Here are the answers to the multiple-choice questions based on the provided document:

1. The casing is under pressure in case of:

b. Frances and Kaplan 1

2. Sudden cutting of water flow in the penstock will cause:

a. Water hammer 2

3. Slip in case of a centrifugal pump

b. Reduces the energy transfer 3

4. How is the variation of air velocity while passing through impeller followed by diffuser in
centrifugal compressor?

d. Air velocity increases in impeller and then decreases in diffuser 4

5. In air compressor performance curve a surge line represents

c. Limit of stable operation 5

6. For the velocity fields given below, which statement is true:

1. V =ax2i^+bxzj^+czk^

2. V =axyi^−byztj^ a. equation 1 is 3D, steady and equation 2 is 2D, unsteady 6

7. Which of the following represents obstruction type flow measurement system

c. Flow nozzle device 7

8. The x component of velocity in a steady incompressible flow field in the xy plane is

u=Ax/(x2+y2). Find the simplest y component of velocity for this flow field.

d. v(x,y)=(x2+y2)A^y 8

9. For a velocity field V=A(x2+2xy)i^+A(y2+2xy)j^ in the xy plane, where A=0.25m−1s−1 and the
coordinates are measured in meters. The x and y axis acceleration is given by (in m/s2)

b. ax=1.75 and ay=0.875 9

10. The dynamic pressure measured by a Pitot tube in a flow stream of water at 20 °C moving at
a velocity of n/s is:

a. 4800 N/m2 10

11. For which of the following scenario, Bernoulli's equation is not valid

b. Unsteady, incompressible flow along a streamline 11

12. Consider the strain rate tensor of a Newtonian stress tensor ϵ=ϵije^ie^j. The components of
ϵij are arranged in the form as: [abd7−65−2c8] Volumetric strain rate is zero, the values of a,
b, c and d are

a. 2, 5, 7 and 2 12
 13. For a Uni-directional viscous flow of a Newtonian fluid with straight streamlines, which of the
following statement is true.

b. the motion pressure does not vary normal to the streamlines 13

14. At the edge of a boundary layer, which of the flowing statement holds true

c. the velocity gradient perpendicular to the flow direction approaches zero 14

15. For a fully-developed pipe flow, how does the pressure vary with the length of the pipe?

b. linearly 15

16. There is a ___________ from ___________ to ___________ found on the top of an airfoil
when air is forced to move ___________. At high angles of attack, loss of energy to the
boundary layer can create ___________.

b. Adverse gradient, low pressure, high pressure, airflow separation 16

17. In which method of describing fluid motion, the observer observes changes in the fluid
parameters at a particular point only?

b. Eulerian method 17

18. Darcy-Weisbach equation gives relation between

c. Head loss and pressure loss 18

19. Relationship between Boundary layer thickness measured for case without pressure gradient
(δwo) and Boundary layer thickness measured for case with adverse pressure gradient (δw)
is

b. δw>δwo 19

20. Stresses that change the shape of an element are referred to as

b. deviatoric stresses 20

21. Streamline and equipotential lines in an 2D irrotational flow field

c. are perpendicular to each other 21

22. The fluid will rise in capillary when the capillary is placed in fluid, if

b. the adhesion force between molecules of fluid and tube is more than the cohesion between liquid
molecules 22

23. In a stationary fluid, the state of stress is

d. Isotropic and compressive 23

24. In an incompressible flow with straight parallel streamlines,

b. the fluid velocity cannot vary along the streamlines 24

25. In any flow, the Vorticity field satisfies

a. ∇∙Ω=0 25
 26. The state of stress in a body is given as σ=[xxy0xyy2yz0yzz2] MPa. If it is in static equilibrium,
find the body force vector.

b. bx=−1−x, by=−4y bz=−3z 26

27. Maximum shear stress for a circular shaft of radius R, Length L, shear modulus G and angle of
twist θ is

a. τmax=GRθ/L 27

28. A cube of side 4 m changes into a cube of side 4.04 m due to application of some forces.
What is the strain energy stored in the cube Young's modulus is 1 MPa and Poisson's ratio is
0.25?

b. 192000 N-m 28

29. Two identical springs, each of spring constant k, are arranged as shown below and a force F is
applied. What would be the strain energy of the system.

d. F2/4k 29

30. Which of the following is true

a. Shear force in a beam can be obtained by differentiating bending moment. 30

31. A system 'A' having structural damping executes 12 Hz in free vibration. Another system 'B'
executes 15 Hz in free vibration. Both systems are set to vibrating with same initial stress
level. If system 'A' takes 4.5 seconds to damp out completely, how long will the system 'B'
take to damp out completely?

a. 3.6 seconds 31

32. A rotor system has 100 rad/s as the critical speed and its operating speed is 120 rad/s. If we
want to avoid altogether crossing of the critical speed, then what should be the
enhancement in the support stiffness by an auxiliary support system? To avoid excessive
vibration, assume a gap of at least 5 rad/s between the operating speed and the critical
speed. The rotor has a mass of 10 kg.

c. 56.25 kN/m 32

33. The motion diminishes to zero in

d. Critically damped and overdamped case 33

34. The natural frequency of the pulley system is given by which of the following expression?
The pulleys are assumed to be frictionless and of negligible mass.

a. m(k1+k2)4k1k2 34

35. A rotating disc of 1 m diameter has two eccentric masses of 0.5 kg each at radii of 50 mm
and 60 mm at the angular positions of 0 degree and 150 degrees respectively. A balancing
mass of 0.1 kg is to be used to balance rotor. What is the radial position of the balancing
mass.

d. 120.5 mm 35

36. The unbalanced force due to reciprocating masses

c. varies in both magnitude and direction 36

37. A kinematic chain is known as a mechanism when

b. One of the links is fixed 37

38. What is the term used in gear arrangement to define the amount by which tooth space
exceeds the thickness on an engaging tooth?38

b. Backlash 39

39. The minimum number of teeth on the pinion, in order to avoid interference for 1421 full
depth system is

c. 18 40

40. The principal stresses at a point in a structure are σ1=140 MPa, σ2=80 MPa and σ3=−80 MPa.
Determine the magnitude of maximum shear stress.

a. 110 MPa 41

41. The shear resistance of rivet is Ps=295 kN the tensile resistance of the plate is Pt=260 kN and
the crushing resistance of the plate is Pc=315 kN. If the strength of the unriveted solid plate
is 350 kN, what is the efficiency of the riveted joint?

b. 74% 42

42. The height of a Watt's governor (in meters) is equal to Where N = Speed of the arm and ball
about the spindle axis

c. 895/N2 43

43. The sensitiveness of a governor is given by

b. ω2−ω1/ωmean 44

44. A gear train is made up of five spur gears as shown in the following figure. Gear 2 is driver
and gear 6 is driven member. N2, N3, N4, N5 and N6 represent number of teeth on gears 2,
3, 4, 5 and 6 respectively. The gear(s) which act(s) as idler(s) is/are.

d. Both Gears 3 and 5 45

45. A flywheel connected to a punching machine has to supply energy of 400 Nm, while running
at a mean angular speed of 20 rad/s. If the total fluctuation of speed is not to exceed ±2%,
the mass moment of inertia of the flywheel in kg.m2 is.

b. 50 46

46. Figure shows an offset slider crank mechanism. The quick return ratio when the crank rotates
at a constant angular speed is

b. 2.5 47

47. If a material has Poisson's ratio 0.5, it is called

a. Incompressible 48
 48. In the plot of coefficient of friction (μ) versus bearing characteristic number, the value of
bearing characteristic number corresponding to the lowest value of μ is called

b. Sommerfield Num 49

49. In a biaxial state of stress, the condition of pure shear dictates that;

c. σ1=−σ2 50

50. For a small circular hole in a flat plate subjected to tensile loads, the theoretical stress
concentration factor is

d. 3 51

51. A cast iron surface plate is machined on a planer at a slow speed, small depth of cut and
small feed. The chip produced is

c. Discontinuous 52

52. Plain turning is performed with a tool having signature of 5-8-6-6-12-10-5 mm (ASA system)
of EN30 steel rod 100 mm diameter and 400 mm long. The spindle speed, depth of cut and
feed are 300 rpm, 6.0 mm and 0.2 mm/rev respectively. The cutting speed in mpm is

b. 94.2 [not cited]

53. After turning with a single point cutting tool a crater of diameter 5 mm is observed on the
tool face This a ______ wear is formed

c. Crater [not cited]

54. Two aluminum sheets of 200 mm x 20 mm cross section are rolled without applying any axial
force. While rolling, one of them was at room temperature while the other was at 300∘C.
The maximum angle of bites of that at room temperature is Br and that at 300∘C is B300.
Therefore:

a. Br > B300 [not cited]

55. The precipitation hardening of metallic component is obtained due to the formation of
formation of third solid and harder phase in the grains of the component.

b. Clustering of third phase precipitates in the grains strengthens the component [not cited]

56. Medical practitioners use syringes for injections. The needles of the syringes are fabricated
through

d. Wire drawing [not cited]

57. A welding operation is being performed with V = 20 volts, I = 300 A. The welding specific
energy is 6 J/mm³ and the efficiency of the system is 80%. The cross-sectional area of THE
weld is:

c. 25 mm² [not cited]

58. An example of Acrylonitrile Butadiene Styrene (ABS) Polymer is:

a. Computer Keyboard [not cited]

59. Choose the incorrect statement:

d. The particle size produced during metal powder production ranges from 0.10 to 1000 $\mu$m
[not cited]

60. In the metal forming processes, the stresses encountered are:

b. Less than the fracture strength of the material and greater than the yield strength. [not cited]

61. The TTT curves and Iron Carbon diagram are determined under

b. Non-equilibrium and Equilibrium conditions respectively [not cited]

62. The crystal structure of martensite is

d. Body centered tetragonal [not cited]

63. If a particular Fe-C alloy contains less than 0.83% carbon, it is called

b. Hypo-eutectoid steel [not cited]

64. The number of atoms per unit cell and the number of slip systems, respectively, for the face-
centered cubic (FCC) crystal are

c. 3, 12 [not cited]

65. In Lead-Tin (Pb-Sn) phase diagram, the eutectic point is located at ....... wt. % Sn and ....... °C
respectively.

b. 55 and 183 [not cited]

66. During Tensile-testing of a specimen using Universal Testing Machine. the parameters
actually measured includes

c. Load and elongation [not cited]

67. Which one of the following sets of constituents are expected in equilibrium cooling of a
hypereutectoid steel from austenite state?

b. Cementite and pearlite [not cited]

68. The microstructure consists of extremely small and uniformly dispersed cementite particles
embedded within a continuous53 α-ferrite matrix is

a. Hardened martensite [not cited]

69. In case of screw dislocation, the burger's vector is ________ to dislocation

b. Perpendicular [not cited]

70. For economic analysis, worth at time present zero in case of lender's viewpoint is considered
as:

a. Zero [not cited]

71. For useful lives 4, 6 and 8 years of alternative economic projects, the following study period
will be used for analysis:

c. 24 Years [not cited]

72. The characteristic of a fixed order quantity inventory control system is

d. Replenishment action is initiated when stock level is above reorder level [not cited]

73. In Iron Carbon diagram, Eutectoid reactions occurs at

c. 910°C [not cited]

74. If demand in units is 18000, relevant ordering cost for each year is $150 and an order
quantity is 1500 then annual relevant ordering cost would54 be:

d. $180 [not cited]

75. The most common queuing system that railway reservation counters follow is:

b. Multi channel-Multi phase [not cited]

76. A refrigeration system is employed in a freezer which operates at -3 °C where the ambient
temperature is 25 °C. If 5.2×105 kJ/h of energy is to be continuously drawn out from the
freezer, what will be the minimum power required to operate the refrigerator?

c. 154.3 kW [not cited]

77. An azeotropic refrigerant is

c. A mixture of refrigerants that change phase at different temperatures [not cited]

78. For a gas turbine plant that operates between pressure limits P1 and P2 with perfect
intercooling between the two stages of compression and comparable isentropic efficiency,
the ideal intermediate pressure Pi is

b. Pi=P1P2 [not cited]

79. Which of the following is true for unsaturated air

d. DBT = WBT [not cited]

80. During a throttling process, what would happen to a substance whose Joule-Thomson
coefficient is negative?

a. The temperature of the substance will increase [not cited]

81. The specific heat difference, Cp−Cv for a gas having equation of state as P(v−b)=RT will be

b. R [not cited]

82. In Rankine cycle having fixed boiler and condenser pressures, what would happen when the
steam will be superheated to a higher temperature?

d. Moisture content at turbine exit will decrease [not cited]

83. For an ideal gas the entropy change is given as

b. ΔS=CvlnT1T2+Rlnv1v2 [not cited]

84. Under steady state conduction the temperature gradient in sphere at half the radius location
will be

c. 8 times that of the surface [not cited]

 85. With an increase in thickness of insulation around a tube, the resistance to heat flow to the
surroundings due to

a. convection increases, while that due to conduction decreases [not cited]

86. The heat transfer coefficient, in case of condensation outside the tubes with large L/d, will be

a. more for horizontal tube than for vertical tube [not cited]

87. Two infinite parallel plates of the same emissivity of 0.4 maintained at different
temperatures exchange heat by radiation. If a radiation shield of 0.3 emissivity is inserted in
the middle and parallel to the plates, the radiation heat transfer will reduce by

b. less than 50% [not cited]

88. The effectiveness of a counter flow heat exchanger, if both the fluids are having equal heat
capacities, will be

b. ϵ=NTU/(1+NTU) [not cited]

89. Thermal boundary layer thickness is thicker than the momentum boundary layer thickness
when Prandtl number is

d. greater than 1 [not cited]

90. The shape factor of a hemispherical body placed on a flat surface with respect to itself is

c. 0.2 [not cited]

91. Shock waves involving an abrupt rise of pressure and increase of entropy generally occurs

d. in the divergent section of the nozzle [not cited]

92. A correctly designed convergent-divergent nozzle working at designed load is

b. always choked [not cited]

93. A power plant which uses a gas turbine followed by a steam turbine for power generation is
called

d. combined cycle [not cited]

94. In rocket propulsion, the oxygen for its combustion of fuel is taken from

a. surrounding air [not cited]

95. In SI engines maximum flame speed is obtained when the equivalent ratio is between

c. 1.2 and 1.3 [not cited]

96. Disadvantage of hydrogen as a fuel in IC engine

b. low NOx emissions [not cited]

97. If a square fin is split longitudinally and is used as two fins on a surface, then the heat flow
rate will

a. decrease [not cited]

 98. If Gr is Grashoff number, Re is Reynolds number, Pr is Prandtl number and Nu refers to
Nusselt number then, the dimensionless Richardson number (Ri) can be expressed as:

b. Gr/Re² [not cited]

99. For quick response of a thermocouple

a. its wire diameter should be large [not cited]

100. For a steam condenser the best mode of operation

b. counter flow [not cited]

• Query successful

Here are the answers to the multiple-choice questions based on the provided document:

1. The casing is under pressure in case of:

b. Frances and Kaplan

2. Sudden cutting of water flow in the penstock will cause:

a. Water hammer

3. Slip in case of a centrifugal pump

b. Reduces the energy transfer

4. How is the variation of air velocity while passing through impeller followed by diffuser in
centrifugal compressor?

d. Air velocity increases in impeller and then decreases in diffuser

5. In air compressor performance curve a surge line represents

c. Limit of stable operation

6. For the velocity fields given below, which statement is true:

1. V =ax2i^+bxzj^+czk^

2. V =axyi^−byztj^

a. equation 1 is 3D, steady and equation 2 is 2D, unsteady

7. Which of the following represents obstruction type flow measurement system

c. Flow nozzle device

8. The x component of velocity in a steady incompressible flow field in the xy plane is

u=Ax/(x2+y2). Find the simplest y component of velocity for this flow field.

d. v(x,y)=(x2+y2)A^y
9. For a velocity field V =A(x2+2xy)i^+A(y2+2xy)j^ in the xy plane, where A=0.25m−1s−1
and the coordinates are measured in meters. The x and y axis acceleration is given by (in
m/s2)

b. ax=1.75 and ay=0.875

10. The dynamic pressure measured by a Pitot tube in a flow stream of water at 20 °C moving at
a velocity of n/s is:

a. 4800 N/m2

11. For which of the following scenario, Bernoulli's equation is not valid

b. Unsteady, incompressible flow along a streamline

12. Consider the strain rate tensor of a Newtonian stress tensor ϵ=ϵije^ie^j. The components of
ϵij are arranged in the form as: [abd7−65−2c8] Volumetric strain rate is zero, the values of a,
b, c and d are

a. 2, 5, 7 and 2

13. For a Uni-directional viscous flow of a Newtonian fluid with straight streamlines, which of the
following statement is true.

b. the motion pressure does not vary normal to the streamlines

14. At the edge of a boundary layer, which of the flowing statement holds true

c. the velocity gradient perpendicular to the flow direction approaches zero

15. For a fully-developed pipe flow, how does the pressure vary with the length of the pipe?

b. linearly

16. There is a ___________ from ___________ to ___________ found on the top of an airfoil
when air is forced to move ___________. At high angles of attack, loss of energy to the
boundary layer can create ___________.

b. Adverse gradient, low pressure, high pressure, airflow separation

17. In which method of describing fluid motion, the observer observes changes in the fluid
parameters at a particular point only?

b. Eulerian method

18. Darcy-Weisbach equation gives relation between

c. Head loss and pressure loss

19. Relationship between Boundary layer thickness measured for case without pressure gradient
(δwo) and Boundary layer thickness measured for case with adverse pressure gradient (δw)
is

b. δw>δwo

20. Stresses that change the shape of an element are referred to as

 b. deviatoric stresses

21. Streamline and equipotential lines in an 2D irrotational flow field

c. are perpendicular to each other

22. The fluid will rise in capillary when the capillary is placed in fluid, if

b. the adhesion force between molecules of fluid and tube is more than the cohesion
between liquid molecules

23. In a stationary fluid, the state of stress is

d. Isotropic and compressive

24. In an incompressible flow with straight parallel streamlines,

b. the fluid velocity cannot vary along the streamlines

25. In any flow, the Vorticity field satisfies

a. ∇∙Ω=0

26. The state of stress in a body is given as σ=[xxy0xyy2yz0yzz2] MPa. If it is in static equilibrium,
find the body force vector.

b. bx=−1−x, by=−4y bz=−3z

27. Maximum shear stress for a circular shaft of radius R, Length L, shear modulus G and angle of
twist θ is

a. τmax=GRθ/L

28. A cube of side 4 m changes into a cube of side 4.04 m due to application of some forces.
What is the strain energy stored in the cube Young's modulus is 1 MPa and Poisson's ratio is
0.25?

b. 192000 N-m

29. Two identical springs, each of spring constant k, are arranged as shown below and a force F is
applied. What would be the strain energy of the system.

d. F2/4k

30. Which of the following is true

a. Shear force in a beam can be obtained by differentiating bending moment.

31. A system 'A' having structural damping executes 12 Hz in free vibration. Another system 'B'
executes 15 Hz in free vibration. Both systems are set to vibrating with same initial stress
level. If system 'A' takes 4.5 seconds to damp out completely, how long will the system 'B'
take to damp out completely?

a. 3.6 seconds

32. A rotor system has 100 rad/s as the critical speed and its operating speed is 120 rad/s. If we
want to avoid altogether crossing of the critical speed, then what should be the
enhancement in the support stiffness by an auxiliary support system? To avoid excessive
 vibration, assume a gap of at least 5 rad/s between the operating speed and the critical
speed. The rotor has a mass of 10 kg.

c. 56.25 kN/m

33. The motion diminishes to zero in

d. Critically damped and overdamped case

34. The natural frequency of the pulley system is given by which of the following expression?
The pulleys are assumed to be frictionless and of negligible mass.

a. m(k1+k2)4k1k2

35. A rotating disc of 1 m diameter has two eccentric masses of 0.5 kg each at radii of 50 mm
and 60 mm at the angular positions of 0 degree and 150 degrees respectively. A balancing
mass of 0.1 kg is to be used to balance rotor. What is the radial position of the balancing
mass.

d. 120.5 mm

36. The unbalanced force due to reciprocating masses

c. varies in both magnitude and direction

37. A kinematic chain is known as a mechanism when

b. One of the links is fixed

38. What is the term used in gear arrangement to define the amount by which tooth space
exceeds the thickness on an engaging tooth?

b. Backlash

39. The minimum number of teeth on the pinion, in order to avoid interference for 1421 full
depth system is

c. 18

40. The principal stresses at a point in a structure are σ1=140 MPa, σ2=80 MPa and σ3=−80 MPa.
Determine the magnitude of maximum shear stress.

a. 110 MPa

41. The shear resistance of rivet is Ps=295 kN the tensile resistance of the plate is Pt=260 kN and
the crushing resistance of the plate is Pc=315 kN. If the strength of the unriveted solid plate
is 350 kN, what is the efficiency of the riveted joint?

b. 74%

42. The height of a Watt's governor (in meters) is equal to Where N = Speed of the arm and ball
about the spindle axis

c. 895/N2

43. The sensitiveness of a governor is given by

 b. ω2−ω1/ωmean

44. A gear train is made up of five spur gears as shown in the following figure. Gear 2 is driver
and gear 6 is driven member. N2, N3, N4, N5 and N6 represent number of teeth on gears 2,
3, 4, 5 and 6 respectively. The gear(s) which act(s) as idler(s) is/are.

d. Both Gears 3 and 5

45. A flywheel connected to a punching machine has to supply energy of 400 Nm, while running
at a mean angular speed of 20 rad/s. If the total fluctuation of speed is not to exceed ±2%,
the mass moment of inertia of the flywheel in kg.m2 is.

b. 50

46. Figure shows an offset slider crank mechanism. The quick return ratio when the crank rotates
at a constant angular speed is

b. 2.5

47. If a material has Poisson's ratio 0.5, it is called

a. Incompressible

48. In the plot of coefficient of friction (μ) versus bearing characteristic number, the value of
bearing characteristic number corresponding to the lowest value of μ is called

b. Sommerfield Num

49. In a biaxial state of stress, the condition of pure shear dictates that;

c. σ1=−σ2

50. For a small circular hole in a flat plate subjected to tensile loads, the theoretical stress
concentration factor is

d. 3

51. A cast iron surface plate is machined on a planer at a slow speed, small depth of cut and
small feed. The chip produced is

c. Discontinuous

52. Plain turning is performed with a tool having signature of 5-8-6-6-12-10-5 mm (ASA system)
of EN30 steel rod 100 mm diameter and 400 mm long. The spindle speed, depth of cut and
feed are 300 rpm, 6.0 mm and 0.2 mm/rev respectively. The cutting speed in mpm is

b. 94.2 [not cited]

53. After turning with a single point cutting tool a crater of diameter 5 mm is observed on the
tool face This a ______ wear is formed

c. Crater [not cited]

54. Two aluminum sheets of 200 mm x 20 mm cross section are rolled without applying any axial
force. While rolling, one of them was at room temperature while the other was at 300∘C.
The maximum angle of bites of that at room temperature is Br and that at 300∘C is B300.
Therefore:
 a. Br > B300 [not cited]

55. The precipitation hardening of metallic component is obtained due to the formation of
formation of third solid and harder phase in the grains of the component.

b. Clustering of third phase precipitates in the grains strengthens the component [not cited]

56. Medical practitioners use syringes for injections. The needles of the syringes are fabricated
through

d. Wire drawing [not cited]

57. A welding operation is being performed with V = 20 volts, I = 300 A. The welding specific
energy is 6 J/mm³ and the efficiency of the system is 80%. The cross-sectional area of THE
weld is:

c. 25 mm² [not cited]

58. An example of Acrylonitrile Butadiene Styrene (ABS) Polymer is:

a. Computer Keyboard [not cited]

59. Choose the incorrect statement:

d. The particle size produced during metal powder production ranges from 0.10 to 1000
$\mu$m [not cited]

60. In the metal forming processes, the stresses encountered are:

b. Less than the fracture strength of the material and greater than the yield strength. [not
cited]

61. The TTT curves and Iron Carbon diagram are determined under

b. Non-equilibrium and Equilibrium conditions respectively [not cited]

62. The crystal structure of martensite is

d. Body centered tetragonal [not cited]

63. If a particular Fe-C alloy contains less than 0.83% carbon, it is called

b. Hypo-eutectoid steel [not cited]

64. The number of atoms per unit cell and the number of slip systems, respectively, for the face-
centered cubic (FCC) crystal are

c. 3, 12 [not cited]

65. In Lead-Tin (Pb-Sn) phase diagram, the eutectic point is located at ....... wt. % Sn and ....... °C
respectively.

b. 55 and 183 [not cited]

66. During Tensile-testing of a specimen using Universal Testing Machine. the parameters
actually measured includes

c. Load and elongation [not cited]

67. Which one of the following sets of constituents are expected in equilibrium cooling of a
hypereutectoid steel from austenite state?

b. Cementite and pearlite [not cited]

68. The microstructure consists of extremely small and uniformly dispersed cementite particles
embedded within a continuous α-ferrite matrix is

a. Hardened martensite [not cited]

69. In case of screw dislocation, the burger's vector is ________ to dislocation

b. Perpendicular [not cited]

70. For economic analysis, worth at time present zero in case of lender's viewpoint is considered
as:

a. Zero [not cited]

71. For useful lives 4, 6 and 8 years of alternative economic projects, the following study period
will be used for analysis:

c. 24 Years [not cited]

72. The characteristic of a fixed order quantity inventory control system is

d. Replenishment action is initiated when stock level is above reorder level [not cited]

73. In Iron Carbon diagram, Eutectoid reactions occurs at

c. 910°C [not cited]

74. If demand in units is 18000, relevant ordering cost for each year is $150 and an order
quantity is 1500 then annual relevant ordering cost would be:

d. $180 [not cited]

75. The most common queuing system that railway reservation counters follow is:

b. Multi channel-Multi phase [not cited]

76. A refrigeration system is employed in a freezer which operates at -3 °C where the ambient
temperature is 25 °C. If 5.2×105 kJ/h of energy is to be continuously drawn out from the
freezer, what will be the minimum power required to operate the refrigerator?

c. 154.3 kW [not cited]

77. An azeotropic refrigerant is

c. A mixture of refrigerants that change phase at different temperatures [not cited]

78. For a gas turbine plant that operates between pressure limits P1 and P2 with perfect
intercooling between the two stages of compression and comparable isentropic efficiency,
the ideal intermediate pressure Pi is

b. Pi=P1P2 [not cited]

79. Which of the following is true for unsaturated air

 d. DBT = WBT [not cited]

80. During a throttling process, what would happen to a substance whose Joule-Thomson
coefficient is negative?

a. The temperature of the substance will increase [not cited]

81. The specific heat difference, Cp−Cv for a gas having equation of state as P(v−b)=RT will be

b. R [not cited]

82. In Rankine cycle having fixed boiler and condenser pressures, what would happen when the
steam will be superheated to a higher temperature?

d. Moisture content at turbine exit will decrease [not cited]

83. For an ideal gas the entropy change is given as

b. ΔS=CvlnT1T2+Rlnv1v2 [not cited]

84. Under steady state conduction the temperature gradient in sphere at half the radius location
will be

c. 8 times that of the surface [not cited]

85. With an increase in thickness of insulation around a tube, the resistance to heat flow to the
surroundings due to

a. convection increases, while that due to conduction decreases [not cited]

86. The heat transfer coefficient, in case of condensation outside the tubes with large L/d, will be
a. more for horizontal tube than for vertical tube [not cited]

87. Two infinite parallel plates of the same emissivity of 0.4 maintained at different
temperatures exchange heat by radiation. If a radiation shield of 0.3 emissivity is inserted in
the middle and parallel to the plates, the radiation heat transfer will reduce by

b. less than 50% [not cited]

88. The effectiveness of a counter flow heat exchanger, if both the fluids are having equal heat
capacities, will be

b. ϵ=NTU/(1+NTU) [not cited]

89. Thermal boundary layer thickness is thicker than the momentum boundary layer thickness
when Prandtl number is

d. greater than 1 [not cited]

90. The shape factor of a hemispherical body placed on a flat surface with respect to itself is

c. 0.2 [not cited]

91. Shock waves involving an abrupt rise of pressure and increase of entropy generally occurs

d. in the divergent section of the nozzle [not cited]

92. A correctly designed convergent-divergent nozzle working at designed load is

 b. always choked [not cited]

93. A power plant which uses a gas turbine followed by a steam turbine for power generation is
called

d. combined cycle [not cited]

94. In rocket propulsion, the oxygen for its combustion of fuel is taken from

a. surrounding air [not cited]

95. In SI engines maximum flame speed is obtained when the equivalent ratio is between

c. 1.2 and 1.3 [not cited]

96. Disadvantage of hydrogen as a fuel in IC engine

b. low NOx emissions [not cited]

97. If a square fin is split longitudinally and is used as two fins on a surface, then the heat flow
rate will

a. decrease [not cited]

98. If Gr is Grashoff number, Re is Reynolds number, Pr is Prandtl number and Nu refers to

Nusselt number then, the dimensionless Richardson number (Ri) can be expressed as:

b. Gr/Re² [not cited]

99. For quick response of a thermocouple

a. its wire diameter should be large [not cited]

100. For a steam condenser the best mode of operation

b. counter flow [not cited]