SAMPLE TEST 5

LISTENING: QUESTION AND ANSWER BOOKLET

CANDIDATE NAME:

D.O.B.: D D M M Y Y Y Y PROFESSION:

VENUE: TEST DATE:

Starting at the left, print your Candidate

Number and fill in the corresponding circle
below each number using a 2B pencil.
Example:

CANDIDATE DECLARATION

2 5 By signing this, you agree not to disclose or use in any way

(other than to take the test) or assist any other person to
disclose or use any OET test or sub-test content. If you cheat
or assist in any cheating, use any unfair practice, break any of
the rules or regulations, or ignore any advice or information, you
may be disqualified and your results may not be issued at the
sole discretion of CBLA. CBLA also reserves its right to take
further disciplinary action against you and to pursue any other
remedies permitted by law. If a candidate is suspected of and
investigated for malpractice, their personal details and details of
the investigation may be passed to a third party where required.

CANDIDATE SIGNATURE:

TIME: APPROXIMATELY 40 MINUTES

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
DO NOT open this question paper until you are told to do so.

One mark will be granted for each correct answer.

Answer ALL questions. Marks are NOT deducted for incorrect answers.

At the end of the test, you will have two minutes to check your answers.

At the end of the test, hand in this Question and Answer Booklet.

You must not remove OET material from the test room.

HOW TO ANSWER THE QUESTIONS

Ray
Part A: Write your answers on this Question and Answer Booklet by filling in the blanks. Example: Patient: Sands
Part B & Part C: Mark your answers on this Question and Answer Booklet by filling in the circle using a 2B pencil. Example: A
B
C

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1
 N K
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Occupational English Test
Listening Test

This test has three parts. In each part you’ll hear a number of different extracts. At the start of each extract,
you’ll hear this sound: --beep--

You’ll have time to read the questions before you hear each extract and you’ll hear each extract ONCE ONLY.
Complete your answers as you listen.

E
At the end of the test you’ll have two minutes to check your answers.

P
Part A
L
M
In this part of the test, you’ll hear two different extracts. In each extract, a health professional is talking
to a patient.

A
For questions 1-24, complete the notes with information that you hear.
Now, look at the notes for extract one.

S
Extract 1: Questions 1-12

You hear a primary-care doctor talking to a patient called Hayley Dove. For questions 1-12, complete the notes
with a word or short phrase that you hear.

You now have thirty seconds to look at the notes.

Patient Hayley Dove

Background to condition

• endometriosis for many years following birth of son

E
- discomfort from episodes of bloating, (1) and
fatigue

L
• developed (2) pain

• worsening condition affected her work as a (3)

P
• diagnosis of (4)

M
• underwent (5) - procedure eliminated symptoms

• set up business as a (6)

A
Development of new symptoms and treatment

S
• began to experience fatigue again

- linked to work activities, e.g. online meetings and conferences

- particularly noticeable after (7)

• (8) initially suspected

• blood tests led to eventual diagnosis of haemochromatosis

- n.b. (9) as an infant – but family history now

established

• treated via venesection - initially weekly, now three-monthly

- has some (10) as a result

Current concerns • now experiencing stiffness in joints – in both fingers

and (11)

• tendency to become excessively (12)

• occasional shortness of breath – not linked to exertion

Extract 2: Questions 13-24

You hear a physiotherapist talking to a patient called Marvin Chainey. For questions 13-24, complete the notes
with a word or short phrase that you hear.

You now have thirty seconds to look at the notes.

Patient Marvin Chainey

Onset of symptoms • contracted Covid-19 - wasn’t (13) (no hospital

admission)

• flu-like symptoms (one week)

E
• dry cough (persisted one month)

L
Post-Covid symptoms

• ongoing lack of (14)

P
• breathlessness after everyday tasks, e.g. carrying groceries

• insomnia leading to daytime fatigue

M
• (15) on waking – persisted all day

• brain described as (16)

A
• tendency to forget things, e.g. (17)

• (18) accompanied by chest pain

S
Diagnosis and treatment

• ECG and heart monitor (five days)

• diagnosis of (19)

- beta blockers prescribed

• low levels of (20) identified – supplements

prescribed

Current concerns • over-exertion or anxiety leads to recurrence of fatigue

- accompanied by joint pain: affects (21) and

lower extremities

• (22) in fingers

• has practised (23) long-term – recently

commenced tai-chi

• would like to resume gym attendance

• asks for advice on strength-building exercises

- e.g. use of (24) and

light weights

That is the end of Part A. Now look at Part B.

 Part B

In this part of the test, you’ll hear six different extracts. In each extract, you’ll hear people talking in a different
healthcare setting.

For questions 25-30, choose the answer (A, B or C) which fits best according to what you hear. You’ll have time
to read each question before you listen. Complete your answers as you listen.

Now look at question 25. A

B
Fill the circle in completely. Example: C

E
25. You hear a hospital nurse talking to a patient.

L
The patient expresses a concern about

P
A having to make use of a mobility aid.

B being expected to mobilise without assistance.

M
C feeling unsteady when he’s attempting to mobilise.

A
26. You hear two community nurses conducting a patient handover.

S
The patient may need some guidance in how to deal with

A the regular medication that he needs to take.

B ongoing therapy related to his long-term health needs.

C the sensitivity associated with a health condition he’s developed.

27. You hear the beginning of a training session for nurses about to start work on a paediatric ward.

What is the focus of today’s session?

A comparing equipment used with patients of different ages

B gaining an awareness of how some equipment is used

C learning how best to organise some equipment

28. You hear an occupational therapist briefing a trainee about a home visit that he’s going to observe her
making.

What is the priority for today’s visit?

A helping the patient to regain independence in everyday tasks

B meeting a family member who has concerns about the patient

C ensuring that a mechanical device is appropriate for the patient

E
29. You hear a hospital pharmacist talking to a patient.

L
The patient’s main concern about his medication is whether

P
A he’s been prescribed the most effective dose.

B he’s likely to experience long-term side effects.

M
C he’s been taking it at the most appropriate time.

A
30. You hear a primary-care doctor talking to a patient.

S
The patient is worried that she may have

A self-treated her toe in an inappropriate way.

B damaged a toe that she’d previously injured.

C triggered the resurgence of a health condition.

That is the end of Part B. Now look at Part C.

 Part C

In this part of the test, you’ll hear two different extracts. In each extract, you’ll hear health professionals
talking about aspects of their work.

For questions 31-42, choose the answer (A, B or C) which fits best according to what you hear. Complete your
answers as you listen.

Now look at extract one. A

B
Fill the circle in completely. Example: C

Extract 1: Questions 31-36

E
You hear Dr Pietro Everall giving a presentation on the subject of cholesterol.

L
You now have 90 seconds to read questions 31-36.

P
31. Dr Everall thinks misunderstandings about the role of cholesterol largely arise due

M
A an imprecise use of the term in the media.

B inadequate explanations by health professionals.

A
C a lack of focus on its positive influences in research studies.

S
32. Dr Everall feels that using the words ‘good and ‘bad’ to describe types of cholesterol

A may be a useful way of clarifying a key point for patients.

B could encourage patients to find out more about the science.

C might lead patients to underestimate the complexity of the subject.

33. Dr Everall feels that some patients are reluctant to engage with the dangers of cholesterol because

A the standard investigations aren’t generally available to them.

B they don’t realise which social groups are most likely to be affected.

C no noticeable symptoms are associated with its gradual accumulation.

34. In terms of preventive medicine, Dr Everall mentions research that suggests high levels of cholesterol may
result from

A the existence of an inherited predisposition.

B lifestyle factors that aren’t usually associated with it.

C a range of modifiable behaviours particular to one age group.

35. What does Dr Everall say about the drug called Inclisiran?

E
A Its use could lead to considerable cost savings.

Patients are likely to tolerate it better than existing options.

L
B

C Further research is needed to establish its full range of possible uses.

36.

M P
What point does Dr Everall make about the technology known as ‘gene silencing’?

Claims made about its potential uses need to be treated with caution.

A
B It works in a similar way to some other similar techniques.

S
C Wrong assumptions may sometimes be made about it.

Now look at extract two.

Extract 2: Questions 37-42

You hear an interview with a nurse called Lianne Haydock who is talking about the issues involved in caring for
obese or ‘plus-size’ patients.

You now have 90 seconds to read questions 37-42.

37. Lianne feels that in response to increasing numbers of plus-size patients, nurses should

A take a lead in educating them about the risks.

B be proactive in investigating what lies behind the problem.

E
C remain focussed on providing them with the best possible service.

P L
38. What attitude towards plus-size patients does Lianne find unacceptable?

A a belief that they’re somehow to blame for their weight.

M
B a lack of interest in the medical reasons for their weight.

a tendency to assume they’ve been trying to lose weight

A
C

S
39. Lianne suggests adopting an approach to caring for patients that

A makes special provision for those defined as plus-size.

B is able to accommodate the needs of people of all sizes.

C involves a reassessment of what represents a typical size.

40. Lianne says the greatest problem with specialised equipment for plus-sized patients is often that

A a limited range is available for hospitals to choose from.

B hospitals lack the resources to invest in the quantities needed.

C the physical layout of hospitals can’t accommodate them easily.

41. How does Lianne respond to the question about the safety issues presented by plus-size patients?

A She accepts that training in this area needs to be improved.

B She outlines some principles to apply to minimise any issues.

C She makes a case for increased levels of support for nursing staff.

42. When asked about the human dimension of caring for plus-size patients, Lianne underlines the value of

E
A involving patients in decisions about their everyday care

ensuring that patients appreciate any concerns staff may have.

L
B

C respecting the patient’s wishes about how their size is referred to.

P
That is the end of Part C.

M
You now have two minutes to check your answers.

A
THAT IS THE END OF THE LISTENING TEST

S
 N K
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 SAMPLE TEST 5

READING PART A: TEXT BOOKLET

CANDIDATE NAME:

D.O.B.: D D M M Y Y Y Y PROFESSION:

VENUE: TEST DATE:

Starting at the left, print your Candidate

Number and fill in the corresponding circle
below each number using a 2B pencil.
Example:

CANDIDATE DECLARATION

2 5 By signing this, you agree not to disclose or use in any way

(other than to take the test) or assist any other person to
disclose or use any OET test or sub-test content. If you cheat
or assist in any cheating, use any unfair practice, break any of
the rules or regulations, or ignore any advice or information, you
may be disqualified and your results may not be issued at the
sole discretion of CBLA. CBLA also reserves its right to take
further disciplinary action against you and to pursue any other
remedies permitted by law. If a candidate is suspected of and
investigated for malpractice, their personal details and details of
the investigation may be passed to a third party where required.

CANDIDATE SIGNATURE:

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
You must NOT remove OET material from the test room.

www.oet.com
© Cambridge Boxhill Language Assessment – ABN 51 988 559 414

1
 Cellulitis: Texts

Text A

Cellulitis: definition and aetiology

Cellulitis is an acute bacterial infection of the dermis and subcutaneous tissue which presents with an acute
onset of red, painful, hot, swollen, and tender skin, sometimes with blister formation. Fever and nausea may
accompany or precede skin changes.
By far the commonest organisms that cause cellulitis are Streptococcus pyogenes and Staphylococcus
aureus. Other, less common organisms include Aeromonas hydrophila (caused by exposure to fresh water),
Pasteurella multocida and anaerobes (caused by mammalian bites), Vibrio vulnificus (caused by exposure to
salt water), and Pseudomonas aeruginosa (caused by use of hot tubs).
The leg is the most commonly affected site, with unilateral presentation the norm. Bilateral leg cellulitis can
occur but is extremely rare. Infection arises from an identifiable break in the skin from trauma.
Recurrent cellulitis is more common in people who have chronic lymphoedema, especially in those with a
history of venectomy for coronary artery bypass grafting, mastectomy, or pelvic surgery.

Text B

Severity of cellulitis

The Eron Classification system can help to guide admission and treatment decisions:

Class I There are no signs of systemic toxicity, and the person has no uncontrolled co-morbidities.

Class II The person is either systemically unwell or systemically well but with a co-morbidity, e.g.,
peripheral arterial disease, chronic venous insufficiency, or morbid obesity, which may
complicate or delay resolution of infection.

Class III The person has significant systemic upset such as acute confusion, tachycardia or
hypotension, or a limb-threatening infection due to vascular compromise.

Class IV The person has a severe life-threatening infection such as necrotizing fasciitis.

In suspected cases of cellulitis, immediately hospitalise anyone with Class III or IV. In addition, anyone who
is immunocompromised, has facial cellulitis, is very young (under 12 months) or elderly and frail, or whose
cellulitis is rapidly deteriorating must be hospitalised.
Note that many other common conditions, including deep vein thrombosis (DVT), share the same
symptoms (unilateral redness and/or swelling) as cellulitis. The same is also true for rare, serious conditions,
such as metastatic cancer.

[CANDIDATE NO.] READING TEXT BOOKLET PART A 02/04

Text C

Suitable drug therapy for typical cellulitis

First line Second line
Class 1 Flucloxacillin 500 mg 4x/day PO Penicillin allergy:
Clarithromycin 300 mg 2x/day PO

Class 2 Flucloxacillin 1 g 4x/day IV Penicillin allergy:

or Clarithromycin 500 mg 2x/day IV
* Ceftriaxone 1 g 1x/day IV (OPAT only) or
(Must not be used in penicillin Clindamycin 600 mg 4x/day IV
anaphylaxis)
Class 3 Flucloxacillin 1 g 4x/day IV Penicillin allergy:
Clarithromycin 500 mg 2x/day IV
or
Clindamycin 600 mg 4x/day IV
Class 4 Benzylpenicillin 2.4 g 2-4 hourly IV
+ Ciprofloxacin 400 mg 2x/day IV
+ Clindamycin 600 mg–1.2 g 4x/day
(If allergic to penicillin use Ciprofloxacin and Clindamycin only)
NB: Discuss with local Medical Microbiology Service
Suitable drug therapy for atypical cellulitis
Risk Factor First line Penicillin allergy
Human bite Co-amoxiclav 625 mg 3x/day PO Clarithromycin 500 mg 2x/day PO
or Doxycycline 100 mg 2x/day PO
and Metronidazole 400 mg 3x/day PO
Cat/dog bite Co-amoxiclav 625 mg 3x/day PO Doxycycline 100 mg 2x/day PO
and Metronidazole 400 mg 3x/day PO

Exposure to Ciprofloxacin 750 mg 2x/day PO Ciprofloxacin 750 mg 2x/day PO

fresh water and Flucloxacillin 500 mg 4x/day PO and Clarithromycin 500 mg 2x/day PO
at site of skin
break

Text D

Management of the locally affected area

- Prescribe analgesia to ensure pain relief. Review the appropriateness of anti-inflammatory drugs,
and if initiating an anti-inflammatory is obligatory, use ibuprofen (1200 mg per day or less) or
naproxen (1000 mg per day or less).
- Take account of drug interactions; for example, co-prescribing anti-inflammatories with ACE
inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers may pose particular risks to renal function.
- Avoid the use of topical antibiotics as these are unsuitable for the management of any class of
cellulitis.
- Monitor temperature and consider hydration.
- Elevate the affected limb and use a bed cradle to avoid irritation or increased pain caused by
contact with sheets.
- Conduct pro-active management of blistering, including aseptic aspiration, but if in doubt, seek
specialist advice.
- There may be diffuse redness or a well-demarcated edge that can be marked with a pen
in order to monitor progress.
- Once the critical stage of swelling and redness has subsided, assess the patient
for compression bandaging.

END OF PART A
THIS TEXT BOOKLET WILL BE COLLECTED
Any answers recorded here will not be marked.

N K
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B
 SAMPLE TEST 5

READING PART
READING PARTA:
A:QUESTION
QUESTION AND
AND ANSWER
ANSWER BOOKLET
BOOKLET

CANDIDATE NAME:

D.O.B.: D D M M Y Y Y Y PROFESSION:

VENUE: TEST DATE:

Starting at the left, print your Candidate

Number and fill in the corresponding circle
below each number using a 2B pencil.
Example:

CANDIDATE DECLARATION

2 5 By signing this, you agree not to disclose or use in any way

(other than to take the test) or assist any other person to
disclose or use any OET test or sub-test content. If you cheat
or assist in any cheating, use any unfair practice, break any of
the rules or regulations, or ignore any advice or information, you
may be disqualified and your results may not be issued at the
sole discretion of CBLA. CBLA also reserves its right to take
further disciplinary action against you and to pursue any other
remedies permitted by law. If a candidate is suspected of and
investigated for malpractice, their personal details and details of
the investigation may be passed to a third party where required.

CANDIDATE SIGNATURE:

TIME: 15 MINUTES

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
DO NOT open this Question and Answer Booklet or the Text Booklet until you are told to do so.
Write your answers in the spaces provided in this Question and Answer Booklet.
You must answer the questions within the 15-minute time limit.
One mark will be granted for each correct answer.
Answer ALL questions. Marks are NOT deducted for incorrect answers.
At the end of the 15 minutes, hand in this Question and Answer Booklet and the Text Booklet.
DO NOT remove OET material from the test room.

www.oet.com
© Cambridge Boxhill Language Assessment – ABN 51 988 559 414

1
 Part A
TIME: 15 minutes

• Look at the four texts, A-D, in the separate Text Booklet.

• For each question, 1-20, look through the texts, A-D, to find the relevant information.

• Write your answers in the spaces provided in this Question Paper.

• Answer all the questions within the 15-minute time limit.

• Your answers should only be taken from Texts A-D and must be correctly spelt..

Cellulitis: Questions

Questions 1- 8

For each question, 1-8, decide which text (A, B, C or D) the information comes from. Write the letter A, B, C or D
in the space provided. You may use any letter more than once.

In which text can you find information about

1 treatment for cellulitis caused by less common bacteria?

2 a reason for drawing around the area affected by cellulitis?

3 a system for determining where and how best to treat patients with cellulitis?

4 symptoms that may be experienced before the infection is visible?

5 equipment for ensuring that patients’ legs are more comfortable in bed?

6 alternative medication for cellulitis patients who cannot tolerate one type of
antibiotics?

7 how to deal with the infection site after the swelling has begun to reduce?

8 who should be consulted regarding pharmacotherapy for cellulitis?

Questions 9-14

Answer each of the questions, 9-14, with a word or short phrase from one of the texts. Each answer may include
words, numbers or both. You should not write full sentences.

9 Which antibiotic formulation is not suitable for treatment of cellulitis?

10 Which pre-existing weight-related condition would prompt a Class 2 categorisation?

 11 What single dose of IV benzylpenicillin should be administered to a Class 4 patient?

12 What may be impaired if anti-inflammatories are given to patients who take ACE inhibitors?

13 What is the single dose of oral flucloxacillin recommended for the least serious category of cellulitis?

14 What is the maximum single dose of IV clindamycin recommended for a patient with Class 4 cellulitis?

Questions 15-20

Complete each of the sentences, 15-20, with a word or short phrase from one of the texts. Each answer may
include words, numbers or both.

15 It may be necessary to carry out of blisters caused

by cellulitis.

16 When prescribing anti-inflammatories, may be used as an

alternative to ibuprofen.

17 A patient may have been exposed to infection by swimming in surface water or

using .

18 Conditions such as or even metastatic cancer may be mistaken

for cellulitis.

19 Patients with exacerbating cellulitis, a compromised immune system, and those

with should be hospitalised.

20 Patients suffering from can experience repeat episodes of

cellulitis.

END OF PART A
THIS QUESTION PAPER WILL BE COLLECTED
Any answers recorded here will not be marked.

N K
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 SAMPLE TEST 5

READING PARTS B&C: QUESTION AND ANSWER BOOKLET

CANDIDATE NAME:

D.O.B.: D D M M Y Y Y Y PROFESSION:

VENUE: TEST DATE:

Starting at the left, print your Candidate

Number and fill in the corresponding circle
below each number using a 2B pencil.
Example:

CANDIDATE DECLARATION

2 5 By signing this, you agree not to disclose or use in any way

(other than to take the test) or assist any other person to
disclose or use any OET test or sub-test content. If you cheat
or assist in any cheating, use any unfair practice, break any of
the rules or regulations, or ignore any advice or information, you
may be disqualified and your results may not be issued at the
sole discretion of CBLA. CBLA also reserves its right to take
further disciplinary action against you and to pursue any other
remedies permitted by law. If a candidate is suspected of and
investigated for malpractice, their personal details and details of
the investigation may be passed to a third party where required.

CANDIDATE SIGNATURE:

TIME: 45 MINUTES

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
DO NOT open this Question and Answer Booklet until you are told to do so.
One mark will be granted for each correct answer.
Answer ALL questions. Marks are NOT deducted for incorrect answers.
At the end of the test, hand in this Question and Answer Booklet.
DO NOT remove OET material from the test room.

HOW TO ANSWER THE QUESTIONS

Mark your answers on this Question and Answer Booklet by filling in the circle using a 2B pencil. Example: A
B
C

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© Cambridge Boxhill Language Assessment – ABN 51 988 559 414

1
 Part B

In this part of the test, there are six short extracts relating to the work of health professionals. For questions 1-6,
choose the answer (A, B or C) which you think fits best according to the text. A
B
Fill the circle in completely. Example: C

1. According to the notice, the course is only available to nurses who

A wish to apply for a hospital internship.

B are prepared to pay for the course themselves.

C are already employed in a related field.

NOTICE

Emergency Nurse Practitioner (ENP) Minor Injury Course

We are pleased to announce that the hospital's ENP service will be running a Minor Injury Course.

The aim of the course is to prepare experienced registered nurses working within emergency, primary

care and walk-in environments to provide a high level of autonomous care for patients presenting with

minor trauma.

The ENP Minor Injury Course structure has recently been changed. There will no longer be an additional

clinical placement, and course applicants will therefore be required to complete all their clinical

competencies in their own clinical setting with a designated mentor, with whom we will correspond in

advance of the course. Therefore, only applications from registered nurses working in a nursing role on a

permanent basis in a relevant area such as the emergency department or minor injuries unit within their

organisation can be considered and their place will need to be funded by their organisation, rather than

self-funded.
2. The guideline about breast pumps

A restricts their removal from the ward.

B provides operating instructions.

C indicates times of unavailability.

Maternity Ward Guideline 4.3.7: Electric breast pumps

• All inpatient areas that care for infants of expressing or breastfeeding mothers have been allocated
electric breast pumps. These should stay on their allocated ward except for when they are
being cleaned. They are exclusively for use in the infants' ward area and should not be given
to parents to take to their own accommodation.

• In addition to the ward-based pumps, there are expressing rooms containing electric breast pumps
around the hospital. All the expressing rooms can be used by mothers of patients in any ward area as
well as by mothers visiting outpatients.

• Breast pumps are now all tagged to enable pumps to be tracked and found quickly.

• A breast pump can be shared between mothers on a ward but should be wiped down by the mother
after each use. Breast pumps are cleaned by the Hospital Sterilisation and Decontamination
Unit weekly.
3. According to the policy, what must the Registered Nurse do when a patient is discharged?

A check the clarity of aftercare instructions

B liaise with other health professionals

C ensure easy accessibility to patient data

Hospital Discharge Policy 4.1.5 Registered Nurse

Registered Nurses will have the responsibility for ensuring advice on discharge is provided to patients
and, if required, relevant onward referrals are made including the booking of future outpatient
appointments. The Registered Nurse must ensure that all relevant documentation is complete and
accurate.

Registered Nurses will ensure effective handover (both verbal and written) of patients’ assessment
and on-going care needs. They will also be responsible (with the support of the discharge coordinator,
where appropriate) for day-to-day co-ordination of discharge and act as a point of contact and conduit
for effective communication for all members of the multi-disciplinary team. They must ensure that all
requirements to facilitate a safe discharge are in place: this may include dressings, medication, and any
equipment.
4. This notice provides information about

A the potential dangers that NGTs pose to patients.

B the precautions to be followed during the procedure.

C the correct technique for inserting a nasogastric tube.

NOTICE

Nasogastric tube (NGT)

By inserting a nasogastric tube, you are gaining access to the stomach and its contents. This enables
you to drain gastric contents, decompress the stomach, obtain a specimen of the gastric contents, or
introduce a passage into the GI tract. This will allow you to treat gastric immobility and bowel obstruction,
and permit drainage in drug overdosage or poisoning. NG tubes can be used to aid in the prevention of
vomiting and aspiration and for assessment of GI bleeding. They can also be used for enteral feeding
initially.

The potential for contact with a patient's blood/body fluids while starting an NG is present and increases
with the inexperience of the operator. Gloves must be worn while starting an NG; and if the risk of
vomiting is high, the operator should consider face and eye protection as well as a gown.
5. In this policy extract, what point is made about clinical guidelines?

A Their content must be approved by all relevant staff.

B They are a set of recommendations rather than regulations.

C Ignoring them for no reason is likely to result in disciplinary action.

Clinical Guidelines

The development, introduction and use of guidelines is intended to ensure consistent care to all patients
and reduce risks of errors and incidents through ensuring the whole clinical team is working in an
informed, consistent, and clearly understood way. The policy aims to ensure that clinical guidelines are
developed and agreed, keeping all key staff involved and informed as well as reflecting best practice. It
is important to recognise that Clinical Guidelines are not mandatory and are not a substitute for clinical
judgement. However, where guidelines are not followed, clinicians should be able to account for why a
decision not to adhere to them has been taken. In these situations, it is good practice to record this in
the patient notes. Clinicians also have a responsibility to report these instances to those responsible for
producing the guidelines in order that such instances can be reflected more accurately within them.
6. The protocol instructs maternity staff administering Ferinject to

A temporarily discontinue prescribing iron tablets.

B avoid giving it to breastfeeding women.

C be alert for any negative reactions.

Protocol for the use of Ferinject during pregnancy

Ferinject (Iron III carboxymaltose) has 50 mg/ml of elemental iron. It is administered by slow IV injection
or infusion with no need for a test dose. It should be avoided in the first trimester, and it should be
administered with caution during the second and third trimesters in cases of severe anemia where iron
supplements are ineffective.

Less than 1% passes into breast milk, which is unlikely to be significant. While the rate of anaphylaxis with
this preparation is low, it does carry a risk of anaphylactoid reaction. It does not require any monitoring
except for a set of observations prior to administration.

Oral iron should be avoided for 5 days after the administration of Ferinject. A follow up full blood count
should be performed at 2-3 weeks (adapt to clinical scenario if necessary) and the GP notified of the
treatment and need for continuation of iron.
 Part C

In this part of the test, there are two texts about different aspects of healthcare. For questions 7-22, choose the
A
answer (A, B, C or D) which you think fits best according to the text. B
C
Fill the circle in completely. Example: D

Text 1: Planning for the future

The esteemed clinician-scientist Professor Robert Winston sparked debate recently. He avoids hiring graduates
who have achieved high first-class degrees to work in his laboratories, he said, because experience has taught him
that they are less likely to be well-rounded and good team players. Many hard-working and gifted students may
feel aggrieved by his approach, but it is refreshing to see public acknowledgement that recruitment strategies must
assess more than just academic ability. A similar debate has also resurfaced about medical school admissions, with
senior clinicians and medical educators reiterating the need for a holistic application system to identify the most
promising future doctors.

A prevailing problem is how to decide on a uniform description of the traits that should be sought in the doctors of
tomorrow. After all, graduates from medical school are expected to go on to pursue careers in specialties as diverse
as neurosurgery, dermatology, and microbiology. Clearly, these require different skills and personality types. So,
can one single recruitment strategy identify a generic set of desirable traits for all future doctors?

Boston University Medical School is confident that this is possible. Using applicants’ interviews, essays and letters
of reference to identify evidence of service engagement, cultural sensitivity and emotional resilience, they attempt
to match universally important traits with elements of applicant data that reveal or predict them.

The medical workforce, meanwhile, continues to evolve in response to the changing demographics and health
needs of the population. The Centre for Workforce Intelligence is the UK authority on workforce planning and
development and has recommended that reductions are needed in specialties such as general surgery, obstetrics
and gynaecology, and anaesthesia, and that increases in training posts for general practice should continue.
According to its analysis, an overall decrease of 167 entry-level training posts for specialties based at hospitals,
and an increase of 450 in general-practice training posts, would correct current imbalances. The UK Department of
Health has also vowed to tackle this specialty mismatch and has promised to make the two specialties currently
under most pressure, general practice and emergency medicine, more attractive to new doctors.
With increasing superspecialisation, practitioners in secondary-care disciplines tend to be world experts in
narrow clinical areas. They may be enticed by the glamour of academia, but they often interact with relatively few
patients during their careers. Generalists, meanwhile, have a far greater volume of clinical interactions and form
relationships with countless patients. This has a different type of glamour, related to the unique opportunity to share
everyday patient experiences. Indeed, the best general practitioners are invariably those who have mastered their
unit of clinical interaction, the consultation. The very human skills of dealing with uncertainty, discussing patients’
rational and irrational concerns, and developing trust, are vital to maintaining high-quality care in general practice.

Perhaps the best way to attract doctors to this discipline is therefore to encourage the selection of future clinicians
who are likely to have these traits in the first place. Although Boston University Medical School’s admissions
system may not be perfect, its innovation shows that, with more time and thought, medical school recruitment can
be improved and made more holistic. It seems obvious that medical school admissions systems should be guided
by workforce requirements. Naturally, intellectual achievements will always be important, and the pace of modern
evidence-based medicine certainly demands bright and inquisitive minds. However, the problems of multimorbidity
and an ageing population are very real, and there can be little doubt that future health systems will require well-
rounded generalists who have the skills to deal with presentations across the biopsychosocial spectrum.

A holistic admissions process is likely to facilitate the recruitment of suitably skilled people, who will appreciate the
satisfaction of a lifetime building human relationships. So perhaps instead of coercing existing doctors towards
facing the generalist challenges, the UK Department of Health would be better advised to invest in the medical
school admissions process and re-evaluate recruitment to the profession altogether.
Text 1: Questions 7-14

7. What is the writer’s reaction to Professor Winston’s strategy?

A He approves of the idea behind it.

B He is surprised by the theory it is based on.

C He worries about the implications it may have.

D He is disappointed by the narrowness of its focus.

8. The writer’s purpose in the second paragraph is to highlight

A the personal qualities needed for a career in medicine.

B the difficulty of knowing which specialty fits each personality best.

C the extensive choice of career options open to medical graduates.

D the challenge of assessing candidates’ suitability for a medical career.

9. What does the word ‘them’ in the third paragraph refer to?

A people applying for places at medical school

B aspects of medical school applicants’ personalities

C documents relating to applications for medical school

D grades which applicants are likely to achieve at medical school

10. The fourth paragraph focuses on the

A predicted lack of qualified medical professionals in the UK.

B reasons why fewer doctors are choosing to go into general practice.

C ways to ensure the demand for certain medical professionals is met.

D need to maintain a broad range of specialties in the medical workforce.

11. The expression ‘vowed to tackle’ is used to stress

A a commitment to a certain objective.

B an unwillingness to change direction.

C a reaction to some unexpected criticism.

D an acknowledgement of a miscalculation.

12. What point does the writer make about superspecialisation?

A Clinicians have little opportunity to develop certain valuable skills.

B Generalist practitioners are having to deal with an increasing workload.

C Specialists may be unaware of work carried out in other branches of medicine.

D Some specialties attract clinicians with less interest in direct contact with patients.

13. In the sixth paragraph, the writer says that medical schools should

A ensure that academic standards remain a priority.

B encourage graduates to become general practitioners.

C teach students how to build relationships with patients.

D favour applicants who possess good interpersonal skills.

14. What does the writer suggest about the UK Department of Health in the final paragraph?

A It underestimates the scale of the challenge.

B Its approach to solving the problem is misguided.

C Its grasp of the population’s healthcare needs is limited.

D It has misunderstood the underlying causes of the situation.

Text 2: Open patient records

In the US, the expansion of patient access to electronic medical records has been accompanied by numerous
studies investigating the experiences of patients and clinicians. Starting from about 2000, the use of patient
portals to display test results spread rapidly, and in 2010, 100 primary care doctors volunteered to open their free
text entries to 10,000 of their patients. By 2019, more than 50 million patients in the US had access to what their
clinicians wrote about their medical care. In 2021, the US federal government mandated that patients should have
easy electronic access at no charge to all information held in their electronic health records. Today, patients can
use readily available patient portals to access all the information a clinician might use to make decisions about
their care in both inpatient and outpatient settings, including primary care and specialist notes, laboratory test
results, and imaging reports. So, what might doctors in other countries whose governments are in the process of
implementing transparent medical records learn from the US experience?

US clinicians anticipated increased workloads as, from about 2000, patients gained access to test results and, a
decade later, to visit notes. Primary care doctors worried about upset and confused patients contacting them or
asking time-consuming questions during visits, and requesting changes to what had been written. These concerns
were largely unrealised, and at the end of the year-long 2010 pilot, none of the participating doctors chose to turn
off access to notes. In fact, their healthcare organisations chose instead to expand access to notes written by all
clinicians. These results have been replicated in hundreds of provider organisations across the country, and follow-
up studies indicate that clinicians’ views of open notes become more positive over time.

Some studies suggest clinicians are changing the way they document in the wake of open medical records. In
one, around 37% of doctors reported spending at least ‘some’ more time writing notes, but preliminary inquiries
using the timestamps from electronic health records suggest that any increase in time spent in documentation
is miniscule (fractions of a second). It is likely that doctors learn to think differently about how to document,
particularly when new to the practice of open medical records. Such additional cognitive burden may make it feel as
if they are spending more time writing, even though direct measurements indicate no change. As doctors become
accustomed to writing in this way, such strain may well ease.

Clinicians worried initially about how transparent medical records may engender adversarial patient-clinician
relationships and increase doctors’ liability. Trusting relationships are known to diminish the risk of litigation, even
when errors occur, and the US’s overall experience suggests that open and transparent communication increases
trust among patients, families, and clinicians. The movement to encourage disclosure and apology when problems
arise, which has spread across US states in recent years, provides further reassurance. Studies indicate that
increased transparency, disclosure, and apology may decrease the chance that patients and families will file
lawsuits. Furthermore, insurers state that open medical records do not seem to increase the risk that patients will
allege malpractice.
Further challenges accompanying the rollout of open medical records remain. Clinicians have concerns about
the wellbeing of their most vulnerable patients, such as those experiencing domestic violence. US regulations
allow clinicians to withhold information from the patient portal if they believe it might harm an individual patient or
another person. Yet it is unlikely that all doctors and patients are aware of this exception. Healthcare organisations
could help ensure the safety of such vulnerable patients by providing training to clinicians and patients. Electronic
health record vendors could also design provider functions that facilitate trauma informed care, including options to
create confidential notes and enhanced privacy settings that allow patients greater control over what information is
available on the portal.

Another issue currently under debate in the US is when test results should be released to patients. In the past,
with the common-sense expectation that clinicians would first communicate with patients, most health systems
chose to delay the release of some findings, such as pathology examinations, medical imaging reports, or cardiac
monitoring. In contrast, the new US rules mandate instantaneous release of virtually all results, regardless of
whether they suggest bad tidings.

Challenges such as these are not insolvable, but they will take a creative combination of cultural and technical
adaptations to resolve. All new medicines are accompanied by side effects that affect some patients adversely, and
for some patients, fully transparent records may be contraindicated. But in the US, the benefits of open medical
records for all involved seem to well outweigh the risks. Patients consistently report clinically meaningful effects,
and any potentially negative effects on practitioners have been limited and manageable.
Text 2: Questions 15-22

15. In the first paragraph we learn that, in the USA, allowing patients access to their own medical records

A has been driven by doctors.

B was prompted by targeted research.

C was made possible by advances in technology.

D happened over a relatively short period of time.

16. What point does the writer make about open access medical records in the second paragraph?

A Healthcare organisations decided to implement them more quickly than required.

B Doctors made incorrect assumptions about the effects they would have.

C Their implementation has affected doctors more than patients.

D Pilot studies on them didn’t go as expected.

17. What is the writer doing in the third paragraph?

A disputing the results of research into writing notes

B making suggestions about the best way to write notes

C offering a theory about doctors’ perceptions of writing notes

D exploring the role that experience plays in writing effective notes

18. In the writer’s opinion, the policy of open records has not led to an increase in lawsuits because

A knowing that patients can access their records means doctors feel compelled to apologise for errors.

B having access to information leads people to have greater confidence in their doctors.

C other changes in the US have made legal battles less attractive for patients.

D sharing knowledge means doctors can learn from the mistakes of others.
19. In the fourth paragraph, the writer believes that ‘further assurance’ is being given to

A patients.

B families.

C clinicians.

D US states.

20. What point does the writer make about vulnerable patients?

A Current legislation is not robust enough to protect them.

B Keeping their data safe is not just the responsibility of doctors.

C They are insufficiently informed about the way open records may endanger them.

D Keeping information from them puts them more at risk than including it in their electronic records.

21. In the sixth paragraph, the writer suggests that

A there is some news which is best given by a doctor.

B some US health systems are trying to bypass a new rule.

C test results should be checked by a doctor before patients get access to them.

D new rules on access to results fail to distinguish between different types of test.

22. In the final paragraph, the phrase ‘creative combination’ is used to suggest that making open records
work

A is the responsibility of both patients and doctors.

B may require people and organisations to think in new ways.

C means accepting that different groups of patients will use them differently.

D will depend on people accepting that there are both risks and benefits to using them.

END OF READING TEST

THIS BOOKLET WILL BE COLLECTED
 N K
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 NURSAMPLE05

WRITING: QUESTION BOOKLET

CANDIDATE NAME:

D.O.B.: D D M M Y Y Y Y PROFESSION:

VENUE: TEST DATE:

Starting at the left, print your Candidate

Number and fill in the corresponding circle
below each number using a 2B pencil.
Example:

CANDIDATE DECLARATION

2 5 By signing this, you agree not to disclose or use in any way

(other than to take the test) or assist any other person to
disclose or use any OET test or sub-test content. If you cheat
or assist in any cheating, use any unfair practice, break any of
the rules or regulations, or ignore any advice or information, you
may be disqualified and your results may not be issued at the
sole discretion of CBLA. CBLA also reserves its right to take
further disciplinary action against you and to pursue any other
remedies permitted by law. If a candidate is suspected of and
investigated for malpractice, their personal details and details of
the investigation may be passed to a third party where required.

CANDIDATE SIGNATURE:

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
You must write your answer for the Writing sub-test in the Writing Answer Booklet.
You must NOT remove OET material from the test room.

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1
Occupational English Test

WRITING SUB-TEST: NURSING

TIME ALLOWED: READING TIME: 5 MINUTES
WRITING TIME: 40 MINUTES

Read the case notes and complete the writing task which follows.

Notes:

Assume that today’s date is 15 May 2021. You are a nurse in Oldtown Hospital, responsible for the care of an
elderly patient who was admitted after a fall. He is now ready to be discharged.

PATIENT DETAILS:
Name: George Gale (Mr)
DOB: 24 Apr 1936, 85 y.o.
Address: 14 Long Street, Oldtown

Social background:
Retired retail manager
Widower (wife died 2019)
Son, 47 y.o., works abroad
No family close by
Living alone in own flat, level 2, no lift
Socialises w. neighbours
Independent, cooks, daily walks to shops
Social drinker, smoker – 10 cigs/day

Medical history: 2003: Osteoarthritis diag.

2009: Hypertension diag.
2013: GORD (gastro-oesophageal reflux disease) – self treated with antacid tablets
2019: Non-specific colitis – ongoing monitoring, no treatment required

Medications: Paracetamol 500mg 2 tablets 4x/day (osteoarthritis)

Felodipine 5mg 1x/day (hypertension)

Presenting complaint:
Disorientation & fever (following fall)
Hospital admission:
10 May 2021:

Subjective: Pt reports fall 09 May – while brushing teeth, felt weak, ‘legs gave way’, fell backwards w.
headstrike, approx. 5hrs lying on floor
Neighbours heard call for help around 0300 10 May, called ambulance

2 wks before fall: single episode of vomiting, palpitations, dysuria

Objective: Confusion, disorientation

Temp: 38.1°C (high), BP: 155/80 (elevated), Pulse: 86 bpm (normal), RR: 26/min (elevated)
Urinalysis: ≥ 100,000 cfu/ml (high), 2 wbc/hpf

Diagnosis: Urinary tract infection (UTI) – ?cause of fall

Treatment Record:

10 - 14 May 2021:
IV antibiotics: amoxicillin 1 x 750mg/8 hrs & Pt’s regular meds continued
Observations: nil dizziness, nil palpitations
Temp: 37.2°C (normal), BP: 130/80 (normal), Pulse: 86 bpm (normal), RR: 20/min (normal)

15 May 2021: Ready for discharge to nursing home for temporary care
Concerns:
• Pt lives alone, no home help
• Keen to return to own home ASAP
• Significantly lowered mobility 30 min/day of physical activity to be encouraged
• Still episodes of confusion assessment for independent living recommended

Plan: Write to head nurse at nursing home re further care required

Writing Task:
Using the information given in the case notes, write a letter of discharge to Ms Gold, the Head Nurse at Primrose
Nursing Home. In your letter briefly outline Mr Gale’s history as well as your concerns and recommendations.
Address the letter to Ms Jane Gold, Head Nurse, Primrose Nursing Home, 3 Blackwood Street, Oldtown.
In your answer:
• Expand the relevant notes into complete sentences
• Do not use note form
• Use letter format
The body of the letter should be approximately 180–200 words.
Any answers recorded here will not be marked.

N K
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 WANS000000

WRITING: ANSWER BOOKLET

CANDIDATE NAME:

D.O.B.: D D M M Y Y Y Y PROFESSION:

VENUE: TEST DATE:

Starting at the left, print your Candidate

Number and fill in the corresponding circle
below each number using a 2B pencil.
Example:

CANDIDATE DECLARATION

2 5 By signing this, you agree not to disclose or use in any way

(other than to take the test) or assist any other person to
disclose or use any OET test or sub-test content. If you cheat
or assist in any cheating, use any unfair practice, break any of
the rules or regulations, or ignore any advice or information, you
may be disqualified and your results may not be issued at the
sole discretion of CBLA. CBLA also reserves its right to take
further disciplinary action against you and to pursue any other
remedies permitted by law. If a candidate is suspected of and
investigated for malpractice, their personal details and details of
the investigation may be passed to a third party where required.

CANDIDATE SIGNATURE:

TIME ALLOWED
READING TIME: 5 MINUTES
WRITING TIME: 40 MINUTES

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. Reading time: 5 minutes
During this time you may study the writing task and notes. You MUST NOT write, highlight, underline or make any notes.

2. Writing time: 40 minutes

3. Use the back page for notes and rough draft only. Notes and rough draft will NOT be marked.

Please write your answer clearly on page 1 and page 2.

Cross out anything you DO NOT want the examiner to consider.

4. You must write your answer for the Writing sub-test in this Answer Booklet using pen or pencil.

5. You must NOT remove OET material from the test room.

www.oet.com
© Cambridge Boxhill Language Assessment – ABN 51 988 559 414

1
Please record your answer on this page within the lines provided.
(Only answers on Page 2 and Page 3 within the lines provided will be marked.)

2
Please record your answer on this page within the lines provided.
(Only answers on Page 2 and Page 3 within the lines provided will be marked.)

3
Space for notes and rough draft. Only your answers on Page 2 and Page 3 will be marked.

4
 NURSample05

Roleplay No. 1/2

SPEAKING: ROLE-PLAY BOOKLET

CANDIDATE NAME:

D.O.B.: D D M M Y Y Y Y PROFESSION:

VENUE: TEST DATE:

Starting at the left, print your Candidate

Number and fill in the corresponding circle
below each number using a 2B pencil.
Example:

CANDIDATE DECLARATION

2 5 By signing this, you agree not to disclose or use in any way

(other than to take the test) or assist any other person to
disclose or use any OET test or sub-test content. If you cheat
or assist in any cheating, use any unfair practice, break any of
the rules or regulations, or ignore any advice or information, you
may be disqualified and your results may not be issued at the
sole discretion of CBLA. CBLA also reserves its right to take
further disciplinary action against you and to pursue any other
remedies permitted by law. If a candidate is suspected of and
investigated for malpractice, their personal details and details of
the investigation may be passed to a third party where required.

CANDIDATE SIGNATURE:

INSTRUCTION TO CANDIDATES
Please confirm with the Interlocutor that your roleplay card number and colour match the Interlocutor card before you begin.

Interlocutor to complete only

ID No: Passport: £ National ID: £ Alternative ID approved: £

Speaking sub-test:

ID document sighted? £ Photo match? £ Signature match? £ Did not attend? £

Interlocutor name:

Interlocutor signature:

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1
 OET SAMPLE TEST
ROLEPLAYER CARD NO. 5 NURSING

Clinic

PATIENT You are 51 years old and were overexposed to the sun in your teens. You have just
had a lesion removed from your hand following a diagnosis of squamous cell
carcinoma. The nurse has come to remove the stitches.

• When asked, say the doctor told you that you had something called squamous
cell carcinoma, which you think is just another name for skin cancer; you’re a little
worried.
• Say you have a better understanding of what squamous cell carcinoma is now.
Ask if you’re likely to need more surgery to remove other lesions in the future.
• When asked, say you always wear a high factor sunscreen, 30 or higher. You
wear a hat when you’re out in the sun, but you think it’s too late because the
damage has already been done; you spent too much time in the sun in your
teenage years.
• Say you’ll make sure to look after your skin from now on. When asked, say your
wound has been fine; there’s no pain or discharge but you still think it’s too early
to have the stitches out.
• Say you’re ready to have the stitches removed.

© Cambridge Boxhill Language Assessment SAMPLE TEST

OET SAMPLE TEST

CANDIDATE CARD NO. 5 NURSING

Clinic

NURSE Your patient is 51 years old and has had a lesion removed from his/her hand
following a diagnosis of squamous cell carcinoma. He/she was overexposed to the
sun in his/her teens. You have come to remove the stitches.

• Confirm reason for visit (removal of stitches, wound cleaning/redressing, etc.).

Find out if patient has any concerns.
• Give information about squamous cell carcinoma (type of skin cancer: caused by
sun exposure/ultra violet radiation, etc.). Reassure patient about effectiveness of
surgery (e.g., lesion removed, cancer unlikely to spread, etc.). Stress importance
of patient skin monitoring (e.g., checking for new/changing spots, regular doctor
check-ups, etc.).
• Resist request for information about further surgery (e.g., patient to speak with
doctor, etc.). Find out about patient’s habits when in sun (sunscreen, hats, etc.).
• Stress need for ongoing prevention (e.g., continuing to cover up when in sun:
prevention of further damage, etc.). Find out about patient’s wound post-surgery
(any pain, discharge, etc.).
• Emphasise reasons for removal of stitches now (e.g., wound healing, assessed
by doctor, typically removed after 7–14 days, etc.). Advise on aftercare
(e.g., keeping wound: clean, covered, dry, etc.). Establish patient’s consent to
have stitches removed.
© Cambridge Boxhill Language Assessment SAMPLE TEST