08-06-2025

7501CMD303032250002 MD

PHYSICS

1) A particle is moving towards East with a velocity 10 m/s. In 10 seconds the velocity changes to 10
m/s. Northwards. The average acceleration during this period is :-

(1) m/sec2 along North-East direction

(2) m/sec2 along North-West direction

(3)
m/sec2 along North-East direction

(4)
m/sec2 along North-West direction

2) A car moves for half of its time at 80 km/h and for rest half of time at 10 km/h. Total distance
covered is 60 km. What is the average speed of the car-

(1) 60 km/h
(2) 45 km/h
(3) 120 km/h
(4) 180 km/h

3)

A man walks 30m. towards north, then 20m towards east and in the last m towards south-west.
The displacement from origin is :-

(1) 10 m towards west

(2) 10m towards east
(3) 60 m towards north west
(4) 60 m towards north east

4) Which of the following is always correct :-

(1) Magnitude of displacment is equal to the distance covered by particle

(2) Magnitude of average velocity is equal to the average speed
(3) Magnitude of instantaneous velocity will be equal to instantaneous speed
(4) None of these

5) The acceleration of a moving body can be found from :-

(1) Area under velocity - time graph

(2) Area under distance - time graph
(3) Slope of the velocity - time graph
(4) Slope of the distance - time graph

6) A car starts from rest and moves with uniform acceleration 10 m/s2 on a straight road from time t
= 0 to t = 4s. After that, a constant deceleration of same magnitude brings it to rest. In this process
the average speed of the car is :-

(1) 10 m/s
(2) 30 m/s
(3) 20 m/s
(4) 40 m/s

7) A car travels half the distance with a constant speed of 40 m/s and the remaining half with a
constant speed of 60 m/s. The average speed of the car in m/s is

(1) 42
(2) 50
(3) 48
(4) 45

8) The displacement-time graph of moving particle is shown below

The instaneous velocity of the particle is negative at the point

(1) D
(2) F
(3) C
(4) E

9) A body starts uniformly accelerating from rest then what is the ratio of the distance travelled by
the body during the fourth and third second :

(1) 7/5
(2) 5/7
(3) 7/3
(4) 3/7

10) A man goes 50 m due north, 40m due east and 30 m upward by lift then his displacement is :

(1)
(2)
(3) 120 m
(4) 90 m
11) A particle starts from rest. Its acceleration (a) versus time (t) is as shown in the figure. The

maximum speed of the particle will be.

(1) 110 m/s

(2) 55 m/s
(3) 550 m/s
(4) 660 m/s

12) The ratio of the distances traversed, in successive intervals of time by a body falling from rest,
are :-

(1) 1 : 3 : 5 : 7 : 9...........
(2) 2 : 4 : 6 : 8 : 10...........
(3) 1 : 4 : 7 : 10 : 13...........
(4) None of these

13) If for a particle position x ∝ t2 then :-

(1) Velocity is constant

(2) Acceleration is constant
(3) Acceleration is variable
(4) None of these

14) The graph of a moving object is given in figure. The maximum acceleration is :

(1) 1 cm/s2
(2) 2 cm/s2
(3) 3 cm/s2
(4) 6 cm/s2

15) A particle has initial velocity and acceleration . The magnitude of velocity
after 10 seconds will be :

(1) units
(2) units
(3) 5 units
(4) 9 units

16) A stone is dropped from the top of a tower and travels 24.5 m in the last second of its journey.
The height of the tower is :-

(1) 44.1 m
(2) 49 m
(3) 78.4 m
(4) 72 m

17) Which statement is correct ?

(A) If & are collinear then path will be parabola.
(B) If & are non-collinear then path will be parabola.
(C) The direction of motion is decided by direction of instantaneous velocity.
(D) If particle starts from rest and constant acceleration then path may be a straight line or
parabola.

(1) A, B
(2) B, C
(3) C, D
(4) A, D

18) A car accelerates from rest at a constant rate α for some time, after which it decelerates at a
constant rate β and comes to rest. If the total time elapsed is t, then the maximum velocity acquired
by the car is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) A stone dropped from a building of height h and it reaches after t seconds on earth. From the
same building if two stones are thrown (one upwards and other downwards) with the same speed u
and they reach the earth surface after t1 and t2 seconds respectively, then

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)
20) A particle is dropped vertically from rest from a height. The time taken by it to fall through
successive distances of 1 m each will then be

(1) All equal, being equal to second

(2) In the ratio of the square roots of the integers 1, 2, 3.....
In the ratio of the difference in the square roots of the integers
(3)
i.e.
In the ratio of the reciprocal of the square roots of the integers
(4)
i.e.,.

21) A particle moves along a straight line such that its displacement at any time t is given by S = t3 –
6t2 + 3t + 4 metres
The velocity when the acceleration is zero is

(1) 3 ms–1
(2) –12 ms–1
(3) 42 ms–1
(4) –9 ms–1

22) A ball is projected vertically upwards with a high velocity v. It comes back to the ground in time
t. Which (v – t) graph shows the motion correctly?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

23) Two bodies of different masses ma and mb are dropped from two different heights, viz a and b.
The ratio of times taken by the two to drop through these distance is

(1) a : b

(2)

(3)
(4)

24) A small body starts its motion on a frictionless surface from rest on an inclined plane. If Sn is the
distance travelled in time t = n – 1 to t = n then the ratio of Sn and Sn+1 will be:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) The co-ordinates of a moving particle at any time t are given by x = αt3 and y = βt3. The speed of
the particle at time t is given by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) A ball whose kinetic energy is E, is thrown at an angle of 45° to the horizontal. Its kinetic energy
at the highest point of its flight will be :–

(1) E

(2)
(3)

(4) zero

27) The equation of projectile is then the horizontal range is.

(1) 16 m
(2) 8 m
(3) 64 m
(4) 12.8 m

28) For angles of projection of a projectile at angles (45° – θ) and (45° + θ), the horizontal ranges
described by the projectile are in the ratio of :

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 2 : 3
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 2 : 1

29) A particle of mass 2 kg is released from top of a tower of height 80 m. Neglect air resistance.
Now match the column (only magnitudes are given in column II, assume SI units)

Column
Column II
II

Velocity, when particle hit the

A. P. 35
ground

B. Time of flight Q. 4

Distance travelled in last

C. R. 40
second of journey

S. 80
(1) A-R, B-P, C-Q
(2) A-Q, B-P, C-R
(3) A-R, B-Q, C-P
(4) A-S, B-Q, C-P

30) Two particles are projected from the same point with the same speed u such that they have the
same range R, but different maximum heights, h1 and h2. Which of the following is correct?

2
(1) R = 2 h1h2
2
(2) R = 16h1h2
2
(3) R = 4 h1h2
2
(4) R = h1h2

31) A projectile has co-ordinates y = 4t – t2 and x = 3t. What is the angle of projection with the y –
axis.

(1)

(2)

(3) 30°
(4) 60°

32) Assertion (A) - In projectile motion, the angle between the instantaneous velocity and
acceleration at the highest position is 180°. Reason (R) - At the highest position, velocity of
projectile will be in horizontal direction in ground to ground projection.

Assertion (A) is correct, reason (R) is correct and Reason (R) is correct explaination for
(1)
assertion.
Assertion (A) is correct, reason (R) is correct and Reason (R) is not correct explaination for
(2)
assertion.
(3) Assertion (A) is correct, Reason (R) is incorrect
(4) Assertion (A) is incorrect , Reason (R) is correct

33) A ball is thrown upwards. It returns to ground in a parabolic path. Which of the following is
variable. (1) Speed
(2) Kinetic energy
(3) Vertical component of velocity
(4) Horizontal component of velocity

(1) 1, 2, 3
(2) 1, 2, 4
(3) 2, 3, 4
(4) 1, 3, 4

34) Figure shows four possible trajectories of a kicked football. Ignoring air resistance, rank the
curves according to the initial horizontal velocity component-the highest first

(1) 1, 2, 3, 4
(2) 1, 3, 2, 4
(3) 3, 4, 1, 2
(4) 4, 3, 2, 1

35) A ball is thrown horizontally from the top of a tower of height H with velocity 20m/s. A man is
standing at the foot of tower starts running at the same instant when ball is thrown. What should be
the velocity of man to catch the ball before striking to the ground. (Consider height of man
negligible):-

(1) 10 m/s
(2)
(3) 20 m/s
(4) none of these

36) A drone flying horizontally at height 20 m with velocity 10 m s–1 has to hit stationary enemy
target. At what horizontal distance H before target should the drone drop the bomb so as to hit the

target? (g = 10 m s–2)

(1) 10 m
(2) 20 m
(3) 30 m
(4) 40 m

37) Two trains of equal length L are running with speed v1 and v2 respectively. If train running with
speed v1 tries to overtake the train running with speed v2, then in how much time it will do so

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) A man is walking on a road with a velocity of 3m/s when suddenly, it starts raining with 4 m/s in
downward direction. The velocity of rain with respect to man is :-

(1) 7 m/s
(2) 1 m/s
(3) 5 m/s
(4) 12 m/s
39) (here v = velocity, F = force, t = time)
Find dimension of α & β :-

0
(1) α = [M1L1T ], β = [T–1]
(2) α = [M1L1T–1], β = [T1]
(3) α = [M1L1T–1], β = [T–1]
0
(4) α = [M1L–1T ], β = [T–1]

40) If Force (F), Volume (V) and time (T) are taken as fundamental quantities, then mass can be
expressed as :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) The method of dimensional analysis can be used to derive which of the following relations.

–λt
(1) A0e
(2) A cos (Kx – ωt)

(3)

(4) None of these

42) From the fig., the correct relation is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) All of the above

43) Two vectors and have magnitudes of 3 units and 4 units, respectively. Angle between and
is θ.

Column-I Column-II

(A) (P) θ = 0°

(B) units (Q) θ=π

 (C) units (R)

(D) (S)
units

(T)

(1) A → S, B → P, C → Q, D → S
(2) A → S, B → T, C → P, D → S
(3) A → R, B → S, C → Q, D → S
(4) A → T, B → Q, C → P, D → S

44) Two balls are moving on the same smooth horizontal plane. Components of velocity of the first
ball along x and y directions are and 30 m/s respectively. The components of velocity of the
second ball along x and y directions are 40 and 30 m/s each. The angle between their directions of
motion will be :-

(1) 7°
(2) 23°
(3) 27°
(4) 16°

45)

In Column-I vector is shown in Column-II its unit vector representation :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) (P)

(B) (Q)

(C) (R)

(D) (S)
(1) A-S; B-P; C-Q; D-R
(2) A-R; B-Q; C-S; D-P
(3) A-P; B-Q; C-R; D-S
(4) A-S; B-P; C-R; D-Q

CHEMISTRY

1) The size of ionic species is correctly given in order :

(1) Cl+7 > Si+4 > Mg+2 > Na+

(2) Na+ > Mg+2 > Si+4 > Cl+7
(3) Na+ > Mg+2 > Cl+7 > Si+4
(4) Cl+7 > Na+ > Mg+2 > Si+4

2) Which statement is false :

(1) Screening effect increases down the group

(2) Zeff increases in period
(3) Zeff increases down the group
Radius of nobel gases should be compared not with covalent radius but with the vander waal's
(4)
radius of other element.

3) The energy needed to remove. One electron from unipositive ion is abbreviated as :

(1) 1st I.P.

(2) 3rd I.P.
(3) 2nd I. P.
(4) 1st E.A.

4) Assertion (A) : Electron gain enthalpy becomes less negative as we go down in a group.
Reason (B) : Size of the atom increases on going down the group and the added electron would be
farther away from the nucleus.

(1) Both A and B are correct and R is correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A
(3) A is correct but R is incorrect
(4) R is correct but A is incorrect

5) Increasing order of E.N. of the following elements H, O, F, S and Cl are :

(1) H < S < Cl < O < F

(2) H < S < F < O < Cl
(3) H < Cl < S < F < O
(4) F < Cl < S < O < H
6) Assertion (A) : The acidic nature of oxyacide of Cl is HOCl < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4
Reason (R) : Order of increasing number of resonating structure of their conjugated base are HOCl
< HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4. So more stable anion easily and rapidly releases H+ ion.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

7) S-I : Compound having X – O – H linkage (X = nonmetal) act as Arrhenious Acid.

S-II : Bond polarity of O – H bond is higher than that of X-O bonds.

(1) S-I is correct but S-II is incorrect

(2) S-I is incorrect but S-II is correct
(3) Both S-I and S-II are correct.
(4) Both S-I and S-II are incorrect

8) Which of the following statement is not correct for given electronic config.
1s22s22p63s23p63d104s24p1.

(1) it belongs to IIIA group and 4th period.

(2) it is liquid at room temp.
(3) it is used in high temperature thermometer
(4) it is a-transition element.

9) Electronic configuration are :

A - 1s22s22p1
B - 1s22s22p63s13p2
C - 1s22s12p1
D - 1s22s22p53s1
then which among these will belong to the same group in the periodic table ?

(1) A & B
(2) A, B, C
(3) A, B, D
(4) A, B, C, D

10) Assertion (A) : The first ionisation energy of aluminium is lower than that of magnesium.
Reason (R) : The ionic radius of aluminium is smaller than that of magnesium.

(1) If both the A and R are true and R is a true explanation of the A
(2) If both the A and R are true but the R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) If the A is true but R is false.
(4) If A is false but R is true.

11) Which of the following is different from other three oxides :

(1) Cl2O7
(2) SnO
(3) PbO
(4) ZnO

12) Match column I with Column II and select the correct answer using given codes:

Column I Column II
(Atoms) (Properties)

(A) He 1. High electronegativity

(B) F 2. Most electropositive

(C) Rb 3. Strongest reducing agent

(D) Li 4. Highest ionisation energy

(1) A→4, B→2, C→3, D→1
(2) A→1, B→4, C→2, D→3
(3) A→4, B→1, C→3, D→2
(4) A→4, B→1, C→2, D→3

13) Electronic configuration of some elements is given in Column I and their electron gain enthalpies
are given in Column II. Match the electronic configuration with electron gain enthalpy value.

Column II
Column I
(Electron gain
(Electronic
enthalpy/kJ
configuration)
mol–1)

(A) 1s2 2s2 2p6 1. –53

(B) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1 2. –328

(C) 1s2 2s2 2p5 3. –141

(D) 1s2 2s2 2p4 4. +48

(1) A→ 4, B→1, C→2, D→3
(2) A→ 1, B→2, C→3, D→4
(3) A→ 3, B→2, C→1, D→4
(4) A→ 2, B→4, C→1, D→3

14) Lewis dot structure of CO, and are I, II and III respectively

Which of the above structure(s) is/are wrong ?

(1) Only I
(2) Only II
(3) Only III
(4) All of the above

15) Which molecule doesnot exist ?

(1) OF2
(2) OF6
(3) SF4
(4)

16) S-I : Xe-atom in XeF2 assum sp–hybrid state.

S-II : XeF2 molecule doesnot follow octel rule.

(1) Both S-I and S-II are false

(2) Both S-I and S-II are true.
(3) S-I is true but S-II is false.
(4) S-I is false but S-II is correct.

17) Order of size of sp, sp2 and sp3 orbitals is :

(1) sp3 < sp2 < sp

(2) sp < sp2 < sp3
(3) sp2 < sp < sp3
(4) sp2 < sp3 < sp

18) Match the coloumn-I with column-II

C-I C-II
(type of species) (Shape)

(A) AB4L P. Square planar

(B) AB3L2 Q. T-shaped

(C) AB5L R. Square Pyramidal

(D) AB4L2 S. See-Saw

(1) A→S, B→Q, C→R, D→P
(2) A→P, B→Q, C→R, D→S
(3) A→Q, B→S, C→P, D→R
(4) A→R, B→S, C→P, D→Q

19) Which of the following molecule has net dipole moment zero ?

(1) HF
(2) H2O
(3) BF3
(4) CHCl3

20) Which of the following does not represent positive overlap?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) Maximum bond angle at nitrogen is present in which of the following ?

(1) NO2
(2)
(3)
(4)

22) The pair of species with the same bond order is

(1)
(2)
(3) NO, CO
(4) N2, O2

23) Which of the following has minimum bond length?

(1) O2
(2)
(3)
(4)

24) Assertion (A) : Solubility of noble gases in H2O decrease with increasing size of the noble
gases.
Reason (R) : Solubility of noble gases in water is due to dipole-dipole interaction.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

25) Match the column

C-I C-II

(A) (P) keesome attraction

(B) (Q) Debye attraction

(C) (R) London force

(D) (S) Ion-dipole attraction

(1) A→ P, B→ R, C→ S, D→Q
(2) A→ P, B→ Q, C→ S, D→R
(3) A→ S, B→ P, C→ Q, D→R
(4) A→ R, B→ S, C→ Q, D→P

26) Which of the following molecules doesnot have coordinate bonds?

+
(1) H3O
(2)
(3) O3
(4)

27) One of the resonating structure of is Which set of formal charge on

oxygen and bond order is correct

(1) 0.5 and 1.5

(2) 1.5 and 3
(3) 2 and 3
(4) 1.5 and 1.5

28) Pick out the incorrect statement :

(1) sp3d hybridisation involves orbital

(2) Hybridised orbital form σ-bond when overlaps with other orbitals.
(3) SF2 molecule is more polar than CS2
(4) o-nitrophenol is more volatile than p-nitrophenol.
29) Which of the following hydrogen bonds is the strongest

(1) F–H.....F
(2) O–H.....O
(3) O–H......F
(4) O–H......N

30) Which of the following are iosoelectronic and isostructural

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

31) Which one of the following orders is correct for the bond dissociation enthalpy of halogen
molecules?

(1)
(2) Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > l2
(3)
(4)

32) In the case of alkali metals, the covalent character decreases in the order :

(1) MI > MBr > MCl > MF

(2) MCl > MI > MBr > MF
(3) MF > MCl > MBr > MI
(4) MF > MCl > MI > MBr

33) The correct order of increasing thermal stability of K2CO3, MgCO3 CaCO3 and Be CO3 is

(1) BeCO3 < MgCO3 < CaCO3 < K2CO3

(2) MgCO3 < BeCO3 < CaCO3 < K2CO3
(3) K2CO3 < MgCO3< CaCO3 < BeCO3
(4) BeCO3 < MgCO3 < K2CO3 < CaCO3

34) In which of the following hydration energy is higher than lattice energy

(1) SrSO4
(2) CaSO4
(3) BaSO4
(4) MgSO4

35) Which of the following forms metal oxide on heating

(1) Na2CO3
(2) Li2CO3
(3) K2SO4
(4) NaHCO3

36) Highest melting point would be of

(1) AlCl3
(2) LiCl
(3) NaCl
(4) BeCl2

37) The correct order of volatility is :

(1) NH3 < H2O

(2) p-nitro phenol < o-nitro phenol
(3) CH3OH > CH3 – O – CH3
(4) HF > HCl

38) Amongst and the non-planar species are :

(1) XeO3,

(2)
(3)
(4)

39) Which orbitals overlap to form bond in H2O ?

(1) sp3–1s
(2) sp2–2p
(3) sp–1s
(4) p – p

40) Which condition is not favourable for the combination of atomic orbitals :

(1) The combining atomic orbitals nearly have the same energy
(2) The combining atomic orbitals must have the same symmetry about the molecular axis
(3) The combining orbitals must overlap to the maximum extent
(4) The combining orbital must overlap to the minimum extent

41) Which statement is correct :

(1) All the compounds having polar bonds, have dipole moment
(2) SO2 is non-polar
(3) H2O molecule is non polar, having polar bonds
(4) PH3 is polar molecule having non polar bonds

42) The correct order of C–O bond length among CO, is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

43) Which of the following diatomic molecular species has only π bonds according to Molecular
Orbital Theory?

(1) O2
(2) N2
(3) C2
(4) Be2

44) I2(s) is an example of :

(1) Molecular solid

(2) Ionic solid
(3) Covalent solid
(4) None of these

45) Pick the wrong statement w.r.t molecular orbital theory (MOT).

(1) Participation of orbitals of comparable energies takes place.

(2) The electron is under the influence of two or more than two nuclei.
(3) The molecular orbital formed is equal to the number of atomic orbitals combined.
(4) The probability of electron distribution in a molecule is given by atomic orbitals only.

BIOLOGY

1) Which one of the following organelles is made of nine triplets of microtubules devoid of any
membranous sheath ?

(1) Cilium
(2) Flagellum
(3) Microvilli
(4) Centriole
2) Which of the following is correct regarding the given figure :

No. of No. of No. of

centromere kinetochore arms
(1) 2 1 4
(2) 1 2 4
(3) 2 2 4
(4) 1 2 3
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3)

The orange colour of carrot root is due to presence of

(1) Aleuroplast
(2) Elaioplast
(3) Chromoplast
(4) Amyloplast

4) Protoplasm is made up of-

(1) Cytoplasm & nucleus

(2) Cytoplasm & nucleolus
(3) E.R. and Golgi body
(4) Mitochondria & plastids

5) Which one of the following cell organelle is not the part of endomembrane system ?

(1) Vacuole
(2) Lysosome
(3) Golgibody
(4) Peroxisome

6) (A) Well defined nucleus is present

(B) Genetic material is absent
(C) Nuclear membrane absent
(D) Mesosome present
(E) Circular DNA is present
Which of the above mentioned are correct for Prokaryotic cell ?
(1) C,D,E
(2) A,C,E
(3) A,B,D
(4) B,C,E

7) Main site of formation of glycoprotein and glyco lipids is :

(1) Golgi body

(2) Ribosome
(3) Lysosome
(4) Vacuole

8)

The structures that are formed by stacking of organized flattened membranous sac in the
chloroplasts are known as

(1) Stroma
(2) Cristae
(3) Grana
(4) Stroma lamellae

9)

The Golgi complex plays a major role

(1) as energy transferring organelles

(2) in post translational modification of proteins and glycosidation of lipids
(3) in trapping the light and transforming it into chemical energy
(4) in digesting proteins and carbohydrates

10)

Match the following and select the correct answer

(1) Centriole (i) Infolding in mitochondria

(2) Chlorophyll (ii) Thylakoids

(3) Cristae (iii) Nucleic acids

(4) Ribozymes (iv) Basal body cilia or flagella

(1) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-ii
(2) 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iii
(3) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iv, 4-iii
(4) 1-i, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-iv

11)
Which of the following events does not occur in rough endoplasmic reticulum?

(1) Protein folding

(2) Protein glycosylation
(3) Cleavage of signal peptide
(4) Phospholipid synthesis

12) The chromatids of a chromosome are held together at a point called

(1) Centrosome
(2) Centriole
(3) Satellite
(4) Centromere

13)

The pigment molecules of a chloroplast are located with in

(1) Its thylakoid membrane

(2) The space between outer and inner membrane
(3) The inner membrane
(4) Lumen of thylakoid

14)

Catalase enzyme found in

(1) Peroxisomes
(2) Lysosomes
(3) S.E.R.
(4) Vacuoles

15)

Hydrolases enzyme like - carbohydrates, proteases and lipases are associated with ___

(1) Sphaerosome
(2) Vacuoles
(3) Glyoxysome
(4) Lysosome

16) The ribosome of eukaryotic cytoplasm, mitochondria & plastids are respectively :-

(1) 80 S, 70 S & 70 S
(2) 70 S, 70 S & 80 S
(3) 50 S, 30 S & 70 S
(4) 70 S, 80 S & 70 S
17) Animal cells have ____________ which are absent in almost all plant cells

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Chloroplast
(3) Centrioles
(4) E.R.

18) Which one of the following is not the function of cell wall ?

(1) Cell to cell interaction

(2) Synthesis of lipid
(3) Provide barrier to undesirable macro molecules
(4) Provide shape to cell

19) Select the incorrect statement w.r.t mitochondria

(1) They divide by fission

(2) The matrix posseses single circular DNA
(3) The cristae decreases the surface area
(4) They produce cellular energy in the form of ATP

20) Maximum oxidative enzymes and maximum hydrolytic enzymes are present in the following cell
organelles respectively

(1) Chloroplast and mitochondria

(2) Mitochondria and lysosomes
(3) Lysosomes and mitochondria
(4) Spherosomes and peroxisome

21) Which of the following organelles comes in a category of semiautonomous organelle ?

(1) Mitochondria + Ribosomes

(2) Chloroplast + Ribosome
(3) Mitochondria + Chloroplast
(4) Mitochondria + E.R

22) The larger and smaller subunit of ribosomes of 80,s type ?

(1) 60s, 30s

(2) 50s, 40s
(3) 50s, 30s
(4) 60s, 40s

23) If the initial amount of DNA in a cell is represented as '2C' then the amount of DNA in this cell
remains at '4C' in :-
(1) G1 phase only
(2) S and G2 phases
(3) G2 phase only
(4) G2 and M phases

24) In mitotic cell cycle, spindle fibres get attached to kinetochore discs of chromosomes at :-

(1) Prophase
(2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Telophase

25) If a cell at G1 phase has 2n = 24 chromosomes and DNA content is 2C. Then correct option for
each daughter cell produced by mitosis is :

(1) 2n = 12, 4C
(2) 2n = 24, 2C
(3) n = 12, 2C
(4) n = 12, 4C

26) Crossing over is an exchange of genetic material between :-

(1) Homologous chromosome

(2) Heterologous chromosome
(3) Non-homologous chromosome
(4) All of the above

27) If DNA content is C in egg cell. Than the DNA content in metaphase-I will :-

(1) 2C
(2) C
(3) 4C
(4) 3C

28) If in a cell 10 tetrads are present in prophase-I, then what will be the number of chromatids in
each cell during metaphase-II and anaphase-II respectively ?

(1) 20 and 20
(2) 10 and 10
(3) 10 and 20
(4) 40 and 40

29) Which one event restores the diploid phase in life cycle of sexually reproducing organism :

(1) Meiosis
(2) Fertilization
(3) Mitosis
(4) Amitosis

30) Mitosis is also known as :-

(1) Equational division

(2) Equatorial division
(3) Reductional division
(4) Heterotypic division

31) Identify figure a and b and choose the correct match :-

(1) Prophase, Metaphase

(2) Prophase-I, Metaphase-I
(3) Metaphase-I, Metaphase-II
(4) Metaphase-II, Metaphase-I

32) All the following are the significances of equational division except :-

(1) Maintenance of the same number of chromosomes cell to cell

(2) Growth of multicellular organisms and cell repair/ replacement
(3) Maintenance of the constant number of chromosomes generation to generation
(4) Restoration of nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio of cells

33) Which type of chromosome is present in the anaphase-I of cell cycle ?

(1) 2 – Chromatid
(2) 1 – Chromatid
(3) 8 – Chromatid
(4) 4 – Chromatid

34) Splitting of centromere of each chromosome occur in :-

(1) Anaphase–I
(2) Anaphase–II
(3) Anaphase
(4) 2 and 3 both

35) Tetrad consist of :-

(1) Four homologous chromosome with four chromatids

(2) Two homologous chromosome, each with two chromatids
(3) Four non-homologous chromatids
(4) Four non-homologous chromosome.

36) Mark incorrect statements among following :-

(A) Meiosis involves two divisions and a single cycle of DNA replication
(B) Four haploid cells are formed at the end of meiosis–I
(C) Mitosis may occur in diploid & haploid cells

(1) A and B
(2) A and C
(3) Only B
(4) Only A

37) Mitotic Telophase differs from metaphase in possessing

(1) Same number of chromosomes and same number of chromatids

(2) Half number of chromosomes and half number of chromatids
(3) Half number of chromosomes and same number of chromatids
(4) Same number of chromosomes and half number of chromatids

38) Match the diagram of cell division given in column-I with the stage of cell cycle given in column-
II and select the correct option given below

Column-I Column-II

A P Metaphase I of meiosis

B Q Telophase of mitosis

C R Prophase I of meiosis
 D S Metaphase of mitosis

Transition to
T
metaphase of mitosis
(1) A:R, B:T, C:P, D:S
(2) A:R, B:S, C:P, D:Q
(3) A:R, B:S, C:Q, D:P
(4) A:P, B:T, C:R, D:Q

39) Biodiversity refers to :-

(1) Only number of organisms present on earth

(2) Only types of organisms present on earth
(3) Number and types of organisms present on earth
(4) Number and types of dead organisms present in rivers

40) Why ER, GB, lysosome and vacuoles are components of endomembranous system?

(1) Their structures are distinct

(2) Their functions are distinct
(3) Their functions are coordinated
(4) All of the above

41) Wheat and Mango belong to which family respectively?

(1) Poaceae, Solanaceae

(2) Poaceae, Anacardiaceae
(3) Anacardiaceae, Poaceae
(4) Liliaceae, Poaceae

42) Datura and Petunia belongs to which family ?

(1) Malvaceae
(2) Solanaceae
(3) Liliaceae
(4) Brassicaceae

43) Match the column I to II.

Column - I Column - II

A = Family a Poales
 B = Order b Insecta

C = Class c Muscidae

D = Phylum d Chordata
(1) A = c, B = a, C = b, D = d
(2) A = b, B = c, C = d, D = a
(3) A = d, B = c, C = a, D = b
(4) A = c, B = d, C = a, D = b

44) Basic unit or smallest taxon of taxonomic classification is?

(1) kingdom
(2) species
(3) family
(4) Variety

45) Two organisms are present in the same class but not in the same family. They may belong to
same

(1) genus
(2) species
(3) variety
(4) order

46) Strength of myocardium has relation with heart rate, based on this read the following questions

and answer Parameters P, Q, R and S are

characteristic of :
Choose the correct option

(1) P and S: Trained athlete, Q and R: untrained healthy individual.

(2) P and R: Trained athlete, Q and S: untrained healthy individual.
(3) P and S: Untrained healthy individual, Q and R. Trained athlete.
Q and R: normal healthy individual, P and S: individual, P and S: individual with cardiac
(4)
dysfunction.

47) The numerical addition of partial pressures (in mm Hg) of oxygen and carbon dioxide would be
minimum in

(1) Oxygenated blood

(2) Tissues
(3) Atmospheric air
(4) Alveolar air

48) A : Emphysema is a chronic disease of lung, causing irreversible distension and loss of elasticity
of alveoli.
R : Emphysema is preventable if chronic exposure to smoke (cigarette and others) and pollutants is
avoided.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect

49) Coronary sinus carries _____ to the right atrium.

(1) Interstitial fluid

(2) Deoxygenated blood
(3) Lymph
(4) Oxygenated blood

50) Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given
below

Column I Column II

a. Tricuspid valve (i) Between left atrium and left ventricle

Between right ventricle and pulmonary

b. Bicuspid valve (ii)
artery

c. Semilunar valve (iii) Between right atrium and right ventricle

(1) a(iii), b(i), c(ii)
(2) a(i), b(iii), c(ii)
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iii)
(4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii)

51) How do parasympathetic neural signals affect the working of the heart?

(1) Reduce both heart rate and cardiac output

(2) Heart rate is increased without affecting the cardiac output
(3) Both heart rate and cardiac output increase
(4) Heart rate decreases but cardiac output increases

52) A blockage in semilunar valve of Pulmonary Artery would directly reduce blood flow to the ___.

(1) heart
(2) liver
(3) lungs
(4) brain
53) A : The cardiac impulse which originates from SA node in mammalian heart cannot spread
directly from atria to ventricles.
R : In mammalian heart there is no continuity between cardiac muscle fibres of atria and those of
ventricles except AV bundles.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect

54) In a study of four blood vessels A, B, C & D in man, vessel ‘A’ carried pure blood away from
heart. Vessel ‘B’ carried impure blood towards heart. Vessel ‘C’ carried pure blood into the heart
musculature while vessel ‘D’ carried impure blood away from heart. The correct names of the four
vessels can be :-

(1) Coronary artery–A, Pulmonary vein–B, Pulmonary Artery–C, SVC–D

(2) Pulmonary vein–A, Pulmonary Artery–B, Coronary vein–C, Coronary Artery–D
(3) Systemic Aorta–A, Vena cava–B, Coronary artery–C, Pulmonary vein–D
(4) Systemic Aorta–A, Vena cava–B, Coronary Artery–C, Pulmonary Artery–D

55) Propagation of the action potential through the heart is fastest in the :

(1) SA node
(2) atrial muscle
(3) AV node
(4) Purkinje fibers

56) The atrio-ventricular valves :

(1) have three cusps for each valve

(2) their closure is initiated when the ventricular pressure exceeds atrial pressure
(3) open by contraction of papillary muscles
(4) are prevented from prolapse by musculi pectinati

57) S. A node is called pacemaker because :-

(1) Only it can generate action potentials

(2) It is present in the right upper corner of the right atrium
(3) It can generate the maximum number of action potentials
(4) It is made up of cardiac muscle nodal tissue

58) In which the following option represent correct blood flow pathway in pulmonary circulation ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

59) Refer to the diagrammatic representation of standard ECG and select the option with correct

matching

P-wave QRS complex T-wave

Repolarisation of Depolarisation of Marks the end of

(1)
atria ventricles systole

Marks the end of Repolarisation of

(2) Excitation of atria
diastole ventricles

Depolarisation of Depolarisation of Repolarisation of

(3)
atria ventricles ventricles

Repolarisation of Repolarisation of Marks the end of

(4)
atria ventricles systole
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

60) Beat volume is :-

(1) Cardiac output

(2) Stroke volume
(3) End diastolic volume
(4) End systolic volume

61) Match the following :'

(i) Semilunar valve (a) between right atrium and right ventricle

(ii) Tricuspid valve (b) between left atrium and left ventricle

(iii) Mitral valve (c) in coronary sinus

(iv) Thebesian valve (d) in Aorta

(1) i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d
(2) i-a, ii-d, iii-b, iv-c
(3) i-d, ii-a, iii-b, iv-c
(4) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a

62) Read the following statements A-D :-

A. Heart is the mesodermally derived organ.
B. Heart is situated in the abdominal cavity in between the two lungs slightly tilted to the left.
C. Heart has the size of a clenched fist.
D. Heart is protected by a double walled membranous bag, pericardium, enclosing the peri
pleural fluid.
How many of the above statements are correct

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

63) Thick muscular projections on the wall of ventricles are called :

(1) Truncus arteriosus

(2) Conus arteriosus
(3) Columnae carnae
(4) Chordae tendinae

64) The correct route of conduction of heart impulse is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

65) Atrio - ventricular node (AVN) is situated in -

(1) Lower left corner of left auricle, close to AV- septum

(2) Lower left corner of right auricle, close to AV - septum
(3) Upper left corner of right auricle, close to AV - septum
(4) Upper left corner of left auricle, close to AV- septum

66) Increased sympathetic stimulation of the heart

(1) increases the force of ventricular contraction

(2) increases the heart rate.
(3) increases cardiac output
(4) all of these

67) Match the columns :-

Column I Column II

(a) Heart failure (i) Pumping activity of heart decreases

Heart muscles damaged due to

(b) Heart attack (ii)
inadequate blood supply

(c) Cardiac arrest (iii) Heart stops beating

(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii
(2) a-i, b-iii, c-ii
(3) a-iii, b-ii, c-i
(4) a-ii, b-i, c-iii

68) If the chordae tendinae of the left ventricle are damaged than which of the following is likely
to happen ?

(1) Back flow of blood occurs in right atria.

(2) The flow of blood into the pulmonary artery will be reduced.
(3) The flow of blood into systemic aorta is affected.
(4) Tricuspid value always remain open.

69) Which of the following statement is incorrect :-

(A) The electrical activity of heart can be recorded from inside the body by using electro cardiograph
(B) Angina is also called 'angina pectoris', a symptom of acute chest pain appear when no
enough oxygen reaching the skeletal muscle of heart
(C) Coronary artery disease is also called arteriosclerosis
(D) Heart failure is the same as cardiac arrest

(1) A, B and C
(2) B, C and D
(3) B and C
(4) A, B, C and D

70) Which one indicates the hypertension?

(1) 90/60
(2) 120/85
(3) 110/70
(4) 140/100

71) Congestion of lungs is one of the main symptoms in:-

(1) Hypotension
(2) Coronary artery disease
(3) Heart failure
(4) Angina

72) Which out of these factors causes tachycardia :-

(1) fall in body temperature

(2) acetylcholine
(3) blood loss
(4) Parasympathetic stimulation

73) Given below is representation of heart sound, choose time/ duration A & B respectively.

(1) 0.5, 0.3

(2) 0.5, 0.8
(3) 0.3, 0.5
(4) 0.08, 0.03

74) Bundle of His is a network of

(1) Muscle fibres distributed throughout the heart walls

(2) Muscle fibres found in the ventricular septum
(3) Nerve fibres distributed in ventricles
(4) Nerve fibres found throughout the heart

75) At the end of joint diastole ventricle is

(1) Completely filled by blood

(2) Two third filled by blood
(3) One third filled by blood
(4) Completely empty

76) Autoexitable fibres/nodes are called:

(1) Nodal musculature

(2) Cardiac nerves
(3) Neurons
(4) All of these

77) The correct match for kind of respiration is :-

Column I Column II
Animal Respiration

(A) Earthworm (I) Pulmonary

(B) Human (II) Branchial

(C) Prawn (III) Tracheal

(D) Insects (IV) Cutaneous

(1) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV
(2) A – IV, B – II, C – I, D – III
(3) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III
(4) A – III, B – II, C – IV, D – I

78) Conducting respiratory organs in mammals are

(1) Lungs, nasal chamber, pharynx, wind pipe and trachea

(2) Lungs, nasal path, wind pipe and trachea
(3) Lungs, pharynx, wind pipe and trachea
(4) Nasal path, nasal chamber, pharynx, wind pipe or trachea

79) A person suffers punctures in his chest cavity in an accident, without any damage to the lungs
its effect could be :-

(1) Reduced breathing rate

(2) Rapid increase in breathing rate
(3) No change in Breathing
(4) Cessation of breathing

80) Which of the following is not a correctly matched pair :-

(A) Inspiratory reserve volume – 2500-3000 ml
(B) Residual volume – 1500-1600 ml
(C) Expiratory capacity – 1000-1100 ml
(D) Functional residual capacity – 2200-2300 ml

(1) A, D
(2) B, C
(3) A, C
(4) B, C, D

81) Identify the correct and incorrect match about the respiratory volume and capacities and mark
the correct answer :-
(a) Expiratory capacity = Tidal volume + Residual volume
(b) Vital capacity = Total long capacity – Residual volume
(c) Inspiratory capacity = Total long capacity – Functional Residual capacity
(d) Total long capacity = Vital capacity + Functional Residual capacity

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) Incorrect Correct Correct Incorrect

(2) Correct Correct Incorrect Correct

(3) Incorrect Correct Incorrect Incorrect

(4) Correct Incorrect Incorrect Correct

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

82) Consider the following statements and select the option which includes all the correct ones :-
(a) Partial pressures of O2 and CO2 in Alveolar air are 104 mmHg and 40 mmhg
(b) Partial pressures of O2 and CO2 in deoxygenated blood are 40 mmHg and 45 mmhg respectively
(c) Partial pressures of O2 and CO2 in deoxygenated blood are 95 mmHg and 40 mmHg respectively
(d) Partial pressures of O2 and CO2 in Atmospheric air are 40 mmhg and 46 mmHg
Options :

(1) Statement a, b and c are correct

(2) Statement a, b, c and d are correct
(3) Statement a, b are correct
(4) Statement c and d are correct

83) The figure shows a diagrammatic view of human respiratory system with labels A, B, C and D.
Select the option which gives correct identification and main function and/or characteristic :-
(1) D – Lower end of lungs – diaphragm pulls it down during inspiration
(2) A – trachea - long tube supported by complete cartilaginous rings for conducting inspired air
(3) B – pleural membrane - surround ribs on both sides to provide cushion against rubbing
(4) C – Alveoli - thin walled vascular bag like structures for exchange of gases

84) The figure below shows three steps (A, B, C) of mechanism of breathing. Select the option giving

correct identification together with what it represents:

A-Ribs and sternum depressed

(1) B-Volume of thorax increased
C-Diaphragm contracted
A-Ribs and sternum raised
(2) B-Volume of thorax decreased
C-Diaphragm contracted
A-Ribs and sternum raised
(3) B-volume of thorax increased
C-Diaphragm contracted
A-Ribs and sternum raised
(4) B-Volume of thorax increased
C-Diaphragm relexed

85) Which of the following values of volumes and capacities related with respiratory system cannot
be measured by spirometer.

(1) VC
(2) IRV
(3) ERV
(4) RV

86) Which of the following is wrong statement :-

(1) IC = TV + IRV
(2) VC = IC + ERV
(3) TLC = TV + IRV + FRC
(4) FRC = TV + ERV

87) Expiratory muscles contract at the time of :-

(1) Deep inspiration

(2) Normal inspiration and expiration
(3) Forceful expiration
(4) Normal expiration

88) Select the correct option with regards to Dead space volume :-

(1) Its value is 150 ml and is found in exchange zone

(2) Its value is 50 ml and is found in conducting zone
(3) Its value is 150 ml and is found in conducting zone
(4) It is useful air and found in alveoli

89) Match the following columns.

Column I Column II

Inspiratory capacity Total air, a person can inspire after

A. 1.
(IC) normal expiration

Maximal volume of the air, a person

Expiratory capacity
B. 2. can breath in after a
(EC)
forced expiration

Functional residual Volume of the air that will remain

C. 3.
capacity (FRC) in lungs after a normal expiration

Total volume of air a person can

D Vital capacity (VC) 4.
expire after a normal inspiration
Codes:
(1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(2) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
(3) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
(4) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2

90) Volume of air present in lungs after normal expiration :-

(a) Tidal volume
(b) Expiratory reserve volume
(c) IRV
(d) RV

(1) a, b
(2) a, b, c
(3) a, b, d
(4) b, d
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 2 1 3 3 3 3 4 1 1 2 1 2 4 2 1 2 4 3 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 3 3 3 4 3 3 1 3 2 1 4 1 4 3 2 1 3 4 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 4 1 2 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 3 3 1 1 1 3 4 1 2 1 4 1 1 2 4 2 1 3 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 1 2 4 3 4 1 1 1 1 2 1 1 4 2 3 2 1 1 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 3 3 1 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 2 3 1 4 1 1 3 2 2 4 4 1 1 4 1 3 2 3 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 4 4 2 2 1 3 1 2 1 4 3 1 4 2 3 4 1 3 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 2 1 2 4 3 2 2 2 1 1 3 1 4 4 2 3 4 3 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 3 3 3 2 4 1 3 4 4 3 3 3 2 2 1 3 4 4 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 3 4 3 4 4 3 3 2 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2)

Vavg =

=
= 45 km/h

3)
=
= 10m towards west

4)

For a very short time interval, magnitude of instantaneous velocity will be equal to
instantaneous speed.

5) Concept
The acceleration of a moving body refers to the rate of change of velocity with respect to time.
It can be determined using the velocity-time graph, as acceleration is directly related to
velocity.
Analysis of Each Option
1. Area under the velocity-time graph:

A. The area under the velocity-time graph gives the displacement of the moving body, not the
acceleration.
B. Incorrect.

2. Area under the distance-time graph:

A. The area under the distance-time graph has no meaningful interpretation in the context of
acceleration.
B. Incorrect.

3. Slope of the velocity-time graph:

A. The slope of the velocity-time graph represents the rate of change of velocity, which is the
acceleration.
 B. Formula:

A. Correct.

4. Slope of the distance-time graph:

A. The slope of the distance-time graph gives the velocity of the body, not the acceleration.
B. Incorrect.

Conclusion
The acceleration of a moving body can be found from the slope of the velocity-time graph.
Correct option: 3. Slope of the velocity-time graph.

6)

S1 = ut + at2

= (10) (16)
= 80
S2 = 80

vav = = 20 m/s

7)

8) Slope of the position-time graph gives velocity at point E slope is negative.

9) a = constant

u=0

10)

s=

11) The area under the acceleration time graph gives change in velocity. Since particle starts
with u = 0, therefore change in velocity = vf – vi = vmax – 0 = area, under a - t graph =

12) (2n – 1)

13) 1. Question Explanation:

The position of a particle is given as x ∝ t². We need to analyze its velocity and acceleration to
determine whether they are constant or variable.

2. Concept-Based Explanation:
Velocity is the first derivative of position with respect to time, and acceleration is the second
derivative.

3. Formula Used:
Velocity: v = dz/dt
Acceleration: a = du/dt

Calculation :
Given x ∝ t2, assume x = kt2 (where k is a constant)
Velocity

Acceleration

Since acceleration (2k) is independent of time, it is constant

Final answer : (2)

14)

Maximum acceleration maximum slope of velocity vs time graph.

15)

16) 24.5 =
 h=

17) (1) Asking About:

We are determining the motion of a particle based on the relationship between its initial
velocity ( ) and acceleration ( ) to analyze the trajectory and identify correct statements
about its path and direction.
(2) Concept:

A. Collinear vectors: When and are collinear, the trajectory of the particle is a straight line
because the velocity does not change direction.
B. Non-collinear vectors: When and are not aligned, the particle follows a parabolic path
because the acceleration introduces a component of motion perpendicular to the velocity.
C. Direction of motion: The instantaneous direction of motion is always determined by the
direction of the instantaneous velocity vector.

(3) Formula:
The position vector of a particle under constant acceleration is given by:

Here:

A. : Position vector
B. : Initial velocity vector
C. : Acceleration vector
D. t: Time

(4) Solution / Explanation:

A. Option A: If and are collinear, the path will be a parabola.

Incorrect. When & and a are collinear, the motion is along a straight line because the acceleration
does not introduce any component perpendicular to the velocity.

A. Option B: If and are non-collinear, the path will be a parabola.

Correct. Non-collinear vectors introduce motion in two dimensions, causing the trajectory to become
parabolic.

A. Option C: The direction of motion is decided by the direction of instantaneous velocity.

Correct. The instantaneous direction of motion is always tangent to the trajectory and determined by
the instantaneous velocity vector.

A. Option D: If the particle starts from rest under constant acceleration, the path may be a
straight line or parabola.

Incorrect. If the particle starts from rest, the motion is solely governed by . This means it will
follow a straight line along the direction of , as there is no initial velocity to create a second
dimension of motion.
(5) Final Answer:
The correct options are B and C.
Answer: (2) B, С.

18) Let the car accelerate at rate α for time t1 then maximum velocity attained, v = 0 + αt1 =
αt1
Now, the car decelerates at a rate β for time (t – t1 ) and finally comes to rest. Then,
0 = v – β(t – t1) ⇒ 0 = αt1 – βt + βt1

19) If a stone is dropped from height h

then ...(i)
If a stone is thrown upward with velocity u then

...(ii)
If a stone is thrown downward with velocity u then

...(iii)
From (i) (ii) and (iii) we get

...(iv)

...(v)
Dividing (iv) and (v) we get

or
By solving

20)
Velocity after travelling 1m distance

For second 1 meter distance

Taking +ve sign

and so on.

21) and

22) For time 0 to t/2, velocity is positive and decreasing. Then for remaining time it is negative
and (numerically) increasing.

23)

t1 = t2 = t 1 : t2 = :

24)

25) x = αt3 and y = βt3

= = 3t2

26)

and

27)

y= ...(i)

y=

y= ...(ii)
From (i) and (ii)
R = 64m

28) (45° – θ) and (45° + θ)

Range → 1 : 1

29)
(A)
v = 40 m/s

(B)

= 4 sec

(C) = 35 m

30)
For same range angle of projection will be θ & 90° – θ

R=

h1 =

h2 = =

31) at t = 0 → Vy = 4

wrt y – axis

32)

33) ax = 0 ⇒ vx = constant

34)
U sin θ = same
R = U cosθ × T So, U cos ∝ R

35)

vmax = (vx)ball = 20 m/s

36)

37)

38) VRM =
VRM = 5 m/sec

39)

[β] = [T–1]

40)
0 0
M1L T = [MLT–2]a [L3]b [T]c
0 0
M1L T = Ma La+3b + T–2a+c
a = 1 b = –1/3 c = 2

41) Limitation of dimensional analysis.

42) (i)
(ii)

(iii)

43) (A)

(B)

∴θ=0
(C)
∴θ=π

(D)

44)

θ1 = 60°

θ1 – θ2 = 60° – 37°
 45) (A) (B)

(C) (D)

CHEMISTRY

46)

47)

Theory based

48)
Second I.E. defined as energy required to remove second most loosely bound electron.

49)

Δ Heg becomes less negative down the group because size of atom increases and added
electron would be far from nucleus.

50)

51)

52)
* If Δ EN of X – O < Δ EN of O – H than more polarity develops in O – H bond and it will
release H+ so act as " Arrhenius Acid".
* If Δ EN of X – O > Δ EN of O – H than more polarity develops in X – O bond and it will
release OH– so act as "Arrhenius Base".

53)

Theory Based.

54)

55)
Reason :- Penetration power of 3S – e is more than 3P – e . So I.E. of Mg is greater than Al.

56)

Cl2O7 = acidic oxide

but SnO, PbO, ZnO = Amphoteric oxides.

57)

Fact based.

58)

A. Inert gas → Show + ve value of ΔHeg. (+48 kJ/mol)

B. (Na = Alkali metal) → less –ve ΔHeg value. (–53 kJ/mol)
C. (f = haloges) → having max. –ve value of ΔHeg. (–328 kJ/mol)
D. (Oxygen) → less E.A. than halogens. So less –ve ΔHeg value than halogens. [–141 kJ/mol]

59)
In this structure, more than are present in the valence shell of "oxygen" after bond
 formation. So, it is not correct representation.

60)

Generally oxygen shows covalency = 2.

61)

* In XeF2 hybridisation of Xe = Sp3d.

* XeF2 do not follow octet Rule because after bond formation, Xe have more than in their
valence shell.

62)

Order of Size / Energy / Directional Nature of hybrid orbital

63)

64)
 65)

66)
SP - hybridisation B.A. = 180°

B.A. α % S-character

67)

Species B.O.

(18 e–) O2–2 1

(10 e–) B2 1

(15 e–) O2+ 2.5

(14 e–) NO+ 3.0

(15 e–) NO 2.5

(14 e–) CO 3.0

N2 1

O2 2

68)

Order of B.O. =

69)
* Down the group Mol. wt of Inert gases ses, vwf , solubility in water increases.
* Solubility of inert gases in H2O is due to dipole-induced dipole attraction.

70)

(A) NO3– + HCl → Ion - dipole Attraction

(B)
(C)

(D)

71)
Carbonate ion do not have any coordinate bonds.

72)

Avg. F.C. on "O" atom

S – O B.O.

73)

In Sp3d hybridisation dz2 orbital will be involved.

74)

For strongest hydrogen bonding, high E.N. atom must be present.

75)
* So and are isoelectronic as well as isostructural.

76)

Order of BDE = Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2

BDE of F2 is less than Cl2, Br2 due to very high inter electronic repulsion, bond strength in F - F
bond decreases.
 77)

Covalent character α polarisation α charge anion on α size of anion

78)

In case of ionic comp. containing polyatomic anion.

79)

80)
*
* Na2CO3 and K2SO4 do not decomposes.

81)
* LiCl, BeCl2, AlCl3 are covalent in Nature, only NaCl show ionic character, so maximum
melting point will be shown by NaCl.

82)

Order of Boiling Point Order of Volatility

1. H2O > NH3 1. NH3 > H2O

2. P-nitrophenol > O-nitrophenol 2. O-nitrophenol > P-nitrophenol

3. CH3 - OH > CH3 - O - CH3 2. H3C - O - CH3 > CH3 - OH

4. HF > HCl 4. HCl > HF

83)
 84)

85)

The combining orbital must overlap to the minimum extent

86)

* SO2 is polar Compound.

* H2O is polar molecule having polar Bonds.
* PH3 is polar molecule having nonpolar Bonds.

87)
CO CO2 CO3–2
B.O. 3.0 2.0 1.5
C – O B.L. order = CO3–2 > CO2 > CO

88)

InC2 molecule 2 Π-bonds will be formed.

C2 = σ 1s2 σ * 1s2 σ 2s2 Π 2 Px2 = Π 2Py2 [According to M.O.T]

89)

I2 (s) is an example of molecular solid.

90)

Theory Based.

BIOLOGY
91)

Centriole

92)

NCERT Pg # 139

93)

Chromoplast

94) Modul-1 Pg. # 131

95)

Peroxisome

96) NCERT XI- Pg. No. # 127,128,129

97)

Golgi body

98)

The structures formed by the stacking of organized flattened membranous sacs (thylakoids) in
chloroplasts are known as grana.
Correct Answer: 3. Grana

99)

in post translational modification of proteins and glycosidation of lipids

100)

1-iv, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iii

101)

Phospholipid synthesis

102)

NCERT Pg # 137
103)

Its thylakoid membrane

104)

Peroxisomes

105)

Lysosome

106)

80 S, 70 S & 70 S

107)

NCERT Page No. 129

108)

Synthesis of lipid

109)

The cristae decreases the surface area

110)

Mitochondria and lysosomes

111)

Mitochondria + Chloroplast

112)

60s, 40s

113)

G2 and M phases

114)
Metaphase

115)

2n = 24, 2C

116) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 168

117)

If DNA content is C in egg cell. Than the DNA content in metaphase-I will- 4C

118) Explanation

A. In Prophase-I, with 10 tetrads, we have a total of 40 chromatids (10 tetrads × 4

chromatids per tetrad).

B. In Metaphase-II, 10 chromosomes (each with 2 chromatids) will align at the equator.

C. During Anaphase-II, these 20 chromatids will be pulled apart, resulting in 20 chromatids

in each daughter cell.

Correct Answer: 1. 20 and 20

119) NCERT XI Pg.#167 (3rd para) (VII line)

120) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 164 Para : 10.4

121) NCERT XI, Pg.# 169, 170

122) NCERT, Page - 167 (2nd paragraph)

123)

2 – Chromatid

124)

The correct answer is: 4: 2 and 3 both

Explanation:
• Anaphase I (Meiosis I): During anaphase I, the centromeres of sister chromatids do not
split. Instead, homologous chromosomes are separated to opposite poles. The sister
chromatids are still connected by their centromeres.
• Anaphase II (Meiosis II): In anaphase 11, the centromeres split, and the sister chromatids
of each chromosome are separated. This is similar to what happens in mitosis.
• Anaphase (Mitosis): In mitosis, during anaphase, the centromere splits, and the sister
chromatids of each chromosome are pulled to opposite poles of the cell.
Therefore, the splitting of the centromere occurs during both anaphase II (meiosis) and
anaphase (mitosis).
Correct Answer:
4: 2 and 3 both

125)

Two homologous chromosome, each with two chromatids

126)

Four haploid cells are formed at the end of meiosis–I

127)

Same number of chromosomes and half number of chromatids

128)

A:R, B:T, C:P, D:S

129)

Number and types of organisms present on earth

130)

Their functions are coordinated

131)

Poaceae, Anacardiaceae

132)

Solanaceae

133)

A = c, B = a, C = b, D = d
134)

species

135)

order

136) Athlete have low resting heart rate and have higher stroke volume.

137) NCERT Page No - 272

138) Emphysema is due to inflation of alveoli.

139)

140) Tricuspid valves are AV valve present between right atrium and right ventricle. Bicuspid
valves are AV valve present between left atrium and left ventricle. Semilunar valves are
present at the openings of aortic and pulmonary aorta.

141) Post-ganglionic fibers of parasympathetic nervous system secrete acetylcholine which

decrease heart rate and cardiac output.

142)

lungs

143) SA node → AV node → Bundle of His → Bundle branch → Purkinje fibre → Ventricle wall

144)

Systemic Aorta–A, Vena cava–B, Coronary Artery–C, Pulmonary Artery–D

145)

Purkinje fibers

146)

their closure is initiated when the ventricular pressure exceeds atrial pressure
 147)

It can generate the maximum number of action potentials

148)

149)

Depolarisation of atria Depolarisation of ventricles Repolarisation of ventricles

150)

Stroke volume

151)

i-d, ii-a, iii-b, iv-c

152)

Two

153)

Columnae carnae

154)

155)

Lower left corner of right auricle, close to AV - septum

156)

increases the force of ventricular contraction; increases the heart rate ; increases cardiac
output

157)

a-i, b-ii, c-iii

158)

The flow of blood into systemic aorta is affected.

159)

A, B, C and D

160)

140/100

161)

Heart failure

162)

blood loss

163)

0.3, 0.5

164) Bundle of His are muscle fibres which originate from AV node and present on the each
ventricle wall.

165) During joint diastole, in the beginning of the ventricle diastole there is first rapid filling
due to opening of AV valves then the blood fills into ventricles with slow pace called diastasis
or slow filling. Due to this, ventricle is two-thirds filled by blood. Remaining 1/3rd is filled
during atrial contraction.

166)

Nodal musculature
 167)

A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III

168)

Nasal path, nasal chamber, pharynx, wind pipe or trachea

169)

Cessation of breathing

170)

Residual volume – 1500-1600 ml

Expiratory capacity – 1000-1100 ml

171)

Incorrect Correct Correct Incorrect

172)

Statement a, b are correct

173)

C – Alveoli - thin walled vascular bag like structures for exchange of gases

174)

A-Ribs and sternum raised

B-volume of thorax increased
C-Diaphragm contracted

175)

THE VALUES OF VOLUMES AND CAPACITIES RELATED WITH RESPIRATORY SYSTEM

CANNOT BE MEASURED BY SPIROMETERE - RV

176)

FRC = TV + ERV

177)
Forceful expiration

178)

Its value is 150 ml and is found in conducting zone

179)

A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2

180)

Expiratory reserve volume

RV