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JEEM Mock Test-19

The document is a mock test booklet for the FIITJEE JEE (Main) examination, specifically for Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics, with a total of 75 questions and a maximum score of 300 marks. It includes detailed instructions for candidates regarding test procedures, marking schemes, and prohibited items during the examination. The test is divided into three parts, with multiple-choice questions and numerical-based questions across the subjects.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
12 views14 pages

JEEM Mock Test-19

The document is a mock test booklet for the FIITJEE JEE (Main) examination, specifically for Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics, with a total of 75 questions and a maximum score of 300 marks. It includes detailed instructions for candidates regarding test procedures, marking schemes, and prohibited items during the examination. The test is divided into three parts, with multiple-choice questions and numerical-based questions across the subjects.

Uploaded by

Pravind Kumar
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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FIITJEE – JEE (Main)

PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS


Mock Test – XI
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 300

▪ D o n o t o p e n th is Te st Bo okle t u n til yo u a re a sked to d o so .


▪ Pl e a se re ad th e i n structio ns ca reful ly. Yo u a re a l lo tted 5 m i nute s sp e ci ficall y f o r th i s p urpo se.

Important Instructions:
A. General Instructions
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue / Black Ball Point Pen. Use of
pencil is strictly prohibited.
2. The Answer Sheet is kept inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out
the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully.
3. The test is of 3 hours duration.
4. The Test Booklet consists of 75 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
5. This question paper contains Three Parts.
6. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
7. Each Part has only one section : Section - A.
8. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be provided for rough
work.
9. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices, in any
form, are not allowed.
10. Use Blue / Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars / marking responses on Side-1 and Side-2 of th e
Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
11. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone,
any electronic device, etc. except the Admit Card inside the examination hall / room.
12. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room / Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
13. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.

B. Marking Scheme For All Three Parts.

(i) Section-A (01 – 20, 26 – 45, 51 – 70) contains 60 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.

Section-A (21 – 25, 46 – 50, 71 – 75) contains 15 Numerical based questions, the answer of which
maybe positive or negative numbers or decimals and each question carries +4 marks for correct
answer. There is no negative marking.

Name of the Candidate (in Capital Letters) :_____________________________________

Enrolment Number :_________________________________________________________

Batch :________________________ Date of Examination : ________________________

FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph 46106000, 26569493,
Fax 26513942, Website: www.fiitjee.com
2
JEEM Mock Test-XI

PART – I: PHYSICS
Section – A: Single Correct Answer Type

This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

GM
1. A body is projected vertically from the surface of earth with speed v= 2 . The speed
R
of the body when it will reach very far away from the earth is
[ M is the mass of earth and R is its radius]
GM 2GM GM
(A) Zero (B) (C) (D) 2
R R R

2. Two sources S1 & S2 are emitting sound in


phase. For which of the following wavelength
there will be a constructive, destructive &
constructive interferences D
(A) 1, 4, 5 S1 2m S2 4m
(B) 2, 4, 1
(C) 4, 1, 2
(D) 1, 3, 5

3. Three identical particles are connected by three strings as


shown in figure. These particles are revolving in a m m m
O
horizontal plane. The velocity of outer most particle is v.   
Then T1:T2:T3 will be (where T1 is tension in the outer
most string etc.)
(A) 3 : 5 : 7 (B) 3 : 5 : 6
(C) 3 : 4 : 5 (D) 7 : 5 : 3

4. The block B moves to the right with a constant velocity


v o as shown in the figure. The relative velocity of body A B vo
A with respect to body B is (assuming all pulleys and
strings are ideal)
(A) v o/2, towards left (B) v o/2, towards right
(C) 3/2v o, towards right (D) 3/2 v o, towards left

5. Electric charge on sphere A of radius a is equal to electric a b


charge on sphere B of radius b. The spheres are joined by
a conducting wire and separated out. The common
potential on each sphere is found to be V. The charge on A B
1
each sphere before joining is (K = )
40
V KV ( a + b ) V (a + b)
(A) (a + b) (B) KV (a + b) (C)
2
(D)
2K
K
Space for rough work

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JEEM Mock Test-XI

6. In the circuit shown the cell and the capacitor are ideal and 6
initially the capacitor is uncharged. If the switch is closed at
2F
t = 0 sec, the charge appearing on C in coul after t = 12 sec is
(A) 20 (1 – e-1) (B) 20 e-1
(C) 20 (D) 10 S
10v

7. A cell of e.m.f. E is balanced at a length of /n from the positive end of a potentiometer
wire of length . If the length of wire is increased by 25% then the balance point will be at
a distance of
(A) /n (B) 1.25 /n (C) /1.25n (D) /4n

8. A coil, a capacitor and an ac source of rms voltage 24 v are connected in series. By


varying the frequency of the source , a maximum rms current of 6A is observed. If this
coil is connected to a battery of emf 12 V and internal resistance 4, the current through
it will be
(A) 2.4 A (B) 1.8 A (C) 1.5 A (D) 1.2 A

9. The electric field strength at a distance ‘r’ from the centre of a charged sphere of radius
‘R’ is E. If r > R, how much work will be done in bringing a test charge q 0 from infinity to
that point?
1 1
(A) q0RE (B) q0RE (C) q0rE (D) q0rE
2 2

10. P’Q’ and PQ are two identical, uniform strings of length L, P

cross sectional area A and Young’s Modulus Y. Four ideal


springs of natural length L are also attached as shown in
figure, each having a spring constant K. If the block is K K L
released from rest, find the distance it will move down
momentarily before it comes to equilibrium. Q
Mg Mg M
(A) (B) Q
2AY AY
4K + 4K +
L L K K L
Mg Mg
(C) (D)
2AY AY
4K − 4K −
L L P

Space for rough work

FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph 46106000, 26569493,
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JEEM Mock Test-XI

11. A disc initially rotating with angular velocity 0 about an


axis passing through CM is placed on a rough wedge
gcot 0
which is moving with an acceleration gcot as shown in
figure. As time passes
(A) Angular velocity increases.
(B) Angular velocity decreases
(C) Angular velocity remains the same. 
(D) can’t be predicted.

12. Two cylinders A and B fitted with pistons contain equal amounts of an ideal diatomic gas
at 300K.The piston of A is free to move while that of B is held fixed . The same amount
of heat is given to the gas in each cylinder. If rise in temperature of the gas in A is 30K,
then rise in temperature of the gas in B is
(A) 30K (B) 18 K (C) 50 K (D) 42 K

 R
13. For certain process the molar heat capacity of an ideal gas is found to be  Cv +  ;
 2
where Cv is the molar heat capacity of the same gas at constant volume. For the given
process,
it can be concluded that (symbols have their usual meaning)
P V2
(A) PV = constant (B) = constant (C) = constant (D) none of these
V P

14. Three rods, made of the same material and having the same A o
100 C
cross-section, have been joined as shown in the figure.
Each rod is of the same length. The temperature at C in the
steady state is
(A) 250C (B) 500C
0
(C) 75 C (D) 400C B C
o
0C

15. A radioactive isotope is being produced at a constant rate X. Half life of the radioactive
substance is Y. After some time the number of radioactive nuclei become constant. The
value of this constant is
XY X
(A) (B) XY (C) (XY) ln(2) (D)
In ( 2 ) Y

16. When an electron in the hydrogen atom in ground state absorbs a photon of energy 12.1
eV, its angular momentum
(A) decreases by 2.11 10−34 J − s (B) decreases by 1.055  10−34 J − s
(C) increase by 2.11 10−34 J − s (D) increases by 1.055  10h−34J − s
Space for rough work

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JEEM Mock Test-XI

17. The maximum intensity in Young’s double slit experiment is Io. Distance between the slits
is d = 5, where  is the wavelength of monochromatic light used in the experiment.
What will be the intensity of light in front of one of the slits on a screen at a distance
D = 10 d?
I 3 I
(A) o (B) Io (C) Io (D) o
2 4 4

18. A plate of thickness t made of a material of refractive index  is placed in front of one of
the slits in a double slit experiment. What should be the minimum thickness t which will
make the intensity at the centre of the fringe pattern zero/
  
(A) (  − 1) (B) (  − 1)  (C) (D)
2 2 (  − 1) (  − 1)
19. A string of length L is stretched by L/20 and speed of transverse wave along it is v. The
speed of wave when it is stretched by L/10 will be (assume that Hooke’s law is
applicable)
v
(A) 2v (B) (C) 2v (D) 4 v
2

20. Distance of an object from the first focus of an equiconvex lens is 10 cm and the
distance of its real image form second focus is 40 cm. The focal length of the lens is
(A) 25 cm (B) 10 cm (C) 20 cm (D) 40 cm

Section – A
Numerical based questions

21. In a hydrogen atom, the electron is in nth excited state. It comes down to first excited
state by emitting ten different wavelengths. The value of ‘n’ is _________.

22. Young’s double slit experiment is made in a liquid. The 10th bright fringe in liquid lies
where 6th dark fringe lies in vacuum. The refractive index of the liquid is approximately
_________.

23. The frequency changes by 10% as the source approaches a stationary observer with
constant speed v s . What would be the percentage change in frequency as the source
recedes the observer with the same speed. Given that v s < < v(v = speed of sound in
air).

24. A plane mirror is made of glass slab (g = 1.5) 2.5 cm thick and silvered on back. A point
object is placed 5 cm in front of the unsilvered face of the mirror. What will be the
position of final image from unsilvered face (in cm) _________.

25. An equiconvex lens of glass (g = 1.5) of focal length 10 cm is silvered on one side. It
will behave like a concave mirror of focal length (in cm)_________.
Space for rough work

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JEEM Mock Test-XI

PART – II: CHEMIST RY


Section – A: Single Correct Answer Type

This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

26. Which of the following carbide is propynide?


(A) Al4C3 (B) CaC2 (C) Mg2C3 (D) Be2C

27. A solution of 0.10 M NaZ has pH = 8.90. The Ka of HZ is


(A) 1.6  10–4 (B) 1.6  10–5 (C) 6.3  10–10 (D) 6.3  10–11

28. A container having volume V contains an ideal gas at 1 atm pressure. It is connected to
another evacuated container having volume 0.5 dm 3 through a tube having negligible
volume. After some time the first container is found to have pressure 570 mm of Hg. If
temperature is constant V is
(A) 1.0 dm 3 (B) 1.5 dm 3 (C) 2.0 dm 3 (D) 2.5 dm 3

29. The set that contains all nucleophiles is


(A) H2O, BF3,Cl–, NH3 (B) CH3NH2, H2O. I–, CH3SH
(C) AlCl3, H+, BF3, I2 (D) AlCl−4 , OH–, Br–, H2

30. Cyclohexene reacts with limited amount of bromine in the presence of light to
form product X (C6H9Br). The statement correct about X is
(A) It is racemate
(B) It is a product of an addition reaction
(C) It is formed through a cationic intermediate
(D) It is optically active

31. Which is incorrect order of acidic strength?


(A)
< <

(B) CHF3 < CHCl3


(C) H H H H
O O O O
NO2

< < <


NO2

NO2
(D) BF3 < BCl3 < BBr3 < BI3
Space for rough work

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JEEM Mock Test-XI

32. In a DNA molecule


(A) A = C (B) A + G = C + T (C) T = G (D) A/T = 2

33. Some heavy water is added to pure water. The numbers of different molecules and
ions present in the mixture at equilibrium are
(A) 2, 0 (B) 6, 3 (C) 3, 6 (D) 3, 4

34. The product/s of the following reaction is/are

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

35. The product formed when chlorine gas is passed over hot iron is
(A) Iron (II) chloride is formed (B) Iron (III) chloride is formed
(C) A mixture of iron (II) chloride and iron (D) No reactions will take place

36. When an apple is cut, the exposed part begins to turn brown. Often the browning action
can be arrested by adding a few drops of lemon juice to the exposed area. The basis for
this treatment is
(A) lemon juice is an antioxidant
(B) denaturation of proteins of the enzymes
(C) decolourization due to lemon juice
(D) activation of decolourizing enzymes under acidic medium

37. Freundlich adsorption isotherms are properly represented as in

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

Space for rough work

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JEEM Mock Test-XI

38. The cell Al(s) | Al3+(aq)(0.001 M) || Cu2+(aq) (0.10 M) | Cu(s) has a standard cell
potential E°=2.00V at 25°C. The cell potential at the given concentrations will be
(A) 2.07V (B) 2.03V
(C) 1.97 V (D) 1.94V

39. Osazones of glucose and fructose are formed when they react with
(A) NH2OH (B) NH2CONHNH2
(C) PhNHNH2 (D) CH3NHNH2

40. Following are conformer of cyclohexane


Chair True boat half-chair Twist boat
I II III IV
Their correct stability order is
(A) I > II > III > IV (B) IV > III > II > I
(C) I > II > IV > III (D) I > IV > II > III

41. The internal energy change involved when a system goes from state A to state B is 40kJ.
If the system goes from A to B by a reversible path and return to A by an irreversible
path, the net change in internal energy is
(A) 40kJ (B) > 40kJ
(C) < 40kJ (D) zero

42. A nonapeptide in rat on hydrolysis gave the following identifiable tripeptides:


Gly-Ala-Phe, Ala-Leu-Val, Gly-Ala-Leu, Phe-Glu-His, and His-Gly-Ala, The sequence in
the nonapetide is
(A) Gly-Ala-Leu-Val-Phe-Glu-His-His-Gly (B) Ala-Phe-Leu-Val-Gly-Leu-Phe-Glu-His
(C) Gly-Ala-Phe-Glu-His-Gly-Ala-Leu-Val (D) Phe-Ala-Leu-Val-Gly-Glu-His-Gly-Ala

43. The metal having highest melting point of the first transition series is:
(A) Fe (B) Cr
(C) Mn (D) Zn

44. A gold sol is prepared by


(A) dissolving gold in Aqua-reqia and precipitation by dilution
(B) double decomposition of AuCl3
(C) Bredy's arc method
(D) grinding in a colloidal mill

45. The correct statement about order of reaction is


(A) it can be predicted from the stoichiometric coefficients of the reactants
(B) it has always positive integral values
(C) it has always positive integral or fractional values
(D) it has to be determined experimentally
Space for rough work

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JEEM Mock Test-XI

Section – A
Numerical based questions

46. The molarity of 20% w/w sulphuric acid of density 1.14g cm –3 is

47. The mass of copper deposited when a current of 10A is passed through a solution of
copper(II) nitrate for 30.6s is

48. Maximum number of moles of barium phosphate formed when 0.9 mole of barium
chloride is mixed with 0.4 mole of sodium phosphate is

49. In an experiment 100 mL of ozonised oxygen was reduced in volume to 40 mL(at same
temperature and pressure) when treated with turpentine oil, what would be the increase
in volume (in ml) if the original sample was heated until no further change occurred and
then brought back to the same temperature and pressure.

50. If the oxidation number and co-ordination number of chromium in complex ion
[Cr(C2O4)2(H2O)2]– are x & y then write answer as xy.
space for rough work

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JEEM Mock Test-XI

PART – III: MAT HEMAT ICS


Section – A: Single Correct Answer Type

This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

51. If a  0, and then equation z − a2 + z − 2a = 3 represents an ellipse, then a lies in

(A) (1, 3 ) (B) ( 2, 3 ) (C) ( 0, 3 ) (


(D) 1, 3 )
52. Let ( a1,a2 ,a3 ,a4 ,a5 ) denote a rearrangement of ( 3, − 5,7,4, − 9 ) , then the equation has
a1x 4 + a2 x3 + a3 x 2 + a4 x + a5 = 0 has
(A) at least two real roots (B) all four real roots
(C) only imaginary roots (D) all roots are zero

53. The number of values of x  0, n,n  I that satisfy log sinx (1+ cos x ) = 2 is
(A) 0 (B) n (C) 2n (D) 3n

The number of irrational terms in the expansion of ( 51/6 + 21/8 )


100
54. is
(A) 96 (B) 97 (C) 98 (D) 99

 a + ib c + id
55. If A =   and a2 + b2 + c 2 + d2 = 1, then A −1 is equal to
 −c + id a − ib 
 a + ib −c + id  a − ib c − id 
(A)   (B)  
 −c + id a − ib   −c − id a + ib 
 a − ib −c − id  a + ib c + id
(C)   (D)  
 +c − id a + ib   −c + id a + ib 

56. Six distinct numbers are selected from first 150 natural numbers. The probability all the
six numbers are divisible both by 3 and 5 is
1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
33 35 49 55

1 1 3
57. In a triangle ABC, if + = then C is equal to
a+c b+c a+b+c
(A) 30o (B) 60o (C) 75o (D) 90o
Space for rough work

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JEEM Mock Test-XI

58. (
The equation 2cos−1 x = sin−1 2x 1 − x2 ) is valid for all values of x satisfying
1 1
(A) −1  x  1 (B) 0  x  1 (C) 0  x  (D)  x 1
2 2

59. If O is the origin and OP, OQ are distinct tangents to the circle x2 + y2 + 2gx + 2fy + c = 0,
the circumcentre of the triangle OPQ is
 g −f 
(A) ( −g, − f ) (B) (g, f) (C) ( − f, − g ) (D)  − , 
 2 2

60. A line is drawn through the point the point P (3, 11) to cut the circle x2 + y2 = 9 at A and
B. Then PA . PB is equal to
(A) 9 (B) 121 (C) 205 (D) 139

61. Tangents are drawn to a parabola from a point T. If P, Q are the points of contact then
perpendicular distance from P, T and Q upon the tangent at the vertex of the parabola
are in
(A) A.P. (B) G.P. (C) H.P. (D) none of these


62. Let P ( a sec ,b tan  ) and Q ( a sec , b tan  ) where  +  = , be two points on the
2
x2 y2
hyperbola − = 1. If (h, k) is the point of intersection of normals at P and Q , then k
a2 b2
is equal to
a2 + b2  a2 + b2  a2 + b2  a2 + b2 
(A) (B) −   (C) (D) −  
a  a  b  b 

63. If x = 9 is the chord of contact of the hyperbola x2 − y2 = 9 , then the equation of the
corresponding pair of tangents is
(A) 9x2 − 8y2 + 18x − 9 = 0 (B) 9x2 − 8y2 − 18x + 9 = 0
(C) 9x2 − 8y2 − 18x − 9 = 0 (D) 9x2 − 8y2 + 18x + 9 = 0

64. Equation of a plane which passes through the point of intersection of lines
x −1 y − 2 z − 3 x − 3 y −1 z − 2
= = and = = and at greatest distance from the origin is
3 1 2 1 2 3
(A) 7x + 2y + 4z = 54 (B) 4x + 3y + 5z = 50
(C) 3x + 4y + 5z = 49 (D) x + y + z = 12
Space for rough work

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JEEM Mock Test-XI

65. Let f ( x ) = log2 ( sinx + cos x ) . The range of f ( x ) is


 1  −1 
(A)  −1, 0  (B) 0,  (C)  , 0  (D)  0, 1
 2 2 

 x 
x   2a 
tan

66. Let f ( x ) =  2 −  , x  a . The value which should be assigned to f at x = a so that
 a
it is continuous everywhere is
2
(A) (B) e−2/  (C) 2 (D) e2/ 

67. If f’ is differentiable function and f " ( x ) is continuous at x = 0 and f " ( 0 ) = a, the value of
2f ( x ) − 3f ( 2x ) + f ( 4x )
lim is
x →0 x2
(A) a (B) 2a (C) 3a (D) 4a

log (  + x )
The function g ( x ) = e x ( x  0 ) is
2
68.
log ( e + x )
(A) increasing on 0,  )
(B) decreasing on 0,  )
   
(C) increasing on 0,  and decreasing on  ,  
 e e 
   
(D) decreasing on 0,  and increasing on  ,  
 e e 

dx
69. If I =  , then I equals
(a )
3/2
2
− b2 x 2
x x
(A) +C (B) +C
a2 − b2 x 2 a2 a2 − b2 x 2
ax x
(C) +C (D)
a −b x
2 2 2
b2 a2 − b2 x 2

70. Which of the following transformation reduce the differential equation


dz z z d
+ log z = 2 (log z ) into the form + P (x)  = Q (x) ?
2

dx x x dx
(C)  = (logz ) (D)  = (logz )
−1 2
(A)  = logz (B)  = ez
Space for rough work

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13
JEEM Mock Test-XI

Section – A
Numerical based questions

cos x x 1
f (x)
71. Let f ( x ) = 2 sin x x 2 2x , then lim 2 is equal to
x →0 x
tan x x 2

If points A (3, 4), B (7, 12) and P (x, y) are such that (PA )  (PB)  ( AB) then integral
2 2 2
72.
value of x can be

73. If 12 + 22 + 32 + ........... + 20032 = ( 2003 )( 4007 )( 334 ) and


(1)( 2003 ) + ( 2)( 2002) + ( 3 )( 2001) + ........ + ( 2003 )(1) = ( 2003 )(334 )( x ) , then x equals

74. ((
If f ( 0 ) = 0, f ' ( 0 ) = 2 then the derivative of y = f f f ( f ( x ) ) ) ) at x = 0 is
75. The distance of the point B with position vector i + 2j + 3k from the line passing through
the point A whose position vector is 4i + 2j + 2k and parallel to the vector 2i + 3j + 6k is
Space for rough work

FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph 46106000, 26569493,
Fax 26513942, Website: www.fiitjee.com
14
JEEM Mock Test-XI

FIITJEE – JEE (Main)


Mock Test – XI

ANSWER KEY
SECTION – I (PHYSICS)
PART-A
1. C 2. B 3. B 4. B
5. D 6. C 7. B 8. C
9. C 10. B 11. C 12. D
13. B 14. B 15. A 16. C
17. A 18. C 19. C 20. C
PART-C
21. 6 22. 1.8 23. 10 24. 8.33
25. 2.5

SECTION – II (CHEMISTRY)
PART-A
26. C 27. B 28. B 29. B
30. A 31. D 32. B 33. C
34. C 35. B 36. A 36. C
38. B 39. C 40. D 41. D
42. C 43. B 44. C 45. D
PART-C
46. 2.33 47. 0.10 48. 0.2 49. 30
50. 36

SECTION – III (MATHEMATICS)


PART-A
51. C 52. A 53. A 54. B
55. C 56. D 57. B 58. D
59. D 60. B 61. B 62. D
63. B 64. B 65. B 66. D
67. C 68. B 69. B 70. C
PART-C
71. –2 72. 16 73. 2005 74. 16
75. 3.16

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Fax 26513942, Website: www.fiitjee.com

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