceed one 1. They are extra constitutional bodies set up

year. by the Prime Minister


2. Political Affairs committee is called Super
(d) All the members of each financial
Cabinet where it deals with all policy
committee are elected by proportional
matters related to domestic and foreign
representation by single transferable vote. affairs.
3. In addition to cabinet committee, Group of
79. Consider the following statements : Ministers is constituted as ad hoc body as
1. In the state legislature, the money bills do per the recommendations of second ARC

not require the governor's prior commission.


How many of the above statements are correct?
recommendation for introduction.
(a) Only one
2. With respect to Money bills, the State
(b) Only two
Legislative Council and the Council of the (c) All three
States have similar powers. (d) None
Which of the statements given above is/are not
correct ? 82. As per the 106th Amendment Act 2023 ,one-

(a) 1 only third of the seats are reserved for women in


which of the following Union and state
(b) 2 only
legislatures ?
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. Lok Sabha
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. Rajya Sabha
3. State Legislative Assembly
80. AI-based CCTV surveillance system has a wide 4. Legislative Assembly of National Capital
range of applications in the real world. Which Territory of Delhi

of the following better uses this technology ? 5. State Legislative Council


Select the correct answer using the codes given
1. Monitor wild animals and curb poaching
below :
2. Curb cheating and impersonation in
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
examinations (b) 2, 4 and 5 only
3. Ensuring compliance in schools (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
4. Reducing road accident deaths (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

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83. With reference to the Model Code of Conduct, Which one of the statements given above is/are
consider the following statements : correct?
1. The Model Code has been issued by the (a) 1 only
Supreme Court of India to ensure the
(b) 2 only
conduct of free and fair elections.
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. Some malpractices mentioned in the Model
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Code are listed as ‘corrupt practices’ and
‘electoral offences’ in the Representation of
the People Act of 1951. 86. In which of the following instances does the

Which one of the statements given above is/are Council of States enjoy exclusive powers that
correct ? are not enjoyed by the House of the People?
(a) 1 only (a) Passage of a Constitution amendment bill
(b) 2 only (b) Enlargement of the jurisdiction of the
(c) Both 1 and 2 Supreme Court
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Approval of ordinances issued by the
President
84. Consider the following statements regarding
(d) Authorising Parliament to create a new All-
physics at high angular resolution in nearby
India Service
galaxies (PHANG) project :
1. The project aims to understand the
interplay of the small-scale physics of gas 87. With reference to the initiatives of NITI Aayog,
and star formation with galactic structure which of the following is/are correct?
and galaxy evolution. 1. The ‘NITI For States’ platform aids officials
2. It makes high-resolution observations of in quality decision-making.
nearby galaxies with several telescopes, 2. The Aspirational Districts Programme
including Hubble Space and James Webb
promotes government scheme delivery.
Space Telescopes.
3. Sampoornata Abhiyan aims to develop
Which of the statements given above is/are
an economic growth strategy for Indian city
correct ?
regions.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only 4. SDG India Index 2023-24 saw improvement

(c) Both 1 and 2 in the overall score of every state.


(d) Neither 1 nor 2 5. The Growth Hub Program aims to provide
screening for lifestyle diseases.
85. With reference to Parliamentary privileges, Select the correct answer using the code given
consider the following statements: below:
1. Originally, the Constitution of India did not
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
provide for any Parliamentary privilege.
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
2. The Attorney General and Solicitor General
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
of India enjoy Parliamentary privileges
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
when they take part in House proceedings.

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88. Consider the following statements with Select the correct answer using the codes given
reference to the Primary Amoebic below:
Meningoencephalitis: (a) 1 and 2 only
1. It is a communicable and fatal infection (b) 1 and 3 only
affecting brain tissues.
(c) 2 and 3 only
2. This brain-eating amoeba thrives only in
(d) 1, 2 and 3
colder climates around the world.
3. Though no specific treatment is available,
91. Which of the following constitute the
anti-fungal and anti-microbial drugs are
electorates in the elections to the Legislative
used.
Which of the statements given above is/are Councils of the State?

correct ? 1. Members of municipalities

(a) 1 and 2 only 2. District boards


(b) 3 only 3. Primary school teachers
(c) 2 only 4. Member of Legislative Assembly
(d) 1 and 3 only 5. Member of Parliament
Select the correct answer using the code given
89. Consider the following statements:
below:
1. The Council of Ministers is collectively
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
responsible for both the houses of
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
Parliament.
(c) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
2. The Council of Ministers holds office during
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
the pleasure of the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? 92. With reference to Auroras, consider the

(a) 1 only following statements :


(b) 2 only 1. They are natural light display in Earth’s
(c) Both 1 and 2 sky, predominantly seen in high-altitude
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 regions of the Earth.
2. They are caused by the interaction of
90. Which of the following bills lapse on a
energetic particles of the solar wind with
dissolution of the House of the People?
atoms of the upper atmosphere.
1. A bill pending in the Council of States has
Which one of the statements given above is/are
not been passed by the House of the People.
correct ?
2. A bill pending in the House of the People,
(a) 1 only
which is transmitted by the Council of
(b) 2 only
States.
3. A bill passed by the House of the People but (c) Both 1 and 2

pending in the Council of States. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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93. In which of the following cases would the House Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
of the People be presided over by such member not correct?
as the President may appoint for the purpose? (a) 1 only
(a) When both the Speaker and the Deputy (b) 2 only
Speaker are absent (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) When the offices of Speaker and Deputy (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Speaker are vacant
(c) When the office of Deputy Speaker is vacant
96. Consider the following statements with
and the Speaker is absent
reference to the Saubhagya scheme (Pradhan
(d) When a joint session of both Houses is to be
Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana) :
held
1. This will provide electrification of all willing
households in rural and urban areas in
94. With reference to the Secretariat of Parliament,
India.
consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India provides for a 2. After surveying, the concerned district

separate secretarial staff for each House of collectors will determine the beneficiaries of
Parliament. free electricity connections.
2. So far, no law has been passed by 3. Non-poor urban households are included in
Parliament to regulate the recruitment and this scheme.
conditions of service of persons appointed Which of the statements given above is/are
to the Secretariat staff. correct ?
3. The Post of Secretary-General of the (a) 1 and 2 only
Secretariat is equivalent to that of the post (b) 1 and 3 only
of the Cabinet Secretary in the Government (c) 2 only
of India. (d) 1 only
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
97. Consider the following related to used language
(a) 1 and 2 only
in the Parliament and the State Legislature :
(b) 1 and 3 only
1. The Chairperson of the House may permit
(c) 2 and 3 only
any member who cannot adequately
(d) 1, 2 and 3
express himself in Hindi or in English to
address the House in his mother tongue.
95. Consider the following statements:
1. The Chief Election Commissioner can be 2. The Authoritative texts of the bills passed in

removed from office using the same both Parliament and State Legislature
procedure as removing a judge from the should be in English.
high court. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
2. The president can remove the election (a) 1 only
commissioners from office only on the (b) 2 only
recommendation of the Chief Election (c) Both 1 and 2
Commissioner. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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98. Though Parliament has the power to legislate


on state subjects under exceptional situations,
under which of the following matters does the
Constitution empower the Centre to control the
State legislature ?
1. Reservation of the bill is for the
consideration of the president by the
governor.
2. State bills impose restrictions on trade,
commerce and intercourse among states.
3. The centre directing the state to reserve the
money bill during a financial emergency
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below :
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

99. The anti-defection law, found under the Tenth


Schedule of the Constitution, was enacted to
curb which of the following phenomena
witnessed in the Indian Legislatures ?
(a) Decorum
(b) Interpellation
(c) Crossing the floor
(d) Yielding the floor

100. With reference to the Tawa River, consider the


following statements :
1. It is a significant tributary of the Tapi River,
originating in the Satpura range of
mountains.
2. This river is crucial for irrigation in the
central India.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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