APPSC | Group-II | Full length Simulation Tests – 2024 | AG2FLT-1111 1

Key and Explanations

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S. No Option S. No Option S. No Option S. No Option S. No Option S. No Option

1 4 26 3 51 3 76 1 101 2 126 2

2 3 27 3 52 3 77 3 102 1 127 2

3 2 28 1 53 2 78 2 103 2 128 1

4 3 29 3 54 3 79 4 104 3 129 3

5 2 30 2 55 2 80 4 105 1 130 1

6 1 31 2 56 2 81 1 106 4 131 4

7 3 32 3 57 2 82 1 107 2 132 3

8 2 33 2 58 4 83 4 108 3 133 1

9 4 34 2 59 2 84 4 109 2 134 2

10 1 35 1 60 3 85 3 110 3 135 3

11 4 36 3 61 1 86 4 111 4 136 4

12 3 37 2 62 2 87 3 112 1 137 1

13 3 38 1 63 3 88 4 113 4 138 3

14 2 39 3 64 1 89 2 114 2 139 4

15 3 40 2 65 3 90 1 115 2 140 3

16 3 41 4 66 3 91 4 116 1 141 2

17 4 42 1 67 2 92 1 117 2 142 3

18 3 43 3 68 3 93 2 118 1 143 4

19 4 44 3 69 2 94 2 119 2 144 1

20 2 45 2 70 2 95 4 120 4 145 1

21 2 46 3 71 4 96 3 121 3 146 1

22 4 47 2 72 2 97 3 122 2 147 4

23 1 48 1 73 1 98 3 123 3 148 1

24 2 49 4 74 1 99 3 124 3 149 4

25 4 50 2 75 3 100 4 125 4 150 4

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 Detailed Explanations 2
1. Correct Answer: Option (4) The Aryan teachers and missionaries brought ▪

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▪ The Satavahanas also patronised the art of with them to Deccan their own literature and
painting. methods of instruction.
▪ The best examples are found at Ajanta. ▪ By 3rd century B.C. thanks to the efforts of
▪ Besides Satavahanas, the Vakatakas, the Ashoka the people of Deccan became familiar
Guptas and the early Chalukyas of Badami with the Brahmi-script and Prakrit language.
were also responsible for the development of ▪ Almost all the documents of the Satavahanas
Ajanta paintings. were recorded in Prakrit.
▪ The mastery over linearism, perfect human ▪ The Satavahana period was also productive of a
anatomy, judicious balance composition, few literary works of outstanding merit.
attempt at modelling, creating an illusion in ▪ Gunadhya wrote Brihatkatha in Prakrit in
depth, brilliant colouring, etc., are some of the Paisachi dialect.
characteristics of the Ajanta paintings. ▪ It was the earliest collection of wonderful tales
▪ The Satavahanas who rose to power on the intervoven into the main story dealing with the
ruins of the Mauryan Empire dominated the adventures of a hero, viz; Naravahanadatta.
dynasties of Andhra for more than three ▪ Hala himself is credited with the compilation of
centuries and ultimately disappeared from the the Gathasaptasati.
political map of Deccan by the third century ▪ This is an anthology of seven hundred verses in
A.D. the Maharashtri-Prakrit.
Source: gopal reddy pg no. 18 Source: gopal reddy pg no. 18
2. Correct Answer: Option (3) 4. Correct Answer: Option (3)
▪ The monuments of the Satavahana period are Ikshvakus
primarily Buddhist monuments. ▪ The Ikshvakus ruled the Krishna valley with
▪ They are the stupas, viharas and chaityas. Vijayapuri as their capital
Stupas or topes or tomb erected by the ▪ They ruled n from the third century A.D. to fourth
Buddhists over the remains of Buddha. century A.D.
▪ Vihara is a place where the Buddhist monks and ▪ It has been held by some that they were
nuns used to live. originally a northern family who migrated to the
▪ The chaitya is a combination of a stupa and Deccan, settled down there and mixed with the
vihara and also a place of worship. local people.
▪ The stupas of Andhra are of the same style as ▪ Living near Sriparvata in Nagarjunakonda valley
the stupas of Sanchi. they became the servants of the Satavahanas.
▪ They are of varying dimensions from the small ▪ They were also known as ‘Sriparvatiyas’.
stupa of Goli to the big stupas of Bhattiprolu ▪ They became independent after the fall of the
and Amaravati. Satavahanas.
▪ The Ayaka pillars found at the four cardinal The Brihatpalayanas
points and close to the stupas is a peculiar ▪ They came to power after the fall of the
feature of the stupas of Amaravati and this is Ikshvakus.
unknown of the stupas of Sanchi region. ▪ They ruled the region located to the north of the
▪ Another peculiar feature is noticed in the Krishna River. i.e; the modern Repalle, Bandar,
foundations of the stupas of Andhra. Tenali and Gudivada taluks.
▪ In this case the foundation looked like a The Salankayanas
radiating and concentric brick-walls. ▪ They ruled the Vengi region in the fourth century
▪ This is not noticed in the stupas of north India. A.D.
▪ The casing slabs of the stupas of Andhra, for ▪ The first reference to the Salankayanas is found
example at Amaravati and Jaggayyapeta, are in the Allahabad inscription of Samudragupta.
decorated with sculptures profusely. Ananda Gotrins:
Source: gopal reddy pg no. 18 ▪ The Pallavas of Kanchi conquered the heart of
3. Correct Answer: Option (2) the Andhra country about the close of the third
▪ The Aryanisation of Deccan brought a change in century.
the field of learning and education. Source: gopal reddy pg no. 24
5. Correct Answer: Option (2)
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 ▪ The art of the Ikshvakus represent the last Virapurushadatta had only one daughter by
phase of the Amaravati School of art. name Kodabalisri. 3

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▪ The sculptures discovered in the Source: gopal reddy pg no. 24
Nagarjunakonda valley depict three trends. 7. Correct Answer: Option (3)
▪ In the first, they depict the Jataka stories- ▪ The social structure of the age is based on the
centres round the life of Buddha. four-fold division of the society based on Varna.
▪ In the second, they represent kings, queens, ▪ Even the Buddhist and Jains who originally
feudatories and royal-emblems. disregarded it were gradually came under its
▪ A very interesting sculpture discovered at influence and adopted it with certain
Jaggayyapeta represents Mandhata aspect. modifications to suit their needs.
▪ In this sculpture the king is shown in standing ▪ The Brahmanas occupied the foremost place in
posture. the society.
▪ He is surrounded by a parasol, elephant and ▪ They were the masters of thought and
the other royal emblems. repositories of learning.
▪ The third set of sculptures used to depict the ▪ They did not confine their activities in religious
social conditions of the age. pursuits.
▪ It is very interesting to note here that a woman ▪ Educated members of the community played a
committing Sati is represented in one of the crucial role in administration, prompting the
sculptures found at Nagarjunakonda. state to encourage them to leave religious duties
▪ Besides, wars, bathing scenes, dances, and take up government positions.
wrestling, toilet, hair styles, dress styles, and ▪ The Vaisyas exclusively devoted their attention
various ornaments are beautifully delineated. to agriculture, trade and commerce.
Erotic scenes are also found in these sculptures. ▪ The town of Penugonda in the West Godavari
▪ Mahayana Buddhism was patronised during district was the principal seat of this
this period. community.
▪ The Amaravati sculptures indeed appear to be ▪ They are referred to in the inscriptions and
as truly in Indian style as those of Barhut and literary works as Komatis.
Ellora. ▪ They monopolised the internal trade through
Source: gopal reddy pg no. 26 their corporate bodies, known as guilds.
6. Correct Answer: Option (1) ▪ Pekkandru, Teliki- 1000, Nanadeshi and
▪ Revival of Hinduism was the chief feature of the Ubhaya-Nanadeshi are some of the trade guilds
Ikshvaku period. of this period.
▪ The movement of Brahmanical revival was Source: gopal reddy pg no. 46
started by Chantamula I. 8. Correct Answer: Option (2)
▪ He performed Asvamedha and Vajapeya ▪ Telugu literature owes its origin to the Eastern
sacrifices. chalukyas of Vengi.
▪ This movement further gained momentum ▪ The Eastern Chalukyan king who was the
during the time of Chantamula II and originator of the desi poetry in Telugu was
Virapurushadatta II. Rajarajanarendra.
▪ Though they did not perform sacrifices they ▪ He patronised Nannayabhatta, the authors of
gave new impetus and new orientation to the the first three cantos of Andhra Mahabharata.
worship of Hindu deities. ▪ The earliest beginnings of the Telugu poetry may
▪ Several temples dedicated to Hariti, be assigned tentatively to the beginnings of the
Kumaraswami, Ashtabhujaswami and 19th century A.D.
Pushapabhadraswami were discovered in the ▪ Pampa, the author of Vikramarjuna-vijaya and
Nagarjunakonda valley. the Adipurana, which are considered to be the
▪ Sri Virapurushadatta (240 A.D. to 260 A.D.) was works in the Kannada literature, were
the son and successor of Chantamula I. composed during this period.
▪ Three of his queens’ are known to have been ▪ Bhattavemana who wrote the Kavyalankara
the daughters of his father’s sisters. Sutra was patronised by Bhima I.
▪ This might have been done with a view to ▪ Temples were the centres of education and
prevent dissentions within the family and to learning.
secure support against the enemies.

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 ▪ Ghatikas were attached to these temples: They ▪ For example, the Siva-Nataraja sculptures of this
were mostly under the priestly class and period betray southern and northern traditions.4

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imparted traditional Iearning. ▪ Deccan architecture is a type of architecture
Source: gopal reddy pg no. 46, 47 developed during the medieval period in the
9. Correct Answer: Option (4) Deccan Plateau region.
▪ The Sudras formed the bulk of the population. Source: gopal reddy pg no. 33
▪ They were mainly the tillers of the soil and 11. Correct Answer: Option (4)
made their living by means of agriculture and ▪ It is evident from Hiuen Tsang that the people of
cattle rearing. Deccan combined orthodoxy with heterodoxy.
▪ Many of them followed the profession of arms. ▪ He further sates that there were more than 100
▪ The members of the various sub- divisions of Buddhist monasteries providing accommodation
the Sudra community constituted in fact the for 5,000 Buddhist monks and nuns.
rank and file of the south Indian armies, a fact ▪ Jainism also received royal patronage and
which attributed more than anything else to support from the nobles.
increase their importance. ▪ The commander of forces of Pulakesin II by
▪ There were no social tensions in this period. name Ravikirti was a Jain.
▪ Polygamy was observed by the kings and nobles ▪ Vijayaditya and Vikramaditya I patronised many
of this period. Jain acharyas.
▪ Keeping a concubine was a symbol woe of ▪ The Chalukyan kings seem to have been generally
social status. devotees of Siva and Vishnu, for whose worship
▪ Courtesans and concubines enjoyed high social they built many temples.
status. ▪ The existence of the images of Hari-Hara clearly
▪ They cultivated fine arts like music, dance and shows that the Saivites and Vaishnavites were in
pleased people by their learned and witty hostile terms.
conversation. ▪ It appears that the Chalukyan kings attempted
Source: gopal reddy pg no. 46 to harmonise Saivism and Vaishnavism by
10. Correct Answer: Option (1) introducing the Hari-Hara cult.
▪ The early Chalukyas of Badami were Source: gopal reddy pg no. 33
responsible for the introduction of a new style 12. Correct Answer: Option (3)
of architecture known, ‘the Chalukyan style’, ▪ It is evident from the testimony of Hiuen Tsang
or the Vesaara style’, in the annals of Deccan that the people of the Chalukyan kingdom were
architecture. ‘fond of learning’.
▪ Monuments built under this style represent ▪ Vatapi was a great centre of intellectualism and
harmonious combination of Nagara (north learning.
Indian) and Dravida (south Indian) styles of ▪ Most of the temples were attached with
architecture. Ghatikas- educational institutions.
▪ The Chalukyan monuments represent two ▪ These Ghatikas and temples were under the
phases. control of the priestly class.
▪ Caves represent the first phase. ▪ Sanskrit was the court language.
▪ They are monolithic and excavated in the slopy ▪ The Kannada language also received sufficient
hills or mountain ranges. patronage.
▪ They are Brahmanical in dedication and ▪ It is found mostly used in the inscriptions.
Buddhist in style and technique. ▪ The Sabdavatara of Durviniti Jinendravyakarana
▪ The structural temples built by the Chalukyan of Pujayapada and Nitivakyamnta of
kings and their subordinates represent the Somadevasuri were some of the Sanskrit works
second phase. produced during this period.
▪ The sculptures representing various aspects of ▪ Adipurana, Vikramarjunavijaya and
Siva and Vishnu are found in the Chalukyan Pampabharata were the significant works in the
temples. Kannada language.
▪ They exhibit the highest degree of perfection in Source: gopal reddy pg no. 33
the art of carving. 13. Correct Answer: Option (3)
▪ Here also one can discern the interaction of The Society of Reddi kingdom:
Nagara and Dravida art traditions.

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 ▪ Besides the traditional four castes there was ▪ The history of the brihatpalayanas is known only
another caste that was very prevalent were through one inscription, i.e; Kondamudi 5

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Chandalas considered as lowest in the social inscription.
order. ▪ This inscription was issued by jayavarma
▪ It was considered that the very touch or the maharaja.
sight-of a Chandala would pollute a member of ▪ It is in Prakrit.
a high caste. ▪ But the seal and the legend is in Sanskrit.
▪ However, they played a very important part in Bayyaram tank inscription:
the agrarian set up of the society. ▪ The Kakatiyas of Warangal, as stated in the
▪ They worked in the fields and carried on the Bayyaram tank inscription, were originally
agricultural operations. belonged to some Ratta or Rashtrakuta origin.
▪ They were the real producers whereas the three ▪ Thus they were the Sudras.
upper caste people were the exploiters of their Source: gopal reddy pg no. 14, 26, 50
sweat and blood. 15. Correct Answer: Option (3)
▪ The position of peasantry was deplorable The Kakatiyas of Warangal
during the Reddi period. ▪ They were the next to establish their sway over
▪ Their socio-economic mobility was checked. the entire Telugu speaking area after the fall of
▪ The canon of variety observed by the Reddi the Satavahanas and before the rise of the
kings in the field of taxation affected the Vijayanagara Empire.
peasants very heavily. ▪ They presided over the destinies of Andhra from
▪ Further, the farming of taxes bear evidence to the tenth century A.D. to the first quarter of the
it. fourteenth century A.D.
▪ The exemption of devadana and agrahara ▪ This period-can very well be styled in the
villages from taxation might have increased the mediaeval history of Andhra country as “Tie Age
burden of taxation on the common people. of the Kakatiyas of Warangal”.
▪ Thus, the position of peasants during this The Eastern Chalukyas of Vengi
period, as in the previous periods, was not rosy. ▪ The Eastern Chalukyas of Vengi ruled the Andhra
Source: gopal reddy pg no. 71 country from the seventh century A.D. to
14. Correct Answer: Option (2) eleventh century A.D.
Bidar inscription: The Reddi Kingdoms (1325 A.D.-1448 A.D.)
▪ The Yadava king Mahadeva invaded the ▪ The first quarter of the 14th century A.D. saw the
Kakatiya kingdom and invested the capital end of the Kakatiyas of Warangal.
Warangal. ▪ The whole of Andhra came under the control of
▪ Rudramadevi was a woman of peerless the Delhi Sultanate.
courage. ▪ As a consequence of this the country plunged
▪ She defeated and destroyed the Yadava army into chaos and confusion.
and even chased it up to the walls of Devagiri, ▪ A movement to throw off the Muslim marauders
the capital of the Yadavas. from their native soil and to protect their dharma
▪ Mahadeva finally concluded a treaty with and culture was set on foot in the coastal tract of
queen Rudramadevi according to which he paid the Andhra country.
a very heavy war indemnity to Rudramadevi. ▪ Prolaya Nayaka of the Musunuri family became
▪ This great victory scored by Rudramadevi over the leader of the movement of liberation.
the Yadavas of Devagiri is recorded in her Bidar ▪ He made Rekapaili in the vicinity of Godavari as
inscription. his capital and reestablished Hindu dharma
Kancheri inscription: there.
▪ Pulamavi was succeeded by Vasishthiputra Early Chalukyas of Badami
Satakarni. ▪ They rose to power in sixth century A.D. and
▪ He is referréd to in the Kancheri inscription as ruled up to the last quarter of the eighth century
the son-in-law of Rudradaman. A.D.
▪ His coins are found in the Krishna and Godavari ▪ They were ultimately supplanted -by their
districts. subordinates, i.e; the Rashtrakutas.
Kondamudi inscription: Source: gopal reddy pg no. 31, 63, 47, 40
16. Correct Answer: Option (3)

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 ▪ The Prataparudra-Yashobhushna of ▪ Man appeared for the first time in the Krishna
Vidyanatha states that the family of these Godavari valley. 6

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kings came to be known as “Kakatiya” on ▪ Geologically man appeared in the Pleistocene
account of their being the worshippers of the Age.
goddess by name Kakati. ▪ The pre-historic investigations carried out in
▪ It should be noted that they were also the Andhra Pradesh can mainly be assigned to pre
worshippers of Svayambhudeva, i.e; Siva. and post-independence periods.
▪ The Bayyaram tank inscription which throws a ▪ Most of the discoveries made during the pre-
lot of light on the early history of the Kakatiyas independence period were made by a number
states that Venna the earliest member of this of geologists, civil officers and missionaries.
dynasty, ruled from the town called ‘Kakati’ and ▪ Nevertheless, the contributions made by Robert
on account of this his descendants came to be Bruce Foote, a great geo-archaeologist, to the
known as ‘Kakatiyas’. study of prehistoric Andhra Pradesh stands a
▪ The Kakatiyas are referred to in several pioneering work.
inscriptions as the “Lords of Kakatipura”. Source: gopal reddy pg no. 1
▪ The Kakatiyas of Warangal, as stated in the 19. Correct Answer: Option (4)
Bayyaram tank inscription, were originally ▪ The pre-historic investigations carried out in
belonged to some Ratta or Rashtrakuta origin. Andhra Pradesh can mainly be assigned to pre
▪ Thus they were the Sudras. and post-independence periods.
▪ But after assuming considerable power and ▪ Most of the discoveries made during the pre-
prestige they might have thought of tracing independence period were made by a number of
their origin from the well-known Kshatriya geologists, civil officers and missionaries.
races, i.e.; Solar or Lunar. ▪ Nevertheless, the contributions made by Robert
▪ This is what exactly reflected in to inscription of Bruce Foote, a great geo-archaeologist, to the
Ganapatideva and his successors where they study of prehistoric Andhra Pradesh stands a
are connected with cither Solar or Lunar races. pioneering work.
Source: gopal reddy pg no. 47 ▪ The earliest record of pre-historic studies goes
17. Correct Answer: Option (4) back to 1843 when New Bold discovered ash
Poets Their works mounds in this region.
Tikkana Somayaji Nirvachanottara- ▪ Then followed the discoveries made by W.King,
ramayanamu Henry Foote, Oldham, Burkit, Aiyappan, etc.
Mantri Bhaskara Bhaskara-ramayanamu ▪ These discoveries brought to light several pre-
Gona Buddha Reddi Ranganatha- historic sites.
ramayanamu ▪ They formed the basis for further research.
Marana Markandeya-puranamu ▪ Systematic work in this region, during the post-
Nanne Choda Kumarasambhavamu independence period, was done mainly by H.D.
Baddena Sumatisatakamu Sankalia and his students from the Deccan
Palkuriki Somanatha Basava-puranamu, College, Poona and various Government
Panditaradhya-charitra Agencies like Archaeological Survey of India and
Source: gopal reddy pg no.55 State Archaeological Department.
18. Correct Answer: Option (3) Source: gopal reddy pg no. 1
▪ The archaeological researches proved beyond 20. Correct Answer: Option (2)
doubt that man appeared on the planet earth ▪ The Megalith building in South India represents a
some time back in 500,000 B.C. distinctive cultural phase, which succeeded the
▪ In this age man had used only stone implements Neolithic cultural phase.
and hence it is called Stone Age. ▪ The succession from the Neolithic to Megalithic
▪ The Stone Age is again divided into three appears to be sudden and peaceful.
divisions, viz; Palaeolithic, Mesolithic and ▪ The available evidence indicates wide
Neolithic Ages. distribution of the Megalithic monuments in the
▪ A careful examination of the stone tools that Andhra Pradesh.
are found distributed in the Andhra region lead ▪ The explorations, so far carried, indicate the
the archaeologists to conclude that round concentration of these monuments in the whole
about 300,000 B.C. of the present Rayalaseema and Telangana areas

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 ▪ The Megalithic tombs are of different types and ▪ Kattinat of Mukha Doras is a famous male-
they are as follows: oriented dance in Araku valley. 7

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• In the first type a conical stone is fixed on ▪ More children take part using different face
the top of the burial. It is s known as masks.
Menhir. ▪ In Kattinat dance four instruments are used.
• In the second type, the dead body is ▪ They are:
preserved in a box prepared with stone • Tudumu
slabs and buried in the earth. A hole is • Pinnigara
made on the slab arranged on the eastern • Kiridi and
side of the stone box. This is known as • Dappu.
Dolmenoid. ▪ Dappu instrument is common to all tribal dances.
• In the third type, the box is prepared with ▪ Kattinat is a vibrant and vigorous dance form.
the help of bricks to receive the dead body. ▪ There are typical formations like circles, half
It is also provided with a hole on the circles with different variations.
eastern side. ▪ They have an elaborate make-up.
• On the surface of the tomb stones are ▪ All men use different colours of bottu on their
arranged in a circle. This type of tomb is forehead and kajal for their eyes.
known as Chist. ▪ They trim their moustache in a way that is
• In this type, an earthen box with legs interesting to watch.
numbering six or eight is used to preserve Source: Potti Sriramulu Telugu University pg 996
the dead body. This is known as 23. Correct Answer: Option (1)
sacrophogus. A very interesting and a ▪ Jatapus live in Srikakulam and Vijayanagaram
unique sacrophogus is discovered in the districts.
Megalithic tomb found at Shankavaram in ▪ Their language is a part of the Dravidian family.
the Cuddapah district. In this case the ▪ Jatapus perform dances in their day-to-day life.
sacrophogus is in the shape of a goat, but ▪ Their dances are classified as social dances,
provided with six legs. agricultural dances and recreational dances.
• Source: gopal reddy pg no. 4 Some are performed only by men and some by
21. Correct Answer: Option (2) women and others by both sexes.
▪ Chenchus are identified as a primitive tribe in ▪ Another dance of Jatapus is Gajjela Nrityam.
Andhra. Their primary deity is Mallanna. ▪ This is done by only male members.
▪ Due to the sanskritisation process Mallanna is ▪ Women sing songs according to the music and
transformed into Mallikarjuna. rhythm of the piridi instrument.
▪ They celebrate Hindu festivals like Ugadi, ▪ Trance dance is another dance of Jatapus.
Nagulachaviti, Dasara, Sankranti and Shivaratri. ▪ They go to the nearby hills and worship Goddess
▪ The Chenchus dance according to the rhythm of Tokki.
musical instruments. ▪ Old Jatapu women do not wear blouses, but wear
▪ They use musical instruments like Tappeta, a white cloth and begin to dance.
thute, Nadaswaram (panpipe) and other ▪ They hold peacock feathers in their hands and
instruments. smear their face with turmeric powder and then
▪ The Chenchus consider themselves as the go into a trance.
brothers of Chenchulaxmi and Narasimha Source: Potti Sriramulu Telugu University pg 994
Swami as their brother-in-law. 24. Correct Answer: Option (2)
▪ They sing the song "Chettulekka galava ▪ Even after the conclusion of sri bagh Pact, the
Narahari guttalekka galava" and enjoy Andhra Province Movement had to be carried on
themselves. for more than one and half decades.
▪ Dancing has no religious or magical ▪ It has to pass through the Reports of Dar
significance for the Chenchus. Commission (10-12-1948), J.V.P. (Jawaharlal
▪ Peaccock dance and black-faced monkey Nehru, Vallabhai Patel and Pattabhi
dance are favourite dances of chenchus. Sitaramayya) Committee (April, 1949), Partition
Source: Potti Sriramulu Telugu University pg. 997 Committee (December, 1949) and finally
22. Correct Answer: Option (4) Wanchoo Committee (07-02-1953).

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 ▪ Swami Sitaramam in August - September, 1951 latter was watching the waves of the sea on the
and Potti Sriramulu (09-10-1952 to 15-12-1952) Adyar beach. 8

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have to undergo fasts, the latter till he breathed ▪ Leadbeater, being a clairvoyant, at once
his last. pronounced that the boy was going to be the
▪ On 19th December, 1952, Prime Minister Nehru messiah of the future.
announced the decision to establish an Andhra ▪ This happened in 1909.
State with the undisputed Telugu districts and ▪ Though Krishnamurti had no formal education,
excluding the Madras city. he wrote a book called At the Feet of the Master
▪ The long-cherished dream of the Andhras came at the age of 16.
true when the Andhra State was inaugurated on ▪ The book ran into 40 editions and was translated
1st October, 1953, by Prime Minister Nehru. into 27 languages.
Source: Potti Sriramulu Telugu University pg 21 ▪ It is estimated that Krishnamurti had altogether
25. Correct Answer: Option (4) written an incredible number of 712 books.
▪ The publication of Andhra Prabha, a daily Source: Raghunath Rao pg 340, 341
newspaper, was a landmark in the publication 27. Correct Answer: Option (3)
of journals in the Madras Presidency. Jiddu Krishnamurti
▪ Ramnath Goenka, who was publishing Indian ▪ Though Krishnamurti had no formal education,
Express from Madras, wanted to publish a he wrote a book called At the Feet of the Master
Telugu newspaper also and asked his readers to at the age of 16.
suggest a name. Panapakam Anandacharyulu
▪ And thus emerged Andhra Prabha in the Andhra ▪ Andhra played an important role in the Indian
media world. National Congress since its inception in 1885.
▪ Its first editor was Khassa Subba Rau. ▪ In the post-independence period, B. Pattabhi
▪ The Golden era in the history of Andhra Prabha Sitaramayya, Neelam Sanjiva Reddy, D.
was when Narla Venkateswara Rao was its Sanjivaiah and K. Brahmananda Reddi acted as
editor. presidents of the Congress.
▪ Among other great editors of Andhra Prabha, ▪ In the early years of the Congress, the first
mention must be made of Neelamraju Venkata Andhra to become its president was Panapakam
Seshaiah, Panditaradhyula Nageswara Rao and Anandacharyulu.
Kuchimanchi Satya Subrahmanyam, who were Cattamanchi Ramalinga Reddy
known for their journalistic talent as well as ▪ He was bom in Cattamanchi, a lovely village on
knowledge of contemporary political the outskirts of Chittoor town.
developments and literature. ▪ After completing high school education at
▪ During Narla Venkateswara Rao’s editorship, Chittoor, C. R. Reddy proceeded to Madras and
Andhra Prabha developed a new style of news joined the Christian College.
writing, which newspapers of the next ▪ Even before receiving his B. A. degree, Reddy
generation adopted. showed his intellectual brilliance by publishing
▪ Eenadu newspaper was started in the year a poetical work in Telugu called Musalamma
1975. Maranamu.
▪ Vishalandhra and Prajasakthi were Communist Burgula Ramakrishna Rao
Party publications. ▪ Ramakrishna Rao was well versed in six
Source: Potti Sriramulu Telugu University pg 823 languages, English, Telugu, Sanskrit, Marathi,
26. Correct Answer: Option (3) Urdu and Persian.
Jiddu Krishnamurti ▪ He was the author of two books in Telugu,
▪ Jiddu Krishnamurti was born in Madanapalle on Krishna Satakam and Sarasvata Vyasa Muktavali.
11 May, 1985, in a lower middle class Telugu Source: Raghunath Rao pg 336, 337,338,339
Brahmin family. 28. Correct Answer: Option (1)
▪ His parents, Narayanayya and Sanjivamma, ▪ The Second Andhra Conference (hereafter it
named the boy “Krishna” as he happened to be came to be known as Andhra Mahasabha) took
their eighth child. place at Vijayawada on 11 April, 1914, under the
▪ C. W. Leadbeater, a close associate of Annie presidentship of N. Subba Rao.
Besant, happened to see Krishnamurti while the ▪ The presidential address caused much
disappointment and dissatisfaction among the

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 delegates, but M. Suryanarayana moved a ▪ The Second Andhra Conference (hereafter it
resolution on the need to constitute the Telugu came to be known as Andhra Mahasabha) took 9

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speaking areas of the Madras Presidency into a place at Vijayawada on 11 April, 1914, under the
separate province. presidentship of N. Subba Rao.
▪ The Third Conference, which was held at ▪ In May 1914, the Visakhapatnam district
Visakhapatnam in May 1915 under the conference was held under the presidentship of
Presidentship of Raja Panugand B. Venkatapathi Raju.
Ramarayaningar, not only reiterated the ▪ The Third Conference, which was held at
demand for a separate Andhra, but also Visakhapatnam in May 1915 under the
demanded that the mother-tongue be made Presidentship of Raja Panugand
the medium of instruction in secondary schools. Ramarayaningar, not only reiterated the
▪ From 1916 onwards, issues of national demand for a separate Andhra, but also
importance like a united Congress, co- demanded that the mother-tongue be made the
operation between the Congress and Muslim medium of instruction in secondary schools.
League and the demand for Home Rule came to ▪ The Tamil daily of Madras, Swadesamitran,
the forefront. welcomed the resolution on the medium of
▪ The Fifth Session of the Andhra Mahasabha was instruction in secondary schools.
held at Nellore on June, 1917, with Konda ▪ The Andhra Mahasabha conferences popularised
Venkatappaiah as President. the habit of addressing public meetings in
Source: Raghunath Rao pg 155 Telugu.
29. Correct Answer: Option (3) ▪ The Fourth Conference of the Andhra
▪ After the first Andhra Conference at Bapatla, Mahasabha was held at Kakinada in May 1916,
the subject of the formation of the separate with Mocherla Ramchandra Rao as President.
Andhra province came for consideration at Source: Raghunath Rao pg 155
several district conferences. 31. Correct Answer: Option (2)
▪ At the district conference of Visakhapatnam, Swami Sitaram’s fast
the President M. Suryanarayana of ▪ Swami Sitaram (formerly Gollapudi Sitaram
Vijayanagaram spoke in favour of it. Sastry) felt that he should adopt the Gandhian
▪ But Gade Raghava Rao of Berhampur, who technique to achieve the Andhra State.
presided over the Nellore district conference, ▪ So he began his fast unto death on Independence
advocated a more cautious policy. Day, 1951.
▪ The reason for this was obvious. ▪ Nehru disapproved of the extra constitutional
▪ Raghava Rao was anxious about the future of methods to coerce the Government.
his native town Berhampur in case a separate ▪ The fast created a highly explosive situation in
Andhra province became an accomplished fact. Andhra and led to some untoward incidents.
▪ In May 1914, the Visakhapatnam district ▪ Thereupon, Acharya Vinoba Bhave advised the
conference was held under the president ship Swami to give up his fast so that the whole issue
of B. Venkatapathi Raju. could be settled in a peaceful atmosphere.
▪ Raju, in his address, observed: I am glad to ▪ The Swami ended his 35 day fast on 20
notice at the Andhra Conference almost all September, 1951.
leading gentlemen have agreed that the cry for ▪ Nothing came out of this fast except increasing
a separate province is desirable and it ought to the contempt of the people towards the Andhra
be taken up as an ideal to be attained. Congress leaders.
▪ When once it is admitted that it is an ideal, ✓ Captain Orr was put in charge of the
postponement of agitation for attaining the execution of the work of Krishna Anicut that
same is foolish. began in 1850.
Source: Raghunath Rao pg 155 ✓ Potti Sriramulu began his fast unto death on
30. Correct Answer: Option (2) 19th October, 1952 at Madras.
▪ The First Andhra Conference was held at Source: Raghunath Rao pg 196
Bapatla on 26 May, 1913, under the 32. Correct Answer: Option (3)
presidentship of B. N. Sarma, then a member ▪ Justice Kailas Nath Wanchoo, Chief Justice of
of the Legislative Council of Madras. Rajasthan High Court, was appointed as Special

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 Officer to report on financial, administrative ▪ As Revenue Minister, Prakasam headed the
and other implications of the formation of Zamindari Abolition Committee. 10

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Andhra. ▪ It recommended the abolition of the Zamindari
▪ On 7 February, 1953, Wanchoo submitted his and that the tiller of the soil should become its
report and on 25 March, 1953. owner.
▪ Nehru announced the decision of the ▪ The recommendation could not be implemented
Government of India to create a separate as the Congress resigned the office in 1939.
Andhra State consisting of Srikakulam, Source: Raghunath Rao pg 202
Visakhapatnam, East Godavari, West 34. Correct Answer: Option (2)
Godavari, Krishna, Guntur, Nellore, Chittoor, Sir Thomas Munro (1761-1827)
Cuddapah, Anantpur and Kurnool districts and ▪ He joined the service of the East India Company
Alur, Adoni and Rayadurg talukas of Bellary as a military cadet and arrived at Madras on 15th
districts. January, 1780.
▪ He also announced that the question of Bellary ▪ He died as Governor of Madras at Pattikonda in
talukas would be considered later. Kurnool district on 6 July, 1827.
▪ The remaining talukas of Bellary districts were ▪ Thomas Munro’s career in India can be divided
to be merged with the Mysore State. into four periods.
▪ Justice L. S. Misra of the Hyderabad High Court ▪ The second period was from 1792 to 1807.
was appointed to consider the question of the ▪ During this period Munro was employed in the
Bellary taluka. civil administration.
▪ He recommended its inclusion in Mysore State. ▪ From 1792 to 1799 he worked in the Bara Mahal
▪ The Government of India accepted his (Salem) which was ceded by Tipu Sultan to East
recommendations. India Company.
▪ Establishment of Sri Venkateswara University at ▪ In 1800, the Nizam of Hyderabad entered into a
Tirupati on 2 September, 1954. subsidiary alliance with the East India Company.
Source: Raghunath Rao pg 197 ▪ By this treaty, the Company agreed to protect the
33. Correct Answer: Option (2) Nizam by maintaining its army at Hyderabad: To
Salt Satyagraha, 1930 meet the cost-of these troops, the Nizam ceded
▪ When Gandhi launched Salt Satyagraha in 1930, to the Company the territories he had acquired
Prakasam resigned his membership of the from Tipu Sultan of Mysore under the treaties of
Central Assembly to take, part in the 1792 and 1799.
movement. ▪ These territories were the districts of Bellary,
▪ He made Madras city the centre of his activities. Anantapur, Cuddapah and Kurnool.
He, along with K. Nagesware Rao Panthulu and ▪ This area is now known as Rayalaseema.
Smt. Durgabai Deshmukh, offered Satyagraha ▪ Munro was appointed as the Principal Collector
on 13 April, 1930. of these districts in November, 1800.
▪ Prakasam was arrested and imprisoned at ▪ Munro came to India for the second time in June
Tiruchirapalli jail. 1814, as the President of the Judicial
Revenue Minister Commission.
▪ In 1937, the Congress won the elections of the Source: Raghunath Rao pg 120-122
Madras Presidency with an overwhelming 35. Correct Answer: Option (1)
majority. Sri Bagh Pact
▪ The question then was who should be the ▪ It was an agreement made between the political
leader of the party, Prakasam or leaders of Andhra and Rayalaseema Mahasabha
Rajagopalachari? on 16 November 1937.
▪ Prakasam decided not to contest the election ▪ This was an agreement for developing the
and allowed C. Rajagopalachari to form the Rayalaseema region at par with coastal areas and
government as he felt that all Congressmen bringing in consensus among all the regions
must stand united since they were forming the before the formation of the Andhra province.
government for the first time. Gentlemen’s Agreement
▪ Rajagopalachari became the Premier of Madras ▪ The Congress High Command accepted
and Prakasam the Revenue Minister. Visalandhra.

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 ▪ Their decision was partly influenced by the revolt and Nagi Reddi over the strategy could not
arguments of Hyderabad State in favour of be reconciled. 11

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Visalandhra. ▪ Nagi Reddi felt that the time was not ripe for
▪ The hardcore Telangana protagonists like K. V. launching an armed struggle. So, his group was
Ranga Reddi and M. Chenna Reddi, however, expelled from the AICCCR in February 1969.
stuck to their demand for separate Telangana. ▪ Source: Raghunath Rao pg 124
▪ In order to prevent misunderstanding between 38. Correct Answer: Option (1)
the two regions of Andhra and Telangana, the Janasakthi
Congress High Command arranged a meeting of ▪ There was a further split in the Communist
the leaders of the regions at Delhi on 20 ranks on 1 May, 1969, when a new splinter
February, 1956. group called CPI (M-L) (Marxist-Leninist) came
▪ The outcome of the meeting is Gentlemen’s into existence.
Agreement. ▪ One of the important leaders of this new group
Source: Raghunath Rao pg 188, 210 was Tarimela Nagi Reddi, who was then the
36. Correct Answer: Option (3) leader of the opposition in Andhra Pradesh State
▪ None of the political parties except the CPI Assembly.
bestowed attention on the problems of the ▪ The other important leaders were Devulapalli
Girijans of the Srikakulam district. Venkateswara Rao, Kolia Venkaiah and Chandra
▪ As early as 1959, the CPI initiated the Pulla Reddi.
formation of an association called Girijana ▪ All these were formally members of the CPI (M).
Sangham. ▪ This new splinter group tried to propagate its
• One of the activities of the Sangham was ideology through its short-lived Telugu weekly
against “Vetti Chakiri” or forced work of Janasakthi.
the Girijans in the house of rich traders and Justice newspaper
money-lenders. ▪ In November 1916, about 30 non-Brahmin
▪ The CPI thus launched a movement against leaders of the Madras Presidency, including Pitty
bonded labour. Tyagaraja Chetti, formed an association called
▪ The area along the coast of the Bay of Bengal is South Indian People’s Association to publish
known as the plains and the area around the newspapers in English, Telugu and Tamil to
Eastern Ghats is known as the Agency area. ventilate the grievances of the non-Brahmins.
▪ In the Agency area, there is a large ▪ The association brought out an English daily
concentration of tribals like Jatapus, Savaras, called Justice on 26 February, 1917.
Gadabas and Khonds. They popularly called Deshabhimani
together as “Girijans” i.e. residents of the hills. ▪ It was first published as a monthly on 6
▪ Source: Raghunath Rao pg 225 September 1942 in Kozhikode.
37. Correct Answer: Option (2) ▪ It actively involved in political issues then.
▪ The All-India Co-ordination Committee of the Andhra Patrika
Communist Revolutionaries (AICCCR) was ▪ The influential weekly newspaper Andhra
formed in November 1967 in an attempt to iron Patrika was established by Kasinadhuni
out the ideological and strategic differences Nageswara Rao in 1908 and was a key player in
among different splinter groups of the the nationalist struggle in the Telugu-speaking
Communists. area of India.
▪ The second meeting of the AICCCR was held ▪ Rao started the weekly newspaper after realising
again in Calcutta in May 1968. the necessity for a Telugu-language periodical to
▪ The Nagi Reddi faction of the CP] (M-L) in promote Indian independence.
Andhra did not join the AICCCR, but the leaders ▪ Source:
of the Srikakulam Tribal Revolt’ like Panchadi https://cmsadmin.amritmahotsav.nic.in/district-
Krishna Murty and Chowdari Tejeswara Rao reopsitory-
decided to join AICCCR. detail.htm?25139#:~:text=The%20influential%2
▪ In December, the Srikakulam Struggle was 0weekly%20newspaper%20Andhra,periodical%
intensified. However, the serious differences 20to%20promote%20Indian%20i
between Charu Majumdar, CPI (M-L) leader of Raghunath Rao pg 224
West Bengal who spearheaded the Naxalbari 39. Correct Answer: Option (3)

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 ▪ From 1935 onwards, three leftist parties ▪ Another interesting development was the
became prominent in Andhra. support of women and the tribal to the Sangam, 12

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▪ They were the Communist Party, Congress i.e., the workers of the Andhra Mahasabha and
Socialist Party and the Radical Humanist Party the Communists.
of M. N. Roy. P. Sundarayya Andhra and the ▪ While the Telangana Communists were
Indian National Movement 181 was the earliest launching their campaign against the feudal
organiser of the Communist Movement in landlords in the Warangal (including the present
Andhra. Khammam district) and Nalgonda districts, the
Justice Party Andhra Communists in the adjoining districts of
▪ In December 1916, the South Indian Liberal Krishna and Guntur of the Madras Presidency
Federation (S.LL.F.) was inaugurated to intensified their activities among landless
safeguard the interests of the non-Brahmins in labourers.
madras presidency. Source: Raghunath Rao pg 217
▪ Within a short time, the S.L.L.F. came to be 41. Correct Answer: Option (4)
known as the Justice Party. Telangana Demand Day
▪ Though many of its leaders were Telugus, the ▪ The Prime Minister’s Eight Point Plan did not find
Justice Party did not have much following in favour among the dissident Congress legislators
Andhra. and non-Congress parties.
The Communist Party ▪ The student agitation now passed into the hands
▪ The spread of the struggle of the Telangana of disgruntled politicians who formed
peasants of the Nalgonda and Warangal themselves into what was called the Telangana
districts to other districts like Karim Nagar Praja Samiti and began to organise the
awakened the Nizam’s Government to the movement in a planned manner.
gravity of the situation in the Telegana region of ▪ The Praja Samiti called upon the people to
the State. observe 1 May, 1969, as the Telangana Demand
▪ So, in October 1946, it began a sudden swoop Day.
on the Communist leaders and succeeded in ▪ In September 1971, Brahmananda Reddy
arresting the second rank leaders like V. Alwar resigned his position to make room for a
Swamy and others. Telenganite to become the Chief Minister.
▪ Soon after in November 1946, the Communist The trifurcation of the Hyderabad State
Party was formally banned by the Nizam’s ▪ After the trifurcation of the Hyderabad State in
Government. 1956, the Mulki rules continued to be in force in
▪ The Andhra Congress Swaraj Party was formed the Telangana region.
in 1934 to achieve Andhra Pradesh, but it could ▪ As a result, the people of the Andhra region
not achieve its goal. found it difficult to enter into Government
▪ Prakasam and N.G. Ranga left the Congress service in Telangana region.
Party and founded the “Kisan Mazdoor Party”. Supreme Court’s verdict on Mulki rules
▪ Source: Raghunath Rao pg 218,183, 180 ▪ On 3 October, 1972, the Supreme Court gave its
40. Correct Answer: Option (2) verdict’ on the Mulki rules, stating that they were
Creation of Dalams valid and were in force.
▪ The Communists were overwhelmed at the ▪ This judgement created a great political crisis in
response of the peasants. the State.
▪ They immediately tried to consolidate their ▪ The people of the Andhra region felt that they
gains by forming what were called “Dalams” in were reduced to the status of second class
villages and hamlets. citizens even in their own State capital.
▪ They were the group of communist party Source: Raghunath Rao pg 233
workers. 42. Correct Answer: Option (1)
▪ Each Dalam consisted of 20 to 30 committed ▪ The Jai Andhra agitation spread like wild fire and
party workers who were prepared to commit paralysed the administration.
harakiri for propagating the party ideology. ▪ As a result, President’s Rule was enforced on the
▪ They were not only politically indoctrinated but State on 18 January, 1973.
given training in the use of firearms and also ▪ The State Assembly was kept in suspended
lessons in first aid and nursing. animation.

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 ▪ Meanwhile, the Congressmen of Telangana ▪ Andhra Pradesh has the dubious distinction of
met at a convention on 21 January, 1973 at ignoring its sons and daughters who have 13

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Hyderabad under the President ship of Dr. M. brought glory to the country by their
Chenna Reddy and resolved to fight for a achievements in varied fields like engineering,
separate State and converted itself into a medicine, sports, philosophy, literature, etc.
“Congress Forum for Telangana”. ▪ Dr. Yellapragada Subba Row is the eminent
▪ The Jai Andhra Movement, though it enjoyed Andhra biochemist, who was hailed as the
popular support, could not make much “Wizard of Wonderful Drugs” in the US and
headway due to lack of proper leadership. other Western countries.
▪ The one leader, Kakani Venkataratnam, who ▪ He worked with Dr. Cyrus Fiske and found out a
could have provided effective leadership died of method for the estimation of phosphorus in
heart attack on 25 December, 1972. body fluids and tissues.
▪ B. V. Subba Reddi, partly due to his ill health, ▪ This is referred in the medical textbooks as
could not rise to the occasion. “Fiske-Subba Row” method.
▪ After the imposition of the President’s rule, the ▪ He pioneered anti-filaria and anti-cancer drugs
advisers to the Governor, especially H. C. Sarin, and played a great part in the production of
began to act with vigour, even though the tetracycline, which was used to combat plague.
administration was almost paralysed due to the ▪ Earlier, he discovered drugs to cure tropical
strike of the non-gazetted government officers sprue and filaria.
of the Andhra region. ▪ In the field of antibiotics, Subba Row’s name is
Source: Raghunath Rao pg 234 associated with the production of Aureomycin.
43. Correct Answer: Option (3) Source: Raghunath Rao pg 342
▪ As a result of gradual loss of public support, the 45. Correct Answer: Option (2)
Congressmen, both in Andhra and Telangana Chief Ministers of Andhra Pradesh
regions, realised the futility of their demand for Name Date of Assumption of
a bifurcation of the State. Office
▪ They wanted a face-saving formula to call off M. Chenna reddy 06-03-1978
the agitation. Sensing the changed mood of the T. Anjaiah 11-10-1980
people, the Central Government held B. Venkatram Reddi 24-02-1982
discussions with leaders of both the regions and K. Vijayabhaskar Reddy 20-09-1982
evolved what is known as the “Six points N. T. Rama Rao 09-01-1983
formula”, which was endorsed by the leaders of N. Bhaskara Rao 16-08-1984
both the regions, with minor changes. N. T. Rama Rao 16-09-1984
▪ The six points were: N. Janardhana Reddy 22-12-1990
• Abolition of Mulki Rules and Telangana N. Chandrababu Naidu 01-09-1995
Regional Committee. Source: Raghunath Rao pg 343
• Local candidates were to be preferred for 46. Correct Answer: Option (3)
direct recruitment to non-gazetted posts Mocharla Ramachandra Rao:
and Assistant Surgeons. ▪ He was born in Badampudi village of Eluru district
• Creation of a high powered tribunal to deal in 1868.
with the grievances of the Government ▪ He was the first president of Sarvotthama
employees. Granthalaya in Vijayawada.
• Creation of a State level planning board ▪ He presided over the Andhra Mahasabha held in
with sub-committees for different Kakinada in 1916.
backward areas. ▪ The people of Andhra recognized him as the
• Establishment of a Central University at “Gokhale of the South” for his ethics and
Hyderabad to augment education facilities, service.
and Source: joginaidu pg 665
• Amendment of the Constitution to 47. Correct Answer: Option (2)
implement the above five points. Nalam Krishna Rao:
Source: Raghunath Rao pg 235 ▪ He was born on January 18, 1881 in Mandapet of
44. Correct Answer: Option (3) Konaseema district.
Dr. Yellapragada Subba Row (1895-1948)
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 ▪ He founded the monthly Manavseva and the in the coastal Andhra but also in Bengal, Bihar
Gautami Library in Rajahmundry. and Orissa. 14

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▪ He encouraged women's education. Source: GOPAL REDDY: 128
▪ As a member of the Brahmo community, he 50. Correct Answer: Option (2)
renounced Jandhya before his teacher, ▪ The uprising of the Girijans of the Godavari
Kandukuri Veeresalingam Panthulu. district was led by Korukonda Subba Reddi, the
▪ Chinta Seshaiah, a low-caste man, settled in his headman of Koraturu.
house and trained him as a Brahmin. ▪ He was caught and put to death.
▪ His books 'Gandhi Vijayadhwaja Natakam' ▪ During his trial, Subba Reddi confessed that he
(1921) and 'Gandhi Dashavatara Leelalu' revolted as he heard a rumour that Nana Saheb
(1932) were banned by the British was advancing with a big army to expel the
government. British and that he would reward all those who
▪ Kandukuri Veeresalingam served as president fought against the British.
of the Hitakarini Samaj for the rest of his life ▪ After the death of Subba Reddi, there were no
after Pantu. more disturbances in the area.
▪ Ten thousand proverbs have been collected Source: Raghunatha Rao: 127
under the name of National Folklore. 51. Correct Answer: Option (3)
▪ Srikrishna Raya compiled Andhra Vigyana ▪ In the field of communications, not much
Sarvasvam progress was made through the construction of
Source: joginaidu pg 665 roads, bridges and railways.
48. Correct Answer: Option (1) ▪ The Government formulated its policy in the
▪ English with the help of Kandregula Jogipantulu, development of communications with the aim of
a well-known dubashee of the Northern Circars, strengthening the defences of the country.
succeeded ultimately in concluding a treaty ▪ As the Government feared attack on India from
with the Nizam in 1766. the north, it strengthened the defence of North
▪ By this treaty the English East India Company India by a network of roads and railways. The
got the Circars. South was neglected.
▪ But the Guntur Circar was kept under the ▪ In Andhra, railway construction began only in
control of the brother of Nizam, Basalat Jang 1862 and the line between Puttur and
who died in 1782. Renigunta was commissioned in September
▪ In the year 1788, due to the efforts of 1862.
Cornwallis the Guntur Circar came under the ▪ Other lines were constructed during 1864-69
control of the Company. connecting Gooty with Renigunta.
▪ Thus the English East India Company gained full ▪ The anicuts were constructed over the Godavari
control of northern Circars by 1788. and Krishna rivers in 1847 and 1853 respectively.
▪ By the treaty of 1800, the Company acquired ▪ Between 1864 and 1869, another railway line
the Ceded districts. was built connecting Gutthi to Renigunta
Source: GOPAL REDDY: 117 Source: Raghunatha Rao: 135
49. Correct Answer: Option (4) 52. Correct Answer: Option (3)
▪ The Zamindari system was introduced in ▪ Andhra under the Crown experienced certain
coastal Andhra because there were already administrative changes.
zamindars in that region. ▪ Andhra had eight collectorates.
▪ Under this system the zamiadars who were ▪ They are:
originally revenue collectors were converted • Ganjam
into so many landlords. • Visakhapatnam
▪ They were not only to act as agents of the • Godavari
Company in collecting land revenue from the • Krishna
peasants but also to become the owners of the • Nellore
entire land in their zamindaris. • Bhadrachalam taluka was added to the
▪ Their right of ownership was made hereditary Godavari district in 1874 from the Central
and transferable. Province.
▪ The Zamindari system or the Permanent Land ▪ The young Englishmen, fresh from school and
Revenue Settlement was not only introduced lacking knowledge of the world, business skills, or
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 the intention to acquire them, were placed in ▪ On 16 May, 1884, the Madras Mahajana Sabha
positions of Assistant Collectors and was formed with P. Rangaiah Naidu as the 15

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Magistrates soon after arriving in India. President and P. Anandacharyulu as the
▪ They were given large allowances despite being Secretary. M
ignorant of the local language and customs. Source: Raghunatha Rao 141
▪ They never looked into the welfare of the 55. Correct Answer: Option (2)
natives. ▪ Another serious evil of the Modern Andhra
▪ Gurajada Apparao was born on 21st September, period was the increased consumption of
1862, to Venkata Ramadasu and Kausalyamma spirituous liquors.
in his maternal uncle’s house in Y. Rayavaram, ▪ The liquor generally known by the name of
Visakhapatnam district, Andhra. arrack was made at the Government distilleries
▪ Krishnapatrika, Sasilekha, Udayaprakasika, and then supplied to licensed vendors.
Desabhimani, Rasikollasini, etc. were the Telugu ▪ In the interim the manufacture and sale of arrack
papers published during the period 1885-1905. was committed to contractors or farmers, who
Source: Gopal Reddy-142 compete for the privilege annually at public
53. Correct Answer: Option (2) auction.
▪ The Church Missionary Society under the ▪ As the price of this article was extremely low, the
leadership of Rev. Noble established a school at quantity consumed and the number of
Machilipatnam in 1843, with the intention of consumers was immense.
imparting western education. ▪ Drunkenness with all its miseries, became a
▪ In 1804 it was upgraded as a college. common feature throughout the land and -this
▪ In the meanwhile in 1857 the Madras University affected very much the people who belonged to
was established. the lower orders.
▪ This gave sufficient impetus for the ▪ The Quit India movement in Andhra includes
development of higher education in Andhra. disobeying all prohibitory orders, preparing salt
▪ In 1873, the Madras Government started a’ freely, boycotting educational institutions,
second grade college at Rajahmundry and this quitting government posts, organising labour
was made later on as a degree college in 1877. strikes, picketing shops selling foreign goods,
▪ The Hindu College at Visakhapatnam was toddy shops, etc.
established in 1878 and the Khallikota College ▪ Abkari is a revenue obtained from any fee, tax or
at Berhampur was established in 1879 fine etc.
▪ It is very interesting to note here that most of ▪ Feni is liquor originated in Goa.
the schools and colleges that were established Source: Gopal Reddy 143
in Andhra were confined to the coastal area. 56. Correct Answer: Option (2)
▪ This may be due to the economic prosperity of ▪ In the year 1884 the Madras Mahajana Sabha
the region. was established.
Source: Gopal Reddy- 149 ▪ Its first conference was attended by a number of
54. Correct Answer: Option (3) representatives from the different districts of
▪ Kandukuri Veeresalingam: Andhra.
▪ The second widow re-marriage took place four ▪ A number of associations formed for similar
days after the first. purposes in the Andhra districts were affiliated to
▪ On 15 December, 1881, Racharla Ramchandra it.
Rao married a widow named Ratnamma. ▪ Among these associations the most active one
▪ By 1892, 20 widow re-marriages took place was the Cocanada Literary Association.
▪ In his efforts, Veeresalingam was financially ▪ These associations activated not only the public
supported by Pyda Ramakrishnayya, a opinion but also produced several excellent
philanthropic merchant of Kakinada, who on organisers and leaders.
different occasions gave a total amount of Rs. ▪ For instance, P. Rangaiah Naidu and P. Ananda
30,000. Charyulu became the President and the
▪ To look after the widows who were not re- Secretary of the Madras Mahajana Sabha.
married and disowned by the parents, ▪ In 1875, the Provincial Social Club was started at
Veeresalingam built Widow Home at Madras in Rajahmundry with Basavaraju Gavarraju as its
1897 and at Rajahmundry 1905. secretary.

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 ▪ Veeresalingam established “Sangha Samskara ▪ Its first conference was held in 1934 and passed
Samajam” (Social Reform Association) on a resolution demanding the creation of Sri 16

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September 8th, 1878, at Rajahmundry. Venkateswara University at Tirupati to serve
Source: Gopal Reddy 152 the interests of the Rayalaseema students.
57. Correct Answer: Option (2) ▪ It should be noted here that this conference
▪ A secret revolutionary society wedded to failed to win the support of the Rayalaseema
violence was formed. Congress leaders.
▪ There were rumours afloat that several ▪ The second conference was held at Cuddapah in
individuals were engaged in the manufacture of 1935, but it failed to make any impact upon the
bombs in secret. people and leaders.
▪ But nothing concrete is known about them Source: Gopal Reddy-208
except two things. The first is the Tenali bomb 60. Correct Answer: Option (3)
case. But it has nothing to do with revolutionary ▪ During the rule of Abdulla, the Golconda
terrorism. kingdom was forced to accept the suzerainty of
▪ The second is that Darsi Chenchaiah was the the Mughal Emperor Shah Jahan in 1635.
only Andhra who joined the Gadhar party. ▪ A year before this event, i.e., in 1634, Abdulla
▪ It may be stated here that he never stayed in issued the Golden Firman granting trade
that party fora long time. privileges to the English East India Company on
▪ P. Anandacharyulu was elected president of the the Andhra coast.
Indian National Congress session in 1891 at ▪ The Prime Minister, Mir Jumla, proved to be a
Nagpur. very treacherous man.
Source: Gopal Reddy: 161 ▪ He entered into secret parleys with Aurangzeb,
58. Correct Answer: Option (4) the Mughal viceroy of the Deccan.
▪ The South Indian People’s Association started a ▪ As a result, Aurangzeb invaded Golconda in
newspaper under the name of ‘Justice’ to 1655 and plundered the city of Hyderabad.
protect their interests. ▪ Abdulla made peace with Aurangzeb by paying
▪ Within a very short time the political association a huge indemnity.
of the non-Brahmins came to be known as ▪ Abdulla was succeeded by his nephew Abul
Justice Party. Hasan Tana Shah in 1672.
▪ K.V. Reddi Naidu, B. Ramachandra Reddi, P. Source: Raghunatha Rao- 99
Pattabhirami Reddi, K. Appa Rao, T. 61. Correct Answer: Option (1)
Ramaswami choudary, etc; were the ▪ With the rise of Reddis to power, Telugu also
prominent Andhra members of the Justice emerged from its subservient position and
Party. K.V. Reddi Naidu acted as a minister proudly occupied an equal status to Sanskrit, and
during the Chief Ministership of Subburayalu shared the royal patronage.
Reddiyar. Name of the Poet Work
▪ P. Ramanayaningar, another prominent Erra Preggada Nrisimhapuranam,
Andhra, even became the Chief Minister of Ramayana,
Madras Presidency. Harivamsam.
Source: Gopal Reddy 207 Prathamakavi Srigiri Navanathas
59. Correct Answer: Option (2) Vallabharadhya Kridabhiramamu
▪ The establishment of the Andhra University and Srinatha Maruttaratcharitra,
the consequent controversy over the location Sringaranaishadhamu
of its head-quarter widened the gulf between GOPAL REDDY: 73
the Rayalaseema and Circars. 62. Correct Answer: Option (2)
▪ It also confirmed the suspicion of the ▪ The Reddi kings took very keen interest in
Rayalaseema people that they may not get the patronising poets and scholars and in accepting
fair treatment in the Andhra province. the dedication of works from them.
▪ The Rayalaseema leaders, with the intention of ▪ The kings lead was taken up by their ministers,
protecting their rights, formed in 1934 an commanders and the other lesser lights who
organisation known as Rayalaseema extended their patronage to the men of letters.
Mahasabha on the lines of Andhra Mahasabha. ▪ Anavota Reddi was a king-poet and a great
patron of learning.
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 • He wrote Vasantarajiya-a work on Natya. Source: GOPAL REDDY 87
▪ Kataya Vema wrote commentaries on the 65. Correct Answer: Option (3) 17

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dramas of Kalidasa, viz; Kumaragiri-rajiyam. ▪ The flourishing trade and commerce of this
▪ The next illustrious king famed for his Sanskrit period is very well attested by the large number
scholarship and patronage was peda Komati of gold, silver, etc; coins issuéd by the
Vema Reddi. Vijayanagara emperors.
• He is the author of sahitya-chintamani in ▪ Abdur Razzack states that in the Vijayanagara
Sanskrit-a treatise on rhetoric. Empire three kinds of coins were in use.
• Another noteworthy work of him is the ▪ They were called Varaha, Dinara and Fanam.
Sangitachitamani. ▪ Of all these coins the Fanam was very popular.
• He was the author of two commentaries, ▪ The authority to print coins is under the control
viz. Sringaradipika and Saptasatisaratika. of the central government, state government
GOPAL REDDY: 72 and city heads.
63. Correct Answer: Option (3) ▪ Coins in circulation in Vijayanagara Kingdom:
▪ There were several factors that were ▪ Gold Coins: Gadyanam / Varaha, Pratapa, Panam,
responsible for the growth of economic Chinnam, Kata, Haga.
prosperity of the Vijayanagara Empire. ▪ Silver coins: Tar, Man, Ghatti, En, Pesado
• The development of agriculture, and the ▪ Copper coins: Zitalu, Kasulu
agricultural surplus produced was one ▪ Other coins of the period: Miniku, Kasu, Madalu,
potential factor for the growth of wealth. Visamu.
• The second major factor was the ▪ Gold coins stamped with Varaha symbols are
development of industry. called Varahas.
• The major industries of the empire were, GOPAL REDDY: 87
the textiles, mining, metallurgy diamonds 66. Correct Answer: Option (3)
and perfumes. ▪ After the battle of Talikota (25 January 1565) the
• The other important factor for the Sultans of the Deccan once again reverted to
economic development of this period was their old game of internecine warfare.
the flourishing trade and commerce. ▪ Taking advantage of this disunity the Mughal
• The internal trade was carried on by the Emperor Akbar tried to extend his suzerainty
guilds. over the Deccan.
▪ He first turned his attention towards
• The external trade was mostly carried on by
Ahmednagar which was besieged in 1595.
the Portuguese and Arab merchants.
▪ The city was defended with great courage by the
GOPAL REDDY 87
Dowager Queen Chand Bibi, but was forced to
64. Correct Answer: Option (1)
accept the Mughal suzerainty and cede Berar.
▪ The growth of economic prosperity of the
▪ The kingdom was attacked for the second time in
Vijayanagara empire:
1600, but it was annexed only during the reign of
▪ The internal trade was carried on by the guilds.
Shah Jahan.
▪ The external trade was mostly carried on by the
RAGHUNADHA RAO: 100
Portuguese and Arab merchants.
67. Correct Answer: Option (2)
▪ The chief ports of the empire were Calicut,
▪ The Qutub Shahis believed in the Divine Right
Cochin, Pulicat, Bhaktal and Mangalore.
Theory of Monarchy.
▪ The chief countries with which they had
▪ They considered themselves as the
commercial relations were the islands in the
representative of Allah on earth.
Indian Ocean, Malaya, Burma, China,
▪ The Sultan was the head of the civil, military and
Abyssinia, South Africa and Persia.
judicial administration.
▪ The chief exports of the Vijayanagara Empire
▪ He was the supreme law-giver.
were the teatilcs, rice, iron, saltpetre, sugar,
▪ The sultan was assisted by a council of ministers
spices, etc.
Mazlis-i-kingash.
▪ The imports were the horses, elephants, coral,
▪ It was not binding on the part of the sultan to act
mercury, China silk and velvet.
according to the suggestions given by the council
▪ The overseas trade was carried on with the help
of ministers.
of ships. Barbosa states that South India got its
ships built in the Maldive islands.
Every Question is framed based on the Reverse Engineering Technique | www.civiccentre.in 17
 ▪ The royal correspondence was maintained by ▪ The next year Francisco de Almeida came to
an officer called Dabir. Cochin as Viceroy of Portuguese possessions 18 in

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• He was a link between the sultan and the India.
officials of various departments. ▪ He felt that the resources of Portugal should not
• Suru Navis and Havaldar were in charge of be wasted in establishing a territorial empire in
royal farmans and karkhans. India and wanted that the Portuguese should
• He will have jurisdiction over the provincial maintain supremacy on sea and confine their
revenue administration. activities to purely commercial transactions.
GOPAL REDDY 101 ▪ His policy is known as the “blue water” policy.
68. Correct Answer: Option (3) ▪ Krishnadeva Raya, the ruler of Vijayanagar,
▪ The Kakatiyas also patronised the art of maintained friendly relations with the
painting. The traces of paintings that are found Portuguese and allowed them to retain Goa.
on the ceilings of pillared halls of the temples, ▪ From Malacca, the Portuguese advanced further
found at Ghanapur and Palampet bear an east and brought under their control Moluccas
evidence to it. and other islands in South-East Asia.
▪ The churning of the Milky Ocean is painted on RAGHUNADHA RAO: 104
the ceiling of the sabha-mandapa of the 71. Correct Answer: Option (4)
Namesvara temple at Pillalamarri. ▪ The battle of St. Thome was fought between the
▪ This is very much defaced. Thus the Kakatiya Nawab of Carnatic and the French on the banks
age witnessed the development of agriculture, of Adayar River.
trade and commerce, literature and ▪ The French won the battle.
architecture and art. ▪ It revealed the following facts:
▪ They realised the political unification of Andhra. • This battle revealed immense superiority of
▪ The fall of the Kakatiyas was followed by a western arms over Indian because of their
period of anarchy and confusion and this was better equipment and organisation.
followed by the establishment of Reddi • The Indian pike was no match for the
kingdoms. western musket and bayonet, nor the
GOPAL REDDY 57 Indian cavalry for the western artillery.
69. Correct Answer: Option (2) • This war and the victory scored by the French
▪ Kumaragiri deputed Kataya Vema along with his convinced them of their invincibility.
son Anavota II to conquer the eastern region. • Their ambition began to soar and they
▪ Annadeva Choda, the son of Choda Bhaktiraja, began to intervene increasingly in the
was deposed from his kingdom by Anavema internal politics and wars of successions in
Reddi and restored his brother Choda Bhima on the Indian States.
some parts of the eastern region. • The prestige of the English Company was
▪ It is likely that Annadeva might have vainly tried lowered temporarily.
to take the advantage of the civil war and joined GOPAL REDDY: 115
the enemies of Kumaragiri and asserted 72. Correct Answer: Option (2)
independence. ▪ Thomas Munro, the Principal Collector of the
▪ He was checked by Kataya Vema. Rayalaseema region, issued proclamations to
▪ Kataya Vema defeated the Pallava king of these poligars to Jay down their arms and also
Virakutam (Vizag district) in his eastern pay Peshcush to the Company.
campaigns. ▪ Many poligars resisted the demand and it took 18
▪ Kataya Vema had the title Katakachurakara, months for Munro to bring them under the
i.e; the plunderer of Cuttack, the capital of the control of the Company.
Gajapati kings of Kalinga. ▪ But order was not established effectively.
GOPAL REDDY 68 ▪ Even as late as 1846, Poligar Narasimha Reddy of
70. Correct Answer: Option (2) Kurnool district revolted against the Company.
▪ During the years 1500-1509, the Portuguese ▪ He attacked the treasury at Koilkuntla and
succeeded in gaining control over the Indian marched towards Cumbam.
Ocean. ▪ Narasimha Reddy was defeated by Capt. Nolt at
▪ They established a base at Cochin in 1503. Moondlapadu, but he managed to escape into

Every Question is framed based on the Reverse Engineering Technique | www.civiccentre.in 18

 the Nizam’s dominions. But six weeks later, he judgement which exceeded the reasonable
re-entered the Kurnool district. requirements of the case”. 19

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RAGHUNATHA RAO: 115 ▪ The All India Congress Committee met at
73. Correct Answer: Option (1) Vijayawada on 31 March and 1 April, 1921.
▪ Terrorist activity in Andhra: ▪ The Enquiry Committee on Film Censorship,
▪ During the Vandemataram movement Andhra popularly known as the Khosla Committee,
experienced some terrorist activities. published its report (“Report”) on 26 July 1969.
▪ The first is the Tenali bomb case. ▪ In 1917, the Government of India appointed a
▪ The second is that Darsi Chenchaiah was the Commission to study and report on the problems
only Andhra who joined the Gadhar party. of the Calcutta University following the
▪ The Vandemataram movement which enactment of The Universities Act of 1904 under
dominated the political life of Andhras from the chairmanship of M.E.Saddler popularly
1906 to 1910 was gradually petered out. known as “Saddler Commission”.
▪ The following were the factors responsible for 75. Correct Answer: Option (3)
it. The elections of 1937 and its impact on the Andhra
▪ From 1910 onwards the moderates became Movement:
powerful and began to dominate the National ▪ According to the India Act of 1935 elections were
Congress. conducted in the Madras Presidency.
▪ The Government though followed repressive ▪ In the elections the Congress came out
measures to check the movement gave some victorious and it assumed office on 14th July
concessions. 1937.
▪ The immediate outcome of the Vandemataram ▪ Another important thing that occurred at this
movement was that the Government annulled time was that Dr. Pattabhi became the President
the partition of Bengal. of the Andhra Congress Committee.
▪ Then it announced Minto- Morley Reforms ▪ These two developments made the Andhras to
through which the British Government tried to intensify their demand for separate Andhra
pacify the Indian public opinion by giving province.
representation to the Indians in the Legislative ▪ They even demanded the All India Congress
Councils. Committee to pass a resolution for the creation
▪ The British Government granted reforms, of Andhra province.
popularly known as Mont-Ford Reforms ▪ Source: Gopal Reddy_ Pg. 208
(Montagu-Chelmsford) in 1919. 76. Correct Answer: Option (1)
▪ The Nizam’s State’s Social Reforms Conference Bharat Adivasi Party (BAP):
was held in Hyderabad on 11th and 12th ▪ The Bharat Adivasi Party (BAP) is a political party
November, 1921. based in Rajasthan, India.
▪ In 1919, the Government passed the Rowlatt ▪ It was founded by Rajkumar Roat on September
Act, which gave the Executive special powers to 10, 2023, after splitting from the Bharatiya Tribal
deport individuals, to muzzle the press and to Party.
set up tribunals to try political offenders. ▪ The party primarily focuses on the rights and
▪ Source: Gopal Reddy_ Pg 162 development of Adivasi (tribal) communities.
74. Correct Answer: Option (1) Important points:
▪ The impact of the agitations towards the ▪ President: Mohan Lal Roat
Jallianwala Bagh tragedy was noticed in the ▪ Ideology: Bhil Pradesh statehood, Regionalism
attitude of the Government. ▪ Headquarters: Dungarpur, Rajasthan
▪ Under the pressure of the public demand the ▪ Party recognised by election commission of
Government appointed a Committee known as India: unrecognised political party.
Hunter Committee to enqure into the firings of ▪ Seats:
Jallinawala Bagh. • Lok Sabha: 1 seat
▪ The Commission published its report in March • Rajasthan Legislative Assembly: 4 seats
1920. • Madhya Pradesh Legislative Assembly: 1 seat
▪ In its report it declared that the action of Source:
General Dyer was only “a grave error of https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/topic/bhar
at-adivasi-party
Every Question is framed based on the Reverse Engineering Technique | www.civiccentre.in 19
 https://m.thewire.in/article/politics/rajasthan- Pardoning Power Power extends to
bharat-adivasi-party extends to not only Federal Crimes only 20

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77. Correct Answer: Option (3) Federal/Union crimes and not state crimes.
Office of the Chief Commissioner for Persons with but also state crimes
Disabilities: and court martial
▪ The Office of the Chief Commissioner for President can pardon President can pardon
Persons with Disabilities is a statutory body death sentences only federal death
established under the Rights of Persons with including those by sentences and not for
Disabilities Act, 2016. states. state crimes.
▪ The Social Justice Ministry informed the Rajya Supreme Court in Maru President can act on his
Sabha that despite three attempts to fill the Ram v. Union of India own discretion.
position of Chief Commissioner for Persons with held that President
Disabilities, the post has remained vacant for acts on advice of
over five years. Council of Ministers
▪ Its primary mandate is to safeguard the rights of and cannot act on his
persons with disabilities and ensure their full own discretion.
participation in society President cannot President cannot
Functions of a commissioner: pardon someone pardon someone
▪ Protection of Rights: Ensuring that the rights of impeached by impeached and
persons with disabilities are protected and Parliament. convicted by Congress.
promoted. Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth-198
▪ Grievance Redressal: Addressing grievances https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/w
related to the non-implementation of laws and hat-are-the-controversies-around-pardoning-
policies for persons with disabilities. power-explained/article68943924.ece
▪ Policy Implementation: Overseeing the 79. Correct Answer: Option (4)
implementation of various schemes and Appointment of CM:
programs for the welfare of persons with ▪ The Chief Minister is appointed by the governor.
disabilities. ▪ Article 164 of the Constitution provides that
▪ Advocacy and Awareness: Raising awareness there shall be a Council of Ministers with the
about the rights of persons with disabilities and Chief Minister at its hand to aid and advise the
advocating for their inclusion in all aspects of governor.
life Who can be a Chief Minister?
Source: ▪ After general election to the State Legislative
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/no- Assembly, the party or coalition group which
chief-commissioner-of-pwds-for-over-five-years- secures majority in this House, elects its leader
despite-three-attempts-to-fill-the-post-centre- and communicates his name to the Governor.
tells- The Governor then formally appoints him as the
rs/article68947110.ece#:~:text=The%20post%20o Chief Minister and asks him to form his Council
f%20Chief%20Commissioner%20for%20Persons% of Ministers.
20with,the%20stage%20of%20approval%20by%2 ▪ When no party gets a clear majority in the State
0the%20Department%20of Legislative Assembly, the Governor normally asks
https://ccpd.nic.in/about/ the leader of the single largest party to form the
78. Correct Answer: Option (2) government.
Comparing the pardoning powers of the President ▪ A person who is not a member of the state
of the United States and the President of India: legislature can be appointed as Chief Minister for
Indian President USA President six months, within which time, he/she should be
Article 72 of the Article II, Section 2 of elected to the state legislature or nominated to
Constitution constitution the legislative council, failing which he/she
empowers the ceases to be the Chief Minister.
President to grant ▪ Section 6 of Representation of People Act, 1951.
pardons. • A person shall not be qualified to be chosen
to fill a seat in the Legislative Council of a
State to be filled by election unless he is an
Every Question is framed based on the Reverse Engineering Technique | www.civiccentre.in 20
 elector for any Assembly constituency in 81. Correct Answer: Option (1)
that State. Limitations in the Powers of an Acting Chief Justice 21

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• A person shall not be qualified to be chosen of a High Court:
to fill a seat in the Legislative Council of a ▪ An acting Chief Justice of a High Court is
State to be filled by nomination by the appointed under Article 223 of the Indian
Governor unless he is ordinarily resident in Constitution to discharge the duties of the Chief
the State. Justice temporarily.
▪ That means if a person need to be a member ▪ However, their powers are subject to certain
(elected/nominated) of legislative limitations due to their temporary nature and
assembly/council, he/she should be an elector constitutional provisions.
or an ordinary resident of that state. ▪ Key limitations:
Source: laxmikanth-325 ▪ The acting Chief Justice serves only until the
https://www.bing.com/search?q=Mallikarjun+Kh permanent Chief Justice resumes duty or a new
arge+becoming+Telangana+Chief+Minister&cvid= Chief Justice is appointed.
a661fa9cdd834fca92468accc117a10d&gs_lcrp=Eg • Their decisions may focus on maintaining
RlZGdlKgYIABBFGDkyBggAEEUYOdIBCDExNTdqM continuity rather than implementing long-
Go5qAIIsAIB&FORM=ANAB01&PC=DCTS term policies.
80. Correct Answer: Option (4) ▪ They cannot recommend the appointment of
Qualifications for Appointment as a Judge: permanent judges to the High Court, which is a
▪ According to Article 124(3) of the Constitution, prerogative of the permanent Chief Justice in
a person can be appointed as a judge of the consultation with the Collegium.
Supreme Court if he or she: ▪ They may not initiate significant administrative
• A person must be a citizen of India. or structural changes in the functioning of the
• Must have served as a judge of a High High Court, as such reforms are usually left to the
Court for at least five years or of two or permanent Chief Justice.
more such courts in succession. ▪ The acting Chief Justice can hear cases of
• He/she has been for at least ten years an constitutional importance.
advocate of a High Court or of two or more ▪ Their authority is governed by constitutional
such Courts in succession; provisions, particularly Articles 214 to 231, which
• Must be a distinguished jurist in the opinion emphasize their interim role.
of the President. ▪ Their temporary status may impact their
▪ Appointment: perceived authority among peers, court staff,
• The Judges of the Supreme Court are and litigants, potentially limiting their influence.
appointed by the President under clause (2) Source: https://lawtimesjournal.in/high-court-
of Article 124 of the Constitution. appointments-transfer-powers-functions-and-
• The President consults with judges of the jurisdiction/
Supreme Court and High Courts to make Lalkmikanth-356
informed appointments. 82. Correct Answer: Option (1)
▪ The collegium, consisting of the Chief Justice of ▪ Article 164 of the Indian Constitution outlines the
India and the four senior-most judges of the provisions related to Ministers in the state
Supreme Court, decides on appointments, government.
elevations, and transfers of Judges. Provisions:
▪ Justice Manmohan was recently sworn in as a ▪ The Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor.
judge of the Supreme Court of India. ▪ The other Ministers are appointed by the
▪ The oath of office was administered by Chief Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister.
Justice of India Sanjiv Khanna. ▪ Ministers hold office during the pleasure of the
▪ This appointment increases the strength of the Governor.
Supreme Court to 33 judges, just one short of ▪ The total number of Ministers, including the
its sanctioned strength of 34. Chief Minister, in the Council of Ministers of a
Source:lakxmikanth-286 state shall not exceed 15% of the total number
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/justic of members of the Legislative Assembly of that
e-manmohan-takes-oath-as-supreme-court- state. However, the number of Ministers should
judge/article68949631.ece not be less than twelve.
Every Question is framed based on the Reverse Engineering Technique | www.civiccentre.in 21
 ▪ The Council of Ministers is collectively 84. Correct Answer: Option (4)
responsible to the Legislative Assembly of the ▪ The removal of the Vice President of India is22 a

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state. process that involves both houses of Parliament.
▪ The Maharashtra Legislative Assembly is the ▪ Initiation:
lower house of the bicameral legislature of • A resolution for the removal of the Vice
Maharashtra, India. President can only be introduced in the
• It consists of 288 members who are directly Rajya Sabha (Council of States).
elected from single-seat constituencies. ▪ Majority Required:
The Assembly meets at Vidhan Bhavan in • The resolution must be passed by an
Mumbai, with the winter session held in effective majority in the Rajya Sabha, which
Nagpur. means it needs the support of more than
▪ Maharashtra can have maximum of 43 50% of the total membership of the house
ministers including chief minister minus any vacancies.
▪ Devendra Fadnavis from the BJP is the current ▪ Agreement by Lok Sabha:
Chief Minister, with Eknath Shinde and Ajit • After passing the Rajya Sabha, the resolution
Pawar serving as Deputy Chief Ministers of must be agreed upon by a simple majority in
Maharashtra. the Lok Sabha (House of the People).
Source: ▪ Notice Period:
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/maha • A 14-day notice must be given to the Vice
rashtra/maharashtra-assembly-election-results- President before the motion is moved in the
2024-in-charts/article68901391.ece Rajya Sabha
Lakxikanth-329 Source: laxmikanth-205
83. Correct Answer: Option (4) 85. Answer: Option (3)
▪ The Indian National Developmental Inclusive Chief Election Commissioner and other
Alliance (INDIA) is a political coalition formed to Election Commissioners (Appointment,
challenge the ruling National Democratic Conditions of Service, and Term of Office) Act of
Alliance (NDA) led by the Bharatiya Janata Party 2023:
(BJP) in the 2024 Indian general elections. ▪ The Bill replaces the Election Commission
▪ The alliance is led by the Indian National (Conditions of Service of Election Commissioners
Congress (INC) and includes a diverse range of and Transaction of Business) Act, 1991.
political parties from across India. ▪ It addresses the appointment, salary, and
▪ Key Members removal of the CEC and ECs.
• Indian National Congress (INC) ▪ Appointment Process:
• Samajwadi Party (SP) • The CEC and ECs will be appointed by the
• All India Trinamool Congress (AITC) President upon the recommendation of a
• Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK) Selection Committee.
• Shiv Sena (Uddhav Balasaheb Thackeray) • The Selection Committee will consist of the
• Nationalist Congress Party (Sharad Pawar Prime Minister, a Union Cabinet Minister,
faction) and the Leader of Opposition/leader of the
• Rashtriya Janata Dal (RJD) largest opposition party in Lok Sabha.
• Aam Aadmi Party (AAP) • Recommendations of the Selection
• Communist Party of India (Marxist) (CPI- Committee will be valid even when there is a
M) vacancy in this Committee.
• Jammu and Kashmir National Conference ▪ A Search Committee headed by the Cabinet
(JKNC) Secretary will propose a panel of names to the
▪ The alliance aims to present a united front Selection Committee.
against the BJP and has been actively ▪ Eligibility for the posts includes holding (or
campaigning across various states to garner having held) a post equivalent to the Secretary to
support the central government.
Source: Source:
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/expl https://www.indiacode.nic.in/bitstream/12345678
ained-politics/explained-india-alliance-parties- 9/19721/1/a2023-49.pdf
9376525/ 86. Correct Answer: Option (4)
Every Question is framed based on the Reverse Engineering Technique | www.civiccentre.in 22
 ▪ The Finance Commission is a constitutional ▪ Legislative Competence: Emphasized the need for
body formed by the President of India to give states to have the authority to amend Central 23

CIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIAS IASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTRECIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCENTREIASACADEMYIASACADEMYCIVICCENTRREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCEN TREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMY

suggestions on centre-state financial relations. laws enacted by Parliament.
▪ The 15th Finance Commission (Chair: Mr. N. K. ▪ Consultations with States: Urged obligatory
Singh) was required to submit two reports. discussions with states before making decisions
▪ The first report, consisting of recommendations that impact their interests.
for the financial year 2020-21, was tabled in Source: laxmikanth-158-159
Parliament in February 2020. 88. Correct Answer: Option (4)
▪ The final report with recommendations for the Sarkaria Commission:
2021-26 period was tabled in Parliament on ▪ The Sarkaria Commission, established in 1983
February 1, 2021. under the chairmanship of Justice R.S. Sarkaria.
Key recommendations in the report for 2021-26 ▪ Various areas of governance, focusing on
include: legislative, administrative, and financial relations
▪ Share of states in central taxes between the Centre and the States.
▪ The share of states in the central taxes for the ▪ Its recommendations aimed to promote
2021-26 period is recommended to be 41%, cooperative federalism and address issues like
same as that for 2020-21. governors' discretionary powers and the use of
▪ This is less than the 42% share recommended Article 356.
by the 14th Finance Commission for 2015-20 Reccomendations:
period. ▪ State Control: The Commission recommended
▪ The adjustment of 1% is to provide for the that the states should have greater control over
newly formed union territories of Jammu and the exploration and exploitation of minerals
Kashmir, and Ladakh from the resources of the within their territories.
centre. ▪ Revenue Sharing: It suggested a more equitable
Source: https://prsindia.org/policy/report- sharing of revenues from mineral resources
summaries/report-15th-finance-commission- between the Centre and the states.
2021-26 ▪ Autonomy: The Commission emphasized the
87. Correct Answer: Option (3) need for states to have more financial autonomy
▪ The Rajamannar Committee, also known as the to manage their resources effectively.
Rajamannar Commission, was set up by the ▪ Cooperative Federalism: The recommendations
Tamil Nadu government in 1969 under the aimed to promote cooperative federalism by
chairmanship of Dr. P.V. Rajamannar. ensuring better coordination and cooperation
▪ The committee was tasked with examining the between the Centre and the states in managing
Centre-State relations in India and making mineral wealth
recommendations to improve the federal Source:
structure. 89. Correct Answer: Option (2)
▪ Advocating: To advocate for greater state ▪ The M.M. Punchhi Commission made several
autonomy and reforms in Centre-State relations recommendations regarding the appointment of
Key Recommendations Governors to ensure a more balanced and fair
▪ Inter-State Council: Proposed the creation of an process.
Inter-State Council to facilitate coordination Recommendations/conditions to appoint as a
and cooperation among states. The ISC was Governor of the state:
eventually established in 1990. ▪ Stay Away from Active Politics: The Governor
▪ Devolution of Revenues: Suggested a broader should stay away from active politics (even at a
distribution of financial resources to empower local level) for at least two years prior to his
states economically. appointment.
▪ Excise Duties and Cesses: Recommended the ▪ Consultation with Chief Minister: The Chief
compulsory division of certain taxes between Minister of the state should have a say in the
the Union and the States. appointment of the Governor.
▪ Transfer of Subjects: Advocated for the transfer ▪ Appointment Committee: The appointment
of specific subjects, like mineral oil resources, should be entrusted to a committee comprising
from the Union List to the State List. the Prime Minister, Home Minister, Speaker of
the Lok Sabha, and the Chief Minister of the

Every Question is framed based on the Reverse Engineering Technique | www.civiccentre.in 23

 concerned state. The Vice-President can also be ▪ YSR Congress Party (YSRCP): Founded by Y.S.
involved in the process1. Jagan Mohan Reddy in 2011, the YSRCP has 24

CIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIAS IASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTRECIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCENTREIASACADEMYIASACADEMYCIVICCENTRREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCEN TREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMY

▪ Term of Office: The term of appointment should gained substantial support and currently holds a
be five years. significant number of seats in the state assembly.
▪ Removal of Governor: The Governor could only ▪ TDP is a state party not national party.
be removed via a resolution by the State Source: https://www.janasenaparty.org/
Legislature https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/vijayawa
Source: laxmikanth-161-162 da/jana-sena-party-attains-recognized-party-
90. Correct Answer: Option (1) status-in-2024-
▪ The Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK) is elections/articleshow/110923192.cms
currently the largest regional party in terms of 92. Correct Answer: Option (1)
vote share from a southern state in the Lok MLC Seats in Andhra Pradesh:
Sabha. ▪ The Andhra Pradesh Legislative Council (MLC)
▪ Originating from Tamil Nadu, the DMK secured has 58 seats.
24 seats in the 18th Lok Sabha elections held in ▪ These seats are not directly elected by the public
2024, reflecting its strong electoral base and but are filled through various methods.
significant vote share in the state Methods of Election in Andhra Pradesh Legislative
▪ The Telugu Desam party secured 16 seats in the Council:
18th Lok Sabha elections held in 2024, ▪ The MLCs are elected through the following
reflecting its strong electoral base and methods: (Present total strength of AP legislative
significant vote share in the state council is 56 and 2 seats are vacant of December
▪ The Yuvajana Sramika Rythu Congress Party – 2024)
YSRCP secured 4 seats in the 18th Lok Sabha ▪ Local Authorities Constituencies (LAC):
elections held in 2024, reflecting its strong • 1/3 (i.e, 20 seats) of Members are elected by
electoral base and significant vote share in the electorates consisting of the Members of
state. Local Authorities.
▪ The Marumalarchi Dravida Munnetra ▪ Graduates Constituencies:
Kazhagam – MDMK secured 1 seats in the 18th • 1/12 (5 seats) are elected by electorates
Lok Sabha elections held in 2024. consisting of graduates residing in the State
Source: ▪ Teachers Constituencies:
https://results.eci.gov.in/PcResultGenJune2024/ • 1/12 (4 Seats) are elected by electorates
partywiseresult-S22.htm consisting of persons engaged in teaching.
91. Correct Answer: Option (4) ▪ MLA Quota:
JanaSena Party (JSP): • 1/3 (19 members) are elected by sitting MLAs
▪ The JanaSena Party (JSP), founded by actor- of the Legislative Assembly.
turned-politician Pawan Kalyan on March 14, ▪ Governor's Nomination:
2014, is an Indian political party active in • 8 members are nominated by the Governor
Andhra Pradesh and Telangana. based on their expertise in fields such as
▪ The party's name translates to "People's Army literature, science, art, cooperative
Party" in Telugu. movements, or social service.
▪ JSP advocates for a centrist approach focusing Source: laxmikanth-336,
on humanism and aims to address issues like https://aplegislature.org/web/legislative-
corruption, social justice, and regional council/overview
development. https://aplegislature.org/web/legislative-
▪ Till now Election Commission of India (ECI) council/member-s-information
didn’t notified that JanaSena Party is a 93. Correct Answer: Option (2)
recognized state party. ▪ The Voter Verified Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) is
Other regional parties: designed to enhance the transparency and
▪ Telugu Desam Party (TDP): Founded by N.T. integrity of the voting process.
Rama Rao in 1982, the TDP has been a ▪ When a voter casts their vote using an Electronic
significant political force in Andhra Pradesh. It Voting Machine (EVM), the VVPAT generates a
focuses on regional pride and development. paper slip that includes the following
information:
Every Question is framed based on the Reverse Engineering Technique | www.civiccentre.in 24
 • Candidate's Name: The name of the ▪ The Speaker or Chairman decides to disqualify
candidate for whom the vote has been cast. the MP after examining the petition. 25

CIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIAS IASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTRECIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCENTREIASACADEMYIASACADEMYCIVICCENTRREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCEN TREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMY

• Election Symbol: The symbol associated Source:laxmikanth-597-98
with the candidate or their political party. 95. Correct Answer: Option (4)
• Serial Number: The unique serial number of ▪ Decentralization in India offers numerous
the VVPAT slip. advantages that enhance governance and
▪ Right to reject in elections: empower local communities.
▪ The Right to Reject is an electoral reform Advantages:
concept that allows voters to reject all ▪ Enhanced Local Governance
candidates running in an election if they find • Localized Decision-Making: Local
none of them suitable. governments can address specific regional
▪ This is typically implemented through a "None issues more effectively, tailoring solutions to
of the Above" (NOTA) option on the ballot. meet the unique needs of their communities.
▪ It empowers voters to express their ▪ Increased Accountability and Transparency
dissatisfaction with all the candidates and • Closer to the People: Local representatives
ensures that their vote is not wasted. are more accountable to their constituents,
▪ The Election Commission of India introduced leading to greater transparency in
the NOTA option on Electronic Voting governance and ensuring that citizens' voices
Machines (EVMs) in 2013 are heard.
Source: ▪ Efficient Public Services: Decentralization allows
https://ijrar.org/papers/IJRAR23A1074.pdf for more efficient and effective delivery of public
https://www.indiatoday.in/law/supreme- services such as healthcare, education, and
court/story/nota-rules-maximum-votes-election- infrastructure.
nullified-fresh-polls-eci-supreme-court-petition- ▪ Inclusive Participation:
2532025-2024-04-26 • Decentralization provides opportunities for
laxmikanth-587 marginalized groups to participate in
94. Correct Answer: Option (2) governance, leading to more inclusive and
Anti-defection Law: equitable development.
▪ If a political party dismisses an elected Member ▪ Economic Development
of Parliament (MP) from the party, the • Local Economic Growth: Local governments
following consequences typically ensue under can foster economic development by
the Indian Constitution and relevant laws: creating a favourable environment for local
▪ The MP ceases to be a member of the political businesses and industries, leading to job
party but continues to be a Member of creation and economic growth.
Parliament as an independent unless specific ▪ Strengthened Democracy
conditions are met. • Grassroots Involvement: Decentralization
▪ Under the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution, deepens democracy by involving citizens in
commonly referred to as the Anti-Defection decision-making processes at the grassroots
Law, an MP can be disqualified if: level, promoting political awareness and
• They voluntarily give up membership of the participation.
party. ▪ Local governments have the flexibility to
• They defy the party's whip on key votes in experiment with new policies and programs,
Parliament (e.g., no-confidence motion, leading to innovative solutions to local problems
budget approval). that can be scaled up or replicated in other
• However, dismissal by the party itself does regions.
not automatically lead to disqualification Source: https://www.oecd-ilibrary.org/urban-
unless it is shown that the MP "voluntarily rural-and-regional-development/making-
gave up membership." decentralisation-work_d8bc40c6-en
▪ Once dismissed, the MP may continue as an 96. Correct Answer: Option (3)
independent MP in the House unless: ▪ The Community Development Programme
▪ A formal disqualification petition is filed by the (CDP) was the first major rural development
party leadership with the Speaker (Lok Sabha) initiative launched in India on October 2, 1952. It
or the Chairman (Rajya Sabha). aimed to transform the socio-economic
Every Question is framed based on the Reverse Engineering Technique | www.civiccentre.in 25
 landscape of rural areas by promoting self- made the advisory, coordinating, and
reliance and improving living standards. Here supervisory body. 26

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are some key aspects of the CDP: ▪ The District Collector was appointed as the
Key features: Chairman of the Zila Parishad.
▪ Promote Rural Welfare: Improve education, ▪ Adequate resources were transferred to these
public health, sanitation, housing, and drinking bodies to enable them to discharge their
water facilities. functions and fulfill their responsibilities
▪ Develop Local Resources: Enhance the material Source: lakxmikanth-383-84
and human resources in rural areas. 98. Correct Answer: Option (3)
▪ Strengthen Local Leadership: Foster local Tanguturi Prakasam:
leadership and self-governing institutions. ▪ He is popularly known as Prakasam Pantulu or
▪ Raise Living Standards: Increase food Andhra Kesari (Lion of Andhra), was a prominent
production and agricultural output to improve Indian politician, lawyer, and social reformer.
the living standards of the rural poor. ▪ He served as the Premier of the Madras
▪ Decentralized Planning: Emphasized local Presidency from 1946 to 1947 and later became
participation and decision-making. the first Chief Minister of Andhra State in 1953.
▪ Multi-Sectoral Approach: Covered agriculture, Neelam Sanjiva Reddy:
animal husbandry, rural industries, education, ▪ Neelam Sanjiva Reddy (19 May 1913 – 1 June
housing, and communication. 1996) was an influential Indian politician who
▪ Self-Help Efforts: Encouraged community served as the sixth President of India from 1977
involvement and self-help initiatives. to 1982.
▪ Implementation ▪ He Served as the first Chief Minister of the newly
• The programme initially covered 55 formed state from 1956 to 1960
projects and later expanded to more blocks Damodaram Sanjivayya:
with the support of the National Extension ▪ Damodaram Sanjivayya (14 February 1921 – 7
Service (NES) and financial assistance from May 1972) was an influential Indian politician
the United States. who served as the second Chief Minister of
Source: https://library.niti.gov.in/cgi- Andhra Pradesh from January 11, 1960, to
bin/koha/opac- March 12, 1962
detail.pl?biblionumber=10382&shelfbrowse_item Kasu Brahmananda Reddy:
number=11201 ▪ Kasu Brahmananda Reddy (1909-1994) was a
97. Correct Answer: Option (3) prominent Indian politician who served as the
▪ The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee made Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh from 1964 to
several recommendations, many of which were 1971. He was also the 11th Governor of
implemented and laid the foundation for the Maharashtra from 1988 to 1990
Panchayati Raj system in India. Source:
Major recommendations that were adopted: https://loksabhadocs.nic.in/Refinput/eprofiles/En
▪ Three-Tier Panchayati Raj System: The glish/10032022_110018_1021206200.pdf
establishment of a three-tier system at the https://www.ap.gov.in//
village, block, and district levels was 99. Correct Answer: Option (3)
implemented. This includes: ▪ The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992
• Gram Panchayat (village level) introduced several key provisions for the
• Panchayat Samiti (block level) Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) in India.
• Zila Parishad (district level) Election
▪ Gram Panchayats were constituted with ▪ State Election Commission: The Act mandates
directly elected members, while Panchayat the establishment of a State Election Commission
Samitis and Zila Parishads were constituted to conduct elections to the Panchayats.
with indirectly elected members. ▪ Direct Elections: Elections are to be held for all
▪ Genuine transfer of power and responsibility to seats in Panchayats at the village, intermediate,
these democratic bodies was emphasized. and district levels.
▪ The Panchayat Samiti was designated as the Authority
executive body, while the Zila Parishad was ▪ Devolution of Powers: State Legislatures are
required to devolve powers and responsibilities

Every Question is framed based on the Reverse Engineering Technique | www.civiccentre.in 26

 to the Panchayats to enable them to function as to ensure that actions taken by public authorities
units of self-government. are not excessive and are reasonably necessary 27

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▪ Gram Sabha: The Act provides for the to achieve their objectives.
constitution of a Gram Sabha in a village or ▪ It acts as a check on the abuse of power by
group of villages. balancing the rights of individuals against the
Tenure needs of the public.
▪ Five-Year Tenure: The Panchayats at all levels Key Elements:
are to have a fixed tenure of five years. ▪ Legitimate Aim: The action or decision must
▪ Fresh Elections: In the event of supersession of serve a legitimate goal or purpose.
any Panchayat, fresh elections must be held ▪ Suitability: The measure taken should be
within six months suitable for achieving the stated aim.
Source: https://www.india.gov.in/my- ▪ Necessity: The action should be necessary,
government/constitution- meaning no less restrictive alternative should be
india/amendments/constitution-india-seventy- available to achieve the objective.
third-amendment-act-1992 ▪ Proportionality in the Narrow Sense: The
100. Correct Answer: Option (4) benefits of the action should outweigh the harm
▪ The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 caused, ensuring a balance between individual
established a framework for Urban Local rights and the public interest.
Bodies (ULBs), including Municipal Application in India:
Corporations, Municipal Councils, and Nagar ▪ The doctrine is often invoked during judicial
Panchayats. Here are the key points regarding reviews to assess whether administrative or
the executive authority and the role of MLAs: legislative actions infringe on fundamental rights
Executive Authority under the Indian Constitution, particularly Articles
▪ Mayor-in-Council: The executive authority of a 14, 19, and 21.
Municipal Corporation is vested in the Mayor- Important Case Laws:
in-Council, which includes the Mayor and other ▪ Om Kumar v. Union of India (2000):
elected representatives. ▪ The Supreme Court explicitly recognized the
▪ State Government's Role: The State doctrine in India. It held that proportionality is
Government has the authority to make laws applied in cases involving fundamental rights
regarding the powers, functions, and violations.
responsibilities of the Municipal Corporations. ▪ Modern Dental College and Research Centre v. State
Role of MLAs of Madhya Pradesh (2016):
▪ Separation of Powers: MLAs (Members of the ▪ The Court applied proportionality to assess the
Legislative Assembly) are part of the state validity of regulatory restrictions on private
legislature and not directly part of the local educational institutions.
bodies. ▪ KS Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017):
▪ Representation: While MLAs do not hold ▪ The Supreme Court used the doctrine to test the
executive positions in Municipal Corporations, constitutionality of the Aadhaar scheme and its
they represent their constituencies in the state impact on privacy rights.
legislature and can influence policies that affect Source:
local governance https://ohrh.law.ox.ac.uk/wp-
Source:laxmikanth-404 content/uploads/2021/04/U-of-OxHRH-J-
▪ https://www.india.gov.in/my- Proportionality-in-India-1.pdf
government/constitution- https://www.legalserviceindia.com/legal/article-
india/amendments/constitution-india- 3517-critical-analysis-of-doctrine-of-
seventy-fourth-amendment-act-1992 proportionality.html
101. Correct Answer: Option (2) 102. Correct Answer: Option (1)
▪ Proportionality is a ground for judicial review. ▪ The Indian Constitution provides provisions
▪ In India, the doctrine of proportionality was regarding the seat of Parliament in Article 85.
adopted by the Supreme Court of India in the Article 85 of the Indian Constitution:
case of Om Kumar v. Union of India ▪ Sessions of Parliament:
▪ The Doctrine of Proportionality is a principle in
administrative law and constitutional law used

Every Question is framed based on the Reverse Engineering Technique | www.civiccentre.in 27

 • The President of India has the authority to ▪ The Supreme Court held that the executive has
summon each House of Parliament (Lok primacy in the appointment of judges. 28

CIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIAS IASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTRECIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCENTREIASACADEMYIASACADEMYCIVICCENTRREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCEN TREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMY

Sabha and Rajya Sabha) from time to time. Second Judges Case (Supreme Court Advocates-on-
• Ensure that the gap between two sessions Record Association v. Union of India, 1993):
does not exceed six months. ▪ Issue: Revisiting the primacy in judicial
▪ Place of Sitting: appointments.
• While the Constitution does not explicitly ▪ Verdict:
mention the seat of Parliament, ▪ The Supreme Court overruled the First Judges
traditionally, both Houses meet in the Case and held that the CJI has primacy in judicial
Parliament House in New Delhi. appointments.
• However, there is no constitutional bar on ▪ The "consultation" was reinterpreted as
holding sessions in other locations. "concurrence" of the CJI, effectively giving more
▪ The idea of holding sessions in different power to the judiciary.
locations, as proposed by MP Maddila ▪ Introduced the collegium system, stating that
Gurumoorthy, aims to bring Parliament closer appointments should be decided by a panel of
to different regions of the country, but it would the CJI and senior judges.
require practical considerations and legislative Third Judges Case (Re: Presidential Reference,
changes. 1998):
Source: ▪ Issue: Clarification on the functioning of the
https://www.india.gov.in/my- collegium system.
government/indian-parliament/lok-sabha ▪ Verdict:
103. Correct Answer: Option (2) ▪ The collegium for appointments to the Supreme
State of Bihar vs. Kameshwar Singh case: Court would consist of the CJI and four senior-
▪ The State of Bihar vs. Kameshwar Singh case, most judges.
decided in 1952, is a landmark judgment that ▪ For High Court appointments, it would involve
addressed the legality of the Bihar Land the CJI and two senior-most judges.
Reforms Act, 1950. ▪ The CJI’s decision must reflect the majority
▪ This Act aimed to abolish the zamindari system opinion of the collegium members.
and redistribute land to tenants and landless ▪ Reduced the potential for arbitrariness in
peasants. appointments by mandating broader
Key Points of the Case: consultation.
▪ The case revolved around the Bihar Land Source:
Reforms Act, which proposed the acquisition of https://loksabhadocs.nic.in/Refinput/New_Referenc
zamindari estates by the state. e_Notes/English/14032023_111226_102120526.pdf
▪ Kameshwar Singh challenged the Act, arguing Laxmikanth-633, 354.
that it was not for public purpose and did not 105. Correct Answer: Option (1)
provide adequate compensation Supreme Court of India:
▪ The primary issues were whether the Act was ▪ The Supreme Court of India is the highest court
enacted for a public purpose and whether the of appeal in the country.
compensation provided was adequate. ▪ It serves as the final interpreter of the
▪ Judgment: Constitution and the ultimate authority in legal
• The Supreme Court upheld the matters.
constitutional validity of the Bihar Land ▪ It hears appeals against judgments from lower
Reforms Act by a majority decision. courts and high courts on constitutional, civil,
• However, two sections of the Act were and criminal matters.
found to be discriminatory. ▪ Article 136. (1) Notwithstanding anything in this
Source:lakxmikanth-657-58 Chapter, the Supreme Court may, in its
104. Correct Answer: Option (3) discretion, grant special leave to appeal from any
First Judges Case (S.P. Gupta v. Union of India, judgment, decree, determination, sentence or
1981): order in any cause or matter passed or made by
▪ Issue: Who has the primacy in judicial any court or tribunal in the territory of India.
appointments—the executive or the judiciary? ▪ Article 136 (2) Nothing in clause (1) shall apply
▪ Verdict: to any judgment, determination, sentence or

Every Question is framed based on the Reverse Engineering Technique | www.civiccentre.in 28

 order passed or made by any court or tribunal available to those who cannot afford legal
constituted by or under any law relating to the representation. This includes providing counsel, 29

CIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIAS IASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTRECIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCENTREIASACADEMYIASACADEMYCIVICCENTRREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCEN TREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMY

Armed Forces. legal awareness, and help with filing cases, etc.
Source:laxmikanth-290-293 ▪ Organizing Lok Adalats:
COI 2024 NALSA organizes Lok Adalats, which are
106. Correct Answer: Option (4) alternative dispute resolution forums where
▪ The Supreme Court has been assigned a very cases are resolved outside the formal judicial
significant role in the Indian democratic political process. These are especially effective in dealing
system. with civil and family disputes, providing quicker,
▪ It is a federal court, the highest court of appeal, low-cost resolutions.
the guarantor of the fundamental rights of the ▪ Promoting Legal Literacy and Awareness:
citizens and guardian of the Constitution. NALSA works on educating people about their
▪ Therefore, its independence becomes very legal rights and remedies through awareness
essential for the effective discharge of the programs, campaigns, and other initiatives to
duties assigned to it. ensure justice for all, particularly marginalized
To strengthen judicial independence: communities.
▪ Providing the judiciary with sufficient funds to ▪ NALSA implements several schemes to provide
operate independently without financial legal aid to people facing challenges such as
pressures or constraints. poverty, social discrimination, and illiteracy.
▪ Judges should have secure tenure and not be • These include the provision of advocates,
removed arbitrarily, ensuring they can make legal assistance in case of criminal charges,
decisions without fear of repercussions. etc.
▪ Implementing transparent and merit-based Source: https://nalsa.gov.in/
procedures for appointing judges to prevent 108. Correct Answer: Option (3)
undue influence. Challenges Associated with Article 142 of the Indian
▪ Allowing the judiciary to have control over its Constitution:
own budget and financial resources to maintain ▪ Article 142 of the Indian Constitution grants the
operational autonomy. Supreme Court the power to pass any decree or
▪ Establishing a well-defined and fair order necessary to do "complete justice" in any
impeachment process for the removal of case pending before it.
judges to protect their independence and ▪ While this article ensures the Supreme Court's
integrity. authority to address extraordinary situations and
▪ Implementing and enforcing ethical standards uphold justice, it is not without its challenges.
to maintain public trust and judicial integrity. Potential for Juducial overreach:
▪ Promoting transparency in judicial proceedings Challenge:
and decision-making processes. ▪ The broad and undefined nature of the powers
Source: laxmikanth-290 under Article 142 has led to accusations of
107. Correct Answer: Option (2) judicial overreach. Critics argue that in some
National Legal Services Authority (NALSA): cases, the Court has entered the domain of the
▪ The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) legislature or executive.
is a statutory body established under the Legal ▪ Ex:Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan case
Services Authorities Act, 1987. Bypassing Legislative Process
▪ It aims to provide free and competent legal ▪ Challenge:
services to the underprivileged sections of ▪ The use of Article 142 to frame policies or issue
society (Article 39A). guidelines in the absence of legislation can be
▪ NALSA operates in alignment with Article 39A seen as bypassing the democratic process of law-
of the Indian Constitution, which mandates making.
that the State shall provide free legal aid to ▪ While this is often done to fill legal voids, it may
ensure justice is not denied to any citizen due to undermine the authority of the legislature.
economic or other disabilities. Unintended Consequences of Decisions
Major Functions: ▪ Challenge:
▪ Providing Legal Aid and Assistance: ▪ Broad orders passed under Article 142 can have
NALSA ensures that free legal services are unintended policy or social consequences.
Every Question is framed based on the Reverse Engineering Technique | www.civiccentre.in 29
 ▪ For example, in cases like Supreme Court Bar of SCs and STs, i.e., the more affluent and
Association v. Union of India, where the Court advanced sections within these communities. 30

CIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIAS IASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTRECIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCENTREIASACADEMYIASACADEMYCIVICCENTRREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCEN TREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMY

removed a practicing lawyer from the rolls, ▪ The State must provide evidence of inadequate
questions were raised about the impact on representation of SCs and STs in public
professional rights and legal frameworks. employment and ensure administrative
▪ The broad and undefined scope of Article 142 efficiency is not compromised.
raises concerns about judicial overreach. ▪ While the 50% ceiling is generally a principle for
▪ The use of Article 142 can sometimes conflict reservations, M. Nagaraj did not emphasize this
with existing statutory provisions or bypass as a specific condition in its judgment for
the legislature. promotions
▪ Orders under Article 142 can have unintended ▪ The court upheld the catch-up rule, which allows
policy or social consequences and face candidates from reserved categories to be
challenges in implementation. promoted earlier than their senior general
Source: category counterparts, but they will remain
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/expl junior to those who were already promoted
ained-law/what-is-article-142-chandigarh- Source: laxmikanth-636
mayoral-poll-results-9171621/ 111. Correct Answer: Option (4)
109. Correct Answer: Option (2) Bharat Kumar vs. State of Kerala (1997):
▪ The Maharashtra state government appointed ▪ The Bharat Kumar vs. State of Kerala (1997) case
Justice (Retd) Sunil Shukre as the new chief of was a landmark judgment by the Kerala High
Maharashtra State Backward Class Court, later upheld by the Supreme Court of
Commission (MSBCC) as his predecessor Justice India.
(Retired) Anand Nirgude resigned from the ▪ It dealt with the legality of bandhs (general
post. strikes) and their impact on citizens' rights and
▪ The state government directed the commission, constitutional provisions.
a quasi-judicial body, to ascertain if exceptional ▪ Associated Constitutional Provisions:
circumstances justify exceeding the 50% ▪ Fundamental Rights:
reservation limit for the Maratha community, as ▪ Article 19(1)(a): Right to freedom of speech and
set by the Supreme Court. expression.
Source: ▪ Article 19(1)(b): Right to assemble peacefully
https://www.hindustantimes.com/cities/pune- without arms.
news/sunil-shukre-appointed-as-new- ▪ The Court held that while these rights are
maharashtra-state-backward-class-commission- fundamental, they must not infringe upon the
chief-101702407057557.html rights of others or public order. A bandh forcibly
110. Correct Answer: Option (3) restricts movement and disrupts public services,
M. Nagaraj vs. Union of India (2006): violating others' fundamental rights.
▪ The M. Nagaraj vs. Union of India (2006) case is ▪ Article 21: Right to life and personal liberty.
a landmark judgment that examined the validity ▪ The Court observed that forced bandhs violate
of constitutional amendments enabling the right to life by endangering personal liberty,
reservation in promotions for Scheduled Castes livelihood, and safety through disruption of
(SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs). essential services.
▪ The Supreme Court upheld the constitutional Fundamental Duties:
validity of these amendments but laid down ▪ The Court indirectly linked the case to Article 51A
certain conditions that states must meet to (Fundamental Duties), which emphasizes that
justify reservations in promotions. every citizen must abide by the Constitution,
Key Points from the Judgment: promote harmony, and safeguard public
▪ States must collect quantifiable data to property. A bandh goes against these duties by
demonstrate the backwardness of SCs and STs, causing harm to public order and property.
their inadequate representation in public Source:
services, and the overall administrative https://docs.manupatra.in/newsline/articles/Uplo
efficiency. ad/EAFAC050-3CCB-4615-8D7E-
▪ Creamy Layer Exclusion: The reservation 33BAC06605E1.%20State%20of%20Kerala.pdf
benefits should not extend to the creamy layer 112. Correct Answer: Option (1)

Every Question is framed based on the Reverse Engineering Technique | www.civiccentre.in 30

 Manner of elections to the Rajya Sabha in bypolls: • He served as the Chief Minister of Jharkhand
▪ The manner of elections to the Rajya Sabha in from December 2014 to December 2019. 31

CIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIAS IASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTRECIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCENTREIASACADEMYIASACADEMYCIVICCENTRREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCEN TREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMY

bypolls follows the proportional ▪ Raghubar Das was the first non-tribal Chief
representation system with a single Minister of Jharkhand and led the government of
transferable vote (STV). the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP).
▪ The Election Commission issues a notification • His tenure was significant as he completed
for the bypolls, announcing the date and the entire five-year term, a rare achievement
schedule. in the state's political history, where many
▪ Candidates are nominated by political parties or previous Chief Ministers had either been
can file nominations as independent replaced or had served shorter terms.
candidates. Source:
▪ The nominations are scrutinized to ensure they https://www.deccanherald.com/elections/jharkha
meet all eligibility criteria. nd/jharkhand-assembly-elections-2024-chief-
▪ Candidates campaign to secure the support of ministers-who-completed-their-full-term-3241609
Members of the Legislative Assembly (MLAs) in 114. Correct Answer: Option (2)
their respective states. ▪ Article 194. Powers, privileges, etc., of the
▪ On the polling day, MLAs cast their votes by Houses of Legislatures and of the members and
marking their preferences for the candidates. committees thereof.—
They can list candidates in order of preference1. • (1) Subject to the provisions of this
▪ Votes are counted using the STV system. If no Constitution and to the rules and standing
candidate achieves the required quota of votes orders regulating the procedure of the
in the first round, the candidate with the fewest Legislature, there shall be freedom of speech
votes is eliminated, and their votes are in the Legislature of every State.
transferred to the next preferred candidates1. • (2) No member of the Legislature of a State
▪ Declaration of Results: The results are declared shall be liable to any proceedings in any court
on the same day, and the winning candidates in respect of anything said or any vote given
are notified by him in the Legislature or any committee
▪ In a Rajya Sabha by-election, the newly elected thereof, and no person shall be so liable in
member serves only for the remainder of the respect of the publication by or under the
term of the vacant seat, not a full 6-year term. authority of a House of such a Legislature of
• If the seat becomes vacant mid-term, the any report, paper, votes or proceedings.
new member completes the unexpired Source: COI 2024
portion of the original term. 115. Correct Answer: Option (2)
Source:laxmikanth-225, ▪ The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 (CAA) is
https://www.livemint.com/politics/news/6- a controversial law passed by the Indian
rajya-sabha-seats-bypoll-election-commission-of- Parliament that seeks to provide citizenship to
india-11732612972801.html non-Muslim religious minorities — Hindus, Sikhs,
113. Correct Answer: Option (4) Buddhists, Jains, Parsis, and Christians — from
Chief Minister of Jharkhand: Pakistan, Bangladesh, and Afghanistan who
▪ Since its inception on November 15, 2000, entered India on or before December 31, 2014.
Jharkhand has witnessed the leadership ▪ However, there are certain exemptions and
of seven Chief Ministers. exceptions under the CAA, which have been
▪ Babulal Marandi, a member of the BJP Party, subjects of much debate and scrutiny.
assumed the role of the first Chief Minister, Exemptions under the CAA:
setting the stage for the state’s governance. Northeastern States (Six Scheduled Areas & ILP
▪ Currently, Champai Soren, popularly known as areas):
the “Jharkhand Tiger,” serves as the seventh ▪ The CAA does not apply to tribal areas in the
Chief Minister, representing the Seraikella northeastern states that are governed by the
assembly constituency since February 2, 2024. Sixth Schedule of the Constitution (which
▪ The first Chief Minister of Jharkhand to provides for special protections to tribal areas in
complete a full five-year term was Raghubar Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram).
Das. ▪ The CAA also does not apply to areas where the
Inner Line Permit (ILP) system is in place.
Every Question is framed based on the Reverse Engineering Technique | www.civiccentre.in 31
 The Constitution’s Article 371-A to 371-J: Key Details
▪ Assam, Nagaland, Mizoram, and Arunachal ▪ First Lokpal: Justice Pinaki Chandra Ghose was 32

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Pradesh are governed by special provisions appointed as the first Lokpal of India on March
under Article 371, and the CAA is not applicable 23, 2019.
to these areas as well, in line with the unique ▪ Composition: The Lokpal consists of a
protections afforded to these regions. chairperson and a maximum of eight members,
▪ The CAA only applies to non-Muslim refugees of whom 50% are judicial members and at least
from Pakistan, Bangladesh, and Afghanistan. 50% are from among SCs, STs, OBCs, minorities,
Muslims are excluded from its provisions. and women.
Source: ▪ Jurisdiction: The Lokpal's jurisdiction covers all
https://hcikl.gov.in/pdf/press/CAA_2019_dec.pdf public servants, including the Prime Minister,
116. Correct Answer: Option (1) ministers, members of Parliament, and officials
▪ Simultaneous elections, often referred to as of the central government.
"One Nation, One Election", involve conducting ▪ Powers: The Lokpal has the authority to
the Lok Sabha (Parliament) and State Legislative investigate and prosecute cases of corruption
Assembly elections at the same time. and can recommend actions against public
▪ This concept has been widely debated in India officials.
for its potential to streamline the electoral Source:
process. https://www.indiatoday.in/india/story/justice-
Key Aspects pinaki-chandra-ghose-first-lokpal-india-1482072-
▪ Initially practiced during the first four general 2019-03-19
elections in India (1951-1967). 118. Correct Answer: Option (1)
▪ Discontinued due to premature dissolution of ▪ The Model Code of Conduct (MCC) is generally
some state assemblies and Lok Sabha. applicable to elections conducted by the Election
Advantages: Commission of India, including Lok Sabha, State
▪ Cost Efficiency: Reduces the overall expenditure Legislative Assembly, and local body elections.
on conducting elections. ▪ However, the MCC is not applicable in the
▪ Administrative Convenience: Lessens the following cases:
burden on administrative machinery and ▪ Panchayat and Municipal Elections in certain
security forces. states:
▪ The states of Andhra Pradesh, Arunachal While the MCC is applicable to local body
Pradesh, Odisha, and Sikkim currently have elections, its applicability can be limited or not
their state assembly elections held enforced in certain cases, especially where the
simultaneously with the Lok Sabha elections. Election Commission feels that it might not be
▪ This synchronization helps streamline the relevant.
electoral process and reduce the frequency and ▪ Internal party elections:
cost of elections. • The MCC does not apply to internal elections
▪ States like West Bengal, Tamil Nadu (2026), held within political parties.
Punjab, Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh (2027), and ▪ Non-electoral Events:
Karnataka, Chhattisgarh, Telangana (2028) • The MCC does not apply to events that are
would synchronise their election cycles. not directly related to the electoral process,
Source: such as the presidential election or elections
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/unde in Union Territories where specific
rstanding-simultaneous-elections- provisions govern the electoral process.
explained/article67592051.ece ▪ when the MCC is applied to local body elections,
117. Correct Answer: Option (2) it is limited based on whether the elections are
▪ The Lokpal of India is an anti-corruption for rural or urban areas, with rural elections
ombudsman institution established to address applying the MCC only in rural areas, and
complaints of corruption against public officials similarly for urban elections.
and to ensure greater transparency in public Source: https://www.eci.gov.in/eci-
administration. backend/public/api/download?url=LMAhAK6sOPB
▪ The institution was created under the Lokpal p%2FNFF0iRfXbEB1EVSLT41NNLRjYNJJP1KivrUxbfq
and Lokayuktas Act, 2013. kDatmHy12e%2FzVx8fLfn2ReU7TfrqYobgIiEPMIse9
Every Question is framed based on the Reverse Engineering Technique | www.civiccentre.in 32
 uztoZFFeybf9jk38l%2FOYZxk2qVbqEJ%2F7T60Jog ▪ Members: The term is three years or until the
OtZXpDcakANr0s39Z98wSjC1 age of 60 years, whichever is earlier. Members 33

CIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIAS IASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTRECIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCENTREIASACADEMYIASACADEMYCIVICCENTRREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCEN TREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMY

119. Correct Answer: Option (2) can also serve for a maximum of two terms
Criminal Case Management System (CCMS): ▪ Source: https://ncpcr.gov.in/about-ncpcr
▪ The Criminal Case Management System (CCMS) 121. Correct Answer: Option (3)
is a digital platform developed by the National Central Information Commission (CIC):
Investigation Agency (NIA). ▪ The CIC has been constituted with effect from
▪ It aims to streamline and enhance the 2005 under the Right to Information Act, 2005
management of criminal cases, particularly ▪ It is not a constitutional body
those related to terrorism and organized crime. ▪ Composition:
Key Features: • The Commission consists of a Chief
▪ Standardization: The CCMS aims to standardize Information Commissioner and not more
investigations and compile terrorism-related than ten Information Commissioners.
data across India. ▪ Qualification:
▪ User-Friendly: It is a browser-based software • Shall be persons of eminence in public life
designed to be user-friendly and customizable. with wide knowledge and experience in law,
▪ Coordination: Facilitates coordination among science and technology, social service,
law enforcement agencies, improving the management, journalism, mass media or
efficiency of investigations and justice delivery. administration and governance.
▪ Information Sharing: Promotes seamless • They cannot be sitting Members of
sharing of information between central and Parliament or members of any State or Union
state agencies Territory legislature.
Source: • Additionally, they must not hold any other
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage. office of profit.
aspx?PRID=2014738 ▪ They are appointed by the President on the
120. Correct Answer: Option (4) recommendation of a committee consisting of:
National Commission for Protection of Child Rights • The Prime Minister, who shall be the
(NCPCR): Chairperson of the committee.
▪ The National Commission for Protection of • The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha.
Child Rights (NCPCR) is a statutory body • A Union Cabinet Minister to be nominated by
established under the Commission for the Prime Minister.
Protection of Child Rights (CPCR) Act, 2005. ▪ Tenure:
Here's an overview of its composition and • The Chief Information Commissioner and
tenure: Information Commissioners serve for a term
▪ Composition of 3 years or until reaching 65 years of age,
▪ Chairperson: A person of eminence who has • They are not eligible for reappointment
done outstanding work for promoting the after completing their term.
welfare of children. ▪ The President has the authority to remove the
▪ Appointed on the recommendation of a three- Chief Information Commissioner or any
member selection committee constituted by Information Commissioner.
the Central Government. ▪ Source: laxmikanth 6e pg no.1015, 1016
▪ Members: Six members, out of which at least 122. Correct Answer: Option (2)
two must be women. These members are National Human Rights Commission:
appointed from among persons of eminence, ▪ The National Human Rights Commission is a
ability, integrity, standing, and experience in statutory body.
fields such as education, child health, and ▪ It was established in 1993 under the Protection
juvenile justice, elimination of child labor, child of Human Rights Act, 1993.
psychology, and laws relating to children2. ▪ The commission served as guardian of human
▪ Tenure rights in India, overseeing the rights relating to
▪ Chairperson: The term is three years or until the life, liberty, equality and dignity of the individual
age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. The guaranteed by the Constitution or embodied in
chairperson can serve for a maximum of two the international covenants and enforceable by
terms2. courts in India.
Every Question is framed based on the Reverse Engineering Technique | www.civiccentre.in 33
 ▪ The commission is a multi-member body ▪ He is the guardian of the public purse and
consisting of a chairperson and five members. controls the entire financial system of the 34

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▪ Objectives: country at both the Centre and state leval.
• To strengthen the institutional Independence of CAG:
arrangements through which human rights ▪ He is provided with the security of tenure.
issues could be addressed in their entirety ▪ He can be removed by the president only in
in a more focussed manner. accordance with the procedure mentioned in
• To look into allegations of excesses, the Constitution.
independently of the government, in a • Thus, he does not hold his office till the
manner that would underline the pleasure of the president, though he is
government’s commitment to protect appointed by him.
human rights. ▪ He is not eligible for further office.
• To complement and strengthen the efforts ▪ His salary and other service conditions are
that have already been made in this determined by the Parliament.
direction. ▪ The conditions of service of persons serving in
▪ Source: laxmikanth 6e pg no. 989 the Indian Audit and Accounts Department and
123. Correct Answer: Option (3) the administrative powers of the CAG are
Advocate General of the State: prescribed by the president after consultation
▪ The Advocate General of State is known as the with the CAG.
highest law officer of the state. ▪ Source: laxmikanth 6e pg no. 952, 954
▪ Under Article 165 of the Indian Constitution, 125. Correct Answer: Option (4)
provided the post of Advocate General of State. ▪ The Parliament has exclusive power to levy taxes
▪ Appointed by the Governor of State. on subjects enumerated in the Union List.
▪ The Constitution does not contain the ▪ The state legislature has exclusive power to levy
procedure and grounds for his removal. taxes on subjects enumerated in the State List
▪ He holds office during the pleasure of the Distribution of Non-tax Revenues between centre
governor. and state:
• This means that he may be removed by the ▪ The receipts from the following form the major
governor at any time. sources of non-tax revenues of the Centre:
▪ He may also quit his office by submitting his • posts and telegraphs
resignation to the governor. • railways
▪ Conventionally, he resigns when the • banking
government (council of ministers) resigns. • broadcasting
▪ Article 165 and Article 177 of the Indian • coinage and currency
Constitution talks about the functions of the • central public sector enterprises
Advocate General of State. ▪ The receipts from the following form the major
▪ Dammalapati Srinivas has been appointed as sources of non-tax revenues of the states:
the Advocate General of the Government of • Irrigation
Andhra Pradesh • Forests
▪ Srinivas worked as additional advocate general • Fisheries
for two years and as advocate general for about • State public sector enterprises
three years during the previous TDP govt from Source: laxmikanth 6e pg no. 338
2014 to 2019. 126. Correct Answer: Option (2)
▪ Source: laxmikanth 6e pg no.968, 968, 969 Legislative Relations between the Union and the
https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/vijay States:
awada/dammalapati-srinivas-appointed- ▪ When the legislatures of two or more states pass
ag/articleshowprint/111124155.cms resolutions requesting the Parliament to enact
124. Correct Answer: Option (3) laws on a matter in the State List,
Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) ▪ Then the Parliament can make laws for
▪ The Constitution of India (Article 148) provides regulating that matter.
for an independent office of the CAG. ▪ A law which is enacted applies only to those
▪ He is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts states which have passed the resolutions.
Department.
Every Question is framed based on the Reverse Engineering Technique | www.civiccentre.in 34
 ▪ Any other state may adopt it afterwards by ▪ Second Schedule: It outlines the provisions for
passing a resolution to that effect in its emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on 35 of

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legislature. the following:
▪ Such a law can be amended or repealed only by • President, Governors of Indian States,
the Parliament and not by the legislatures of the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha,
concerned states. Chairman and Deputy Chairman of Rajya
▪ The effect of passing a resolution, the state Sabha, Speaker and Deputy Speaker of
legislature ceases to have the power to make a Legislative Assemblies of Indian States,
law with respect to that matter. Chairman and Deputy Chairman of
▪ Some examples of laws passed under the above Legislative Councils
provision are: • Supreme Court Judges High Court
• Prize Competition Act, 1955; Wild Life • Judges Comptroller & Auditor General of
(Protection) Act, 1972; Water (Prevention India (CAG)
and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974; Urban • Articles related to 59(3), 65(3), 75(6), 97,
Land (Ceiling and Regulation) Act, 1976; and 125, 148(3), 158(3), 164 (5), 186 and 221
Transplantation of Human Organs Act, ▪ Third Schedule:
1994. • This provides for the forms of oaths or
▪ Source: laxmikanth 6e pg no. 323 affirmations including Union and state
127. Correct Answer: Option (2) ministers.
▪ Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with • The candidates for election to
the administration and control of Scheduled the parliament and the state legislature
Areas as well as of Scheduled Tribes residing in • The members of Parliament and state
any State other than the States of Assam, legislature
Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. • The judges of the Supreme Court and High
▪ If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Courts
Schedule, it means that the area is considered • The Comptroller and Auditor General of India
as a "Scheduled Area" and certain special • Articles related to 75(4), 99, 124(6), 148(2),
provisions and protections are granted to the 164(3), 188 and 219
tribal communities residing in that area. ▪ Fourth Schedule: It provides for the number of
▪ This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal seats allocated to each state or union territory
people to non-tribal people. in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha).
▪ It applies to areas that are predominantly
• Articles related to 4(1) and 80(2)
inhabited by Scheduled Tribes.
Source: COI 2024
▪ It provides for the establishment of
129. Correct Answer: Option (3)
autonomous districts and regional councils in
List of Cabinet Ministers and Portfolios
these areas, as well as certain safeguards
Cabinet minister Portfolio
against the exploitation of the tribal people and
Shri Shivraj Singh Ministry of Agriculture &
their resources.
Chouhan Farmers Welfare
▪ One of the primary objectives of this schedule is
Ministry of Rural
to protect the land rights of the tribal people
Development
and prevent their displacement due to
Shri Jagat Prakash Ministry of Health and
acquisition of land.
Nadda Family Welfare
Source:
Ministry of Chemicals and
https://cdnbbsr.s3waas.gov.in/s316026d60ff9b544
Fertilizers
10b3435b403afd226/uploads/2023/02/202302065
Shri H. D. Ministry of Heavy
8-3.pdf
Kumaraswamy Industries
128. Correct Answer: Option (1)
▪ First Schedule: Ministry of Steel
Shri Kinjarapu Ministry of Civil Aviation
• It lists the states and union territories and
Rammohan Naidu
their corresponding territories.
▪ Kinjarapu Rammohan Naidu (Srikakulam),
• Articles related to 1 and 4
Pemmasani Chandra Sekhar (Guntur),
Bhupathiraju Srinivasa Varma (Narsapuram) are

Every Question is framed based on the Reverse Engineering Technique | www.civiccentre.in 35

 part of the Union Council of Ministers from ▪ Deputy CMs do not draw higher salary or perks
Andhra Pradesh in the 18th Lok Sabha compared to other ministers. 36

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▪ Kinjarapu Ram Mohan Naidu (Srikakulam), 36 ▪ Although a deputy Chief Minister is equivalent to
years old is the youngest ever member of the a Cabinet minister in the state government, the
Central Cabinet post means that the person is second-in-
Source: https://www.india.gov.in/my- command after the chief minister.
government/whos-who/council-ministers ▪ Currently, only 15 out of 25 states and 1 out of 3
130. Correct Answer: Option (1) union territories, have Deputy Chief Ministers.
▪ The seventh schedule under Article 246 of the ▪ Notably, nine of these—Bihar, Chhattisgarh,
constitution deals with the division of powers Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Meghalaya,
between the Union and the States. Nagaland, Odisha, Rajasthan, and Uttar
▪ It consists of Union list, State list and Pradesh—have two Deputy CMs each.
Concurrent list Source: https://www.thehindu.com/videos/watch-
▪ The Parliament has exclusive powers to make what-is-the-role-of-a-deputy-chief-
laws with respect to any of the matters minister/article68956191.ece
enumerated in the Union List https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/deputy-
▪ The power to make laws with respect to cm-is-also-a-minister-post-not-unconstitutional-
residuary subjects (matters which are not supreme-court/articleshow/107639189.cms
enumerated in any of the three lists) is vested 132. Correct Answer: Option (3)
in the Parliament. ▪ In India there are total 8 Union Territories
▪ Reserve Bank of India is listed under Union list • Among them, Puducherry, Jammu and
of the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Kashmir and NCT of Delhi are the only 3
Constitution Union Territories that are exceptional
▪ Other important Subjects under Union List: • Each has its own locally elected legislative
• Citizenship, naturalisation and aliens. assembly and have a Chief Minister.
• Passports and visas ▪ Recently, Omar Abdullah sworn in as the Jammu
• Railways and Kashmir’s Chief Minister after the Congress-
• Posts and telegraphs National Conference alliance won 48 seats in the
• Currency, coinage and legal tender Assembly elections
• Post Office Savings Bank • There are total 90-seats in the Assembly.
• Lotteries organized by the Government of ▪ The results of the elections to the 7th Delhi
India or the Government of a State Legislative Assembly were declared on 11
• Inter-State trade and commerce. February 2020. There are 70 assembly seats in
• Banking and Insurance Delhi.
• Census ▪ The results of the elections to the 15th
• Inter-State migration; inter-State Puducherry Legislative Assembly were declared
quarantine on May 2, 2021. There are 30 elected assembly
Source:https://www.mea.gov.in/images/pdf1/S7.p seats in Puducherry.
df Source:https://www.thehindu.com/elections/jamm
131. Correct Answer: Option (4) u-and-kashmir-assembly/jammu-and-kashmir-
▪ News: Shiv Sena president Eknath Shinde and assembly-election-2024-results-
NCP chief Ajit Pawar recently took oath as infograaphics/article68731248.ece
Deputy Chief Ministers of Maharashtra https://prsindia.org/legislatures/state/vital-
▪ Appointment of Deputy Chief Ministers is not stats/profile-7th-delhi-legislative-assembly
unconstitutional even though the position was https://prsindia.org/legislatures/state/vital-
neither mentioned nor defined in the stats/profile-of-the-15th-puducherry-legislative-
Constitution: SC recently ruled assembly
▪ The post of Deputy CM, for all practical 133. Correct Answer: Option (1)
purposes is similar to a minister in the Council ▪ The Sixth Schedule relates to the administration
of Ministers headed by CM. of tribal areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya,
▪ The Constitution does not differentiate any Tripura and Mizoram.
Council of Ministers ▪ It provides for provides for the creation of the
District and Regional councils in Northeast India
Every Question is framed based on the Reverse Engineering Technique | www.civiccentre.in 36
 ▪ The tribal areas in certain regions of these four voter-count-per-polling-booth/article68934872.ece
states will be ‘Autonomous districts’, each 135. Correct Answer: Option (3) 37

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consisting of a ‘District Council’. ▪ The Model Code of Conduct for guidance of
▪ Further, the Governor may divide an political parties and candidates is a set of norms
autonomous district into ‘Autonomous which has been evolved with the consensus of
Regions’, each consisting of a ‘Regional Council’. political parties
▪ The administration of autonomous districts and ▪ The Model Code of Conduct is enforced from the
regions will be carried out by District and date of announcement of election schedule by
Regional Councils, respectively. the Election Commission and is operational till
▪ Prior to the inclusion of the VI Schedule in the the process of elections are completed.
Constitution, such areas were identified as • During general elections to House of People
Excluded and Partially Excluded Areas (Lok Sabha), the code is applicable
(backward areas throughout the country.
▪ The power to identify a district or region to • During general elections to the Legislative
introduce Autonomous District Council or Assembly the code is applicable in the entire
Autonomous Regional Councils rests with the State.
Governor. ▪ Norms regarding appointment and transfer of
▪ There are total Ten Autonomous District Officials
Councils: • There shall be a total ban on the transfer
• Assam and posting of all officers/officials directly
(1) North-Cachar Hills District (Dima Hasao) or indirectly connected with the conduct of
(2) Karbi-Anglong District the election.
(3) Bodoland Territorial Area District • If any transfer or posting of an officer is
• Meghalaya considered necessary, prior approval of the
(1) Khasi Hills District Commission shall be obtained.
(2) Jaintia Hills District Source: https://www.eci.gov.in/faq/5/16
(3) Garo Hills District 136. Correct Answer: Option (4)
• Tripura Parliamentary Legislation in the State Field:
(1) Tripura Tribal Areas District ▪ When Rajya Sabha pass Resolution (Art 249):
• Mizoram • By two-thirds of the members present and
(1) Chakma District voting
(2) Mara District • Resolution remains in force for one year
(3) Lai District • It can be renewed any number of times
▪ Darjeeling Gorkha Hill Council was established • Laws cease to have effect on the expiration
under the Darjeeling Gorkha Hill Council Act, of six months after the resolution has ceased
1988, not under Sixth Schedule to be in force
Source:https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456 ▪ During National Emergency (Art 250):
789/78964/1/Unit-6.pdf • Parliament acquires the power to legislate
https://www.mea.gov.in/Images/pdf1/S6.pdf with respect to matters in the State List
134. Correct Answer: Option (2) • Laws become inoperative on the expiration
▪ Recently Election Commission of India of six months after the emergency has
increased the number of voters per polling ceased to operate
booth from 1,200 to 1,500 ▪ When two or more States make request (Art
▪ A PIL petition was filed in the Supreme Court 252):
against the Commission’s order • Legislatures of two or more states pass
▪ Petition claimed that, Increasing the number of resolutions
voters would lead to the exclusion of • Applies only to those states that pass such
underprivileged groups from the electoral resolution
process • Such a law can be amended or repealed only
Source: by the Parliament
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/sc-to- ▪ To Implement International Agreements (Art
hear-pil-challenging-ecs-decision-to-increase- 253):

Every Question is framed based on the Reverse Engineering Technique | www.civiccentre.in 37

 • Only Parliament has power to make Chief Minister) has nothing to add to the
legislation for giving effect to international proposal and proceed accordingly 38

CIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIAS IASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTRECIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCENTREIASACADEMYIASACADEMYCIVICCENTRREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCEN TREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMY

agreements even if the matter comes under ▪ The complete material would then be forwarded
state list to the Chief Justice of India for his advice.
▪ During Presidential Rule (Art 356): ▪ The Chief Justice of India would, in consultation
• Parliament becomes empowered to make with the two seniormost Judges of the Supreme
laws with respect to any matter in the State Court, form his opinion
List ▪ Consultation by the Chief Justice of India with
• Such law continues to be operative even his colleagues should be in writing
after the president’s rule Source: https://doj.gov.in/memorandum-of-
• Can be repealed or altered or re-enacted by procedure-of-appointment-of-high-court-judges/
the state legislature after the Presidential https://cdnbbsr.s3waas.gov.in/s3ec0490f1f4972d13
rule ends 3619a60c30f3559e/uploads/2024/10/2024101514.
Source:https://www.mea.gov.in/Images/pdf1/Part pdf
11.pdf 139. Correct Answer: Option (4)
137. Correct Answer: Option (1) ▪ The Finance Commission is constituted under
▪ Recently Madras High Court ruled that, Privacy article 280 of the Constitution of India
as a fundamental right includes spousal ▪ The Sixteenth Finance Commission was
privacy. constituted on 31 December, 2023.
▪ Obtaining information pertaining to the privacy ▪ Former NITI Aayog Vice Chairman Arvind
of the wife without her knowledge and consent Panagariya is appointed as the Chairman.
cannot be viewed benignly. ▪ IAS officer Ritvik Ranjanam Pandey is appointed
▪ Spouses should not resort to surveillance of the as the secretary to the Commission
other, the court observed ▪ Members are: Ajay Narayan Jha, Annie George
Source:https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/M Mathew, Niranjan Rajadhyaksha and Soumya
adurai/privacy-as-a-fundamental-right-includes- Kanti Ghosh
spousal-privacy-evidence-obtained-by-invading- ▪ Qualifications Prescribed under Finance
this-right-is-inadmissible-says- Commission (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act,
hc/article68819671.ece 1951 are;
138. Correct Answer: Option (3) ▪ The Chairman of the Commission shall be
Appointment of High Court judges: selected from among persons who have had
▪ The Chief Justice and Judges of the High Courts experience in public affairs
are appointed by the President under clause (1) ▪ four other members shall be selected from
of Article 217 of the Constitution. among persons who—
▪ The proposal for appointment of a Judge of a • are appointed or retired or qualified to be
High Court shall be initiated by the Chief Justice appointed as Judges of a High Court; or
of the High Court. • have special knowledge of the finances and
▪ The Chief Justice must consult two of his accounts of Government; or
seniormost colleagues regarding the suitability • have had wide experience in financial
of the names. matters and in administration; or
▪ All consultation must be in writing and these • have special knowledge of economies.
opinions must be sent to the Chief Minister ▪ The Sixteenth Finance Commission has been
along with the recommendations. requested to make its report available by 31st
▪ If the Chief Minister desires to recommend the day of October, 2025 covering a period of five
name of any person, he should forward the years commencing on the 1st day of April, 2026.
same to the Chief Justice for his consideration Source: https://fincomindia.nic.in/about-us
▪ The Governor as advised by the Chief Minister https://indianexpress.com/article/business/econom
should forward his recommendation to the y/centre-appoints-arvind-panagariya-as-chairman-
Union Minister of Law, Justice and Company of-16th-finance-commission-9089959/
Affairs as early as possible https://static.pib.gov.in/WriteReadData/specificdoc
▪ If the comments are not received within the s/documents/2024/jan/doc2024131304101.pdf
fixed time frame, it should be presumed by the https://www.indiacode.nic.in/bitstream/123456789
Union Minister of Law, that the Governor (i.e. /1941/1/A1951-33.pdf
Every Question is framed based on the Reverse Engineering Technique | www.civiccentre.in 38
140. Correct Answer: Option (3) Meitei community and hill-based Scheduled
▪ Shri Justice S. Abdul Nazeer was born on 5th Tribe Kuki-Zo communities. 39

CIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIAS IASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTRECIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCENTREIASACADEMYIASACADEMYCIVICCENTRREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCEN TREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMY

January, 1958 in Beluvai, Karnataka. ▪ The Meiteis, who are the single-largest ethnic
▪ He studied law at Sri Dharmasthala community in the state, do not have Scheduled
Manjunatheshwara Law College, Mangalore. Tribe status in Manipur
▪ He practiced for 20 years at the Karnataka High ▪ The Meitei community makes up about 53% of
Court and other courts in Karnataka. Manipur's population and lives mostly in the
▪ In 2003, he was appointed as an Additional Imphal Valley districts
Judge of the Karnataka High Court and next ▪ Naga is the other major tribal ST community in
year he became a Permanent Judge. Manipur
▪ On 17th February, 2017 Shri Justice Nazeer was ▪ Also in Manipur, there are other minor ST
elevated to the Supreme Court. communities mistakenly identified as Kuki’s and
▪ After his retirement, Shri Justice Nazeer was Nagas
appointed as the Governor of Andhra Pradesh ▪ The six Scheduled caste minor tribes that sought
on 12th February, 2023. not to be clubbed as either Kuki or Naga are
▪ He assumed charge as the Governor of Andhra Aimol, Chiru, Chothe, Kharam, Koireng, and
Pradesh on 24th February, 2023. Kom
Source:https://rajbhavan.ap.gov.in/rajbvn/govern ▪ Recently, the Thadou ST community has urged
or.aspx Manipur Chief Minister and the people of the
141. Correct Answer: Option (2) State, specifically the non-tribal Meitei
▪ Armed Forces Tribunal is a military tribunal in community, to stop calling them ‘Kuki’
India established under the Armed Forces Source:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/
Tribunal Act, 2007. manipur/stop-calling-us-kuki-manipur-tribe-to-cm-
▪ It was established to provide for the biren-singh/article68505063.ece
adjudication or trial of disputes and complaints https://anagrasarkalyan.gov.in/documnts/07-07-
with respect to commission, appointments, 2017-11-33-34.pdf
enrolment and conditions of service in respect https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/st-
of persons subject to the Army Act, 1950, the status-for-meiteis-was-considered-and-rejected-in-
Navy Act, 1957 and the Air Force Act, 1950. 1982-and-2001-government-records-
▪ An appeal against a decision given by the show/article67420818.ece
tribunal can only be taken up in the Supreme 143. Correct Answer: Option (4)
Court. ▪ The Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) scheme was
▪ It has its Principal Bench at New Delhi and eight introduced in August 2005 which provides for
Regional Benches at Jaipur, Chandigarh, registration of all Persons of Indian Origin (PIOs)
Lucknow, Guwahati, Kolkata, Chennai, Kochi, • who was a citizen of India at the time of, or
Jabalpur, Jammu and Mumbai. at any time after 26th January, 1950; or
▪ All proceedings in the Tribunal will be in English. • who was eligible to become a citizen of India
▪ The Delhi High Court has held that while the on 26th January, 1950; or
Armed Forces Tribunal Act, 2007 excludes the • who belonged to a territory that became part
administrative supervision of the High Court of India after 15th August, 1947; or
under Article 227(4) of the Constitution but, it • who is a child or a grandchild or a great
does not exclude the judicial superintendence grandchild of such a citizen; or
and jurisdiction under Article 226. • who is a minor child of such persons
Source:https://www.indiacode.nic.in/bitstream/12 mentioned above; or
3456789/2077/1/A2007-55.pdf • who is a minor child and whose both parents
https://www.livelaw.in/news-updates/delhi-high- are citizens of India or one of the parents is a
court-jurisdiction-armed-forces-tribunal-act- citizen of India
judicial-superintendence-article-226-194282 ▪ Benefits for OCI Cardholders:
https://aftdelhi.nic.in/index.php/home/jurisdiction • Multiple entry, multi-purpose lifelong visa to
142. Correct Answer: Option (3) visit India;
▪ Protest rally against the HC order on • Exemption from reporting to Police
recommendation of ST status to Meiteis authorities for any length of stay in India; and
triggered the violence between valley-based

Every Question is framed based on the Reverse Engineering Technique | www.civiccentre.in 39

 • Parity with NRIs in financial, economic and ▪ The electoral bonds scheme was notified by the
educational fields except in the acquisition central government on January 2, 2018, as an 40

CIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIAS IASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTRECIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCENTREIASACADEMYIASACADEMYCIVICCENTRREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCEN TREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMYCIVICCENTREIASACADEMY

of agricultural or plantation properties. alternative to cash donations made to political
Source: https://ociservices.gov.in/ parties.
144. Correct Answer: Option (1) ▪ It was stated that the scheme was a part of
▪ The Supreme Court in State of Haryana vs. efforts to bring transparency to political funding.
Rajkumar Case (2021) has observed that the ▪ Electoral bonds may be purchased by any Indian
power of Governor under Article 161 of the citizen or entity incorporated or established in
Constitution to commute sentence or to the country, as per the provisions of the scheme.
pardon will override the restrictions imposed ▪ These electoral bonds can be purchased by an
under Section 433-A of the Criminal Procedure individual either singly or jointly with others.
Code. ▪ The Supreme Court struck down the electoral
▪ Even if the prisoner has not undergone 14 years bonds scheme for political funding highlighting
or more of actual imprisonment, the Governor it is violation of Article 19(1)(a) of the
has a power to grant pardons, reprieves, Constitution.
respites and remissions of punishment ▪ Article 19 (1)(a) in the Constitution of India
Source: https://www.livelaw.in/top- guarantees all citizens the “right to freedom of
stories/governor-pardon-power-article-161- speech and expression”.
prisoner-14-years-imprisonment-section-433a- ▪ The ruling said that electoral bonds scheme had
crpc-supreme-court-178784 the impugned provisions to the extent that they
145. Correct Answer: Option (1) infringe upon the right to information of the
▪ The MPLAD Scheme is a Central Sector Scheme, voter by anonymising contribution.
fully funded by the Government of India. ▪ The Supreme Court stated that the fundamental
▪ This Scheme was announced on December 23, right to privacy includes the Citizens right to
1993 by the then Prime Minister of India in the political privacy and affiliation.
Parliament. https://indianexpress.com/article/india/poll-bonds-
▪ The main objective of the Scheme is to enable anonymous-since-govt-protecting-the-citizens-right-
each Member of Parliament to recommend to-privacy-sg-tells-sc-9008256/
works of developmental nature with emphasis 147. Correct Answer: Option (4)
on the creation of durable community assets ▪ Government has restructured the Centrally
based on the locally felt needs of the people. Sponsored Scheme of Rashtriya Gram Swaraj
▪ Ministry of Statistics and Programme Abhiyan (RGSA) as Revamped RGSA on
Implementation is responsible for prescribing 13.04.2022 for implementation from
Guidelines 01.04.2022 to 31.03.2026’
▪ Each Member of Parliament was allocated an ▪ It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme
amount of Rs. 5 (five) crore per annum w.e.f. ▪ The primary objective of Revamped Rashtriya
the financial year 2011-12 Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) is to develop the
▪ Each Member of Parliament is required to give governance capabilities of the Panchayats to
his/ her choice of a Nodal District: deliver on SDGs which covered within the
▪ Elected Lok Sabha member: purview of Panchayats.
• If the Lok Sabha Constituency is within the ▪ The scheme was first approved by the Cabinet in
jurisdiction of one district, then such 2018 for implementation from 2018-19 to 2021-
district 22.
• If the Lok Sabha Constituency is spread Source:https://indianexpress.com/article/india/rash
over the jurisdiction of more than one triya-gram-swaraj-abhiyan-cabinet-approves-rs-
district, then any one of the districts 5911-crore-for-scheme-to-boost-rural-local-bodies-
▪ Elected Rajya Sabha member: 7868282/
• Any district in his/her State of Election ▪ https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=
▪ Nominated Rajya Sabha member: 1842770
• Any district in the country 148. Correct Answer: Option (1)
Source:https://www.mplads.gov.in/MPLADS/Uplo ▪ On December 9, 1946, the session began with the
adedFiles/MPLADSGuidelines2023_English_.pdf singing of Vande Mataram, symbolizing India's
146. Correct Answer: Option (1) struggle for freedom and unity.

Every Question is framed based on the Reverse Engineering Technique | www.civiccentre.in 40

 ▪ Acharya Kripalani delivered the inaugural
address in constituent assembly, welcoming the 41

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members and emphasizing the importance of
unity amidst diversity.
▪ The first day concluded with all 207 members
present submitting their credentials and signing
the register.
Source:
https://static.pib.gov.in/WriteReadData/specificd
ocs/documents/2024/nov/doc20241125450301.p
df
149. Correct Answer: Option (4)
▪ Right to marry one’s choice is a fundamental
right under Article 21 of the constitution.
Article Provisions
Article 14 Equality before law
Article 15 Prohibition of discrimination on
grounds of religion, race, caste,
sex or place of birth
Article 17 Abolition of Untouchability
Article 19 Protection of certain rights
regarding freedom of speech, etc.
Article 21 Protection of life and personal
liberty
Article 21A Right to education
Source: COI 2024
150. Correct Answer: Option (4)
Who does the Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA)
apply to?
▪ It is relevant only for Hindu, Sikh, Jain, Buddhist,
Parsi and Christian foreigners, who have
migrated from Pakistan, Bangladesh, and
Afghanistan into India up to 31.12.2014, on
account of persecution faced by them due to
their religion.
▪ It does not apply to any other foreigners,
including Muslims migrating to India from any
country, including these three countries.
Source:
https://hcikl.gov.in/pdf/press/CAA_2019_dec.pdf

Every Question is framed based on the Reverse Engineering Technique | www.civiccentre.in 41