Chapter 1

1. Whether an organization is classified as a business or not is

dependent on its:
A. Vision
B. Mission
C. Primary objective
D. Plan

2. For a business, which of the following would be classified as

secondary objectives?
A. The business’s market share target for next year.
B. The business’s mission statement.
C. The business’s financial objective of owners’ wealth maximization.
D. The business’s stock price increasing.

3. An entity ensures it can meet the needs of the present without

compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own
needs. Which of the following most accurately describes the way the
entity is behaving?
A. Responsibly.
B. Ethically.
C. Sustainably.
D. Morally.
4. Which of the following groups consists of only secondary
stakeholders?
A. Directors, Managers, Employees, Customers.
B. Shareholders, Directors, Lenders, Suppliers.
C. Local community, Governments, Managers, Shareholders.
D. Shareholders, Suppliers, Lenders, Employees.
5. If a manger maintains or increases market share, ensures the
survival, and discourages competition, the objective of the business
will be:
A. Wealth maximization.
B. Profit maximization.
C. Share price maximization.
D. Revenue maximization.
6. Company A has increased sales revenue by 8% in each of the last
few years. A stated objective of Borneo is to increase sales revenue by
10%. Which key characteristic of quantitative operational goals does
Company A's objective lack?
A. Being specific.
B. Being measurable.
C. Being achievable.
D. Being time-bound.
7. The followings are examples of not-for-profit organizations,
excepting:
A. Charities.
B. Local authorities.
C. Government agencies.
D. A multinational food producer.
8. Which of the following is NOT the characteristics of public sector?
A. Owned by the nation and managed by the government.
B. Provides the public goods and government services.
C. Consists of all privately owner, profit-oriented businesses.
D. Encompasses universal, critical services such as national defense,
police protection, taxation, and various social programs.
9. The combined output of individuals working together exceeds their
individual output refers to which of the organization’s advantages?
A. Time saving.
B. Knowledge sharing.
C. Expertise pooling.
D. Synergy effect.
10. Letting people specialize in what they do best and pool their
expertise refer to which of the organization’s advantages?
A. Time saving.
B. Knowledge sharing.
C. Expertise pooling.
D. Synergy effect.
11. SMART in characteristics of operational objectives of a business
means:
A. Special, Measurable, Achievable, Realistic and Time-bound.
B. Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant and Time-bound.
C. Special, Managerial, Assessable, Realistic and Time-bound.
D. Specific, Measurable, Assessable, Relevant and Time-bound.

12. Which of the following statements best describes the

sustainability?
A. The ability to increase positive impacts and decrease negative ones of
a business.
B. The ability to meet the needs of the present without compromising
the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.
C. The ability to use both tangible and intangible assets at the present.
D. The ability to deploy natural capital in order to satisfy the
stakeholders.
13. Which of the following is NOT the characteristics of private sector?
A. Consists of all privately owner, for-profit businesses in the economy.
B. Tends to make up a large share of the economy in free market.
C. Owned by the nation and managed by the government.
D. Has a goal of making profit.
14. ABC is a charity providing youth services in large cities. The chief
executive is involved in preparing a document outlining the services
provided by the charity. She wants to stress that it always seeks to
operate at maximum efficiency. In stressing this aspect of the charity’s
operations, the chief executive is highlighting the charity’s:
A. Vision.
B. Mission.
C. Plan.
D. Secondary objective..
15. Company X runs bus services for local authorities. The chairman
of company has made the following two statements:

Statement (1): Increasing shareholder wealth is a secondary business

objective for the company.

Statement (2): Our primary business objective is long term client

satisfaction.

Identify whether each statement is accurate.

A. Statement (1) accurate; Statement (2) inaccurate.
B. Statement (1) inaccurate; Statement (2) inaccurate.
C. Statement (1) accurate; Statement (2) accurate.
D. Statement (1) inaccurate; Statement (2) accurate.
 Chapter 2

1. Dividing a market into homogeneous groups of potential customers

who may be treated similarly for marketing purposes is known as:
A. Market mixing.
B. Promotion.
C. Segmentation.
D. Demographics.
2. The four major influences on an organization’s pricing policy are:
A. Cost-effectiveness, competitors, competence and customers.
B. Cost-effectiveness, commitment, competence and congruence.
C. Costs, commitment, corporate objectives and congruence.
D. Costs, competitors, corporate objectives and customers.
3. In relation to operations management, unit costs will be lowest if
there is:
A. High volume output of a high variety of items.
B. Low volume output of a high variety of items.
C. High volume output of a low variety of items.
D. Low volume output of a low variety of items.
4. Research into products which have obvious commercial or practical
use is called:
A. Market research.
 B. Pure research.
C. Applied research.
D. Process research.
5. Which type of business culture is the most relevant to the public
sector organizations?
A. Internal process culture.
B. Rational goal culture.
C. Open system culture.
D. Human relations culture.

6. Which of the following is NOT the advantage of using intermediaries

in distribution?
A. Lower costs.
B. More efficient logistically.
C. Producers may not have sufficient resources to sell direct.
D. No need to share profit margins.
7. The five rights of procurement mix include:
A. Quality, quantity, price, place, time.
B. Quality, quantity, price, place, people.
C. Quality, quantity, price, place, promotion.
D. Quality, quantity, price, product, time.

8. Which of the following qualities are typical of a human relations

culture:
A. Flexible and Outward-looking.
B. Flexible and Inward-looking.
C. Control and Outward-looking.
D. Control and Inward-looking.

9. A rational goal culture is best described as:

 A. Goals are known and unchanged; methods and procedures are
defined.
B. The business is structured and controlled to deal effectively with the
outside environments.
C. The business must be highly flexible and open to new ideas.
D. The business aims to its existence and the well-being of staff.

10. Anticipating customer needs and then developing new ideas for
products and services to satisfy these needs would be a key function
of which department?

A. Purchasing.
B. Manufacturing.
C. Procurement.
D. Research and development.
11. To be market-oriented, a business should put whom in the center
of its marketing strategy?
A. Suppliers.
B. Consumers.
C. Investors.
D. Debt holders.

12. Which of the following variables in the marketing mix is NOT

applied for tangible products?
A. Product.
B. Processes.
C. Promotion.
D. Place.

13. Which of the following is NOT the characteristic of top managers?

 A. Very numerous in number.
B. Responsible for overall direction and performance of the business.
C. Holding the most power.
D. Determining corporate strategy.

14. Which of the following is NOT included in consumer durables?

A. White goods.
B. Brown goods.
C. Services.
D. Soft goods.

15. Which of the following factors is classified as hygiene factors by

Frederick Herzberg?
A. A sense of achievement.
B. Working conditions of a job.
C. Recognition.
D. Responsibility.

16. Which of the following factors is classified as hygiene factors by

Frederick Herzberg?
A. A sense of achievement.
B. Working conditions of a job.
C. Recognition.
D. Responsibility.

17. According to Henry Mintzberg, which of the following is NOT the

action that managers do in terms of decisional role?
A. Checking data received and passing it on to relevant people.
B. Dealing with an awkward client.
C. Allocating resources to operations.
 D. Negotiating for what they need.

18. According to Bruce Tuckman, the order of four stages through

which groups proceed are:
A. Forming, Norming, Storming, Performing.
B. Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing.
C. Forming, Storming, Performing, Norming.
D. Forming, Norming, Performing, Storming.

19. What is the correct ascending order of accountability in the

management hierarchy?

A. Direct operational staff, First-line managers, Middle managers, Top

managers.
B. Direct operational staff, Senior managers, Middle managers, Top
managers.
C. First-line managers, Direct operational staff, Middle managers, Top
managers.
D. Middle managers, First-line managers, Direct staff, Top managers.

20. “Competence” in the Harvard four Cs model of HRM means:

A. Assess employees’ motivation, loyalty and job satisfaction.
B. Employees’ skills, abilities and potential.
C. The extent to which management and employees share a common
vision for the business.
D. Concerns operational efficiency.
 Chapter 3

1. Which of the following is Henry Mintzberg’s building blocks of an

organization?
A. Support staff.
B. Functional division.
C. Scalar chain.
D. Supervision.

2. In terms of structure, Platelet company is a wide, flat organization.

Which of the following characteristics is the company most likely to
exhibit?
A. A little need to delegate.
B. Higher administration and overhead costs.
C. Many opportunities for promotion.
D. Large spans of control.
3. Modern management theorists emphasize two core values,
including:
A. Multi-skilling and Flexibility.
B. Specification and Flexibility.
C. Multi-skilling and Stability.
D. Specification and Stability.
4. Which of the following is NOT the feature of entrepreneurial
structure?
A. Entrepreneur has specialist knowledge of product/service.
B. Entrepreneur has total control over running of the business.
C. Similar to Mintzberg’s simple structure.
D. Business is split into divisions.

5. The functional structure is most suitable where there is:

A. Complex or hi-tech industries.
B. Single product, stable environment and a smaller enterprise.
C. Larger, more diversified business.
D. A group of dissimilar products.

6. Which of the following is NOT the advantage of divisional structure?

A. Flexible in adapting to growth and diversification.
B. Release top management to concentrate on strategic issues.
C. Good for developing managers as they are given responsibility for
divisional profit.
D. No interdivisional trading problem.
7. Wide span of control is suitable when:
A. Subordinates do similar tasks and can help each other.
B. Subordinates do dissimilar tasks.
C. There is more non-supervisory work in a manager’s workload.
 D. Time consuming problems that a manager might have to help
subordinates with.

8. Which of the following is NOT the characteristic of tall business?

A. Narrow control spans.
B. Small group enable team members to participate in decisions.
C. A large number of steps on the promotional ladder.
D. Quick decision-making and responses.

9. Standardization of outputs in coordinating mechanism refers to:

A. Specification of results such as the setting of targets.
B. Requiring workers to have particular skills or qualifications.
C. Laying down standard operating procedures.
D. Tùy chọn .

10. Company A is being run in the business set up in the technological

industry in which innovation is the critical success factor. Company A
provides an online platform with a complex trading environment for
market participants. The company is being run by competent and
flexible operational staff who can deal with the dynamic external
environment and complex tasks. Company A would be expected to
have:
A. A simple structure.
B. A functional structure.
C. A divisional structure.
D. A matrix structure.
11. Spitzbergen company wants to decentralize as many aspects of its
activities as it can. However, it is facing difficulties in achieving the
required level of decentralization of the company’s finance function.
Which of the following characteristic is least likely to have created
difficulties in achieving decentralization?
A. Homogeneous financial requirements across the company.
B. The company’s large size.
C. The authoritarian leadership style of the finance director.
D. Poor downward communication.

12. Which of the following factors directly limits how many

subordinates should report to a single manager?
A. The size of the business.
B. Where the manager is situated in the management hierarchy.
C. How far the manager is engaged in dealings with customers and
suppliers.
D. The length of the scalar chain.
13. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of limited liability
companies?
A. Perpetual succession.
B. Separate legal personality.
C. The company’s obligation is unlimited.
D. Regulation under the Companies Act.
14. Which of the following statements about sole tradership is
correct?
A. The business has perpetual succession.
B. The owner has limited liability for unpaid business debts.
C. The business may issue securities to raise funds.
D. The business may borrow money against a fixed charge on the sole
trader’s assets.
15. A sole tradership is an organizational structure by which:
A. Two or more people agree to conduct a business with a view of profit.
 B. A single proprietor owns the business, taking all the risks, and
enjoying all the rewards of the business.
C. The existence depends on the relationship among partners.
D. The owners have limited liability for the unpaid debts.

16. The following are features of a partnership, excepting:

A. Partners take drawings from the business.
B. A share in a partnership is not a form of property and selling it can be
difficult.
C. The entity can issue securities to raise funds.
D. There is no perpetual succession.

17. The following are the advantages of a company, excepting:

A. The separate legal personality of the company.
B. The company does not need to make financial information publicly.
C. The limited liability of its shareholders.
D. Shareholders in a company can sell their shares either to other
shareholders or to outsiders.
18. Porteous company and Reynold company have formed a new
company to exploit the possibilities of a new technology. Porteous
company has a 40% stake in the new company and Reynold company
has the balance. Porteous company and Reynold company will
contribute in similar proportions to the management of the new
company. This arrangement is an example of a:
A. Licensing agreement.
B. Joint venture.
C. Strategic alliance.
D. Group structure.
19. Romulus company and Remus company have recently agreed to
cooperate to exploit the possibilities that both companies have in a
particular overseas market. No separate company has been
established for this purpose because the companies’ chief executives,
who have known each other for many years, have agreed matters
informally. This arrangement is an example of a:
A. Licensing agreement.
B. Joint venture.
C. Strategic alliance.
D. Group structure.

20. In 2014, Uber, a service provider, announced to collaborate with

Spotify which is a media and streaming service provider. By which,
Uber riders are able to stream their Spotify music playlists in the Uber
cars. This has made Uber users to have better experiences during
their rides, and simultaneously encourages them to upgrade Spotify
Premium. As the result, both brands have gained access to boarder
audiences and riders. What method of collaboration did Uber and
Spotify apply?
A. A group structure.
B. A joint venture.
C. A licensing agreement.
D. A strategic alliance.
21. Which of the following is the disadvantage of a company?
A. Separation of ownership and control.
B. Unlimited liability of its shareholders.
C. There is no perpetual succession.
D. Difficulty in transferring of interest.
22. Which of the following is NOT the disadvantage of a sole
tradership?
A. There are limits to the skills and the time of one individual.
B. Sole traders frequently overwork and find it difficult to take a
holiday.
C. It is hard to expand unless there are new ideas and new capital.
D. Owners do not have the right to participate in the day-to-day
management of the entity.

Chapter 4
1. Joe is performing a detailed strategic analysis for Smertin company.
He is working on the internal analysis. Which of the following
strategic management techniques will Joe most likely use in
undertaking his analysis?
A. Competitor analysis.
B. The value chain.
C. PESTEL analysis.
D. Five forces analysis.
2. The chief executive of Dalas company is considering several
strategic options for the company. The Johnson and Scholes criteria
against which these can be judged are:
A. Economy, Effectiveness and Efficiency.
B. Economy, Expectation and Efficiency.
C. Acceptability, Congruence and Feasibility.
D. Suitability, Feasibility and Acceptability.
3. SWOT analysis refers to the analysis of the organization’s:
A. Strength, Weakness, Opportunities, Threats.
B. Skills, Weakness, Opportunities, Threats.
C. Strength, Workload, Opportunities, Threats.
D. Strength, Weakness, Opportunities, Thrusts.
4. Abraham works as a consultant for Boots company’s strategy
project. He needs to undertake an external analysis of the company as
a part of planning review. Which of following techniques can be
applied to do this task?
A. Porter’s five forces analysis.
B. Ansoff’s Matrix.
C. The BCG Matrix.
D. Resource audit.
5. As a business consultant for ICT Company, an emerging technology
firm, Michael is conducting an industry and sector analysis by
adopting Porter’s five forces model. Which of the following factors is
NOT included in Michael’s report?
A. Threat of new entrants.
B. Power of supplier.
C. The company’s resources and capabilities.
D. Power of customers.
6. William, a strategic analyst of Castel Company recently conducted a
company’s product lines analysis by applying the BCG matrix for a
project of product development. For one particular product, code
AOF22, the model indicated that a ‘build’ strategy should be adopted.
Which of the following did the BCG matrix classify the AOF22?
A. A dog.
B. A star.
C. A cash cow.
D. A question mark.
7. Three levels of strategy from top to down are:
A. Business, Corporate, Functional.
B. Business, Corporate, Operational.
C. Corporate, Business, Functional.
D. Corporate, Operational, Business.
8. Which of the following determinants least likely belong to the
political factors in the PESTEL analysis?
A. Social welfare policy.
B. Taxation policy.
C. Size of population.
 D. Government stability.

9. In general, who will determine the corporate strategy?

A. A board of a company.
B. First-line managers.
C. Operational managers.
D. Head of department.
10. The right order of four key stages in a formal approach to strategic
planning are:
A. Analysis, choice, implementation, review and control.
B. Choice, analysis, implementation, review and control.
C. Analysis, choice, review and control, implementation.
D. Choice, implementation, analysis, review and control.
11. Which of the following tools is NOT used for internal analysis?
A. Competitor analysis.
B. Value chain.
C. Supply chain.
D. BCG matrix.
12. The sequential steps to determine the relevant strategy are:
A. Strategic options generation, Strategic options evaluation, Strategy
selection.
B. Strategic options generation, Strategy selection, Strategic options
evaluation.
C. Strategy selection, Strategic options generation, Strategic options
evaluation.
D. Strategy selection, Strategic options evaluation, Strategic options
generation.
13. PESTEL stands for:
 A. Political, Economic, Social, Technology, Ecology, and Legal.
B. Physical, Economic, Social, Technology, Environment, and Legal.
C. Political, Econometric, Sociology, Technology, Ecology, and Legal.
D. Physical, Economic, Sociology, Technology, Environment, and Legal.

14. Which of the following is NOT included in the three levels of

strategy in a business?
A. Corporate strategy.
B. Business strategy.
C. Operational strategy.
D. Political strategy.
15. The most relevant strategy for a product with high market growth
and low relative market share is:
A. Build.
B. Hold or harvest.
C. Build or harvest.
D. Hold or divest.
16. Entry barriers for new entrants might be lowered if:
A. Scale of operations increases, the cost per unit of the product falls.
B. The market as a whole is not growing.
C. Existing firms in an industry may have built up a good brand image
and strong customer loyalty over a long time period.
D. Investment requirements are low.
17. The bargaining power of customers is strong when:
A. There is a few large customers.
B. Switching costs are high.
C. Products are important to customers.
D. Products are specialized.
18. When is the bargaining power of suppliers is strong?
A. Switching costs of buyers are low.
B. Large number of suppliers relative to buyers.
C. Buyers rely heavily on sales from suppliers.
D. Substitutes are available.
19. What are the characteristics of growth stage in the product life
cycle?
A. There is a slow growth in sales. Unit costs are high because of low
output and expensive sales promotion.
B. Sales increase sharply and the product starts to make profits. As sales
and production rise, unit costs fall.
C. The rate of sales growth slows down and the product reaches a
period of maturity.
D. Sales begin to decline so that there is over-capacity of production in
the industry. Severe competition occurs, profits fall and some
producers leave the market.
20. A cash cow SBU has which of the following features?
A. A high market growth.
B. A low market growth.
C. A low relative market share.
D. A high initial investment.
 Chapter 5

1. Market risk is:

A. The economic loss suffered due to the default of a customer in the
market.
B. The risk of choosing the wrong strategy in a particular market .
C. The risk that customers do not buy the company’s products in the
expected quantities in the market.
D. The exposure to potential loss that would result from changes in
market prices or rates.
2. Two aspects of a risk must be taken into account in calculating the
potential gross risk. These factors are the:
A. Level of exposure and probability of occurrence.
B. Potential impact and probability of occurrence.
C. Potential impact and level of volatility.
D. Level of exposure and level of volatility.
3. Financial risk of the highly-geared company is most likely to
decrease in which of the following situations?
A. Increasing share capital.
B. Increasing borrowings.
C. Expanding to new markets.
D. Strengthening the competitive advantages.
4. What type of risk is NOT included in financial risk?
A. Operational risk.
B. Credit risk.
C. Liquidity risk.
D. Gearing risk.
5. Which of the following is the definition of risk?
A. The inability to predict the outcomes from an activity due to lack of
information.
B. Something is expected not to happen.
C. The possible variation in an outcome from what is expected to
happen.
D. The element of a decision which is unknown.
6.Identify the likelihood of the risk occurring, quantify the
consequence and calculating the gross risk are sequential steps for:
A. Risk response.
B. Risk reporting.
C. Risk measurement.
D. Risk control.
7. The new regulations of the government on credit for the real
estate industry is an example of:
A. Business risk.
B. Financial risk.
C. Event risk.
D. Market risk.
8. Strategy risk is:
A. The risk that the business’s objectives will not be achieved because it
chooses the wrong corporate, business or functional strategy.
B. The chance that customers will not buy the company’s products or
services in expected quantities.
C. The risk that arises in part from how the business is financed and in
part from the changes in the financial markets.
D. The risk that incurs because of inadequate or failed internal
processes, people and systems, or because of external events.
9. Product risk is:*

A. The risk that the business’s objectives will not be achieved because it
chooses the wrong corporate, business or functional strategy.
B. The chance that customers will not buy the company’s products or
services in expected quantities.
C. The risk that arises in part from how the business is financed and in
part from the changes in the financial markets.
D. The risk that incurs because of inadequate or failed internal
processes, people and systems, or because of external events.
10. Which of the following type of risk is NOT included in operational
risk?
A. Process risk.
B. People risk.
C. Gearing risk.
D. Systems risk.
11. Which of the following type of risk is NOT included in controllable
financial risk?
A. Gearing risk.
B. Market risk.
C. Credit risk.
D. Liquidity risk.

12. The greater risks for a particular business will arise when:
A. Exposure is low.
B. The underlying factor is stable.
C. The impact is severe.
D. The probability of occurrence is low.
13. The possible responses to a risk that has low probability and low
impact is:
A. Avoidance.
B. Reduction.
C. Sharing.
D. Acceptance.

14. Olam company is a wholesaler of nuts. The business signs

agreements with its major nut chains to supply nuts at the fix prices
and these prices are monthly reviewed. However, the company buys
input ingredients on the international nut market at the market
prices on the day of purchase. Which of the following risks is exposed
by the process of buying and selling nuts above?
A. Credit risk.
B. Liquidity risk.
C. Product risk.
D. Market risk.
15. Alpha plc is a company in the real estate industry. The current
debt ratio of the company is 0.85. The industrial average debt ratio is
0.7. When it plans to issue bonds, which type of risk is most likely to
increase?
A. Financial risk.
B. Operational risk.
C. Business risk.
D. Cyber risk.
16. Thomas, a risk manager of Kingston company, conducted a risk
map for the company’s branches located in Asia. The report showed
that the matter proposed a high impact but a low probability of its
occurrence. Which of the following responses should be made in this
situation?
A. Risk avoidance and risk sharing.
B. Risk sharing and risk retention.
C. Risk retention and risk reduction.
D. Risk reduction and risk sharing.

KIỂM TRA ĐIỀU KIỆN

Câu 1: Which of the following is NOT the primary objective of a

business?

A. Maximization of owners’ wealth

B. Increasing business’s stock price
C. Increasing labor’s productivity
D. Increasing firm’s value

Câu 2: Maximizing the wealth of its shareholders is the stated goal of

Averna company. The company’s objectives have been expressed as a
hierachy of primary and secondary objectives. Identify which of the
following is most likely to be Averna’s primary business objective.

A. To increase the annual profit after tax by 125% in the next 10 years
B. To introduce an average of two new products each year for the next
six years
C. To double the share price within the next 10 years
D. To become the market leader in four market segments within the
nest 10 years
Câu 3: Which of the following company’s stakeholder group is putting the
company under pressure to improve its return on investment?

A. Shareholders
B. Customers
C. Suppliers
D. Employees

Câu 4: Which of the following groups consists of only secondary

stakeholders?

A. Directors, Managers, Employees, Customers

B. Shareholders. Directors, Leaders, Suppliers
C. Local community, Goverments, Managers, Shareholders
D. Shareholders, Suppliers, Lenders, Employees

Câu 5: Whether an organization is classified as a business or not is

dependent on its:

A. Vision
B. Mission
C. Primary objective
D. Plan

Câu 6: SMART in characteristics of operational objectives of a business

means:

A. Special, Measurable, Achiavable, Realistic and Time-bound

B. Special, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant and Time-bound
C. Special, Managerial, Assessable, Realistic and Time-bound
D. Special, Measurable, Assessable, Relevant and Time-bound
Câu 7: Younger Aid is a charity providing youth services in large cities. The
chief executive is involved by the charity. She wants to stress that it always
seeks to operate at maximum efficiency. In stressing this aspect of the
charity’s operations, the chief axecutive is highlighting the charity’s:

A. Vision
B. Mission
C. Plan
D. Secondary objective

Câu 8: Boca company has increased sales revenue by 8% in each of the last
few years. A stated objective of Boca is to increase sales revenue by 80%
next year. Which key characteristic of quantitative operational goals does
Boca’s objective lack?

A. Being specific
B. Being measurable
C. Being achievale
D. Being time-bound

Câu 9: Research into products which have obvious commercial or practical

is called:

A. Market research
B. Pure reseach
C. Applied research
D. Process research

Câu 10: The five rights of procurement mix include:

A. Quality, quantity, price, place, time

B. Quality, quantity, price, place, people
 C.
D.

Câu 11: Anticipating customer needs and then developing new ideas
for products and services to satisfy these needs would be a key
function of which department ?

A. Purchasing
B. Manufacturing
C. Procurement
D. Research and development
Câu 12: Three Ps in service marketing mix refer to:

A. People, Place, and Processes.

B. Product, Place, and Physical evidence.
C. People, Process, and Physical evidence.
D. Product, People, and Physical evidence.
Câu 13: Which of the following variables in the marketing mix is
applied for tangible products ?

A. Product
B. People
C. Processes
D. Physical evidence
Câu 14: Who take care the overall direction and performance of a
business

A. Top managers
B. First line managers
C. Senior managers
D. Middle managers
Câu 15: Which of the following qualities are typical of an open systems
culture ?

A. Flexible and Outward-looking

B. Flexible and Inward-looking
C. Control and Outward-looking
D. Control and Inward-looking
Câu 16: Managers who are responsile for ensuring direct operational
staff do what is required are :

A. Top managers
B. First-line managers
C. Board of management
D. Board of directors
Câu 17: Which of the following managers has the authority in giving
specialist advice to other managers over which they have no line
authority?

A. A line manager
B. A staff manager
C. A functional manager
D. A project manager
Câu 18: Which of the following factors is classified as hygiene factors
by Frederick Herzberg?

A. A sense of achievement
B. Working conditions of a job
C. Recognition
D. Responsibility
Câu 19: According to Bruce Tuckman, the order of four stages through
which groups proceed are:
 A. Forming, Norming, Storming, Performing
B. Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing
C. Forming, Storming, Performing, Norming
D. Forming, Norming, Performing, Storming
Câu 20: Which of the following is NOT the characteristics of top
managers?

A. Very numerous in number

B. Responsible for overall direction and performance of the business
C. Holding the most power
D. Determining corporate strategy.
Câu 21: Dividing a market into homogeneous groups of potential
customers who may be treated similarly for marketing purposes is
known as:

A. Market mixing
B. Promotion
C. Segmentation
D. Demographics