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Forum Preparatory Test-29 2023

The document is a test booklet for the PTS 2023 Preparatory Test 29, containing instructions for candidates regarding the examination process, including how to fill out the answer sheet and the penalties for incorrect answers. It includes a series of general studies questions related to various environmental and biological topics, each with multiple-choice answers. Candidates are instructed to not open the booklet until told and to ensure the booklet is complete before starting the test.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)

4 views39 pages

Forum Preparatory Test-29 2023

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rajarsee1999

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PTS 2023 | Preparatory Test 29 |

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

T.B.C. : FIAS-PTS23-PT29 Test Booklet Series
Serial No.
TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES
Paper – 1 A
Maximum Marks: 100 Time Allowed: 1 Hour

INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU
SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY
UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS ETC. IF SO, GET IT
REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOK.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in
the Roll Number and Test Booklet Series A, B, C or D carefully without any
omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer
Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for
rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the test
booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT
write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 50 items (questions). Each item is printed in English
and Hindi. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the
response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that
there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider
the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet
provided.
See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items
in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as
per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and
the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the
Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A
CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each
question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-
third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as wrong
answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there
will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left bank i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there
will be no penalty for that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

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PTS 2023 | Preparatory Test 29 |

Q.1) Which of the following is correct regarding Q.4) Which of the following is the correct
the Agri-Voltaic farming? description of the term homeostasis?
a) It is a farming method that exclusively a) It is the capacity of an ecosystem to regulate
involves large scale solar installations to their species structure and functional
harvest the solar power. processes.
b) It is a farming practice of growing produce b) It refers to the stopping of the blood from
stacked one above another in a controlled the circulation system in animals.
environment that uses the artificial lights. c) It is maintained by the positive feedback
c) It is the farming method that involves the loop that reduces an excessive response in
growth of crops and generation of solar an organism.
energy from the same land. d) It is the process by which an organism
d) It is the farming method that allows farmers maintains a dynamic internal equilibrium
to maximize yields by controlling every according to the changes in the internal or
variable of crop inputs. external environment.

Q.2) With reference to the Ethanol blending in Q.5) With reference to the Mangroves
India, consider the following statements: ecosystem, consider the following statements:
1. India has set a target of 30% ethanol 1. Mangroves exhibit Viviparity mode of
blending by 2030. reproduction as an adaptative mechanism
2. Ethanol blended petrol has lesser fuel to overcome the problem of germination in
efficiency than the petrol. saline water.
3. The National Policy on Biofuels allows the 2. The pneumatophores of Mangroves help to
use of sugar beet and sweet sorghum for stabilize the coastal shores by increasing the
ethanol production. deposition of sediment.
Which of the statements given above are 3. Very dense mangroves are found only in the
correct? state of Gujarat.
a) 1 and 2 only Which of the statements given above is/are
b) 2 and 3 only correct?
c) 1 and 3 only a) 1 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
Q.3) Consider the following statements: d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Eurythermal organism cannot tolerate a
large change in the temperatures. Q.6) Which of the following is/are the impact
2. Hydrophytes are the plants that are able to of forest fires on the natural ecosystems?
survive in anaerobic environments. 1. It increases the soil microbial activities
3. Epiphytes are the plants that use the immediately after fire.
supporting plants for shelter and not for 2. It provides the opportunity for the growth
water or food. of trees.
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. It helps in protecting flora from the pests
correct? and diseases.
a) 1 and 2 only 4. It largely increases the chances of attack of
b) 2 and 3 only invasive alien species.
c) 1 and 3 only Select the correct answer from the code given
d) 1,2 and 3 below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2 and 4 only

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PTS 2023 | Preparatory Test 29 |

Q.7) With reference to the coral reefs, consider Q.10) Which of the following is correct in regard
the following statements: to the difference between Artificial and Natural
1. While the photosynthetically active Lakes?
radiation is beneficial to the corals, the a) Artificial lakes contain lesser quantity of
ultraviolet radiation causes their bleaching. nutrients and sediments as compared to
2. Eutrophication increases the number of natural lakes.
zooxanthellae in the corals. b) Artificial lake basins tend to be circular in
3. Coral reefs are the largest source of shape while natural lakes are generally
biogenic calcium carbonate. narrow and dendritic in shape.
Which of the statements given above are c) The water levels in artificial lakes are fairly
correct? constant, while those in natural lakes vary
a) 1 and 2 only typically with the seasons.

b) 2 and 3 only d) Natural lakes tend to be located at the

headwaters of rivers or streams, whereas
c) 1 and 3 only
man-made lakes tend to be closer to the
d) 1, 2 and 3
mouth of the river or stream

Q.8) With reference to the sea grass, consider

Q.11) Consider the following statements:
the following statements:
1. Coral Reef Recovery Project is a joint
1. They reproduce by the sexual method only.
venture between Wildlife trust of India and
2. They are multi-cellular algae and have little the Gujarat Forest department.
or no vascular tissues.
2. National Green Corps ‘Ecoclub’ was
3. They are an indicator species of the health launched by Wildlife Trust of India to
of coastal ecosystems. enhance sustainable forest landscape
Which of the statements given above are management.
correct? Which of the statements given above is/are
a) 1 only correct?
b) 1 and 2 only a) 1 only
c) 3 only b) 2 only
d) 2 and 3 only c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.9) Consider the following statements with
reference to desert ecosystem: Q.12) Which of the following statements is
1. All desert plants are characterized by the correctly explaining the term ‘Photophores’?
xerophytic adaptations like wax coating and a) It is a light absorbing cells of fish which is
thick cuticle. helpful for their metabolism in aquatic
2. While the hot deserts are eroded majorly by environment.
wind, the cold deserts are eroded mainly by b) It is an animal organ that obtains energy
glacial waters. from sunlight for the synthesis of organic
3. The annual range of temperature in deserts compounds.
is higher than tropical areas. c) It is a marine’s organ that are used to
Which of the statements given above is/are produce light for attracting mates and
correct? generating camouflages.
a) 1 only d) It is an aerial root specialized for gaseous
b) 3 only exchange in mangroves and other swamp
c) 1 and 2 only plants.
d) 2 and 3 only

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PTS 2023 | Preparatory Test 29 |

Q.13) Consider the following statements with Q.16) With reference to ‘Biological Diversity’,
reference to the Miyawaki style of consider the following pairs:
afforestation: Types of organism Examples
1. Miyawaki style of afforestation is an
1. Osmotrophs Animals and
afforestation technique that uses native
Humans
species to create forests.
2. Through Miyawaki method, dense forests 2. Autotrophs Microscopic
are grown within comparatively short span Algae
of time. 3. Phagotrophs Earthworm and
3. Kerala has launched a forest conservation Fungi
project inspired by the Miyawaki method. Which of the pairs given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrectly matched?
correct? a) 1 only
a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only d) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.17) Which one of the following statements

Q.14) Consider the following statements with most appropriately describes the term ‘Biome’?
reference to the Grassland ecosystem: a) It is a land use category developed for
1. Grasslands ecosystem are found where biodiversity conservation and landscape
rainfall is about 250-750 mm per year. adaptation under changing climates.
2. In India, they are found in the higher b) It denotes the amount of living or organic
altitudes of Himalayas. matter present in an organism throughout
3. Fire in the grassland ecosystem helps the biosphere.
control trees and woody shrubs. c) It is a terrestrial part of the biosphere
Which of the statements given above is/are characterized by climate, vegetation, animal
correct? life and general soil type.
a) 1 and 2 only d) It is a local atmospheric zone where the
b) 2 and 3 only climate differs from the surrounding area.
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 Q.18) Consider the following statements with
reference to the Ecological Niche:
1. Niche describes the biological, physical and
Q.15) Consider the following statements with
chemical factors that a species needs to
reference to the Red tide or Harmful algal
survive in an ecosystem.
Blooms:
2. The two or more species can have same
1. Harmful algal blooms occur when simple
niche and coexist stably.
photosynthetic organisms that live in the
sea grow out of control. 3. In general, species that have narrow or
limited niches are considered to be
2. Surface run-off, warm waters and upwelling
specialist species.
in seas are common causes for the harmful
algal blooms. Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? a) 1 and 2 only
a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only
b) 2 only c) 1 and 3 only

c) Both 1 and 2 d) 1, 2 and 3

d) Neither 1 nor 2

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PTS 2023 | Preparatory Test 29 |

Q.19) Which one of the following statements is 1. It is an organism without which the
correct regarding ‘Ecotone’? ecosystem would be dramatically different
a) It is an area in which an animal lives and or cease to exist altogether.
moves on a daily or periodic basis. 2. Keystone species are always the largest or
b) It is a zone of gradual but continuous change most abundant species in an ecosystem.
from one ecosystem to another. 3. Bats are considered as keystone species in
c) It refers to the unique functional role and India as certain plant species like ebony tree
position of a species in its habitat or depends upon bats for its pollination.
ecosystem. Which of the statements given above is/are
d) It is a zone of junction or correct?
a transition area between two diverse a) 1 only
ecosystems. b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
Q.20) It is an ecological concept that describes d) 1 and 3 only
how there is a greater diversity of life in the
region where the edges of two adjacent Q.23) With reference to ‘Sustainable
ecosystems overlap, such as land/water, or Development’, consider the following
forest/grassland. At the interface of two statements:
overlapping ecosystems, we can find species 1. The concept of ‘Sustainable Development’
from both of these ecosystems, as well as was first introduced during the Earth
unique species that aren’t found in either Summit of 1992.
ecosystem but are specially adapted to the 2. Sustainable development aims towards
conditions of the transition zone. exclusively meeting the needs of the
Which one of the following ecological concepts existing generation with minimum
is described in the above given paragraph? environmental problems.
a) Ecological resilience 3. The triple bottom line approach is meant for
b) Population Threshold sustainable development methods to be
c) Edge Effect followed by companies and corporates.
d) Keystone species Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
Q.21) Consider the following pairs: a) 1 and 2 only
Types of Biome Characteristics b) 1 and 3 only
c) 3 only
1. Temperate Coexistence of a large
d) 2 and 3 only
Deciduous Forest number of species
2. Steppe Biome Treeless biome with
Q.24) Consider the following statements with
short and nutritious
reference to the provisions of Indian
grasses
Constitution:
3. Taiga Biome Boreal forests with
1. The chapter on fundamental duties of the
thin podzols and low
Indian Constitution clearly imposes duty on
pH soil
every citizen to protect environment.
4. Desert Biome Plants have long roots
2. The right to live in a healthy environment as
with few or no leaves
part of Article 19 of Indian Constitution has
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly
been recognized by Supreme Court.
matched?
3. Directive principles under the Indian
a) 1 and 2 only
constitution direct the state to safeguard
b) 2 and 3 only
the forests and wild life of the country.
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
Q.22) Consider the following statements b) 2 and 3 only
regarding ‘Keystone species’: c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

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PTS 2023 | Preparatory Test 29 |

Q.25) How are the Sustainable Development 3. According to its Framework Agreement, all
Goals (SDGs) different from the Millennium member states of the United Nations are
Development Goals (MDGs)? eligible to join the ISA.
1. SDGs are universal and apply to all Which of the statements given above is/ are
countries, whereas the MDGs were correct?
intended for action in developing countries a) 1 only
mainly. b) 2 and 3 only
2. MDGs mainly focused on social aspects of c) 1 and 3 only
human life and totally ignored the d) 1 and 2
environmental issues whereas SDGs are
equally focused on social as well as
Q.28) With reference to the recently released
environmental issues.
Green Hydrogen/ Green Ammonia Policy,
3. Unlike SDGs, MDGs include peace building consider the following statements:
in their core agenda for the success of the
1. Green Hydrogen is extracted from methane
goals of ending poverty and hunger.
clathrates found in ice and sea sediments.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
2. The policy aims to increase the production
below:
of Green Hydrogen to 5 million tonnes by
a) 1 only 2030.
b) 1 and 2 only 3. Interstate transmission charges will be
c) 2 and 3 only waived off for 25 years for plants producing
d) 3 only green hydrogen.
4. All the Green Hydrogen produced under
Q.26) With reference to the Flex Fuel Vehicles, this scheme is to be exported.
Consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/ are
1. Flex fuel vehicles will run on gasoline fuels correct?
with a fixed level of ethanol blends. a) 1, 2 and 3 only
2. Unlike Flex fuel vehicles, hybrid electric b) 2 and 3 only
vehicles have very low running costs due to c) 3 and 4 only
little or no use of fossil fuels. d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
3. The government has recently amended the
motor vehicles act, 1988 providing tax
Q.29) With reference to BS VI Norms, consider
exemption to car companies to launch Flex
the following statements:
fuel vehicles.
1. Presently, these norms are applicable to the
Which of the statements given above is/are
commercial heavy vehicles only.
correct?
2. Particulate Matter emission standards have
a) 1 only
not been changed in these norms.
b) 1 and 2 only
3. Both Sulphur and Nitrogen emissions have
c) 2 only been curtailed in the new norms.
d) 2 and 3 only 4. It mandates on-board diagnostic systems on
vehicles to check the level of emissions.
Q.27) With reference to the International Solar Which of the statements given above is/ are
Alliance (ISA), consider the following correct?
statements: a) 1, 3 and 4 only
1. It develops cost-effective and b) 2 and 3 only
transformational energy solutions powered c) 3 and 4 only
by the sun to help member countries d) 1 and 3 only
develop low-carbon growth trajectories.
2. It focuses on policy issues alone and not the
fund mobilisation.

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PTS 2023 | Preparatory Test 29 |

Q.30) Consider the following statements with Which of the statements given above is/are
reference to the Ecological Succession: correct?
1. Ecological succession is the process by a) 1 only
which the mix of species and habitat in an b) 2 only
area change over time. c) Both 1 and 2
2. Primary succession happens when a climax d) Neither 1 nor 2
community or intermediate community is
impacted by a disturbance. Q.34) With respect to ecological succession,
3. Secondary succession is relatively faster seral community refers to:
than primary succession as it starts on a
a) First community to inhibit the area.
well-developed soil already formed at a site.
b) Last stable community found in the area.
Which of the statements given above is/are
c) Intermediate transitional community
correct?
advancing towards climax community.
a) 1 only
d) Less stable community resembling climax
b) 1 and 2 only community.
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Q.35) Consider the following statements:
1. Denitrification is carried out during the
Q.31) Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic association absence of oxygen by Thiobacillus species
between: such as Clostridium and Pseudomonas
a) Plants and fungi. bacteria.
b) Fungi and bacteria. 2. Atmosphere plays no significant role in the
c) Legumes and rhizobia. phosphorus cycle.
d) Algae and bacteria. Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
Q.32) With reference to the tropical rainforest a) 1 only
biome, consider the following statements: b) 2 only
1. It is characterized by non-uniformity in c) Both 1 and 2
temperature and humidity throughout the d) Neither 1 nor 2
year.
2. The soils of this biome are rich in nutrients Q.36) Angria Bank is famous for which of the
due to high rainfall. following reason?
3. The vegetation consists of multi layered a) It is famous for its unique mangrove forests.
canopy and tall trees. b) It is one of the most popular spots to watch
Which of the statements given above are migratory birds in winter.
correct? c) It is home to rich marine biodiversity.
a) 1 and 2 only d) This place is known for the world's highest
b) 2 and 3 only daily tides.
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 Q.37) Which of the following medicines have
been developed from a forest plant/tree?
Q.33) Consider the following statements with 1. Remdesivir
respect to Estuaries: 2. Molnupiravir
1. They are located where river meets the sea. 3. Morphine
2. These are the most productive regions of Select the correct code from the options given
the world due to availability of high amount below:
of nutrients. a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only

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PTS 2023 | Preparatory Test 29 |

Q.38) With reference to the Theory of Evolution Q.41) Which of the following are the evidences
by Charles Darwin and Alfred Wallace, consider of ecological imbalance in the world?
the following statements: 1. Increased in natural calamities like flood
1. Organisms produce more offspring than are and cyclones.
able to survive in their environment. 2. Reduction in photosynthesis.
2. An evolutionary force selects genes among 3. Introduction of new species.
variations which have better chances of Select the correct answer using the code given
adaptation. below:
3. The member of the same species does not a) 1 and 3 only
show variations and are exactly identical to b) 1 and 2 only
each other. c) 2 and 3 only
Which of the above-mentioned statements d) 1, 2 and 3
is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only Q.42) With reference to biomass pyramid,
b) 2 and 3 only consider the following statement:
c) 1 and 3 only 1. One of the main limitations of a biomass
d) 1, 2 and 3 pyramid is that every trophic level seems to
have more energy than it truly has.
Q.39) Which of the following statements is/are 2. A biomass pyramid counts mass that is not
correct about Sulphur cycle? actually transmitted to the next trophic
1. It is a gaseous cycle as it does not involve level.
any sedimentary components. Which of the following option is correct in the
2. Sulphur is taken by plants in the form of context of above statements?
sulphates. a) 1 only
Select the correct answer using the code given b) 2 only
below: c) Both 1 and 2
a) 1 only d) Neither 1 nor 2
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 Q.43) Which of the following options correctly
d) Neither 1 nor 2 describes the term “Species”?
a) Group of organisms occupying a defined
Q.40) The ‘Honolulu Strategy’, sometimes seen area during a specific time.
in the news, is related to: b) Living being that has the ability to act or
a) It is a framework for a comprehensive and function independently.
global effort to reduce the ecological, c) Group of organisms that are able to
human health and economic impacts of interbreed and reproduce fertile offspring.
marine debris. d) Term used to refer the name of different
b) It is a framework to guide activities in the organisms.
forest sector that reduces emissions from
deforestation and forest degradation. Q.44) Consider the following statements:
c) It is a framework established to allow better 1. In the ecosystem, there are some organisms
planning and implementation of adaptation that totally depend on each other for
projects in developing countries through survival.
increased financial and technical support. 2. The relation between Bees and pollinating
d) It is a framework to provide comfort to flowers shows the dependency on each
concerned stakeholders through other for survival.
implementation of Energy Efficiency Which of the following process describes the
schemes above-mentioned relation?
a) Amensalism
b) Symbiosis
c) Commensalism
d) Parasitism

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PTS 2023 | Preparatory Test 29 |

Q.45) Which of the following ecosystems can be Q.49) Which one of the statements given below
considered as human-modified ecosystems? is correct with reference to Zero Budget
1. Agro-ecosystems Natural Farming (ZBNF)?
2. Dams and Reservoirs 1. It involves the raising of crops without using
3. Grasslands any fertilizers.
4. Rural Ecosystem 2. The word Zero Budget refers to the zero
5. Estuary cost of production of all crops.
Select the correct answer from the codes given 3. It was developed to support the idea of the
below: Green Revolution in India.
a) 1, 3 and 5 only 4. The technique promotes the application of
b) 2, 3 and 4 only Jivamrita.
c) 1, 2 and 4 only Select the correct answer using the code given
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 below:
a) 1, 3 and 4 only
Q.46) Which of the following is/are the correct b) 2 and 4 only
reason(s) for Tubifex being called an indicator c) 1, 2 and 4 only
species? d) 1 and 3 only
a) It only grows in soils which are polluted with
lead. Q.50) Consider the following statements with
b) It grows in water bodies which are reference to Globally Important Agricultural
extremely acidic. Heritage Systems (GIAHS):
c) It grows in water bodies which are anoxic 1. United Nations Development Programme
and contain heavy metals. (UNDP) recognizes the agricultural heritage
d) It grows in water bodies with high regions of the world.
temperature. 2. The GIAHS recognizes land use systems and
landscapes which are rich in biological
Q.47) The process of 'Torrefaction', sometimes diversity.
seen in the news, is a 3. In India, Below Sea Level Farming System of
a) Thermochemical process used to produce Odisha has been recognized under the
high-grade solid biofuels. GIAHS.
b) Process of decomposition of organic matter Which of the statements given above is/are
present in water by microorganisms. correct?
c) Process to cut and lift rice straw and deposit a) 2 only
the straw over the sown area as mulch. b) 2 and 3 only
d) Biological process in which micro- c) 1 and 3 only
organisms decompose degradable organic d) 1, 2 and 3
waste into humus like substance.

Q.48) With reference to the Sustainable

Development Goals (SDGs), consider the
following statements:
1. SDGs are a set of legally binding goals and
specific targets to be achieved by 2030.
2. SDGs implementation in India is undertaken
by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme
Implementation.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

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PTS 2023 | Preparatory Test 29 – Solutions |

Q.1)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Option a is incorrect: Solar farms are large scale solar installations where photovoltaic (PV) panels,
referred to as solar panels, or other means of collecting solar energy, like concentrating solar systems are
used to harvest the suns power. Solar farms are also known as solar parks and solar power stations.
Option b is incorrect: Indoor vertical farming can be defined as the practice of growing produce stacked
one above another in a closed and controlled environment. By using growing shelves mounted vertically, it
significantly reduces the amount of land space needed to grow plants compared to traditional farming
methods. Vertical farms are unique in that some setups don’t require soil for plants to grow. In lieu of
natural sunlight, artificial grow lights are used.
Option c is correct: Agri-voltaic farming system involves the option to grow crops and generate
renewable energy from a single land unit. The system is best suitable for those areas where solar
irradiation is available in plenty and land productivity potential is comparatively low. Additional advantage
of Agri-voltaic system is its ability to harvest rainwater from the top of Photovoltaic modules.
The Agri-voltaic system can be connected to grid through net metering system to supply the Photovoltaic
generated electricity and earn an additional income. Overall, the land equivalent ratio can be improved by
installation of Agri-voltaic system in farmers' field.
Option d is incorrect: Precision agriculture are technologies that allow farmers to maximize yields by
controlling every variable of crop farming such as moisture levels, pest stress, soil conditions, and micro-
climates. By providing more accurate techniques for planting and growing crops, precision agriculture
enables farmers to increase efficiency and manage costs.
Source: https://www.renewableenergyworld.com/storage/what-is-a-solar-farm/#gref
https://krishi.icar.gov.in/jspui/bitstream/123456789/19152/1/Santra%20et%20al_2018_Indian%20far
ming_September%20issue.pdf

Q.2)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
In ethanol blending, a blended motor fuel containing ethyl alcohol derived from agricultural products is
blended with petrol specifically. Ethanol is a biofuel, naturally produced by the fermentation of sugars by
yeasts or by petrochemical processes like ethylene hydration.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The National Policy on Biofuels 2018 envisaged an indicative target of 20%
ethanol blending in petrol by the year 2030. However, due to various interventions made by the
Government since 2014, the target of 20% ethanol blending was advanced from 2030 to 2025-26.
The target of 10% blending under the programme has been achieved five months ahead of schedule
(November 2022). There is no 30% target.
Statement 2 is correct: Challenges associated with Ethanol blending:
(a) It takes much more ethanol to power a vehicle’s engine than petrol, therefore blending leads to a loss of
efficiency. For instance, when using E20, there is an estimated loss of 6-7% fuel efficiency for 4-wheelers
which are originally designed for E0 and calibrated for E10, 3-4% for 2-wheelers designed for E0 and
calibrated for E10.
(b) It also leaves residual by-products that can corrode and damage the vehicle. Further, tests conducted
in India have shown that there is no reduction in nitrous oxides, one of the major environmental pollutants.
Statement 3 is correct: The National Policy on Biofuels expands the scope of raw material for ethanol
production by allowing use of – (a) Sugarcane Juice, Sugar containing materials like Sugar Beet, Sweet
Sorghum;
(b) Starch containing materials like Corn, Cassava;

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(c) Damaged food grains like wheat, broken rice, Rotten Potatoes, unfit for human consumption for ethanol
production.
Source: https://blog.forumias.com/india-has-achieved-the-target-of-10-ethanol-blending-ahead-of-
schedule/#:~:text=The%20'National%20Policy%20on%20Biofuels,from%202030%20to%202025%2D26
https://blog.forumias.com/amendments-to-the-national-biofuel-policy

Q.3)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Adaptation is any attribute of the organism (morphological, physiological, and behavioural) that enables the
organism to survive and reproduce in its habitat. Many adaptations have evolved over a long evolutionary
time and are genetically fixed.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Eurythermal organisms can tolerate and thrive in a wide range of
temperatures. Stenothermal organisms are restricted to a narrow range of temperatures.
Statement 2 is correct: Hydrophytes are plants that adapted to live in water or moist environments.
Adaptations include:
1) In submerged forms, the stem is long, thin, porous, and bendable.
2) Either the cuticle is completely absent or, if present, it is narrow and poorly formed.
3) Hydrophytes are able to survive in anaerobic environments.
4) They have specialized aerating organs.
Statement 3 is correct: Epiphytes are plants that grow by perching on other plants. They solely use the
supporting plants for shelter and not for water or food. These epiphytes can be found in tropical rain
forests. Orchids and Hanging Mosses are examples. Adaptations include:
1) Aerial roots (for respiration) and clinging roots (which hold the epiphytes firmly to the surfaces of the
supporting structures).
2) In some, the stems are succulent (they store water) and produce pseudo-bulbs or tubers.
3) The occurrence of a thick cuticle and depressed stomata slows transpiration significantly.
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/lebo113.pdf
https://www.bartleby.com/subject/science/biology/concepts/ecological-adaptations

Q.4)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Option a is correct: Ecosystems like organisms are capable of maintaining their state of equilibrium. They
can regulate their own species structure and functional processes. This capacity of ecosystem of self-
regulation is known as Homeostasis.
Option b is incorrect: Hemostasis refers to the arrest of the escape of blood from the circulation system
in animals. During hemostasis, the blood flow is slowed down and a clot is formed to prevent the blood loss.
The hemostasis changes blood from a liquid to a gelatinous state.
Option c is incorrect: Homeostasis is generally maintained in an organism by a negative feedback
loop that includes a stimulus, sensor, control Centre, and effector. Negative feedback serves to reduce an
excessive response and to keep a variable within the normal range. Negative feedback loops control body
temperature and the blood glucose level.
Option d is incorrect: Allostasis is the process of maintain the dynamic internal equilibrium according
to the changes in the internal or external environment. Thus, it is the process of maintaining the
homeostasis.

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Homeostasis is the state of maintaining a steady physical and chemical environment inside a living
organism. Therefore, it keeps all the conditions of the body in their optimal values.
Homeostasis is the state of steady internal physical and chemical conditions maintained by living systems.
Source:
https://www.nature.com/articles/1395453#:~:text=Allostasis%20(literally%20%E2%80%9Cmaintaining
%20stability%2C,(Sterling%20and%20Eyer%201988).
https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/lebo113.pdf

Q.5)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Mangroves are the characteristic littoral plant formation of tropical and subtropical sheltered coastlines.
Mangroves are trees and bushes growing below the high-water level of spring tides which exhibit
remarkable capacity for salt water tolerance. They require high solar radiation and have the ability to absorb
fresh water from saline/brackish water.
Statement 1 is correct: Mangroves exhibit Viviparity mode of reproduction. i.e., seeds germinate in the
tree itself (before falling to the ground). This is an adaptative mechanism to overcome the problem of
germination in saline water.
Statement 2 is correct: Mangrove plants have special roots such as prop roots, pneumatophores (to
overcome respiration problem in the anaerobic soil conditions) which help to impede water flow and
thereby enhance the deposition of sediment. This enables stabilization of the coastal shores. Other
benefits are:
(a) It prevents coastal soil erosion.
(b) It protects coastal lands from tsunami, hurricanes and floods.
(c) Mangroves enhance natural recycling of nutrients.
(d) Provide a safe and favorable environment for breeding, spawning, rearing of several fishes.
(e) It supplies woods, fire wood, medicinal plants and edible plants to local people.
(f) It provides numerous employment opportunities to local communities.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Mangrove distribution in India:
(a) The mangroves of Sundarbans are the largest single block of tidal holophytic mangroves of the world.
Most of the very dense mangrove forest in India is found here.
(b) The mangroves of Bhitarkanika (Orissa) are the second largest in the Indian sub-continent. It harbours
high concentration of typical mangrove species and high genetic diversity.
(c) In India, very dense mangroves are found only in West Bengal, Odisha, Andaman and Nicobar Islands
and Tamil Nadu.

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(a) On the west coast of India, mangroves occur along the intertidal region of estuaries and creeks in
Maharashtra, Goa and Karnataka.
(b) In Gujarat, mangroves are found mainly in Gulf of Kachchh and the Kori creek. Most of them are open
mangroves.

Source: Environment by Shankar IAS – Chapter 4 Aquatic Ecosystem – P 45, 46.

https://www.mangrovealliance.org/news/mangrove-cover-is-on-the-rise-in-india/

Q.6)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Forest fires kill beneficial soil microorganisms that are responsible for breaking
down the soil and promoting soil microbial activities. Further, the wildfires also make soils vulnerable to
soil erosion.

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Statement 2 is correct: Forest fire removes low-growing underbrush, cleans the forest floor of debris,
opens it up to sunlight, and nourishes the soil. Reducing this competition for nutrients allows established
trees to grow stronger and healthier. Established trees have to compete with undergrowth for nutrients
and space. Fire clears the weaker trees and debris and returns health to the forest.
Statement 3 is correct: Forest fire kills diseases and insects that prey on trees and provides valuable
nutrients that enrich the soil. Many forests struggle against diseases such as pitch canker and bark beetle
infestations. Fire kills pests and keeps the forest healthy. Vegetation that is burned by fire provides a rich
source of nutrients that nourish remaining trees.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Forest fires helps in controlling the population of invasive alien species by
destroying them. Also, as the forest is devoid of its vegetation and other resources after fire, the conditions
are more favorable for native species to grow rather than any other invasive alien species.
Source: https://www.fire.ca.gov/media/5425/benifitsoffire.pdf
https://www.fao.org/3/XII/0358-B1.htm

Q.7)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Coral reefs are large underwater structures composed of the skeletons of colonial marine invertebrates
called coral. The coral species that build reefs are known as hermatypic, or "hard," corals because they
extract calcium carbonate from seawater to create a hard, durable exoskeleton that protects their soft,
sac-like bodies.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Coral bleaching is the paling of coral color that occur when the densities of
zooxanthellae decline or the concentration of photosynthetic pigments within the zooxanthellae fall. Solar
radiation has been suspected to play a role in coral bleaching. Both photosynthetically active radiation
(PAR, 400-700nm) and ultraviolet radiation (UVR, 280-400nm) have been implicated in bleaching.
Statement 2 is correct: Eutrophication is the increase in the concentration of nutrients like nitrate and
ammonia in water. Rather than causing coral reef bleaching, an increase in ambient elemental nutrient
concentrations (e.g., ammonia and nitrate) actually increases zooxanthellae densities 2-3 times. Although
eutrophication is not directly involved in zooxanthellae loss, it could cause secondary adverse effects such
as lowering of coral resistance and greater susceptibility to diseases.
Statement 3 is correct: Coral reefs are natural protective barriers against erosion and storm surge. The
coral animals are highly adapted for capturing plankton from the water, thereby capturing nutrients. They
are also the largest biogenic calcium carbonate producer
Source: Environment by Shankar IAS – Chapter 4 Aquatic Ecosystem – P 47, 48.

Q.8)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Sea grasses can reproduce sexually or asexually. They are flowering plants that
produce seeds. Pollen is carried through the water to fertilize female flowers. Sea grasses can also send out
rhizome roots that can sprout new growth, so a single plant is capable of producing an entire underwater
meadow.
Statement 2 is incorrect: While sea grasses are considered vascular plants and have roots, stems and
leaves, seaweed are multi-cellular algae and have little or no vascular tissues.
Statement 3 is correct: Sea grasses are very sensitive to water quality and are an indicator of the overall
health of coastal ecosystems. Since they produce energy through photosynthesis they do best where the

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water is clear enough to allow sunlight to penetrate. Pollution, sedimentation, excessive nutrients, storms,
disease, and overgrazing by herbivores all pose threats to sea grasses.
Knowledge Base:
Sea grass beds physically help to reduce wave and current energy, to filter suspended sediments from the
water and stabilise bottom sediments to control erosion.
Sea grasses on reef flats and near estuaries are also nutrient sinks, buffering or filtering nutrient and
chemical inputs to the marine environment.
Major Sea grass meadows in India occur along the south east coast of Tamil Nadu and in the lagoons of a
few Lakshadweep Islands. There are few grass beds around Andaman and Nicobar Islands also.
The rich growth of sea grasses along the Tamil Nadu coast and Lakshadweep islands is mainly due to high
salinity, clarity of the water and sandy substratum.
Source: https://myfwc.com/research/habitat/seagrasses/information/seagrass-vs-
seaweed/#:~:text=While%20seagrasses%20are%20considered%20vascular,illustrate%20some%20of%20
these%20distinctions.
https://www.nwf.org/Educational-Resources/Wildlife-Guide/Plants-and-Fungi/Seagrasses

Q.9)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Desert is formed in regions with less than 25 cm of annual rainfall, or sometimes in hot regions where there
is more rainfall, but unevenly distributed in the annual cycle.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Not all desert plants are characterized by the xerophilous adaptations like wax
coating and thick cuticle. The proper desert plants may be divided into following types:
(a) The ephernerals are delicate annuals, apparently free from any xerophilous adaptations, having slender
stems and root-systems and often large flowers. They appear almost immediately after rain, develop
flowers and fruits in an incredibly short time, and die as soon as the surface layer of the soil dries up.
(b) The rain perennials are visible above the ground only during the rainy season, but have a perennial
underground stem.
(c) The plants depending upon the subterranean water shows xerophilous adaptations such as reduced
leaves, thick hairy growth, succulence, coatings of wax, thick cuticle, protected stomata, etc., all having for
their object of reduction of transpiration.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Both hot and cold deserts are eroded mainly by wind. But in hot deserts,
seasonal fluvial erosion also takes place. Comparative to hot deserts, cold deserts have low degree of fluvial
erosion.
Statement 3 is correct: The annual range of temperature of deserts may vary around 50 °C. For example,
in Thar Desert, the months between November to March are characterized by extreme variations of
temperature and the temperature is frequently below freezing point at night. During April to June the heat
is intense and temperature may cross over 50 °C.
Tropical areas have very moderate range of temperatures in comparison. Though the Tropical rainforest
climates have high temperatures: the yearly average temperature is normally between 21 °C to 30 °C.
Source: Environment by Shankar IAS - Chapter 3 Terrestrial Ecosystems – P 29-32.

Q.10)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Natural lakes are naturally formed, usually “bowl-shaped” depressions in the land surface that became filled
with water over time. These depressions (also called basins) were typically produced as a result of the
catastrophic events of glaciers, volcanic activity, or tectonic movements.

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Man-made lakes are water impoundments or water accumulated in reservoirs that do not occur naturally
in the landscape. These lakes are most commonly created by constructing dams in river or stream valleys.
Option a is incorrect: Man-made lakes like reservoirs receive runoff from large streams and rivers, and
are not typically intercepted by wetlands or shallow interface regions. The result is that runoff inputs are
larger than is the case in most natural lakes. These characteristics lead to high inputs of nutrients and
sediments.
Option b is incorrect: The drainage basins of reservoirs are typically much larger in relation to the lake
surface area than the drainage basins of natural lakes. Reservoir basins tend to be narrow, elongated, and
dendritic (branching) because they are most commonly formed in river valleys. Natural lakes are naturally
formed, usually “bowl-shaped” depressions in the land surface that became filled with water over. Thus,
they generally have a circular shape.
Option c is incorrect: The water levels in natural lakes are fairly constant, while those in reservoirs are
typically managed for flood control, hydropower production, and/or navigation.
Option d is correct: Natural lakes tend to be located at the headwaters of rivers or streams, whereas man-
made lakes tend to be closer to the mouth of the river or stream. Natural lakes therefore tend to have lower
nutrient and sediment concentrations than those in man-made systems.
Source: https://courseware.cutm.ac.in/wp-content/uploads/2020/05/13.-NATURAL-Vs-MAN-MADE-
LAKES.pdf

Q.11)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: The Coral Reef Recovery Project is a joint venture of WTI and the Gujarat Forest
Department, supported by Tata Chemicals Limited (TCL) and launched in 2008. It seeks to develop and
implement appropriate strategies for the conservation of the Mithapur Reef, situated 12 kilometres south
of the Gulf of Kachchh in Gujarat. The project, with initial support received from the World Land Trust, is
also working in the recovery of coral reefs in Gujarat’s Marine National Park.
Statement 2 is incorrect: National Green Corps, the Eco club programme aims to impart knowledge to
school children through hands on experience, about their immediate environment, interactions within it
and the problems therein and it was launched by Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
(MoEF&CC).
The aim of Forest-PLUS 2.0 initiative is to enhance the sustainable forest landscape management. It is
launched by US Agency for International Development (USAID) and India’s Ministry of Environment,
Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC).
Source: Centre, US agency launch Forest-PLUS 2.0 (downtoearth.org.in)
MITHAPUR CORAL REEF RECOVERY PROJECT - WTI
FORUM-IAS-RED-BOOK-ENVIRONMENT-2021.pdf (forumias.com)

Q.12)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Photophores are organs that are used by fish (and invertebrates) to produce light either by chemical
reaction or through symbiotic bacteria capable of bioluminescence. Most fish that use photophores live
in the deep sea where light from the surface is limited. Like a firefly in the sea, some of these fish use
photophores to attract mates, others use photophores as counterillumination and camouflages, some
uses their photophores like search lights to find prey or avoid predators and others use photophores for
multiple purposes.

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Photophores of a Split fin flashlight fish

Source: photophores (fisheries.org)
bioluminescence | Causes, Examples, & Facts | Britannica

Q.13)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: The Miyawaki method is also called as the Potted Seedling Method. It is an
afforestation technique that uses native species to create dense, multi-layered forests. The Miyawaki
method of afforestation which has revolutionised the concept of urban afforestation by turning backyards
into mini-forests is to come up on the government office premises, residential complexes, school premises
etc
Statement 2 is correct:
Miyawaki is a technique pioneered by Japanese botanist Akira Miyawaki, that helps build dense, native
forests in a short time. This method includes planting trees as close as possible in the same area which
not only saves space. The method involves planting two to four trees per square metre. Miyawaki forests
grow in two to three years and are self-sustaining. While a natural forest takes 25 to 30 years, the Miyawaki
method on the other hand takes only five to ten years to attain the same level of growth.
Statement 3 is correct: In the year 2020 as an integral part of the green initiative move Kerala tourism,
under the leadership of the state tourism minister launched a forest conservation project inspired by the
Miyawaki method. The aim is to create micro forests based on the Miyawaki model at 22 tourism spots
across 12 districts. These micro forests will make the tourist destinations, especially those in the urban
areas, environment friendly.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Thiruvananthapuram/kerala-to-take-more-cover-
under-miyawaki-forests/article30479463.ece
https://www.outlookindia.com/outlooktraveller/travelnews/story/70854/kerala-tourism-to-launch-
the-miyawaki-method-in-22-tourism-spots
Forum IAS environment red book pdf. Page no- 17

Q.14)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: Grasslands ecosystem is found where rainfall is about 250-750 mm per year. It is
not enough to support a forest, but more than that of a true desert. Typical grasslands are vegetation
formations that are generally found in temperate climates.
Statement 2 is correct: In India, they are found mainly in the higher reaches of Himalayas. The
grasslands of the Indian Himalaya cover most areas of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh,

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Uttaranchal, high altitude areas of West Bengal, Sikkim, and Northeastern states. The rest of India’s
grasslands are mainly composed of steppes and savannas.
Statement 3 is correct: Steppe formations are found in western Rajasthan while dry savannah grasslands
are found in the central and eastern parts of Rajasthan. Fire is a natural part of the grassland ecosystem
which helps control trees, woody shrubs and invasive species and maintain its health and vigor. In
western Rajasthan, Steppe formations occupy large areas of sandy and saline soil, where the climate is
semi-arid, average rainfall is less than 200 mm a year with a dry season of 10 to 11 months, and a large
variation in rainfall.

Knowledge Base:
Banni Grassland of Gujarat is the largest natural grassland in the Indian subcontinent. Maldhari tribes
dominate this area. A huge freshwater lake, Chhari-Dhand is a prominent feature of the Banni grassland.
Source: Forum IAS environment red book
Enviornment by Shankar IAS. Page no- 28.

Q.15)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: Harmful algal blooms occur when simple photosynthetic organisms that live in
the sea and freshwater grow out of control while producing toxic or harmful effects on people, fish,
shellfish, marine mammals, and birds. Red Tide refers to Harmful Algal Blooms (HAB), which are large
concentrations of aquatic microorganisms such as protozoa and unicellular algae. “Red Tide” is a common
name for such a phenomenon where certain phytoplankton species contain pigments and “bloom” such
that the human eye perceives the water to be discolored. Blooms can appear greenish, brown, and even

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reddish orange depending upon the type of organism, the type of water, and the concentration of the
organisms.
Statement 2 is correct: Nutrient enrichment, warm waters, surface run-off and upwelling in seas are
common causes for such blooms. Blooms occur when several colonies start combining rapidly when
conditions such as nutrient concentrations, salinity and temperature are optimal. Nutrient enrichment of
water, especially phosphates and nitrogen, is often the result of pollution and can cause algal blooms. Water
temperature has also been related to the occurrence of algal blooms, with unusually warm water being
conducive to blooms.
Source: Forum IAS red book environment.
Environment by Shankar IAS. Page no -38 and 39.
https://oceanservice.noaa.gov/hazards/hab/

Q.16)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Biological diversity refers to all of the variety of life that exists on Earth. Diversity in living organisms can
be experienced everywhere on earth. The warm and humid regions of the earth are highly diverse and are
called the region of mega biodiversity.
Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: Osmotrophs or Saprotrophs are the organisms which depend on dead and
decaying organic materials like plants and animals. They are decomposers like bacteria, fungi,
earthworms. Osmotrophy is a feeding mechanism involving the movement of dissolved organic compounds
by osmosis for nutrition. Organisms that use osmotrophy are called Osmotrophs. Some mixotrophic
microorganisms use Osmotrophs to derive some of their energy.
Pair 2 is correctly matched: Autotroph is an organism that can produce its own food using light, water,
carbon dioxide, or other chemicals. Because autotrophs produce their own food, they are sometimes called
producers. Plants and Microscopic Algae are the most familiar type of autotroph.
Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Phagotrophs are any consumer organism that feeds by ingesting organisms
or organic particles, which are digested within its body. They are consumers who are incapable of
producing their own food, e.g., humans and animals. The Earthworms and Fungi fall within the
Heterotrophs level of Trophic food chain levels.
Source: Chapter 1 Forum Red Book Environment

Q.17)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The terrestrial part of the biosphere is divisible into enormous regions called biomes, which are
characterized, by climate, vegetation, animal life and general soil type. No two biomes are alike. The
climate determines the boundaries of a biome and abundance of plants and animals found in each one of
them. The most important climatic factors are temperature and precipitation.
It includes various communities and is named for the dominant type of vegetation, such as grassland or
coniferous forest. Several similar biomes constitute a biome type—for example, the temperate deciduous
forest biome type includes the deciduous forest biomes of Asia, Europe, and North America.
Option a is incorrect: Bio link zones are a land use category developed for biodiversity conservation and
landscape adaptation under changing climates.
Option b is incorrect: Biomass is the amount of living or organic matter present in an organism. Biomass
pyramids show how much biomass is present in the organisms at each tropic level, while productivity
pyramids show the production or turnover in biomass.

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Option d is incorrect: Microclimate is a local atmospheric zone where the climate differs from the
surrounding area. The term may refer to areas as small as a few square feet or as large as many square
miles.
Source: Chapter 1 Forum Red Book Environment
biome | Definition, Map, Types, Examples, & Facts | Britannica

Q.18)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Niche refers to the unique functional role or place of a species in an ecosystem. Niche is important for
the conservation of organisms. If we need to conserve a species in its native habitat, we need to know
about the niche requirements of the species and ensure that all requirements of its niche are fulfilled.
Statement 1 is correct: A niche is a description of all the biological, physical and chemical factors that a
species needs to survive, stay healthy and reproduce. A species’ niche encompasses both the physical and
environmental conditions it requires (like temperature or terrain) and the interactions it has with other
species (like predation or competition).
Statement 2 is incorrect: No two species can have the exact same niche, otherwise they would be in
direct competition for resources with one another. If this occurs, then one species will outcompete the
other. If the losing species, then does not adapt, it would lead to its extinction.
Statement 3 is correct: In general, species that have narrow or limited niches are considered to be
specialist species. Koalas (Phascolarctos cinereus), which feed only on leaves from eucalyptus trees in
Australia, are an example of a specialist species. A key feature of a specialist species is that they are not
able to survive as well in a changing habitat as generalist species are. This is due because they have a
narrow niche with a limited range of resources. An example of a specialist species is a panda. Pandas need
a certain diet and habitat in order to survive.
Source: https://library.fiveable.me/ap-enviro/unit-3/generalist-specialist-species/study-
guide/bDVsgp06AHy4azzehZxP#:~:text=A%20key%20feature%20of%20a,habitat%20in%20order%20to
%20survive.
Chapter 1 Forum Red Book Environment

Q.19)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Ecotone is a zone of junction between two or more diverse ecosystems. E.g., the mangrove forests are an
ecotone between marine and terrestrial ecosystems while grasslands represent an ecotone between forest
and desert. Other ecotones are estuary and riverbank.
Important characteristics of ecotone are:
(a) It is a zone of tension with conditions intermediate to the ecosystems bordering it.
(b) It is linear as there is a progressive increase in species composition of incoming community and
simultaneous decrease in species of outgoing adjoining community.
(c) There may be organisms in an ecotone entirely different from that of adjoining communities.
(d) Ecotones may have an ‘edge effect’ wherein the number of species and population density of some
species in this zone is much greater than either community.
Option a is incorrect: A home range is an area in which an animal lives and moves on a daily or periodic
basis (a little bigger than habitat – home → office → home).
Option b is incorrect: Ecocline is a zone of gradual but continuous change from one ecosystem to another
when there is no sharp boundary between the two in terms of species composition. Ecocline occurs across

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the environmental gradient (gradual change in abiotic factors such as altitude, temperature (thermocline),
salinity (halocline), depth, etc.).
Option c is incorrect: Ecological Niche refers to the unique functional role and position of a species in its
habitat or ecosystem. The functional characteristics of a species in its habitat is referred to as “niche” in
that common habitat.
Source: Chapter 1 Forum Red Book Environment

Q.20)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Edge effect refers to the changes in population or community structures that occur at the boundary of
two habitats (ecotone). Sometimes the number of species and the population density of some of the species
in the ecotone is much greater than either community. This is called edge effect.
Edge Effect describes how there is a greater diversity of life in the region where the edges two adjacent
ecosystems overlap, such as land/water, or forest/grassland. At the interface of two overlapping
ecosystems, we can find species from both of these ecosystems, as well as unique species that aren’t found
in either ecosystem but are specially adapted to the conditions of the transition zone.
Option a is incorrect: Ecological resilience is the capacity of an ecosystem to cope with disturbance or
stress and return to a stable state. This concept measures the amount of stress or disruption required to
transform a system that is maintained by one set of structures and processes to a different set of structures
and functions.
Option b is incorrect: Population viability/thresholds refers to the probability of survival of a
population/species in the face of ecological processes such as disturbance. When the amount of habitat
available declines below the “extinction threshold”, a population/species will decline and eventually
disappear; in addition to habitat for particular populations, a species’ survival depends on maintaining
healthy genetic variability.
Option d is incorrect: A keystone species is an organism that helps define an entire ecosystem. Without
its keystone species, the ecosystem would be dramatically different or cease to exist altogether. Keystone
species have low functional redundancy
Source: Chapter 1 Forum Red Book Environment

Q.21)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The terrestrial part of the biosphere is divisible into enormous regions called biomes, which are
characterized, by climate, vegetation, animal life and general soil type. No two biomes are alike. The climate
determines the boundaries of a biome and abundance of plants and animals found in each one of them. The
most important climatic factors are temperature and precipitation.
Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: Temperate Deciduous Forest are generally the most productive agricultural
areas of the earth. The flora includes oak, beech and maple. They have mull soils, which have a high level
of organic matter especially close to the surface that is well mixed with mineral matter. Soils of temperate
forest are fairly deep.
Tropical Rainforest has coexistence of a large number of species. The soil of rainforest is nutrient poor as
most of the nutrients are washed away by heavy rains.
Pair 2 is correctly matched: Steppe soils are typically of the chernozem type. Steppes are usually
characterized by a semi-arid or continental climate. They are practically treeless. Grasses are short and
nutritious. Chernozem is a black-coloured soil containing a high percentage of humus (4% to 16%) and

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high percentages of phosphoric acids, phosphorus, and ammonia. Chernozem is very fertile soil and can
produce high agricultural yields with its high moisture storage capacity.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: Taiga Biome are also known as boreal forests. Their productivity is lower than
those of any other forest ecosystem. Taiga Biome soils are typically low in fertility and acidic, with a thin A
horizon. The most characteristic soils are podzols. They are also known as boreal forests. Their
productivity is lower than those of any other forest ecosystem. Soils of boreal forests are characterized by
thin podzols. Podzols have low pH (acidic) due to excessive leaching.
Pair 4 is correctly matched: The vegetation of Desert Biome is predominantly xerophytic or drought
resistant. Plants have long roots, few or no leaves, and the foliage is either waxy, leathery, hairy or needle
shaped to reduce the loss of water through transpiration. E.g., cacti.
Source: Chapter 1 Forum Red Book Environment

Q.22)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Keystone species is a species whose addition to or loss from an ecosystem leads to major changes in
abundance or occurrence of at least one other species. Certain species in an ecosystem is considered more
important in determining the presence of many other species in that ecosystem.
Statement 1 is correct: A keystone species is an organism that helps define an entire ecosystem. Without
its keystone species, the ecosystem would be dramatically different or cease to exist altogether.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Any organism, from plants to fungi, may be a keystone species; they are not
always the largest or most abundant species in an ecosystem. However, almost all examples of keystone
species are animals that have a huge influence on food webs. The way these animals influence food
webs varies from habitat to habitat.
Statement 3 is correct: If keystone species is lost, it will result in the degradation of whole ecosystem. For
example, certain plant species (ebony tree, Indian-laurel) exclusively depends upon bats for its
pollination. If the bat population is reduced then regeneration of particular plants becomes more difficult.
This changes the vegetation structure which adversely influence on the dependant animals.
Source: Role of Keystone Species in an Ecosystem | National Geographic Society

Q.23)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Sustainable development is development that meets the needs of the present generation without
compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. The essence of this form of
development is a stable relationship between human activities and the natural world.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The concept of sustainable development was introduced in early 1980’s (in
particular through the publication of the World Conservation Strategy by IUCN, UNEP and WWF, 1980), in
order to reconcile conservation and development objectives. Whereas, The Report of Brundtland
Commission 1987, named ‘Our Common Future’ made this term popular in the world political scenario and
laid the groundwork for the convening of the Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro five years later. Hence the
concept of Sustainable Development was not introduced during 1992 Earth Summit for the first time.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Sustainable development aims to not only meet the needs of the existing
generation but also, without compromising the quality of natural resources and environment for the
future generation in the ability to meet their own needs. Simply, it aims to Improving the quality of human
life while living within the carrying capacity of supporting ecosystems.

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Statement 3 is correct: The triple bottom line is an important assumption that’s part of the foundations of
sustainable development. It was first used by John Elkington, the founder of a sustainability consultancy
firm. This expression means that companies should consider 3 different bottom lines in their businesses –
and not only, as was usual at the time (and still is in many companies today), care about the profit and loss
account. This means that organizations should also measure how socially responsible the operations
across their value-chain are. In the end, the idea is business needs to be concerned about its impact on
people and planet – and not only finance and profit.
Source: What is the Importance of Sustainable Development? (yourarticlelibrary.com)
Earth Summit (1992) | Encyclopedia.com
Sustainable Development Definition: Historical Background and Examples (youmatter.world)

Q.24)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The constitution of India is not an inert but a living document which evolves and grows with time. The
specific provisions on environment protection in the constitution are also result of this evolving nature
and growth potential of the fundamental law of the land.
Statement 1 is correct: The chapter on fundamental duties of the Indian Constitution clearly imposes duty
on every citizen to protect environment. Article 51-A (g), says that “It shall be duty of every citizen of India
to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life and to have
compassion for living creatures.”
Statement 2 is incorrect: In M.C. Mehta vs. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086 the Supreme Court treated
the right to live in pollution free environment as a part of fundamental right to life under Article 21 of the
Constitution.
Article 21 guarantees fundamental right to life. Right to environment, free of danger of disease and
infection is inherent in it. Right to healthy environment is important attribute of right to live with human
dignity. The right to live in a healthy environment as part of Article 21 of the Constitution was first
recognized in the case of Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra vs. State, AIR 1988 SC 2187 (Popularly
known as Dehradun Quarrying Case).
Statement 3 is correct: The Directive principles under the Indian constitution directed towards ideals of
building welfare state. Article 48 -A of the constitution says that “the state shall endeavour to protect and
improve the environment and to safeguard the forests and wild life of the country”.

Q.25)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) were eight international development goals for the year 2015
that had been established following the Millennium Summit of the United Nations in 2000, following the
adoption of the United Nations Millennium Declaration. The Sustainable Development Goals were set up
in 2015 as a collection of 17 interlinked global goals by the United Nations General Assembly (UN-GA) and
are intended to be achieved by 2030.
Statement 1 is correct: Unlike the Millennium Development Goals, which mainly targets the developing
countries, the Sustainable Development Goals apply to all countries whether rich, middle or poor
countries. The SDGs are also nationally-owned and country-led, wherein each country is given the
freedom to establish a national framework in achieving the SDGs.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The SDGs have wide focus on poverty reduction and tries to embed
environmental, economic and social aspects together. But the MDGs also had focus on environmental

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issues and did not ignore them altogether. In fact, MDGs goal 7 was focussed on ensuring the
Environmental sustainability. So, the statement is incorrect.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Millennium Development Goals did not include peace building in their core
agenda and goals. Sustainable Development Goals include peace building to the success of ending poverty
and hunger. MDGs were largely envisioned to be funded by aid flows, which did not materialize. SDGs put
sustainable, inclusive economic development at the core of the strategy
Source: Frequently Asked Questions | NITI Aayog
MDGs Vs SDGs: 17 Differences - Public Health Notes

Q.26)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Recently, the government has advised automotive manufacturers in India to start manufacturing Flex Fuel
Vehicles (FFV) and Flex Fuel Strong Hybrid Electric Vehicles (FFV-SHEV) engines with BS-6 norms within
a period of six months.
Statement 1 is incorrect: A flexible fuel vehicle is a modified version of vehicles that could run both on
Gasoline and doped petrol with different levels of ethanol blends (not for only fixed levels). It will allow
vehicles to use all the blends and also run-on unblended fuel. It has compatible engines to run on more
than 84 percent ethanol blended petrol.
Statement 2 is correct: The Running costs of Flex fuel vehicles will be higher by more than 30 percent
when run with 100 percent ethanol due to lower fuel efficiency. Hybrid electric vehicles are vehicles that
are either partially or fully powered on electricity. Electric vehicles have low running costs as they have
fewer moving parts for maintenance and also are very environmentally friendly as they use little or no
fossil fuels (petrol or diesel).
Statement 3 is incorrect: Government have recently amended the motor vehicles act, 1988, but there is
not any provision for tax exemptions for car companies on producing flex fuel vehicles. The amendment
to Motor Vehicle Act,1988, provides for grant of licenses and permits related to motor vehicles, standards
for motor vehicles, and penalties for violation of these provisions.
The government has recently advised the automotive manufacturers to start Flex Fuel Vehicles (FFV) and
Flex Fuel Strong Hybrid Electric Vehicles (FFV-SHEV) engines within a period of six months.
Source: Govt advises auto firms to start manufacturing Flex Fuel Vehicles in 6 months - BusinessToday
Hybrid vs. diesel vs. flex-fuel - Hybrid (1) - CNNMoney.com

Q.27)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The International Solar Alliance (ISA) is an international platform aiming to help fight climate change by
using better energy sources such as solar energy. India is a founding member of this platform. Its
headquarters are located in Gurugram, India.
Statement 1 is correct: The ISA strives to develop and deploy cost-effective and transformational energy
solutions powered by the sun to help member countries develop low-carbon growth trajectories, with
particular focus on delivering impact in countries categorized as Least Developed Countries (LDCs) and
the Small Island Developing States (SIDS). Being a global platform, ISA’s partnerships with multilateral
development banks (MDBs), development financial institutions (DFIs), private and public sector
organisations, civil society and other international institutions is key to delivering the change it seeks to
see in the world going ahead.

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Statement 2 is incorrect: It focuses on policy issues as well as helps with raising finances. The ISA aims
to pave the way for future solar generation, storage and technologies for Member countries’ needs by
mobilising over USD 1000 billion by 2030. Hence this statement is incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct: An amendment to the framework agreement on the establishment of the
International Solar Alliance came into force earlier in July 2020, that will enable member states of the UN
to join the grouping, including those beyond the tropics.
Knowledge Base:
• It aims to help countries with rich solar resources (especially those lying in between the Tropics, which
receive plenty of sunlight both in duration and intensity) enhance their capacity to capture and store solar
energy.
• Recently an initiative known os as the One World One Sun One Grid was launched by India, which aims
to connect the regional grids across world, so that solar energy from these solar rich countries can be
evacuated to other countries, in order to limit use of fossil fuels that are causing damage in the form of
climate change.
• Initially the membership was opened to countries lying fully or partly between the Tropics. However now
the membership is open to all members of the UN
• The ISA was conceptualized jointly by India and France and launched at the CoP 21 of UNFCCC in 2015
(The Paris Agreement). However, there is no concept of Permanent Seats like in UNSC, in ISA. All decisions
in the ISA are taken by the Assembly which consists of all the members of ISA who have signed and ratified
its agreement.
• ISA has a permanent observer status at the UN
• 87 countries have signed and ratified the ISA membership agreement so far.
Source: https://isolaralliance.org/governance/first-assembly
https://www.indiabudget.gov.in/economicsurvey/doc/eschapter/echap06.pdf Pg 231

Q.28)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Recently the Ministry of New & Renewable Energy, announced the Green Hydrogen and Green Ammonia
Policy. It aims to increase the production of hydrogen and ammonia that is produced using climate friendly
technologies, for use as alternate energy sources.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Green Hydrogen refers to the Hydrogen that is created by the hydrolysis
(splitting) of water using high amounts of energy (generally sustainable renewable electricity). The
Hydrogen thus produced is called Green, as no pollutants are produced as a result of this process and no
polluting fossil fuels are used either. Hence the hydrogen derived through this method is sustainable and
climate friendly, without adverse impacts on the climate.

Statement 2 is correct: The Green Hydrogen/ Green Ammonia Policy announced by the Ministry of New
and Renewable Energy aims to increase the production of Green Hydrogen, and subsequently Green

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Ammonia using hydrolysis to five million tonnes by 2030 (increase of 5 times, from 1 million tonnes now).
The government wants to promote this to
• improve energy security of India
• increase the opportunity for exports
• meet India’s climate commitments (Nationally Determined Contributions as per Paris Climate Agreement
2015, to fight climate change) by replacing problematic fossil fuels with clean energy sources like this
Statement 3 is correct: In order to encourage industrial producers to invest in producing Green
Hydrogen, the government is offering many incentives to players who set up Green Hydrogen plants if the
production facility is commissioned before June 2025. One of these incentives is the waiver of Inter State
Transmission Fees if the green hydrogen producers want to buy renewable energy from plants situated
in other states. This waiver is proposed to be for 25 years, thereby significantly reducing production costs
for the producers and increasing their profit margin.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Earning forex through export of clean energy Green Hydrogen and Ammonia is
just one of the policy objectives. So the entire Green Hydrogen & Ammonia produced through this method
is not to be exported. Some of it is to be used domestically as well. Hence this statement is incorrect.
Knowledge Base:
Green Ammonia is produced by a process which is 100% renewable and carbon-free. It is produced by
using Green Hydrogen from water electrolysis and nitrogen separated from the air. Green hydrogen and
nitrogen are reacted together at high temperatures and pressures to produce ammonia, NH3.

Uses of Green Hydrogen:

(a) Stored in Fuel Cells for running automobiles, electric devices, home appliances, etc.
(b) Used as a fuel in aviation, commercial vehicles, railways, etc.
Uses of Green Ammonia:
(a) Used for production of sustainable and climate friendly nitrogen fertilisers
(b) Renewable and carbon-free energy source for running engines, etc.
Other incentives offered by the government:
(a) Open access will be granted within 15 days of receipt of application.
(b) The Green Hydrogen / Ammonia manufacturer can bank his unconsumed renewable power, up to 30
days, with a distribution company and take it back when required.
(c) Distribution licensees can also procure and supply Renewable Energy to the manufacturers of Green
Hydrogen / Green Ammonia in their States at concessional prices which will only include the cost of
procurement, wheeling charges and a small margin as determined by the State Commission.
(d) The manufacturers of Green Hydrogen / Ammonia and the renewable energy plant shall be given
connectivity to the grid on priority basis to avoid any procedural delays.
(e) The benefit of Renewable Purchase Obligation (RPO) will be granted incentive to the
hydrogen/Ammonia manufacturer and the Distribution licensee for consumption of renewable power.

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(f) To ensure ease of doing business a single portal for carrying out all the activities including statutory
clearances in a time bound manner will be set up by MNRE.
(g) Connectivity, at the generation end and the Green Hydrogen / Green Ammonia manufacturing end, to
the ISTS for Renewable Energy capacity set up for the purpose of manufacturing Green Hydrogen / Green
Ammonia shall be granted on priority.
(h) Manufacturers of Green Hydrogen / Green Ammonia shall be allowed to set up bunkers near Ports for
storage of Green Ammonia for export / use by shipping. The land for the storage for this purpose shall be
provided by the respective Port Authorities at applicable charges.
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-green-hydrogen-policy-7779679/
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1799067
https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/markets/commodities/govt-notifies-green-hydrogen-
ammonia-policy-targets-5-million-tonnes-output-by-2030/article65059464.ece

Q.29)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Bharat stage (BS) emission standards are laid down by the government to regulate the output of air
pollutants from internal combustion engine and spark-ignition engine equipment, including motor
vehicles. The central government has mandated that vehicle makers must manufacture, sell and register
only BS-VI (BS6) vehicles from April 1, 2020.
The first emission norms were introduced in India in 1991 for petrol and in 1992 for diesel vehicles. Following
these, the catalytic converter became mandatory for petrol vehicles and unleaded petrol was introduced
in the market. The widespread alarms raised over the highly deteriorating condition of air pollution in the
country has forced the government to skip the BS V and move straight away to BS VI.
Statement 1 is incorrect: BS VI norms are applicable to all kinds of vehicles - two wheelers, four wheelers,
as well as larger heavy commercial vehicles. So, the statement is incorrect.
Statement 2 is incorrect: PM10 emission standards too have become stricter with BS VI compared to BS
IV. The new fuel standards will require automobile engines to be fitted with a Diesel Particulate Filter,
which will help reduce the PM10 particles being ejected in automobile exhaust.
Statement 3 is correct: BS VI lays stricter norms for both sulphur oxide and nitrogen oxide emissions.
While BS IV compliant vehicles release 50 ppm (parts per million) sulphur, the BS VI compliant vehicles
will only release 10 ppm sulphur. Also, for the light duty diesel vehicles, the BS VI norms cut down the
oxides of nitrogen emission limits. In case of light duty petrol vehicles, the emission of oxides of nitrogen
are reduced by about 25 percent, while the NOx emissions from diesel cars are expected to come down
by nearly 70%.
Statement 4 is correct: According to these norms, all vehicles manufactured in India from April 1, 2020
onwards, including two- and three-wheelers, will have to be equipped with on-board diagnostic systems
to check the level of emissions.
Knowledge Base:
(a) Real Driving Emission norm will also be implemented in the case of BS6 to measure a vehicle’s pollutant
emission in real-time conditions. It was not the case with BS4.
(b) BS6 has an Onboard Diagnostic (OD) feature whereas it was not there with BS4.
(c) Carmakers would have to put three pieces of equipment — a DPF (diesel particulate filter), an SCR
(selective catalytic reduction) system, and an LNT (Lean NOx trap) — to meet stringent BS-VI norms.
Source: https://www.business-standard.com/about/what-is-bs-vi-norms
https://www.businessinsider.in/what-is-bs-vi-
norms/articleshow/69286150.cms#:~:text=the%20amount%20of-,sulphur%20content,-
in%20the%20emissions

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https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/diesel-cars-maruti-suzuki-bs-vi-standards-emission-
5699556/

Q.30)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Ecological succession is the process of change in the species structure of an ecological community over
time. The time scale can range from decades to even millions of years. Plants and animal species in an area
are replaced or changed into another over a period of time. One community replaces another until a stable
and mature climax community develops.
Statement 1 is correct: Ecological succession is the process by which natural communities replace (or
“succeed”) one another over time. For example, when an old farm field in the central India is abandoned
and left alone for many years, it gradually becomes a meadow, then a few bushes grow, and eventually,
trees completely fill in the field, producing a forest.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Primary Succession takes place over an area where no community has
previously existed. It happens when a new patch of land is created or exposed for the first time. This can
happen, for example, when lava cools and creates new rocks, or when a glacier retreats and exposes rocks
without any soil.

Secondary succession happens when a climax community or intermediate community is impacted by a

disturbance. This restarts the cycle of succession, but not back to the beginning—soil and nutrients are still
present.

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Statement 3 is correct: The difference between primary and secondary succession is that the secondary
succession is relatively faster than primary succession as it starts on a well-developed soil already formed
at the site. In-fact the secondary succession occurs on the sites where the primary succession has already
occurred and these sites has an ample amount of soil already developed during the process of primary
succession. This makes secondary succession to take place easier and faster. So, the statement is correct.
Source: What is ecological succession? | University of Chicago News (uchicago.edu)

Q.31)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
A mycorrhiza is a symbiotic association between plants and fungi.
In mycorrhiza association, the fungus invades the root to absorb nutrients and form a type of mutualistic
parasitism. Plants rely on mycorrhizal fungi for mineral nutrients (i.e., phosphorus), and in return the fungus
receives nutrients formed by the plant. Mycorrhizae play important roles in plant nutrition, soil biology,
and soil chemistry.
Source: https://www.britannica.com/science/fungus/Predation

Q.32)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The tropical rainforest is a hot, moist biome where it rains all year long. It is known for its dense canopies
of vegetation that form three different layers. The top layer or canopy contains giant trees that grow to
heights of 75 m (about 250 ft) or more. This layer of vegetation prevents much of the sunlight from reaching
the ground. Thick, woody vines are also found in the canopy. They climb trees in the canopy to reach for
sunlight.
Statement 1 is incorrect. In the tropical rainforest both temperature and humidity remain high and more
or less uniform throughout the year. The annual rainfall exceeds 200 cm and is generally distributed
throughout the year.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Soil of tropical rainforests are red latosols, and they are very thick. There is poor
nutrients in the upper layers of the soil due to high rainfall. The high rate of leaching makes these soils
virtually useless for agricultural purposes, but when left undisturbed, the rapid cycling of nutrients within
the litter layer, formed due to decomposition can compensate for the natural poverty of the soil.
Statement 3 is correct. The tropical rainforest is characterised by highly diverse flora. The extreme dense
vegetation of the tropical rain forests remains vertically stratified with tall trees often covered with vines,
creepers, lianas, epiphytic orchids and bromeliads. The lowest layer is an understory of trees, shrubs,
herbs, like ferns and palms. Undergrowth is restricted in many areas by the lack of sunlight at ground level.
Source: Environment, Shankar IAS, Chapter-3, Pg. 24

Q.33)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. Estuaries are located where river meets the sea. Estuaries are water bodies where
the flow of freshwater from river mixes with salt water transported, by tide, from the ocean. It has a free
connection with open sea. On the contrary, wetlands are areas intermediate in character between deep-
water and terrestrial habitats, also transitional in nature, and often located between them.

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Statement 2 is correct. Estuaries are the most productive water bodies in the world as it receives the high
amount of nutrients from fresh and marine water. They are located at the lower end of a river and are
subject to tidal fluctuations.
Knowledge Base:
Other characteristics of estuaries:
(a) The complete salinity range from 0-35 ppt is seen from the head (river end) to the mouth (sea end) of
an estuary.
(b) An estuary has very little wave action, so it provides a calm refuge from the open sea. It provides the
shelter for some of the animals.
(c) Estuaries are most heavily populated areas throughout the world, with about 60% of the world’s
population living along estuaries and the coast.
Source: Environment, Shankar IAS, Chapter-4, Pg. 43

Q.34)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
Succession is a universal process of directional change in vegetation, on an ecological time scale. This
process continues - one community replacing another community, until a stable, mature community
develops.
Option a is incorrect. The first community to inhibit an area is called Pioneer community. Pioneer
communities are ecosystems made up of the very first species to colonize an area of barren rock.
Option b is incorrect. The last and stable community in an area is called Climax community. It is the final
stage of biotic succession attainable by a plant community in an area under the environmental conditions
present at a particular time.
Option c is correct. A seral community is an intermediate stage of ecological succession advancing
towards the climax community. A seral community is replaced by the subsequent community. It consists
of simple food webs and food chains. The entire series of communities is called Sere. Individual transitional
communities are called Sere stage.
Option d is incorrect. Pro-climax is referred to that community which is more or less stable resembling
the climax community in some respects.
Source: Environment, Shankar IAS, Chapter-2, Pg. 20
https://magadhuniversity.ac.in/download/econtent/pdf/MU%20ecological%20succession%20-
%20Rukhshana%20Parveen.pdf

Q.35)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Denitrification is the opposite of nitrification. Here nitrate present in the soil is reduced by denitrifying
bacteria to nitrogen.
Phosphorus plays a central role in aquatic ecosystems and water quality. Unlike carbon and nitrogen, which
come primarily from the atmosphere, phosphorus occurs in large amounts as a mineral in phosphate rocks
and enters the cycle from erosion and mining activities.
Statement 1 is correct. Denitrification is the process during which the nitrogen compound is released
back into the atmosphere by converting nitrate (NO3-) into gaseous nitrogen (N).The process of
denitrification is carried out during the absence of oxygen by Thiobacillus species such as Clostridium and
Pseudomonas bacteria present in the soil. In this process, the genus of Gram-negative bacteria degrades
nitrate compounds present in the soil and aquatic systems into nitrous oxide (N2O) and nitrogen gas, which
are eventually released into the atmosphere.

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(a) In this process, a large range of microorganisms is involved; therefore, it is also called the microbial
process
(b) The denitrification is the last step in the nitrogen cycle. It is a naturally occurring, microbially mediated
process, where nitrate is used as a form of energy for denitrifiers.
(c) In this process, soil bacteria convert plant-available soil nitrate (NO3–) into nitrogen (N) gases that are
lost from the soil. Denitrification produces several gases: nitric oxide (NO), nitrous oxide (N2O), dinitrogen
(N2).
Statement 2 is correct. Phosphorus is an important element for all living organisms. It forms a significant
part of the structural framework of DNA and RNA. They are also an important component of ATP. Humans
contain 80% of phosphorus in teeth and bones. Phosphorus cycle is a very slow process. Various weather
processes help to wash the phosphorus present in the rocks into the soil. Phosphorus is absorbed by the
organic matter in the soil which is used for various biological processes. Since phosphorus and phosphorus-
containing compounds are present only on land, atmosphere plays no significant role in the phosphorus
cycle.
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/kebo112.pdf
https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/lebo114.pdf

Q.36)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Chief Minister of Maharashtra, while presiding over a meeting of the 29-member State Board for Wildlife
(SBWL), approved a proposal to declare the 2,011 sq km Angria Bank as a protected area.
(a) Angria Bank is a submerged plateau 120 km off the coast of Malvan – as a “designated area” under the
Maritime Zones Act, 1976. If approved by the Centre, it will be the first such marine protected zone in India
located in the exclusive economic zone (EEZ).
(b) The Wildlife Institute of India had identified Angria Bank as one of India’s 106 important coastal and
marine biodiversity areas. The proposed area is approximately 61 km in length and around 50 km in width.
(c) According to a study, Angria Bank is home to rich marine biodiversity, including species found under
schedule 1 of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. The protected status will restrict threats such as overfishing;
oil, natural gas and mineral exploration; as well as protect coral, algal and other marine diversity.
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/maharashtra-state-nod-to-declare-2011-sq-km-
angria-bank-as-protected-area-centres-approval-awaited-6545086/

Q.37)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Forests are a rich reserve of compounds that can be used as pharmaceuticals and nutraceuticals. Forest
trees and other plants contain a wide variety of bioactive compounds with potential as anticancer drugs,
antiatherogenic compounds, and antioxidants. Forest species contain alkaloids such as reserpine, quinine,
quinidine, ipecac, ephedrine and caffeine, as well as antibacterial and antifertility compounds.
Statement 1 is incorrect. Remdesivir is an antiviral nucleotide analogue used for therapy of severe novel
coronavirus disease 2019 (COVID-19) caused by severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) coronavirus 2
(CoV-2) infection. Remdesivir is a prodrug of an adenosine triphosphate (ATP) analog, with potential
antiviral activity against a variety of RNA viruses.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Molnupiravir is an antiviral medication that inhibits the replication of certain
RNA viruses. It is used to treat COVID-19 in those infected by SARS-CoV-2. It is a prodrug of the synthetic
nucleoside derivative N4-hydroxycytidine and exerts its antiviral action through introduction of copying
errors during viral RNA replication.

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Statement 3 is correct. Morphine is a pain medication of the opiate family that is found naturally in a dark
brown, resinous form, from the poppy plant. It can be taken orally or injected. It acts directly on the
central nervous system to induce analgesia and alter perception and emotional response to pain.
Source: https://www.fao.org/sustainable-forest-management/toolbox/modules/health-benefits-
from-
forests/tools/en/?type=111#:~:text=Quinine%20and%20quindine%2C%20which%20derive,Hodgkin's%2
0disease%20and%20other%20diseases.
https://pubchem.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/compound/eidd-2801
https://pubchem.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/compound/Remdesivir

Q.38)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
A valid theory of evolution was propounded by Charles Darwin and Alfred Wallace in 1859. This theory has
been extended in the light of progress in genetics and is known as Neo-Darwinism. It has the following
features:
Statement 1 is correct - Organisms produce more offspring than are able to survive in their
environment. Those that are better physically equipped to survive, grow to maturity, and reproduce. Those
that are lacking in such fitness, on the other hand, either do not reach an age when they can reproduce or
produce fewer offspring than their counterparts.
Statement 2 is correct - An evolutionary force which Darwin termed natural selection, selects among
variations i.e. genes that help the organism to adopt to its environment. Such genes are reproduced more
in a population due to natural selection. Those offspring which are suited to their immediate environment
have a better chance of surviving, reaching reproductive age and passing on the suitable adaptations to
their progeny. Evolution thus results in adaptation and diversity of the species.
Statement 3 is incorrect - Mutation (a change in genetic material that results from an error in replication
of DNA) causes new genes to arise in a population. Further, in a sexually reproducing population, meiosis
and fertilization produce new combination of genes every generation, which is termed recombination.
Thus, members of the same species show ‘variation’ and are not exactly identical. Variations are
heritable.
Source: https://nios.ac.in/media/documents/333courseE/4.pdf

Q.39)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect. Although Sulphur cycle is mostly sedimentary, it involves gaseous components
like Hydrogen Sulphide and Sulphur dioxide. Organisms like marshes, tidal flats release Sulphur in the form
of Hydrogen Sulphide (a gaseous component) by anaerobic respiration. Sources like volcanic eruption,
fossil fuels release large amount of Sulphur dioxide (a gaseous component) in the atmosphere.
Statement 2 is correct. Whatever the source, Sulphur is absorbed by the plant in the form of sulphate. It
is then incorporated through a series of metabolic processes into sulphur bearing amino acid which is
incorporated in the proteins of autotroph tissues. It then passes through the grazing food chain.
Source: https://www.britannica.com/science/biosphere/The-nitrogen-cycle#ref589444
Shankar Ias chapter-2 Functions of an ecosystem page-20

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Q.40)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement a is correct. The Honolulu Strategy is a framework for a comprehensive and global effort to
reduce the ecological, human health and economic impacts of marine debris. Its successful implementation
will require participation and support on multiple levels (global, regional, national and local).
Statement b is incorrect. REDD+ (and not Honolulu Strategy) is a framework created by the UNFCCC
Conference of the Parties (COP) to guide activities in the forest sector that reduces emissions from
deforestation and forest degradation, as well as the sustainable management of forests and the
conservation and enhancement of forest carbon stocks in developing countries.
Statement c is incorrect. A new Cancun Adaptation Framework (and not Honolulu Strategy) is established
to allow better planning and implementation of adaptation projects in developing countries through
increased financial and technical support, including a clear process for continuing work on loss and
damage.
Statement d is incorrect. FEEED (and not Honolulu Strategy) is designed for the development of fiscal
instruments to promote energy efficiency. The objective is to provide the comfort to concerned
stakeholders through implementation of Energy Efficiency schemes such as Partial Risk Sharing Facility
(PRSF) to provide partial credit guarantees to cover a share of the default risk that participating financial
institutions face in extending loans to eligible Energy Efficiency sub-projects. SIDBI is a Project Executing
Agency for this programme.
Source: UNEP
https://www.unep.org/resources/report/honolulu-strategy

Q.41)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Ecosystem has processes which sustain ecological balance:
(a) The cyclic flow of materials from abiotic environment to the biosphere and then back to it.
(b) Upholding the equilibrium of interaction inside food webs.
When a natural or human-caused disturbance disrupts these cycles of an ecosystem, it is known as
ecological imbalance.
Ecosystems establish a state of balance where species coexist with other species. Following are the
evidences of ecological imbalance:
(a) Increase in temperature of the earth as a whole due to greenhouse effect and global warming.
(b) Increase in sea level due to rise in temperature.
Option 1 is correct. Natural calamities flood, hurricanes and cyclones due to warming of the atmosphere.
(a) Reduction in crop yield due to higher temperature.
(b) Alteration in monsoon.
Option 2 is correct. Higher UV radiation leads to reduction in photosynthesis and number of
phytoplankton and zooplankton. Thus, harming the aquatic life.
(a) Introduction of foreign species into an area. Example: Water Hyacinth in West Bengal.
Option 3 is correct. If a species disappears or a new species is introduced it can shift an ecosystem to a
state of ecological imbalance. For example, ivy, a plant species, is native to Europe, and was planted in the
garden by American settlers. Away from predators, the ivy overgrows and invades many forests. At the
moment, more than a century later, ivy is going out of control, causing ecological imbalance in many forest
ecosystems. It quickly crawls onto the forest floor, killing native plants.
Source: http://www.gangainstituteofeducation.com/documents/Kiran-pdf.pdf
Environment, Shankar IAS, Chapter- 5, 6

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PTS 2023 | Preparatory Test 29 – Solutions |

Q.42)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
(a) A biomass pyramid is useful for quantifying the biomass that is available as a result of organisms at every
trophic level. This pyramid begins with the producer, normally the plants, which occupy the bottom level
of the pyramid. The producers are followed by primary consumers.
(b) The highest quantified amount of biomass sits at the topmost level of the pyramid. This level largely
includes the carnivores.
(c) The manner in which biomass pyramid is represented is based on the law of thermodynamics. This law
states that energy can never be destroyed. It can never be created either. It can only be transformed from
one form into another. Namely, the energy is transferred through the chain from producers to consumers
and so on, and converted in the biomass.
Statement 1 is correct: One of the main limitations of a biomass pyramid is that every trophic level seems
to have more energy than it truly does. A good example to illustrate this is when human beings consume
another animal.
Statement 2 is correct: A biomass pyramid counts mass that is not actually transmitted to the next
trophic level. The mass of the animal’s bones is also calculated. However, the mass of the bones is not
actually utilized in the next level of the pyramid of biomass. Nonetheless, a pyramid of biomass remains
one of the excellent ways to determine if there is an imbalance in an ecosystem.
Source: https://eartheclipse.com/ecosystem/pyramid-of-biomass-definition-
examples.html#:~:text=One%20of%20the%20main%20limitations,human%20beings%20consume%20an
other%20animal.&text=However%2C%20the%20mass%20of%20the,of%20the%20pyramid%20of%20bio
mass.

Q.43)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Option a is incorrect - Population is a group of organisms usually of the same species, occupying a
defined area during a specific time. The main factors that make population increase are birth and
immigration. The main factors that make population decrease are death and emigration. The main limiting
factors for the growth of a population are abiotic and biotic components. A species comprises of many
populations. Often different populations of a species remain isolated due to some geographic barrier such
as mountain, ocean, river, etc.
Option b is incorrect - Organism is an individual living being that has the ability to act or function
independently. It may be plant, animal, bacterium, fungi, etc. It is a body made up of organs, organelles, or
other parts that work together to carry out on the various processes of life.
Option c is correct - A species is a group of organisms that share a genetic heritage, are able to
interbreed, and to create offspring that are also fertile. It is the lowest category of taxonomic hierarchy
and also the basic unit of classification. Only members of the same species can interbreed to produce fertile
offspring. Every species has its own set of genetic characteristics that makes the species unique and
different from other species.
Option d is incorrect - A homonym is the term which is used to refer the name of different organisms.
The name of every organism is unique but sometimes, the genus name or the species name of two or more
organism can be same. In biology, the term is used to describe the same name for a taxon which is used for
the organism in different taxa.
Source: https://nios.ac.in/media/documents/333courseE/4.pdf

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Q.44)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The biological community of an area or ecosystem is a complex network of interactions. It refers to the
interaction taking place between individuals belonging to the same species (intra specific) or different
species (interspecific). Some of the examples are:
Option a is incorrect – Amensalism is a negative association between two species in which one species
harm or restricts the other species without itself being adversely affected or harmed by the presence of
the other species. Organisms that secrete antibiotics and the species that get inhibited by the antibiotics
are examples of amensalism. For example the bread mould fungi Pencillium produce penicillin an antibiotic
substance which inhibits the growth of a variety of bacteria.
Option b is correct – Symbiosis is the extreme form of mutualism. In mutualism there is close interaction
between the organisms where both benefits from each other. However, symbiosis is intimate form of
mutualism where one has survival threats without the other species.
For example – Termites and their intestinal flagellates. Termites can eat wood but have no enzymes to
digest it. However, their intestine contains certain flagellate protists (protozoans) that have the necessary
enzymes to digest. Similar is the relation between Bees and pollinating flowers where flowering plants are
cross pollinated by the bees which benefit by getting nectar from the plants and both cannot survive
without the other
Option c is incorrect - In Commensalism one of the species benefits while the other is neither harmed
nor benefited. However as given in the paragraph, both of the species are getting benefitted. Some species
obtain the benefit of shelter or transport from another species. For example, Epiphytes live on the surface
of other plants like ferns, mosses and orchids and use the surface of trees for support and for obtaining
sunlight and moisture. The tree gets no benefit from this relationship nor are they harmed.
Option d is incorrect - In Parasitism, one species is harmed and the other benefits. However, in the
paragraph, none of the species is getting harmed. Parasitism involves parasite usually a small size
organism living in or on another living species called the host from which the parasite gets its nourishment
and often shelter. The parasite is benefited and the host is harmed. Plants like dodder plant (Cuscuta) and
mistletoe (Loranthus) are parasites that live on flowering plants. Tap worm, round worm, malarial parasite,
many bacteria, fungi, and viruses are common parasites of humans.
Knowledge Base:

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Source: https://nios.ac.in/media/documents/333courseE/4.pdf

Q.45)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The greed and need of human being have modified and changed the natural ecosystems greatly. The main
reasons for the modification of natural ecosystems are and 1) increasing human population 2) increasing
human needs and 3) changing life styles. Some of the human-modified ecosystems are:
Statement 1 is correct - Agroecosystems are large areas where commercial crops are cultivated. Crop
plants are sown and harvested by humans for economic purposes. They are also known as crop
ecosystems and mostly cultivated as monoculture (growing only one type of crop) on the entire field or
some-times growing two or more crop species in the same field at the same time.
Statement 2 is correct - Dam is one of the major human modified ecosystems. Rivers are diverted,
blocked for creation of Dams. A dam is a structure built in order to store river or tidal water. Dams,
reservoirs and diversions capture and store runoff water and release it as needed. They are used for
controlling or moderating floods, producing hydroelectric power, and supply of water. There are
disadvantages like aquatic life disruption, reduce nutrients at lower plains, displace large number of native
people etc.
Statement 4 is correct - Rural ecosystems are also modified by the human but is to a limited extent.
These are midway between natural and urban ecosystems since the exploitation of nature and natural
resources by humans is relatively much less. Rural people live relatively close to nature and follow a simple
life style.
Statement 3 and 5 are incorrect – A natural ecosystem is an assemblage of plants and animals which
functions as a unit and is capable of maintaining its identity such as forest, grassland, an estuary, is an

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PTS 2023 | Preparatory Test 29 – Solutions |

example of a natural ecosystem. A natural ecosystem is totally dependent on solar energy. There are two
main categories of ecosystems-
(1) Terrestrial ecosystem: Ecosystems found on land e.g. forest, grasslands, deserts, tundra. (2) Aquatic
ecosystem: Plants and animal community found in water bodies. These can be further classified into two
sub groups. (i) Fresh water ecosystems, such as rivers, lakes and ponds. (ii) Marine ecosystems, such as
oceans, estuary.
Source: https://nios.ac.in/media/documents/333courseE/7.pdf

Q.46)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
An indicator species is an organism whose presence, absence or abundance reflects a specific
environmental condition. Indicator species can signal a change in the biological condition of a particular
ecosystem, and thus may be used as a proxy to diagnose the health of an ecosystem. For example, plants
or lichens sensitive to heavy metals or acids in precipitation may be indicators of air pollution.
The aquatic plant Tubifex belongs to a family called Aquatic Oligochaete. Aquatic oligochaetes are known
for their use as water quality indicators, especially in areas with urban and sewage effluent.
Tubifex is considered to be an indicator species as it is capable of tolerating low levels of oxygen and
presence of heavy metals in water bodies. So, if it is found growing in any water body, it indicates that that
water body may be polluted with metals and may have insufficient oxygen to support life.
Source:
http://winvertebrates.uwsp.edu/templar_361_2012.html#:~:text=The%20Aquatic%20Oligochaete%20T
ubifex%20tubifex%20as%20a%20Water%20Quality%20Indicator&text=In%20particular%2C%20the%20o
ligochaete%20species,metals%2C%20and%20other%20environmental%20conditions.

Q.47)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement a is correct. Torrefaction is a thermochemical process typically at 200-350 °C in the absence
of oxygen, at atmospheric pressure with low particle heating rates and a reactor time of one hour. The
process causes biomass to partly decompose, creating torrefied biomass or char, also referred to as
'biocoal'. Torrefaction changes biomass properties to provide a better fuel quality for combustion and
gasification applications.
Statement b is incorrect. Putrescibility is the process of decomposition of organic matter present in water
by microorganisms using oxygen.
Statement c is incorrect. Happy Seeder (HS) or Turbo Happy Seeder (THS) is a tractor-operated machine,
for in-situ management of paddy stubble (straw). The Happy Seeder is a machine that cuts and lifts rice
straw, sows wheat into the soil, and deposits the straw over the sown area as mulch.
Statement d is incorrect. Composting is a biological process in which micro-organisms, mainly fungi and
bacteria, decompose degradable organic waste into humus like substance in the presence of oxygen. This
finished product, which looks like soil, is high in carbon and nitrogen and is an excellent medium for
growing plants.
Source: Bio-energy
https://www.etipbioenergy.eu/everyone/fuelsandconversion/torrefaction#:~:text=Torrefaction%20is
%20a%20thermochemical%20process,referred%20to%20as%20'biocoal'.

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Q.48)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
In 2015, the United Nations General Assembly adopted the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development. The
Sustainable Development Goals or Global Goals are a collection of 17 interlinked global goals designed to
be a "blueprint to achieve a better and more sustainable future for all".
The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) were born at the United Nations Conference on Sustainable
Development in Rio de Janeiro in 2012. The objective was to produce a set of universal goals that meet the
urgent environmental, political and economic challenges facing the world. The SDGs are a bold
commitment to finish what the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) started, and tackle some of the
more pressing challenges.
Statement 1 is incorrect. SDGs are not legally binding. There are 17 goals and 169 targets specific targets
to be achieved by 2030. Reaching the goals, however, requires action on all fronts – governments,
businesses, civil society and people everywhere all have a role to play.
Statement 2 is incorrect. All 193 UN member countries, including India, got committed to the
Sustainable Development Goals that require efforts to end all forms of poverty, fight inequalities and tackle
climate change while ensuring that no one was left behind. The responsibility for overseeing SDG
implementation in India has been assigned to the National Institution for Transforming India (NITI
Aayog) (and not the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation), which is the premier policy
think tank of the Government and is chaired by the Prime Minister of India.
Source: https://sdgs.un.org/goals

Q.49)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The Indian Government has been promoting organic farming under the dedicated scheme of Paramparagat
Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY) which encourages all kinds of chemical-free farming systems including Zero
Budget Natural Farming.
Statement 1 is correct. Zero Budget Natural Farming (ZNBF) means raising crops without using any
fertilizers and pesticides or any other external materials.
Statement 2 is correct. The word Zero Budget refers to the zero cost of production of all crops. ZBNF
guides the farmers towards sustainable farming practices thus helps in retaining soil fertility, to ensure a
chemical free agriculture and ensure low cost of production (zero cost) and thereby enhancing the farmers
income.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The concept was promoted by agriculturist & Padma Shri awardee Subhash
Palekar, in the mid-1990s as an alternative to the Green Revolution’s methods driven by chemical
fertilizers and pesticides and intensive irrigation.
Statement 4 is correct. Instead of commercially produced chemical inputs, ZBNF promotes the application
of jivamrita — a mixture of fresh cow dung and aged cow urine, jaggery, pulse flour, water and soil — on
farmland. This is a fermented microbial culture that adds nutrients to the soil and acts as a catalytic agent
to promote the activity of microorganisms and earthworms in the soil.
Source: The Hindu/ PIB/ Vikaspedia
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/agriculture/the-push-for-zero-budget-natural-
farming/article37964198.ece
https://pib.gov.in/FactsheetDetails.aspx?Id=148598
https://vikaspedia.in/agriculture/crop-production/organic-farming

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PTS 2023 | Preparatory Test 29 – Solutions |

Q.50)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS) is to promote public understanding,
awareness about sustainable agriculture and to safeguard the social, cultural, economic and
environmental goods and services these provide to family farmers, smallholders, indigenous peoples and
local communities.
Statement 1 is incorrect. Food and Agricultural Organization (FAO) recognizes the agricultural heritage
regions of the world. FAO tries to identify the economic viability of the system, the identification of
environmentally sustainable strategies in the face of growing climate change, and the empowerment of
small holder/traditional family farming and indigenous communities under Globally Important Agricultural
Heritage Systems (GIAHS).
Statement 2 is correct. The purpose of GIAHS is to recognize remarkable land use systems and landscapes
which are rich in globally significant biological diversity. They may be the result of co-adaptation of a
community with its environment and its needs and aspirations for sustainable development.
Statement 3 is incorrect. In India, the following sites have received recognition under the Globally
Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS):
(a) Traditional Agricultural System, Koraput, Odisha
(b) Below Sea Level Farming System, Kuttanad, Kerala (not ODISA)
(c) Pampore Saffron Heritage of Kashmir
In the Koraput system, women have played a key role in the conservation of biodiversity. The Kuttanad
system was developed by farmers over 150 years ago to ensure their food security by learning to cultivate
rice and other crops below sea level. The Kuttanad System is now attracting worldwide attention since one
of the effects of global warming is sea level rise. It has therefore been an act of vision on the part of Kerala
government to have decided to set up an International Research and
Training Centre for Below Sea Level Farming in Kuttanad.
Source: Shankar IAS environment. Page no.340

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