Series : Y7XWZ SET~3

. - >
Roll No. Q.P. Code 57/7/3
- -
-
Candidates must write the Q.P. Code
on the title page of the answer-book.
> NOTE
(I) - (I) Please check that this question paper
23 contains 23 printed pages.
(II) - - (II) Q.P. Code given on the right hand side
- - of the question paper should be written
on the title page of the answer-book by
the candidate.
(III) - 33 (III) Please check that this question paper
contains 33 questions.
(IV) (IV) Please write down the Serial
, - Number of the question in the
answer-book at the given place
before attempting it.
(V) - 15 (V) 15 minute time has been allotted to read
- this question paper. The question paper
will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From
10.15 10.15 10.15 a.m. to 10.30 a.m., the candidates
10.30 - will read the question paper only and
- will not write any answer on the
answer-book during this period.

BIOLOGY (Theory)
3 70
Time allowed : 3 hours Maximum Marks : 70

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(i) - 33
(ii) -
(iii) 1 16 1
(iv) 17 21 - 2

(v) 22 28 - 3
(vi) 29 30 - 4
- -
(vii) 31 33 - 5
(viii) - ,

(ix) -
(x)

1 16 , 1
16 1=16

1.

?
:
3 TCCACCCGATGC5

(A) 3 TCCACCCGATGC5

(B) 3 TCCACCCGATGC5

(C) 3 TCCACCCGATGC5

(D) 3 TCCACCCGATGC5

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General Instructions :
Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :
(i) This question paper contains 33 questions. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Question paper is divided into five sections Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii) Section A questions number 1 to 16 are multiple choice type questions. Each
question carries 1 mark.
(iv) Section B questions number 17 to 21 are very short answer type questions.
Each question carries 2 marks.
(v) Section C questions number 22 to 28 are short answer type questions. Each
question carries 3 marks.
(vi) Section D questions number 29 and 30 are case-based questions. Each
question carries 4 marks. Each question has subparts with internal choice in
one of the subparts.
(vii) Section E questions number 31 to 33 are long answer type questions. Each
question carries 5 marks.
(viii) There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in
Sections B, D and E of the question paper. A candidate has to write answer for
only one of the alternatives in such questions.
(ix) Kindly note that there is a separate question paper for Visually Impaired
candidates.
(x) Wherever necessary, neat and properly labelled diagrams should be drawn.

SECTION A
Questions no. 1 to 16 are Multiple Choice Type Questions, carrying 1 mark
each. Choose the best option. 16 1=16
1. The RNA triplet UAG acts as a stop codon which terminates the
synthesis of a polypeptide. Below is given a strand of DNA which codes
for four amino acids.
In which position will an insertion of a thymine nucleotide result in the
termination of translation ?

DNA strand :
3 TCCACCCGATGC5

(A) 3 TCCACCCGATGC5

(B) 3 TCCACCCGATGC5

(C) 3 TCCACCCGATGC5

(D) 3 TCCACCCGATGC5

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2. -
?
(A) (ZZ)
(B) XO
(C) XO
(D) (XX)

3. - ?
(A) -
(B)

(C)

(D) -

4.
(A)
(B) II II
(C)
(D)

5. 2·4% ,
(A) 8·1% (B) 12·9%

(C) 7·3% (D) 5·1%

6.
(A) -
(B) (ELISA)
(C) II
(D)

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2. Which of the following conditions correctly describes the manner of
determining the sex in the given options ?
(A) Homozygous sex chromosomes (ZZ) determine female sex in birds.
(B) XO type of chromosomes determine male sex in grasshoppers.
(C) XO condition in humans determines female sex.
(D) Homozygous sex chromosomes (XX) produce male in Drosophila.

3. Which one of the following is not the product of transgenic experiments ?

(A) Pest-resistant crop variety

(B) High nutritional value in grains

(C) Drought-resistant crops

(D) Production of insulin by rDNA technique

4. Penetration of the sperm in the ovum is followed by :

(A) Formation of first polar body
(B) Completion of Meiosis II
(C) First Meiosis
(D) Dissolution of zona pellucida

5.
species diversity is :
(A) 8·1% (B) 12·9%
(C) 7·3% (D) 5·1%

6. Out of the following, select the correct match :

(A) Transgenic cow milk Human beta-lactalbumin protein

(B) ELISA Antigen antibody interaction
(C) Corn Borer Cry II Ab gene
(D) Cotton plant Meloidegyne Incognitia

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7.
: PP Pp pp
22% 62% 16%

P p :
P p
(A) 53% 47%
(B) 47% 53%
(C) 40% 46%
(D) 22% 16%

8. -I
-II
-I -II
a. i. - -
b. ii.

c. iii.
d. iv.
:

(A) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i

(B) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(C) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(D) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

9.

(A) ,
(B) ,
(C) ,
(D) ,

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7. In a certain population, the frequency of three genotypes is as follows :
Genotypes : PP Pp pp
Frequency : 22% 62% 16%

Choose the option that shows the frequency of P and p alleles correctly :
P p
(A) 53% 47%
(B) 47% 53%
(C) 40% 46%
(D) 22% 16%

8. Study the items of columns I and II where drugs and their effects are
given and match them correctly.

Column-I Column-II
a. Heroin i. Affects cardiovascular system
b. Marijuana ii. Slows down body functions
c. Cocaine iii. Painkiller
d. Morphine iv. Interferes with transport of dopamine

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(B) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(C) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(D) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

9. Choose the option that correctly describes the gynoecium of Michelia :

(A) Multicarpellary, Apocarpous
(B) Bicarpellary, Apocarpous
(C) Multicarpellary, Syncarpous
(D) Bicarpellary, Syncarpous

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10.

:
- -
A
B
C
D

11. ,
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

12.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

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10. Read the passage given below and answer the question.

grass whose population supports a few grasshoppers, frogs and snakes.

Options Food chain- Food chain-

A Detritus Grazing
B Grazing Detritus
C Detritus Detritus
D Grazing Grazing

11. Identify the incorrect statement regarding PCR.

(A) Two sets of primers are required during polymerisation.

(B) The process of replication is repeated multiple times to produce

one billion copies.

(C) Thermostable DNA polymerase is used for extension of primers.

(D) Annealing is required to separate both the strands of template

DNA.

12. The following information is about drugs and tobacco. Select the correct
statement from the options given below.

(A) Cocaine is given to patients after surgery as it stimulates recovery.

(B) Chewing tobacco lowers blood pressure and heart rate.

(C) Barbiturates when given to criminals makes them tell the truth.

(D) Morphine is often given to persons who have undergone surgery as

a painkiller.

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 13 16 , (A) (R)
(A), (B), (C) (D)

(A) (A) (R) (R), (A)

(B) (A) (R) , (R), (A)

(C) (A) , (R)

(D) (A) , (R)

13. (A) :

(R) : X-

14. (A) : -

(R) :

15. (A) :

,
(R) : ori

16. (A) : - CO2

(R) :

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For Questions number 13 to 16, two statements are given one labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer to
these questions from the codes (A), (B), (C) and (D) as given below.

(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the
correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not
the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

13. Assertion (A) : A male individual always inherits haemophilia from his
mother.

Reason (R) : The gene for haemophilia lies on X-chromosome.

14. Assertion (A) : Biotechnology produces transgenic microorganisms that

function as microfactories for proteins.

Reason (R) : Transgenic microorganisms can be developed to produce

proteins of human use, like insulin.

15. Assertion (A) : A piece of DNA inserted into an alien organism generally

does not replicate, if not inserted into a chromosome.

Reason (R) :

where DNA replication is initiated.

16. Assertion (A) : Swiss cheese is characterized by large holes due to CO2
production.

Reason (R) : It is ripened by growing a specific fungi.

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17. ( ) ? 2

( )
? 2

18.

15
( )

3 4 -
( )

2 -
( )

1·5 900 (cc)

( )

( ) 15

( ) - ,

( ) -

( ) 1·5

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 SECTION B

17. (a) How is DNA isolated in purified form from a bacterial cell ? 2

OR

(b) Explain how human functional insulin was produced by using

recombinant DNA (rDNA) technology. 2

18. A few stages and their respective time period in the evolutionary history
of human beings are mentioned in the flowchart given below :

15 mya Primates walking like gorillas and chimpanzees existed. (a)

3 4 mya Man-like primates walked in Eastern Africa. Fossils of

their bones were discovered. (b)

2 mya This ancestor lived in the East African grasslands and ate
fruits. (c)

1·5 mya This hominid had a brain size of 900 cc and probably ate
meat. (d)

Based on the above information, answer the following questions : 2

(a) Name one primate about 15 mya.

(b) Name one place where fossils of primates were discovered in

Eastern Africa.

(c) Name the ancestor that lived in the East African grasslands about
2 mya.

(d) Name the hominid that was found around 1·5 mya.

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19.

( )
( )
( ) 1

20. ( )
-
2

( ) (i) ?
(ii) 2

21. ( ) 2

( ) 2
(i) 50 ?
(ii) ,

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19. A karyotype of a human suffering from a certain disorder is given below :

(a) Identify the disorder.

(b) Write the symptoms of the disorder.

(c) Give reason for such a disorder. 1

20. (a) Ravi lives in a village where he suggested to the local farmers to
introduce a fungus as biofertilizer into their crop fields. State the
benefits provided by the fungus to the crop. 2

OR
(b) (i) How do secondary lymphoid organs provide immunity ?
(ii) Highlight the role of spleen as an organ that provides immunity. 2

21. (a)
2
OR
(b) Give reasons for the following : 2

(i) Why can a woman generally not conceive a child after

50 years of age ?
(ii) Polar bodies are formed during oogenesis and not during
spermatogenesis.
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22.

? ? 3

23.
:
3

24.

25.

( )

( )

26. ( ) -
-

( ) - -

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 SECTION C

22. Gene therapy can be used to treat an ADA deficient patient. Explain.

Is it a permanent cure ? How can ADA be cured permanently ? 3

23. Name the type of food chains responsible for the flow of larger fraction of
energy in an aquatic ecosystem and a terrestrial ecosystem, respectively.
Mention any two differences between the two food chains. 3

24. Construct and label a transcription unit from which the RNA segment
given below has been transcribed. Write the complete name of the
enzyme that transcribed this RNA. 3

25. A village health worker was taking a session with women. She tells them
that one has to be careful while using oral pills as a method of birth
control. Wrong usage can actually promote conception.

(a) Analyse the above statement and compare the merits and demerits
of using oral pills and surgical methods of birth control.
(b) Village women are confused as to how a thin metallic copper loop
can provide protection against pregnancy. Explain the mode of
action of IUDs. Give two points. 3

26. (a)
geographical area starts from a point and literally radiates to other

(b) Cite an example where more than one adaptive radiation has
occurred in an isolated geographical area. Name the type of
evolution your example depicts. 3

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27. ( ) ?
( ) -

(i)
(ii) 3

28. -
, ? 3

29 30 - 3 - -

29. 4

( ) 1

( ) ? 2

( ) (i) ? 1

( ) (ii) ? 1

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27. (a) Why are transgenic animals so called ?

(b) With the help of an example each, explain the role of transgenic
animals in the following :
(i) Vaccine safety
(ii) Biological products 3

28. A person is suffering from high grade fever. Which symptoms will help to
identify if he/she is suffering from Typhoid, Pneumonia or Malaria ? 3

SECTION D

Questions No. 29 and 30 are case-based questions. Each question has

3 sub-questions with internal choice in one sub-question.

29. Study the figure given below and answer the questions that follow. 4

(a) Identify the figure and state its importance. 1

(b) Why is air diffused into the aerator tank ? Explain. 2

(c) (i) What changes take place in the settling tank ? 1

OR
(c) (ii) How is BOD related to organic matter present in the water ? 1

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30.
4

A B

( ) A B 1

( ) B 2

( ) (i) B 1

( ) (ii) , B
1

31. ( ) (i) ?

?
I.
II.
III.

(ii) -
? 5

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30. The following question is based on pollination. Study the figures
carefully and answer the questions that follow. 4

Pollens

Figure A Figure B

(a) Give the scientific terms for the processes taking place in Figures A
and B respectively. 1

(b) Mention two conditions necessary for the process occurring in

Figure B. 2
(c) (i) State one advantage and one disadvantage of the process
occurring in Figure B. 1
OR
(c) (ii) Name one plant where, in some flowers only, the process in
Figure B takes place and give the reason responsible for it. 1

SECTION E

31. (a) (i) How does alien species invasion cause a decline in
biodiversity ? Explain.
How have the following contributed to biodiversity loss ?
I. Nile Perch
II. Lantana and Eichhornia
III. Clarias gariepinus
(ii) Why have certain regions been declared as biodiversity
hotspots by environmentalists of the world ? Name any two
such regions in India. 5
OR

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 ( ) (i) - ,

N=
r=
(ii)
,
(iii) ,
(iv) - ?
5
32. ( ) ,
?

-
? 5

( ) (i)

(ii)
?
I.
II.
III.
IV. 5
33. ( )
,

( ) 5
(i)
(ii) ,

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 (b) (i) Write an equation for Verhulst-Pearl Logistic Growth Curve
where :
N = Population density at t
r = Intrinsic rate of natural increase
(ii) Draw a graph for a population whose population density has
reached carrying capacity.
(iii) Draw a growth curve where resources are non-limiting to
growth of population.
(iv) Which growth curve is considered more realistic and why ?
Explain. 5

32. (a)
lands on the stigma. A two-celled right type pollen has landed on
the stigma. Explain the events taking place till fertilization in
angiosperms. Why is pollen pistil interaction said to be dynamic ? 5
OR
(b) (i) Give the schematic representation of oogenesis in human
female indicating chromosome number at each step.
(ii) In which part of the female reproductive system do the
following events take place ?
I. Formation of corpus luteum
II. Maturation of tertiary follicle
III. Fertilisation
IV. Implantation 5

33. (a) Write the features a molecule should have to act as a genetic
material. In the light of the above features, evaluate and justify the
suitability of the molecule that is preferred as an ideal genetic
material. 5
OR

(b) Differentiate between the following : 5

(i) Polygenic Inheritance and Pleiotropy
(ii) Dominance, Codominance and Incomplete dominance

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