MICROBIOLOGY, PARASITOLOGY AND PUBLIC HEALTH (RED PACOP)

1. The internationally recommended strategy for the control of tuberculosis is DOTS, 8. Which of the ff. statements about Pneumocystis carinii is true? 15. A confirmatory test for HIV infection
which stands for: A. Antibodies are found only in infected immunocompromised hosts A. ELISA
A. Directly Observed Short-Term Strategy B. It is a ricketssia B. Southern Blot Technique
B. Directly Observed Treatment Short Course C. It can cause pulmonary tuberculosis C. Western Blot Technique
C. Directly Observed Therapy Short Course D. Pathogenic for patients with AIDS with CD4 counts of > 800 cells/ml D. Immunophoresis
D. Directly Observable Standard Treatment E. Diagnosis is through sputum smear microscopy E. Immunofluorescence
E. Duration of Observed Treatment Short Course
9. Aspergillosis is caused by 16. Effective sterilization of a dental instrument used in a patient reported to be
2. The five components of DOTS are the following except: A. Aspergillus flavus infected with AIDS, requires which of the ff. conditions:
A. Sustained financial and political commitment B. Aspergilloma dictus A. Open flame
B. Diagnosis by quality-ensured sputum smear microscopy C. Filobasidiella sp B. 100 °C for 10 mins.
C. Standardized short course anti-TB drugs given to patients as supervised D. Respiratory syncytial virus C. 70% alcohol solution
by treatment partners E. Adenovirus D. 3% H2O2 solution
D. Regular uninterrupted supply of quality anti-TB drugs
E. Supervision by DOH 10. Which of the ff. diseases is a primary zoonotic disease that is associated with 17. Ionizing radiation inactivates vegetative bacteria by:
ingestion of contaminated milk? A. Driving away electrons & splitting the molecules into atoms or groups
3. Classification of diphtheria toxin A. Anthrax B. Inducing thymine dimmers
A. Neurotoxin B. Leptospirosis C. Denaturing nucleoproteins
B. Cytotoxin C. Diphtheria D. Cross-linking sugar groups
C. Enterotoxin D. Lyme disease E. Inducing double-stranded breaks in DNA
D. Endotoxin E. Brucellosis
E. Oxytoxin 18. An effective membrane pore size necessary to filter out most rigid bacteria is
11. A group of serum proteins that act in a cascade manner resulting in microbial approximately
4. The following are the characteristics of inflammation except: cell lysis, inflammation and opsonisation. A. 25 µm
A. Stomach ache A. Complement system B. 10 µm
B. Pain at the injured site B. Phagocytes C. 1 µm
C. Redness C. Lymphatic system D. 0.02 µm
D. Increase in temperature D. Interferons E. 0.20 µm
E. Swelling E. Natural killer cells
19. A laboratory method used to show induced mutation
5. A graft from twin brother to sister 12. Antibody that is produced first in response to a primary infection A. Plate replication’
A. Allograft A. IgG B. Ames test
B. Xenograft B. IgA C. Replica plating
C. Isograft C. IgM D. Velvet disk replication
D. Autograft D. IgD E. Plaque assay
E. Transgraft E. IgE
20. Process of gene transfer responsible for antibiotic resistance
6. Which is true about major histocompatibility complex (MHC)? 13. Antibody present in breastmilk A. Transformation
A. Twins do not have the same MHCs A. IgG B. Conjugation
B. Only identical twins have the same MHCs B. IgA C. Transposon insertion
C. Tissues that produce self-antigens C. IgM D. Frameshift mutation
D. Not present in humans D. IgD E. Both A & C
E. Rejects T cell E. IgE
21. Algicide used in swimming pools
7. Viruses that infect E. Coli 14. Type of immunity resulting from vaccination A. Crystal violet
A. Lytic A. Naturally acquired passive immunity B. Gentian violet
B. Lysogenic B. Naturally acquired active immunity C. Cupric sulfate
C. DNA phages C. Artificially acquired passive immunity D. Methylene blue
D. Coliphages D. Artificially acquired active immunity E. Ferric oxide
E. Coliforms E. Adaptive immunity
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22. Lysol has a phenol coefficient of 5.0 against Staphylococcus aureus. On the C. Auxotroph C. 36 mols ATP/glucose mol
other hand, Formalin has a 0.5 phenol coefficient. Which of the statements D. Psychrotroph D. 38 mols ATP/glucose mol
below is incorrect? E. Halotroph E. 4 mols ATP/glucose mol
A. Lysol is half as effective as Formalin
B. Lysol is 4.5 times more effective than Formalin 29. The following is the bacterium used in the Ames test: 36. Net yield of ATP molecules arising from the complete oxidation of glucose in
C. Formalin is twice more effective than phenol A. Salmonella typhi fungal cells
D. Formalin is half as effective as phenol B. Escherichia coli A. 2 mols ATP/ glucose mol
E. Formalin is 5x better than Lysol C. Bacillus subtilis B. 24 mols ATP/ glucose mol
D. Staphylococcus aureus C. 36 mols ATP/ glucose mol
23. A change in the DNA which results in an insertion or deletion of one or more E. Auxotrophic Salmonella typhimurium D. 38 mols ATP/ glucose mol
bases E. 4 mols ATP/ glucose mol
A. Frameshift mutation 30. Small segments of DNA that can move from one region of a DNA molecule to
B. Point mutation another. 37. A small segment of DNA that carries genes for sex pili synthesis
C. Nonsense mutation A. Plasmids A. R plasmids
D. Spontaneous mutation B. Genes B. F plasmids
E. Induced mutation C. F factors C. S plasmids
D. Transposons D. L plasmids
24. A stop codon that signals the end of protein synthesis is E. R factors E. RF plasmids
A. UUA
B. UAG 31. The first chemotherapeutic agent effective against syphilis 38. Gene transfer between bacteria by means of a virus
C. UGG A. Penicillin A. Transformation
D. GAG B. Streptomycin B. Conjugation
E. AUG C. Chloramphenicol C. Transposon insertion
D. Sulfonamide D. Gene therapy
25. What will be the transcribed sequence for the ff. DNA sequence of a gene – E. Salvarsan E. Transduction
GACCTGCAT?
A. CTGGACGTU 32. The original source of penicillin discovered by Fleming was a mold known as 39. These are self-replicating circular molecules of DNA carrying genes
B. CUGGUGCUA A. Saccharomyces cerevisiae A. Plasmids
C. CTGGUCGTA B. Penicillium notatum B. Genome
D. CUGGACGUA C. Penicillium chrysogenum C. Nucleotides
E. CTGGUCGUA D. Penicillium flavus D. Transposons
E. Aspergillus flavus E. Bacteriocins
26. Bacterial genes that may code for drug resistance:
A. R factors 33. A biotechnological technique used to treat disorders where a missing gene is 40. A technique where a small samples of DNA can be quickly amplified for analysis
B. F factors inserted or a defective one is replaced in human cells A. Hybridoma
C. Plasmid-encoded toxins A. Gene therapy B. Recombinant DNA
D. Dissimilation plasmids B. Proteomics C. Polymerase Chain Reaction
E. Bacteriocins C. Gene transfer D. Cloning
D. Genomics E. Fluorescence
27. Which antibiotic acts on the 30S ribosomal subunit of bacteria and interferes with E. Monoclonal antibody
the binding of tRNA to ribosomes? 41. The relative amount of antibody in the serum is known as
A. Chloramphenicol 34. A process whereby an endospore returns to its vegetative state is known as A. Antigen
B. Streptomycin A. Sporulation B. Antibody titer
C. Clindamycin B. Germination C. Immunoglobulin level
D. Erythromycin C. Sporogenesis D. Memory level
E. Lincosamide D. Lysis E. Antibody concentration
E. Transformation
28. Any mutant microorganism with a nutritional requirement that is absent in the 42. The following is a macrolide antibiotic
parent microorganism is known as 35. Net yield of ATP molecules in aerobic respiration of prokaryotes A. Azithromycin
A. Mesotroph A. 2 mols ATP/glucose mol B. Streptomycin
B. Phototroph B. 24 mols ATP/glucose mol C. Kanamaycin
 MICROBIOLOGY, PARASITOLOGY AND PUBLIC HEALTH (RED PACOP)

D. Gentamycin E. Sinusoids E. Joseph Lister

E. Neomycin
50. The quick response of the immune system due to recall by memory cells is 57. His experiments on aseptic techniques disapproved the Theory of Spontaneous
43. The following is a streptogramin, a unique group of antibiotics known as Generation
A. Streptomycin A. Anamnestic response A. Robert Hooke
B. Amikacin B. Primary response B. Anton Van Leeuwenhoek
C. Dalfopristin C. Memorable response C. Louis Pasteur
D. Azithromycin D. Immunologic response D. Robert Koch
E. Clarithromycin E. Humoral response E. Joseph Lister
‘
44. The Viridans streptococci group includes the following except: 51. Term for programmed cell death 58. Discovered the microbial causes of bacterial infections such as, anthrax and
A. Streptococcus mutans A. Perforin tuberculosis
B. Streptococcus mitis B. Apoptosis A. Robert Hooke
C. Streptococcus pneumonia C. Cytolysis B. Anton Van Leeuwenhoek
D. Streptococcus salivarius D. Inflammation C. Louis Pasteur
E. Streptococcus pyogenes E. Antigen presentation D. Robert Koch
E. Joseph Lister
45. Cause of tuberculosis 52. Referred to as inactivated toxins that act as vaccines
A. Mycoplasma tuberculosis A. Exotoxins 59. A sequence of experimental steps that help identify the specific microbe that
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis B. Endotoxins caused a specific disease.
C. Pseudomonas tuberculosis C. Toxoids A. Germ Theory of Disease
D. Mycobacterium leprae D. Subunit vaccines B. Koch’s postulates
E. Mycoplasma pneumonia E. Inactivated vaccines C. Theory of Spontaneous Generation
D. Theory of Immunity
46. The enhancement of phagocytosis through coating with a complement 53. Duration of immunity of rabies vaccine is E. Transformation of Postulates
A. Lysis A. 2 years
B. Complement activation B. 5 years 60. Coined the term “chemotherapy” and was among the first scientists who
C. Cytolysis C. 10 years searched for the “magic bullet”.
D. Opsonization D. 6 years A. Paul Ehrlich
E. Inflammation E. 20 years B. Alexander Fleming
C. Selman Waksman
47. Recently discovered antimicrobial peptides produced by humans include the 54. A monoclonal antibody used to treat inflammatory conditions, such as, D. George Domagk
following except: rheumatoid arthritis and Crohn’s disease E. Heide Schulz
A. Sideophores A. Trastuzumab
B. Dermicidins B. Rituximab 61. The bacterium that can be used as an agricultural pest control
C. Defensins C. Abciximab A. Escherichia coli
D. Thrombocidins D. Muromonab CD3 B. Balantidium coli
E. Cathelicidins E. Infliximab C. Penicillin notatum
D. Aspergillus flavus
48. A group of serum proteins involved in phagocytosis & lysis of bacteria 55. A complement fixation diagnostic rest for syphilis is E. Bacillus thuringiensis
A. Neutrophils A. Wassermann test
B. Opsonins B. Widal test 62. Collective term for microbes on and inside human bodies
C. Complement system C. Schick test A. Microbial count
D. Immunoglobulins D. Direct ELISA B. Too numerous to count
E. Major histocompatibility complex E. Indirect ELISA C. Normal microbiota
D. Microbiofilm
49. Fixed macrophages that protect and reside in the liver 56. An amateur scientist who saw “animalcules” in his single-lens microscope E. Biological flora
A. Osteoclast A. Robert Hooke
B. Alveolar macrophages B. Anton Van Leeuwenhoek 63. Term for new or changing diseases that are increasing or have the potential to
C. Kupffer cells C. Louis Pasteur increase in incidence in the near future
D. Histocytes D. Robert Koch A. Neglected Diseases
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B. Emerging infectious diseases A. Laboratory Guide in Microbiology A. HAV

C. Non-emerging infectious diseases B. Pharmaceutical Microbiology B. Shingles virus
D. Rare diseases C. Botanical Taxonomy C. HBV
E. Degenerative diseases D. Bergey’s Manual of Systematic Bacteriology D. Herpes simplex type 2 virus
E. Bergey’s Manual of Determinative Bacteriology E. Herpes simplex type 1 virus

64. The cause of avian influenza A is 71. Founder of the five-kingdom system where the prokaryotes were placed in 78. Type 1 hypersensitivity reactions that occur immediately upon re-exposure of a
A. H5N1 virus Kingdom Prokaryotae and eucaryotes compromised the other four kingdoms, sensitized individual to an antigen
B. H1N1 virus A. Carolus Linnaeus A. Delayed hypersensitivity reactions
C. H1N3 virus B. Robert Murray B. Cytotoxic reactions
D. H3N1 virus C. Carl Woese C. Anaphylactic reactions
E. HIV D. Robert Whittaker D. Immune complex reactions
E. Charles Darwin E. Cell-mediated reactions
65. Which of the following is n example of bioremediation?
A. Application of oil-degrading bacteria to an oil spill 72. The following are true about viruses except 79. Hemolytic disease of the newborn will occur in this condition:
B. Application of bacteria to a crop to prevent frost damage A. Has a single type of nucleic acid, either DNA or RNA A. Second or higher pregnancy of sensitized Rh(-) Mother, Rh (+) baby
C. Fixation of gaseous nitrogen into usable nitrogen B. Multiply only inside living host cells with an Rh(+) father
D. Production by bacteria of a human protein like interferon C. Considered obligate intracellular parasites B. Second or higher pregnancy of Rh(+) mother, Rh(+) baby with an Rh(-)
E. All of the above. D. Contains a protein coat that surrounds the nucleic acid father
E. Can be infected by bacteria C. Second or higher pregnancy of sensitized Rh(+) Mother, Rh (+) baby
66. The movement of eukaryotic cytoplasm from one part of the cell to another with an Rh(-) father
which helps distribute nutrients is 73. Protein coat that protects the nucleic acid of a virus D. Second or higher pregnancy of Rh(-) mother, Rh(+) baby with an Rh(+)
A. Brownian movement A. Plasmid father
B. True motility B. Capsid E. Second or higher pregnancy of Rh(-) mother, Rh(+) baby with an Rh(-)
C. Pseudo motility C. Capsomere father
D. Cellular motility D. Envelope
E. Cytoplasmic streaming E. Spike 80. The following are true about immunosuppressants except:
A. Promotes immune response to protect the transplant
67. Cause of Lyme disease 74. The following are steps in the occurrence of inflammation except: B. Suppress normal immune response against transplant
A. Borrelia burgdorferi A. Tissue response C. Include monoclonal antibodies
B. Candida albicans B. Production of interferon D. Include cyclosporine
C. Salmonella typhi C. Phagocyte migration E. Blocks secretion of interleukin 2 to disrupt cell-mediated immune
D. Limulus polyphemus D. Tissue repair response.
E. Treponema pallidum E. Vasodilation
81. Human immunodeficiency virus targets which cell in the immune system?
68. A method used to identify bacteria in a sample without culturing the bacteria 75. The following are involved in the increase in abnormally high body temperature A. CD4+ T helper cell
A. Flow cytometry or fever except: B. B cell
B. Phage typing A. Endotoxins C. CD8+B helper cell
C. Immunofluorescence B. Exotoxins D. CD4+ T cytotoxic cell’
D. Fluorescent in situ Hybridization C. Lipopolysaccharides E. Natural killer cell
E. ELISA D. Interleukin-1
E. TNF-α 82. A condition where antibodies cause antigens to clump together .
69. A reference for taxonomic classification scheme for prokaryotes A. Opsonisation
A. Laboratory Guide in Microbiology 76. The following are RNA viruses except B. Phagocytosis
B. Pharmaceutical Microbiology A. HIV C. Complement fixation
C. Botanical taxonomy B. Flu virus D. Neutralization
D. Bergey’s Manual of Systematic Bacteriology C. Rabies E. Agglutination
E. Bergey’s Manual of Determinative Bacteriology D. Chicken pox virus
E. Ebola virus 83. Immune response that defends the body against fungi, parasites, cancer and
70. A reference for the identification of bacteria based on criteria, such as, transplants.
morphology, cell wall composition, oxygen requirements etc. 77. The following are DNA viruses except A. Cell-mediated
 MICROBIOLOGY, PARASITOLOGY AND PUBLIC HEALTH (RED PACOP)

B. Humoral E. Resistance to anti-TB drugs is due to mutation of the bacteria E. Period of convalescence
C. Antibody-mediated
D. B cell-mediated 90. The mechanisms of antibiotic resistance include the following except: 97. Time period that the person regains strength from infection and the body returns
E. Memory B-cell mediated A. Preventing the entry of the drug to the target site within the microbial to its pre-diseased state
cell A. Prodromal period
84. A nosocomial pathogen that normally inhabits the skin and commonly B. Alteration of the drug’s target site B. Infection period
contaminates prosthetic devices such as, catheters and heart valves, leading C. Rapid entry of the antibiotic to the cell C. Incubation period
to symptomatic microbemia D. Inactivation of the drug by microbial enzymes D. Period of illness
A. Staphylococcus aureus E. Mutation of the bacteria due to antibiotic misuse E. Period of convalescence
B. Staphylococcus epidermis
C. Streptococcus aureus 91. This pathogen is a commen cause of nosocomial infections 98. A relatively short period of occurrence of disease characterized by early mild
D. Streptococcus pyogenes A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa symptoms of the disease, such as, body ache, headache and malaise.
E. Streptococcus mutans B. Bacillus subtilis A. Prodromal period
C. Salmonella cerevisiae B. Infection period
85. What is included in the indicator system of a complement fixation test? D. Clostridium tetani C. Incubation period
A. Specific antibody & complement E. Rabies virus D. Period of illness
B. Red blood cells & hemolysin E. Period of convalescence’
C. Heat-inactivated patient’s serum 92. According to the Center for Disease Control and Prevention, the single most
D. Guinea pig serum important means of preventing the spread of nosocomial infection is 99. Rabies virus is transmitted to humans through
E. Rat red blood cells A. Education on microbial control A. Direct contact transmission
B. Disinfection of hospital instruments and devices B. Indirect contact transmission
86. In malaria, the form of plasmodia that is transmitted from mosquito to human is C. Use of hand gel C. Droplet transmission
the D. Handwashing D. Vehicle transmission
A. Gametocyte E. Placing face masks on al infected patients E. Mechanical ventilator transmission
B. Merozoite
C. Oocyst 93. The following are emerging infectious diseases starting year 2000 except: 100. Congenital infection, like rubella, occurs as a result of
D. Trophozoite A. H1N1 influenza A. Viral toxins crossing the placenta
E. Sporozoite B. HIV-AIDS B. Viral toxins impairing maternal nourishment of the fetus
C. Anthrax C. Transplacental spread of virus and growth in the fetus
87. A biological vector D. Chagas disease D. Autoimmune response of maternal cells against fetal tissue
A. Anopheles mosquito E. Whooping cough E. Child naturally has the infection
B. Cockroach
C. Housefly 94. Emerging infectious diseases can be due to 101. An enzyme produced by virulent bacteria to promote the spread of the bacteria
D. Aedes aegypti A. Climatic changes to the host and otherwise known as the spreading factor
E. Termite B. Too many vaccines A. Collagenase
C. Inefficient case reporting B. Streptokinase
88. In the host-parasite relationship, the mosquito vector of Plasmodium sp acts as D. Rational antibiotic use C. Protease
the E. Surveillance of DOH D. Hyaluronidase
A. Definitive host E. Hemolysin
B. Intermediate host 95. A continuous source of the diseases organism is known as the
C. Parasitic host A. Carrier 102. Hemolysins can lyse red blood cells. Which of the following is not correct?
D. Insect host B. Reservoir of infection A. α- hemolysin produces greenish ring around bacterial colonies on blood
E. Pathogen C. Deep wells agar plate
D. Hospital B. β- hemolysin produces clear ring around colonies on blood agar plate
89. The following statements about resistance to antimicrobial drugs are true except: E. Secondary use C. γ- hemolysin produces no visible change around colonies on blood agar
A. Resistance to chloramphenicol is due to enzyme that acetylates the 96. The interval between initial infection and the first appearance of any signs or plate
drug symptoms is known as D. Streptococcus pyogenes has β- hemolysin
B. Resistance to penicillin is due to reduced affinity of transpeptidases A. Prodromal period E. Staphylococcus aureus has γ- hemolysin
C. Resistance to penicillin is known to be due to cleavage of β-lactamase B. Infection period
D. Resistance to tetracycline is due to an enzyme that hydrolyzes the ester C. Incubation period 103. Exotoxins can lead to the following diseases except
linkages D. Period if illness A. Rabies
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B. Tetanus A. Symptom 117. This is the only Bacillus species that is highly pathogenic for animals and
C. Diphtheria B. Syndrome humans and is the causative agent for anthrax
D. Botulism C. Observation A. B stearothermophilus
E. Cholera D. Sequelae B. B cereus
E. Sign C. B thuringiensis
104. Botulinum toxin is classified as a D. B subtilis
A. Cytotoxin 111. Term for the combination of signs and symptoms that occur together and E. B anthracis
B. Enterotoxin indicate a particular disease
C. Neurotoxin A. Symptom 118. Lesions of the oral cavity which manifest as tiny red patches with central white
D. Endotoxin B. Syndrome specks in patients infected with Rubeola virus
E. Phytotoxin C. Observation A. Erythema infectiosum
D. Sequelae B. Macular rash
105. The endotoxin or the lipid portion of the lipopolysaccharide is called the E. Sign C. Fever blisters
A. Lipid C D. Koplik’s spots
B. Lipid B 112. An example of an acute infectious disease E. Negri bodies
C. Lipid O A. Common cold
D. Lipid A B. Leprosy 119. During the first 10 minutes or so after injection of phage DNA, no phage can be
E. Oligosaccharide C. Tuberculosis recovered by disrupting the infected bacterium. This is termed as:
D. Diphtheria A. Eclipse period
106. A life-threatening decrease in blood pressure caused by bacteria is referred to E. Gingivitis B. Latent period
as C. Rise period
A. Shock 113. According to severity, TB may be classified as D. Burst size
B. Technical knock-out A. Subacute and latent E. Replication cycle
C. Septic shock B. Chronic and latent
D. Hypotension C. Sporadic and latent 120. All are major causes of bacterial meningitis except:
E. Anemia D. Chronic A. Haemophilus influenzae
E. Latent B. Neisseria meningitidis
107. An endotoxin producing bacterium C. Hib
A. Neisseria meningitidis 114. A secondary infection that results from destruction of normal microflora and D. Listeria monocytogenes
B. Escherichia coli often follows the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics E. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Clostridium perfringens A. Mixed infection
D. Vibrio cholera B. Subclinical infection 121. This gram negative bacteria produces a water-soluble blue pigment, pyocyanin,
E. Clostridium tetani C. Inapparent infection and a water-soluble fluorescent pigment, pyoverdin
D. Superinfection A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
108. Inclusion bodies produced by rabies virus E. Co-morbid infection B. Pseudomonas mallei
A. Syncytial bodies 115. These are generally benign skin growths caused by viruses C. Pseudomonas pseudomallei
B. Negri bodies A. Bullae D. Pseudomonas syringae
C. Black bodies B. Warts E. Pseudomonas fluorescens
D. Interferons C. Boils
E. Cytopathic areas D. Acne 122. These bacteria differ from most other enterobacteriaceae by being mainly
E. Papules associated with plants
109. Term for the characteristic of the disease that can be observed by examining A. Proteus
the patient 116. A severe complication of chickenpox, influenza, and other viral diseases which B. Erwinia
A. Symptom affects children and is aggravated by the use of aspirin C. Shigella
B. Syndrome A. Raynaud’s phenomenon D. Serratia
C. Observation B. Q fever E. Yersinia
D. Sequelae C. Reye’s syndrome
E. Sign D. Rocky mountain spotted fever 123. Which of the following viruses is a DNA virus?
E. Gray baby syndrome A. Bunyaviridae
110. Term for the characteristic of the disease that can be observed or felt only by B. Adenoviridae
the patient C. Reoviridae
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D. Togaviridae A. Interferons C. Linezolid

E. Orthomyxoviridae B. Tetracyclines D. Flucytosine
C. Sulfonamides E. Nalidixic acid
124. The following RNA viruses are helical in shape, except: D. Nitrofurans
A. Rhabdoviridae E. Anthramycin 137. This is the commonest cause of pneumonia and still responds well to penicillin
B. Arenaviridae despitea global in isolates showing reduced susceptibility to this agent.
C. Bunyaviridae 131. The following organisms are good recipients of R factor from E. coli donor, A. Legionella pneumophila
D. Orthomyxoviridae except: B. Mycoplasma pneumonia
E. Picornaviridae A. Enterobacter C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Proteus D. Haemophilus influenza
125. A patient with nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea within 5 hours after eating most C. Klebsiella E. Streptococcus pyogenes
likely has: D. Salmonella
A. Shigellosis E. Shigella 138. The following are fungal infections of the skin and nails, except:
B. Cholera A. Tinea pedis
C. E. coli gastroenteritis 132. This is the first known disease for which a chemotherapeutic agent was used. B. Tinea capitis
D. Salmonellosis A. Mucormycosis C. Cryptococcus neoformans
E. Staphylococcus food poisoning B. Bubonic plague D. Tinea corporis
C. Syphilis E. Malassezia furfur
126. These are nucleic acid entities of relatively low molecular weight (1.1 to 1.3 x D. HSV-1 139. This drug is thought to block the assembly of arabinogalactan polysaccharide
105) and unique structure that cause several important diseases of cultivated E. Gonorrhea by inhibition of an arabinotranferase enzyme.
plants. These are also the smallest known agents of infectious disease. A. Rifampin
A. Virion 133. It inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis by binding D-alanyl-D-alanine group on the B. Isoniazid
B. Bacteriophages peptide side chain of one of the membrane-bound intermediates. C. Pyrazinamide
C. Paschen bodies A. Vancomycin D. Ethambutol
D. Viroids B. Bacitracin E. Streptomycin
E. Oncogenes C. Methicillin
D. Chlortetracycline 140. These are structural analogues of PABA that competitively inhibit the
127. The most common causative agent of genital herpes E. Cycloserine incorporation of PABA into dihydropteroic acid.
A. HSV-1 A. Sulfonamides
B. HSV-2 134. Because it is a structural analog of pyridoxine, or Vitamin B6 and nicotinamide, B. Nalidixic acid
C. HSV-3 it can block pyridoxine and nicotinamide-catalyzed reactions which may C. Cephalosporins
D. HSV-4 account for its antimicrobial activity. D. B and C
E. HSV-6 A. Isonicotinic Acid Hydrazide E. A and C
B. Nalidixic acid
128. Theses are common bread molds which cause much food spoilage and grow C. Isoniazid 141. Which of the following is not matched?
on bread, vegetables, fruits and other food products. D. A and B A. Antihelminthic - inhibition of cell wall synthesis
A. Mucor E. A and C B. Antibacterial – inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis
B. Saccharomyces C. Antiviral – inhibition of DNA synthesis
C. Rhizopus 135. This is a low-molecular weight compound which is very effective against D. Antifungal – inhibition of mitosis
D. Schizosaccharomyces influenza A virus but not against influenza B virus. The incidence of influenza E. Antifungal – injury to plasma membrane
E. Agaricus A infections is greatly reduced by the use of this drug.
A. Sibromycin 142. Characteristics of the causative agent of tetanus, except:
129. Streptomyces griseus is the source of this antibiotic. B. Anthramycin A. Gram positive
A. Griseofulvin C. Sulfaguanidine B. Produces endospores
B. Streptomycin D. Acycloguanosine C. Obligate aerobe
C. Erythromycin E. Amantadine D. Transmitted through contaminated soil
D. Kanamycin E. Produces a potent neurotoxin
E. Chlorampenicol 136. This drug is member of the allylamine class of antimycotics and inhibits the
enzyme squalene epoxidase in fungal ergosterol biosynthesis. 143. Viral disease characterized by inflammation of the parotid glands, fever, and
130. These antimicrobial drugs differ from the antibiotics in that they do not occur A. Clotrimazole pain during swallowing.
naturally. The prototype of these is furfural, an aldehyde derivative. B. Terbinafine A. Tonsilitis
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B. Gingivitis C. Cryptosporidiosis A. Micrococcus luteus

C. Measles D. Yellow fever B. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Mumps E. Plague C. Escherichia coli
E. Typhoid fever D. Clostridium perfringens
151. This type of microscopy does not require fixing or staining of the specimen, and E. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
144. Strain of E. coli that can produce a Shigella-like dysentery. also gives a detailed examination of internal structures in living
A. Enterotoxigenic microorganisms by using slight variations in refractive index. 158. A type of medium with known chemical composition used for microbiological
B. Enteroinvasive A. Phase-contrast microscopy assays.
C. Enterohemmorhagic B. Compound light microscopy A. Selective media
D. Enterohemolytic C. Darkfield microscopy B. Differential media
E. Enteropathogenic D. Fluorescence microscopy C. Complex media
E. Both A and C D. Anaerobic Media
E. Chemically defined media
145. Which of the following is not a tickborne disease? 152. What is/are the staining method/s used to identify all bacteria in the genus
A. Babesiosis Mycobacterium and the disease producing strains of Nocardia. 159. This type of media suppresses growth of unwanted microbes and encourage
B. Ehrlichiosis A. Simple staining growth of desired microbes.
C. Lyme disease B. Gram staining A. Enrichment media
D. Relapsing fever C. Acid-fast bacilli B. Differential media
E. Tularemia D. Negative staining C. Selective media
E. Both B and C D. Reducing media
146. Causative agent for Undulant fever. E. Chemically defined media
A. Bartonella henselae 153. Which of the following dyes cannot be used in negative staining?
B. Borrelia burgdorferi A. Eosin 160. Which of the following is an indirect method of estimating bacterial number?
C. Brucella melitensis B. Nigrosin A. Turbidity method
D. Bacillus anthracis C. India ink B. Serial dilution
E. Bordetella pertussis D. Safranin C. Most probable number
E. Both A and D D. Filtration
147. This refers to the uncontrolled proliferation of microbes in the blood. E. Direct microscopic count
A. Sepsis 154. These are organisms responsible for low temperature food spoilage.
B. Septicemia A. Psychrotrophs 161. Process of destroying vegetative pathogens but not necessarily endospores or
C. Septic shock B. Psychrophiles viruses, usually or inanimate objects.
D. Anaphylaxis C. Thermophiles A. Sterilization
E. Bacteremia D. Mesophiles B. Antisepsis
E. Both A and C C. Sanitization
148. This refers to inflammation of the urinary bladder. D. Degerming
A. Cystitis 155. Which of the following elements is/are NOT needed by microbes for the E. Disinfection
B. Urethritis synthesis of cellular materials?
C. Ureteritis A. Nitrogen 162. Removal of transient microbes from the skin by mechanical cleansing or by the
D. Pyelonephritis B. Carbon use of an antiseptic.
E. Nephritis C. Sulfur A. Sterilization
D. Phosphorus B. Antisepsis
149. Disease-causing microorganisms are called: E. None of the above C. Sanitization
A. Vectors D. Degerming
B. Bacteria 156. Which of the following enzymes neutralize/s various toxic forms of oxygen? E. Disinfection
C. Fomites A. Superoxide dismuthase
D. Pathogens B. Catalase 163. Which of the following is/are an effective method of sterilization?
E. Toxins C. Peroxidase A. Refrigeration
D. A, B and C B. Pasteurization
150. Vector-borne diseases,except: E. None of the above C. Direct flaming
A. Trypanosomiasis D. Autoclaving
B. Lyme disease 157. Which of the following is an obligate anaerobe? E. Both C and D
 MICROBIOLOGY, PARASITOLOGY AND PUBLIC HEALTH (RED PACOP)

171. Which of the following is transmitted via the fecal-oral route?

164. Chemical used for microbial control by Joseph Lister. A. HAV 178. Which type of media is used to grow obligate anaerobes?
A. Iodine B. HBV A. Complex media
B. Phenol C. HCV B. Enrichment media
C. Carbolic acid D. HDV C. Differential media
D. Chlorinated Lime E. Both A and B D. Selective media
E. Both B and C E. Reducing media
172. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Fungi?
165. Which of the following metals has the strongest oligodynamic action? A. Chemoheterotroph 179. Aerobes contain this enzyme which converts superoxide to oxygen and
A. Silver B. Unicellular hydrogen peroxide.
B. Mercury C. Multicellular A. Catalase
C. Iron D. Photoautotroph B. Superoxide dismutase
D. Copper E. Both B and D C. Peroxidase
E. Zinc D. Both B and C
173. Which of the following types of asexual spore is formed within a sac at the end E. NOTA
166. Which of the following is used as a gaseous chemosterilizer? of an aerial hypha?
A. Phenol A. Blastospore 180. This group of anaerobes can grow in the presence of oxygen and are not
B. Ethylene oxide B. Chlamydospore usually harmed by its presence in the environment.
C. Ethanol C. Endospore A. Strict anaerobes
D. Ammonia D. Conidiospore B. Obligate anaerobes
E. Benzalkonium chloride E. Arthrospore C. Aerotolerant anaerobes
D. Facultative aerobes
167. Which of the following is not a spirochete? 174. Which of the following is typically observed as microscopic grapelike clusters E. Both A and B
A. Treponema and yellow-pigmented colonies?
B. Leptospira A. Staphylococcus aureus 181. These microorganisms have an optimal growth between -5°C and 20°C and
C. Vibrio B. Streptococcus pneumonia which can be found in the supercooled waters of the arctic and Antarctic.
D. Borrelia C. Clostridium botulinum A. Psychrophiles
E. None of the above D. Neisseria gonorrhea B. Mesophiles
E. Both A and B C. Thermophiles
168. Which of the following bacteria are spore formers? D. Hyperthermophiles
A. Bacillus 175. Which of the following is/are true about moist heat sterilization? E. NOTA
B. Clostridium A. An autoclave can be used
C. Salmonella B. Kills vegetative cells, spores and viruses 182. This is the time required to kill a suspension of cells or spores at a given
D. Both A and B C. Works by coagulation of proteins temperature.
E. Both A and C D. A and C only A. Thermal death point
E. A, B and C B. Thermal death time
169. Which of the following is not a gram negative facultatively anaerobic rod- C. Burst size
shaped bacteria? 176. Which of the following is true? D. Incubation period
A. Escherichia A. Pasteurization is a form of sterilization E. Triple death point
B. Salmonella B. Dry heat destroys cells by oxidation
C. Shigella C. Filtration cannot be used for sterilization 183. This is also known as Mixed-Acid Fermentation.
D. Enterobacter D. Lyophilization involves desiccation in high temperature A. Voges-Proskauer test
E. NOTA E. NOTA B. Citrate test
C. Methyl red test
170. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the genus Neisseria? 177. Which of the following is the preferred method of sterilizing liquids containing D. 2,3 – Butanediol Fermentation test
A. Diplococcic toxins, vaccines and enzymes? E. Both A and D
B. Obligate anaerobe A. Pasteurization
C. Some members cause meningitis B. Autoclaving 184. The bacteria that are mixed-acid fermenters generally produce gas because
D. Some members causes gonorrhea C. Filtration they elaborate this enzyme which splits formic acid to produce CO2 and H2O.
E. NOTA D. Refrigeration A. Formic hydrogenylase
E. NOTA B. Nitrate reductase
 MICROBIOLOGY, PARASITOLOGY AND PUBLIC HEALTH (RED PACOP)

C. Formicase E. Produces hypersensitivity 198. The role of cilastatin sodium when combined with imipenem is:
D. Catalase A. It protects against the action of beta-lactamase
E. NOTA 191. Drugs that inhibit the 50s portion of the bacterial ribosome, except: B. It prevents degradation of imipenem in the kidneys
A. Streptomycin C. It exerts antimicrobial action to broaden the spectrum of activity
185. This is a multiple test medium that will detect the fermentation of glucose and B. Erythromycin D. It potentiates the antimicrobial action imipenem
lactose and the production of hydrogen sulphide resulting from the breakdown C. Chloramphenicol E. It facilitates the absorption of imipenem
of the amino acid cysteine. D. Quinupristin
A. SIM medium E. Clindamycin 199. The following aminoglycosides are derived from Streptomyces, except:
B. Litmus Milk A. Streptomycin
C. Hydrogen sulfide 192. Microbial source of tetracycline: B. Tobramycin
D. Kligler’s Iron Agar A. Streptomyces erythreus C. Gentamicin
E. NOTA B. Streptomyces griseus D. Neomycin
C. Streptomyces aureofaciens E. Spectinomycin
186. In Reductase Test using milk, the time it takes for methylene blue to become D. Streptomyces nodosus
colorless is the: E. Streptomyces roseosporus 200. This specie of Plasmodium causes the most dangerous form of malaria.
A. Methylene blue oxidation time A. P. falciparum
B. Methylene blue reaction time 193. Co-trimoxazole is a combination of: B. P. ovale
C. Methylene blue catalysis time A. Sulfamethoxazole and clavulanic acid C. P. vivax
D. Methylene blue reduction time B. Sulfathiazole and trimethoprim D. P. malariae
E. Methylene blue disappearance time C. Sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim E. None of the above
D. Sulfathiazole and clavulanic acid
187. These are indicator bacteria which are found in the intestines of humans and E. None of the above 201. Refers to a continuum of learning which enables people, as individuals and as
warm-blooded animals, ferment lactose to produce acid and gas, and its members of social structures, to voluntarily make decisions, modify behaviors
presence in water suggests the potential for disease. Examples of such 194. Fluoroquinolones exert their antimicrobial action by inhibiting: and change social conditions in ways which are health financing.
organisms are E. coli and Enterobacter aerogenes. A. Topoisomerase I A. Health promotion
A. Enterics B. Topoisomerase II B. Health education
B. Coliforms C. Topoisomerase IV C. Health perception
C. Colony forming units D. A &B D. Health behavior
D. Enterococcus E. B &C E. Health beliefs
E. NOTA
195. Trimethoprim is an inhibitor of which enzyme: 202. Refers to the aggregate of all purposeful activities designed to improve
188. Also known as Ziehl-Neelsen Method: A. Dihydropteroate synthase personal and public health through a combination of strategies.
A. Gram staining B. Dihydrofolate synthase A. Health promotion
B. Simple staining C. Dihydropteroate reductase B. Health education
C. Acid-fast staining D. Dihydrofolate reductase C. Health perception
D. Negative staining E. None of the above D. Health behavior
E. Capsular staining E. Health beliefs
196. A synthetic antifungal agent which inhibits squalene epoxidase:
189. Which of the following organisms can be identified using the answer in number A. Griseofulvin 203. The health behavior model that explains that health behavior affects and is
188? B. Amphotericin B affected by multiple levels of influence of individual, interpersonal, institutional,
A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae C. Terbinafine community and public policy factors, and that health behavior shapes and is
B. Mycobacterium leprae D. Fluconazole shaped by the social environment.
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis E. Caspofungin A. Health belief model
D. Both A and C B. Social cognitive theory
E. Both B and C 197. Which of the following drugs is most resistant to the action of penicillinase? C. Transtheoretical model
A. Methicillin D. Theory of reasoned action
190. Property of an ideal antimicrobial agent B. Amoxicillin E. Ecologic model
A. Production of drug resistance C. Benzathine penicillin
B. Selective toxicity D. Ticarcillin 204. A health behavior model that examines perceptions of the benefits of avoiding
C. Toxic to the host cell E. Mezlocillin the health threat and factors influencing the decision to act on it.
D. Broad spectrum of activity A. Health belief model
 MICROBIOLOGY, PARASITOLOGY AND PUBLIC HEALTH (RED PACOP)

B. Social cognitive theory C. Precontemplation 216. Defined as “ what we as a society do to assure the conditions in which people
C. Transtheoretical model D. Perceived benefits can be healthy”.
D. Theory of reasoned action E. Preparation A. Sustainability
E. Ecologic model B. Social marketing
211. In the Ottawa Charter, it is an action area for health promotion that combines C. Intersectoral participation
205. A health behavior model that tackles individual’s movement from one stage of diverse but complementary approaches including legislation, fiscal measures, D. Public health
behavior change to another as their cifidence in their ability to make this taxation, and organizational change. E. Community involvement
change increases. A. Create supportive environments
A. Health belief model B. Strengthen community actions 217. Which of the following is NOT a macro-level public health activity?
B. Social cognitive theory C. Develop personal skills A. Community diagnosis
C. Transtheoretical model D. Build healthy public policy B. Patient-directed services
D. Theory of reasoned action E. Reorient health services C. Policy development
E. Ecologic model D. Health planning
212. In the Ottawa Charter, it is an action area which explains that health promotion E. Partnership establishment
206. In the Health Belief Model, these are the messages or triggers that will activate should generate living and working conditions that are safe, stimulating,
the individual to take action. satisfying and enjoyable. 218. A spectrum of diseases arising from a diet that is poor in protein and calories,
A. Perceived susceptibility A. Create supportive environments especially in children under five.
B. Cues action B. Strengthen community actions A. Iodine deficiency disorders
C. Perceived barriers C. Develop personal skills B. Marasmus
D. Self-efficacy D. Build healthy public policy C. Protein energy malnutrition
E. Contemplation E. Reorient health services D. Kwashiorkor
E. Xerophthalmia
207. In the Health Belief Model, this refers to individual’s level of confidence that 213. In the Ottawa Charter, it is an action area which explains that community
he/she can successfully carry out a particular behavior. development draws an existing human and material resources in the 219. This stems from an inadequate calorie intake due to insufficient diet, improper
A. Perceived susceptibility community to enhance self-help and social support, and to develop flexible feeding habits, metabolic abnormalities or congenital malformations that result
B. Cues action systems for strengthening public participation in and direction of health to gain weight, followed by loss of weight until emaciation occurs.
C. Perceived barriers matters. A. Iodine deficiency disorders
D. Self-efficacy A. Create supportive environments B. Marasmus
E. Contemplation B. Strengthen community actions C. Protein energy malnutrition
C. Develop personal skills D. Kwashiorkor
208. A health behavior model that suggests that people make changes in their D. Build healthy public policy E. Xerophthalmia
behaviors on the basis of their belief that the intended outcome of a behavior E. Reorient health services
change is positive or negative. 220. Malnutrition type which is due to deprivation of sufficient quality protein foods,
A. Health belief model 214. In the Ottawa Charter, it is an action area which explains that health promotion impaired absorption of protein, or abnormal losses of protein from the body,
B. Social cognitive theory should support personal and social development through providing which also later results to fatty liver.
C. Transtheoretical model information, education for health, and enhancing life skills. A. Iodine deficiency disorders
D. Theory of reasoned action A. Create supportive environments B. Marasmus
E. Ecologic model B. Strengthen community actions C. Protein energy malnutrition
C. Develop personal skills D. Kwashiorkor
209. In theory of planned behavior, this refers to individual’s evaluation of a D. Build healthy public policy E. Xerophthalmia
behavior. E. Reorient health services
A. Subjective norm 221. The term that describes all the eye signs of Vitamin A deficiency if it reaches a
B. Behavioral control 215. In the Ottawa charter, it is an action area that must lead to a change of attitude critically low level.
C. Attitude and organization of health services which refocuses on the total needs of the A. Iodine deficiency disorders
D. Action individual as a whole person. B. Marasmus
E. Contemplation A. Create supportive environment C. Protein energy malnutrition
B. Strengthen community actions D. Kwashiorkor
210. In theory of planned behavior, this refers to the individual’s perception that C. Develop personal skills E. Xerophthalmia
he/she is likely to perform the behavior. D. Build healthy public policy
A. Public policy E. Reorient health services 222. Thyroid enlargement due to iodine deficiency.
B. Behavioral intention A. Goiter
 MICROBIOLOGY, PARASITOLOGY AND PUBLIC HEALTH (RED PACOP)

B. Anemia 229. Refers to the death of a woman while pregnant or within 42 days of termination C. Wasting
C. Cretinism of pregnancy, irrespective of the duration or site of the pregnancy, from any D. Global malnutrition
D. Parasitism cause related to or aggravated by the pregnancy or its management, but not E. Double burden
E. Xerophthalmia from accidental causes.
A. Morbidity rate 236. Refers to the observed trend that the majority of children have mild
223. A common preventable lifelong mental and physical retardation in the fetus and B. Infant mortality malnutrition, far fewer have moderate malnutrition and only few have severe
infant brought about by iodine deficiency. C. Maternal death malnutrition.
A. Goiter D. Mortality rate A. Epidemiologic transition
B. Anemia E. Population pyramid B. Iceberg phenomenon
C. Cretinism C. Wasting
D. Parasitism 230. Which is not part of the Full Package in Reproductive Health? D. Global malnutrition
E. Xerophthalmia A. Family planning E. Double burden
B. Diagnosis and treatment of breast cancer
224. Causative agent for genital herpes, or the anogenital vesicular lesions and C. Antenatal care 237. Results from inappropriate height-for-age.
ulcerations D. Support for exclusive breastfeeding A. Wasting
A. Human papilloma virus E. None of the above B. Edema
B. Molluscum contagiosum virus C. Emaciation
C. Phthirus pubis 231. Which of the following is not part of the services of the Basic Emergency D. Stunting
D. Herpes simplex virus Obstetric and Newborn Care (BEMONC) facility? E. None of the above
E. Trichomonas vaginalis A. Performance of assisted deliveries in imminent breech
B. Newborn resuscitation 238. Results from inappropriate weight-for-height
225. Causative agent for the public lice infestation, which are commonly called C. Manual removal of retained placenta A. Wasting
“crabs”. D. Administration of parenteral oxytocic drugs B. Edema
A. Human papilloma virus E. Provision of surgical delivery (caesarian section) C. Emaciation
B. Molluscum contagiosum virus D. Stunting
C. Phthirus pubis 232. Which of the following is not an emergency neonatal care given in a E. None of the above
D. Herpes simplex virus Comprehensive Emergency Obstetric and Newborn Care (CEMONC) facility?
E. Trichomonas vaginalis A. Newborn resuscitation 239. It is the country’s first blueprint for achieving nutritional adequacy for all
B. Oxygen support Filipinos which is coordinated by the National Nutrition Council.
226. Causative agent genital warts. C. Antenatal administration of (maternal) steroids for threatened premature A. Medium-Term Philippine Plan of Action for Nutrition (MTPPAN)
A. Human papilloma virus delivery B. Sangkap Pinoy Seal
B. Molluscum contagiosum virus D. Treatment of neonatal sepsis infection C. Philippine Plan of Action for Nutrition (PPAN)
C. Phthirus pubis E. None of the above D. Early Childhood Development project
D. Herpes simplex virus E. Safe Motherhood
E. Trichomonas vaginalis 233. What is the Millennium Development Goal #5?
‘ A. Promote gender equality 240. Refers to the addition of a nutrient to a food vehicle commonly consumed by
227. Causative agent of chancroid, or the painful genital ulcers which are B. Improve maternal heath the population to prevent or correct micronutrient deficiencies.
accompanied by inguinal swelling or “bubo”. C. Achieve universal primary education A. Home, School and Community Food Production
A. Molluscum contagiosum virus D. Eradicate extreme poverty B. Food Fortification
B. Chlamydia trachomatis E. Reduce child mortality C. Nutrition Information, Communication and Education
C. Haemophilus ducreyi D. Micronutrient Supplementation
D. Trichomonas vaginalis 234. What is the Millennium Development Goal #4? E. Food assistance
E. Klebsiella granulomatis A. Promote gender equality
B. Improve maternal health 241. A national project that involves the voluntary fortification of processed foods.
228. Causative agent of Granuloma inguinale, or Donovanosis. C. Achieve universal primary education A. Medium-Term Philippine Plan of Action for Nutrition (MTPPAN)
A. Molluscum contagiosum virus D. Eradicate extreme poverty B. Sangkap Pinoy Seal
B. Chlamydia trachomatis E. Reduce child mortality C. Maternal and Child Health
C. Haemophilus ducreyi D. Early Childhood Development project
D. Trichomonas vaginalis 235. Refers to both macronutrient deficiency and micronutrient deficiency. E. Safe Motherhood
E. Klebsiella granulomatis A. Epidemiologic transition
B. Iceberg phenomenon
 MICROBIOLOGY, PARASITOLOGY AND PUBLIC HEALTH (RED PACOP)

242. Involves center-based complementary feeding for wasted and stunted pregnant B. Ergonomic hazards E. Tinea versicolor
women with record of delivering low birthweight infants, and for young children C. Biologic hazards
aged 6-72 months old. D. Physical hazards 255. This type of ringworm infection is also referred to as onychomycosis.
A. Home, School and Community Food Production E. Sociologic hazards A. Tinea capitis
B. Food Fortification B. Tinea cruris
C. Nutrition Information, Communication and Education 249. Refers to those arising from microbial decomposition of various substrates C. Tinea pedis
D. Micronutrient Supplementation associated with particular occupations. D. Tinea unguium
E. Food assistance A. Chemical hazards E. Tinea versicolor
B. Ergonomic hazards
243. Refers to the promotion and maintenance of the highest degree of physical, C. Biologic hazards 256. This disease is caused by the virus human parvovirus B19 and results in
mental and social well-being of workers in all occupations by preventing D. Physical hazards symptoms similar to a mild case of influenza and a “slapped cheek” facial
departures from health, controlling risks and the adaptation of work to people, E. Sociologic hazards rash.
and people for their jobs. A. Exanthema subitum
A. Ergonomics 250. Refers to the science of fitting the job to the worker. B. Roseola infantum
B. Occupational health A. Ergonomics C. Erythema multiforme
C. Occupational hazards B. Occupational health D. Erythema infectiosum
D. Safety C. Occupational hazards E. Shingles
E. Occupations D. Safety
E. Occupations 257. This is an example of a subcutaneous mycosis.
244. Refers to anything that has the potential to cause harm. A. Tinea infection
A. Accident 251. Which of the following drugs cannot be used to treat cases of multidrug- B. Rubella
B. Risk resistant (MDR) tuberculosis? C. Sporotrichosis
C. Danger A. Isoniazid and Pyrazinamide D. Cryptococcosis
D. Hazard B. Rifampicin and Ethambutol E. Candidiasis
E. Safety C. Isoniazid and Rifampicin
D. Ethambutol and Pyrazinamide 258. The causative agent of plague, which was known in the middle ages as the
245. Refers to likelihood that a particular hazard will occur. E. Rifampicin and Pyrazinamide Black Death.
A. Accident A. Sarcoptes scabiei
B. Risk 252. Extensively drug-resistant (XDR) tuberculosis is defined as: B. Yersinia pestis
C. Danger A. Resistance to both the first line drugs C. Francisella tularensis
D. Hazard B. Resistance to both first line drugs and at least one of the six main D. Trypanosoma cruzi
E. Safety classes of second-line drugs E. Bacillus anthracis
C. Resistance to both the first line drugs and at least three of the six main
246. Results from mismanagement or misuse of chemicals resulting in an classes of second-line drugs 259. Malaria infection is initiated by the bite of a mosquito, which injects this form of
unacceptable risk to human health. D. Resistance to both first line drugs and at least four of the six main the protozoan into the bloodstream.
A. Chemical hazards classes of second-line drugs A. Sporozoite
B. Ergonomic hazards E. Resistance to both the first line and all of the six main classes of B. Merozoite
C. Biologic hazards second-line drugs C. Trophozoite
D. Physical hazards D. Gametocyte
E. Sociologic hazards 253. Which of the following is an intracellular parasite? E. Promastigote
A. Rickettsia 260. Hepatitis C virus belongs to this family
247. Refers to those that result from living in a society where one experiences noise, B. Mycobacterium A. Picornaviridae
lack of privacy and overcrowding. C. Bacillus B. Hepadnaviridae
A. Chemical hazards D. Staphylococcus C. Flaviviridae
B. Ergonomic hazards E. Streptococcus D. Deltaviridae
C. Biologic hazards E. Caliciviridae
D. Physical hazards 254. This refers to ringworm infection of the scalp.
E. Sociologic hazards A. Tinea capitis 261. This type of hepatitis virus contains a single strand of RNA, which is not
B. Tinea cruris capable of causing an infection. It becomes infectious when an external
248. Include airborne particles, humidity, equipment design and radiation. C. Tinea pedis envelope of HBsAG covers the protein core of the virus.
A. Chemical hazards D. Tinea unguium A. HAV
 MICROBIOLOGY, PARASITOLOGY AND PUBLIC HEALTH (RED PACOP)

B. HBV C. Prevention of penetration to the target site D. Ivermectin

C. HCV D. Alteration of the target site E. Praziquantel
D. HDV E. Rapid efflux of the antibiotic
E. HEV 276. The smallest tapeworm infecting humans.
269. This is probably the only bacterium that grows in the peripheral nervous A. Taenia saginata
262. The following are vertically-transmitted infections,except: system. B. Diphyllobothrium latum
A. Toxoplasmosis A. Clostridium tetani C. Hymenolepsis nana
B. Hepatitis B B. Clostridium botulinum D. Hymenolepsis diminuta
C. Herpes simplex C. Mycobacterium leprae E. Dipylidium caninum
D. Rubeola D. Listeria monocytogenes
E. Cytomegalovirus E. Neisseria meningitidis 277. Fasciola hepatica and F. gigantica are what type of flukes?
A. Lung flukes
263. This is a measure of the biologically degradable organic matter in water 270. Strongyloides stercoralis is an example of: B. Liver flukes
A. BOD A. Intestinal nematode C. Blood flukes
B. BER B. Extra intestinal nematode D. Heterophyid flukes
C. BID C. Trematode E. Intestinal flukes
D. GIR D. Anthropods
E. GOD E. NOTA 278. Vector of Hymenolepiasis.
A. Chigger mite
264. This is a protein product separated from the whey by the action of rennin 271. The following Plasmodium spp. cause/s benign tertian malaria. B. Tick
enzyme in certain bacteria. A. Plasmodium falciparum C. Flea
A. Cheese B. Plasmodium vivax D. Fly
B. Curd C. Plasmodium ovale E. Crab
C. Butter D. Plasmodium malariae
D. Cream E. Both B and C 279. A symbiotic relationship where one organism lives in or on another, depending
E. Casein on the latter for its survival and usually at the expense of the host.
272. The following Plasmodium spp. cause/s malignant tertian malaria. A. Commensalism
265. This is made by churning cream until the fatty globules separate. A. Plasmodium falciparum B. Mutualism
A. Cheese B. Plasmodium vivax C. Parasitism
B. Curd C. Plasmodium ovale D. Symbiosis
C. Butter D. Plasmodium malariae E. NOTA
D. Cream E. Both B and C
E. Whey 280. A type of host wherein the parasite attains sexual maturity.
273. Treatment of choice for American trypanosomiasis or Chaga’s disease: A. Definitive host
266. Cell membrane damage causes death because. A. Nifurtimox and Benzidazole B. Intermediate host
A. The cell undergoes osmotic lysis B. Pyrimethamine and Sulfadiazine C. Final host
B. Cell contents leak out C. Trimethoprim and Sulfamethoxazole D. Paratenic host
C. The cell plasmolyzes D. Metronidazole E. Both A and C
D. The cell lacks a wall E. Iodoquinol
E. None of the above 281. A type of host in which the parasite does not develop further to later stages.
274. Vector of Paragonimiasis. However, the parasite remains alive and is able to infect another susceptible
267. Chlorampenicol binds to the 50s portion of a ribosome, which will interfere with: A. Mosquito host.
A. Transcription in prokaryotic cells B. Fly A. Definitive host
B. Transcription in eukaryotic cells C. Rat B. Intermediate host
C. Translation in prokaryotic cells D. Crab C. Final host
D. Translation in eukaryotic cells E. Snail D. Paratenic host
E. DNA synthesis E. Both A and C
275. The drug of choice for Bancroftian filariasis.
268. Which of the following factors does not contribute to antibiotic resistance? A. Pyrimethamine 282. A type of host which harbors the asexual or larval stage of the parasite.
A. Destruction of the plasma membrane B. Diethycarbamazine citrate A. Definitive host
B. Enzymatic destruction or inactivation C. Mebendazole B. Intermediate host
 MICROBIOLOGY, PARASITOLOGY AND PUBLIC HEALTH (RED PACOP)

C. Final host C. Perianal swab

D. Paratenic host 289. The causative agent of lung fluke disease or pulmonary distomiasism or D. Direct fecal smear
E. Both A and C endemic hemoptysis or parasitic hemoptysis. E. Kato tick method
A. Paragonimus westrmani
283. This is defined as a permanent reduction to zero of the worldwide incidence of B. Fasciola hepatica 296. Common term for Enterobius vermicularis.
infection caused by a specific agent, as a result of deliberate efforts. C. Schistosoma japonicum A. Threadworm
A. Disease elimination D. Clonorchis sinensis B. Fluke
B. Disease eradication E. Fasciolopsis buski C. Pinworm
C. Disease prevention D. Flatworm
D. Disease reduction 290. This infection requires Oncomelania snails as intermediate hosts. E. Hookworm
E. NOTA A. Paragonimus westrmani
B. Fasciola hepatica 297. Which of the following is also known as the cat hookworm?
284. This refers to the number (usually expressed as percentage) of individuals in a C. Schistosoma japonicum A. Ancylostoma ceylanicum
population estimated to be infected with a particular parasite species at a D. Clonorchis sinensis B. Ancylostoma braziliense
given time. E. Fasciolopsis buski C. Ancylostoma caninum
A. Prevalence D. Ancylostoma duodenale
B. Incidence 291. This is an example of a parasite of the bile duct and the gallbladder of humans E. Necator americanus
C. Cumulative prevalence and fish-eating mammals.
D. Morbidity A. Paragonimus westrmani 298. Etiologic agent of Chaga’s disease.
E. NOTA B. Fasciola hepatica A. Trypanosoma cruzi
C. Schistosoma japonicum B. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense
285. The drug of choice for the treatment of trichuriasis. D. Clonorchis sinensis C. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense
A. Albendazole E. Fasciolopsis buski D. Wuchereria bancrofti
B. Praziquantel E. Brugia malayi
C. Mebendazole 292. The following are parasites isolated in the placenta, except:
D. Metronidazole A. Toxoplasma 299. Which of the following is also known as the Old world hookworm?
E. Both A and B B. Trypanosoma A. Trypanosoma cruzi
C. Malaria B. Ancylostoma duodenale
286. Human may serve as both a definitive host and an intermediate host of this D. Trichinella C. Necator americanus
type of cestode, therefore both intestinal and tissue infections occur in man. E. NOTA D. Wuchereria bancrofti
A. Taenia saginata E. Brugia malayi
B. Taenia solium 293. A diagnostic technique used to recover eggs of Enterobius vermicularis and
C. Dipylidium caninum Taenia spp. 300. Which of the following is also known as the New world hookworm?
D. Hymenolepsis nana A. Scotch tape method A. Trypanosoma cruzi
E. Hymenolepsis diminuta B. Kato katz method B. Ancylostoma duodenale
C. Perianal swab C. Necator americanus
287. This parasite is the only human tapeworm, which can complete its entire life D. Direct fecal smear D. Wuchereria bancrofti
cycle in a single host, indicating that it does not require an obligatory E. Kato tick method E. Brugia malayi
intermediate host.
A. Taenia saginata 294. A routine method of stool examination primarily useful in the detection of motile
B. Taenia solium protozoan trophozoites using 0.85% NSS.
C. Dipylidium caninum A. Scotch tape method
D. Hymenolepsis nana B. Kato katz method
E. Hymenolepsis diminuta C. Perianal swab
D. Direct fecal smear
288. Also known as Oriental blood fluke. E. Kato tick method
A. Paragonimus westermanii
B. Fasciola hepatica 295. Technique used in detecting eggs with tick shells such as Ascaris and
C. Schistosoma japonicum Trichuris, using a mixture of glycerine and malachite green solution.
D. Clonorchis sinensis A. Scotch tape method
E. Fasciolopsis buski B. Kato katz method