Vishvan Classes

Scooter India, Lucknow

TEST-2
Entrance Exam - NEET-UG
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 720
General Instructions:
The test is of 3 hours and it contains 180 questions.
For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks.
For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores.
PHYSICS
1. What is the electric potential at the centre of a hemisphere of radius R and having [4]
surface charge density σ?

a) σR
b) σ

ε0
ε0

c) σR
d) σ

2ε0
2ε0

2. An electron is released from the bottom plate A as shown in the figure (E = [4]
4
10 N/C). The velocity of the electron when it reaches plate B will be nearly equal to:

a) 0.85 × 107 m/s b) 1.65 × 107 m/s

c) 1.0 × 107 m/s d) 1.25 × 107 m/s

3. The potential at a point P due to an electric dipole is 1.8 × 105 V. If P is at a distance [4]
of 50 apart from the centre O of the dipole and if CP makes an angle 60o with the
positive side of the axial line of the dipole, what is the moment of the dipole?

a) 10-4 C-m b) 10-5 C-m

c) 10 C-m d) 10-3 C-m

4. Two charges, each equal to q, are kept at x = - a and x = a on the x-axis. A particle [4]
of mass m and charge q0 = is placed at the origin. If charge q0 is given a small
q

displacement y(y < < a) along the y-axis, the net force acting on the particle is
proportional to
 a) -y b) y

c) 1

y
d) − 1

5. Two equal -ve charges -q are fixed at the points (0, a) and (0, - a) on the y-axis. A [4]
positive charge Q is released from rest at the point (2a, 0) on the x-axis. The charge
will:

a) execute SHM about the origin b) move to the origin and remain
at rest

c) execute oscillatory but not SHM d) move to infinity

6. If a proton, a deutron and an α-particle are kept in the same electric field: [4]

a) proton and deutron will have b) α-particle will have the

the same acceleration maximum acceleration

c) proton will have the minimum d) deutron and α-particle will have
acceleration the same acceleration

7. Choose the correct relation regarding potential. Here A, B, C and D all are at equal [4]
distance from point O. Then:

a) |VC| = |VD| > |VA| = |VB| b) |VA| > |VC| = |VD| > |VB|

c) |VA| = |VB| > |VC| = |VD| d) |VB| > |VC| = |VD| > |VA|

8. The total electric flux leaving spherical surface of radius 1 cm and surrounding an [4]
electric dipole is:

a) 8πr
2
b) q

ε0
ε0

c) zero d) 2q

ε0

9. If the electric potential at any point (x, y, z) m in space is given by V = 3x2 volt. The [4]
electric field at the point (1, 0, 3 ) m will be:

1 1
 -1 -1
a) 6 Vm , directed along negative b) 3 Vm , directed along positive
x-axis x-axis
-1 -1
c) 3 Vm , directed along negative d) 6 Vm , directed along positive
x-axis. x-axis.

-17
10. An oil drop carrying a charge of 2 electrons has a mass of 3.2 × 10 kg. It is falling [4]
freely in air with terminal speed. The electric field required to make the drop move
upwards with the same speed is:

a) 4× 103 V/m b) 8 × 103 V/m

3 3
c) 3× 10 V/m d) 2 × 10 V/m

11. The energy stored in a condenser of capacity C which has been raised to a potential [4]
V is given by:

a) 1

2
CV2 b) 1

2
CV
2
c) CV d) CV

12. Consider two concentric spherical metal shells of radii r1 and r2 (r2 > r1). If the outer [4]
shell has a charge q and the inner one is grounded, the charge on the inner shell is:

a) −r2
q b) −r1
q
r1 r2

c) -q d) Zero

13. The charge given to a solid arbitrary conductor resides on its outer surface. This: [4]

a) creates a large potential at the b) creates uniform surface charge

surface having a large radius of density
curvature

c) creates a uniform potential d) creates a small potential at the

surface having a large radius of
curvature

14. The electric charges are distributed in a small volume. The flux of the electric field [4]
through a spherical surface of radius 10 cm surrounding the total charge is 20 V-m.
The flux over a concentric sphere of radius 20 cm will be:

a) 40 V-m b) 25 V-m

c) 200 V-m d) 20 V-m

15. A unit positive charge has to be brought from infinity to a mid-point between two [4]
charges 20 μC and 10μC separated by a distance of 50 m. How much work will be
required?
3 6
a) 10.8 × 10 J b) 10.8 × 10 J
4 5
c) 10.8 × 10 J d) 0.54 × 10 J

16. Charge q is uniformly distributed over a thin half ring of radius R. The electric field at [4]
the centre of the ring is:

a) 2
q

2
b) q

2
2π ε0 R 4πε0 R

c) q

2
d) 2
q

2
2πε0 R 4π ε0 R

17. The electric potential at a point (x, y, z) is given by V = - x2y - xz3 + 4. The electric [4]
field E⃗ at that point is:

a) E⃗ = ^i z3 + ^j xyz + k
^ 2
3z x b) E⃗ = ^i (2 xy - z3) + ^j x2 + k
^
3 xz
2

c) E⃗ = ^i 2xy + ^j (x2 + y2) + k

^
(3xz - d) E⃗ = ^i (2 xy - z3) + ^j xy2 + k
^ 2
3z x
2
y )

18. A charged particle (mass m and charge q) moves along X axis with velocity V0. [4]
When it passes through the origin it enters a region having uniform electric field E⃗ =
-E^j which extends upto x = d. Equation of path of electron in the region x > d is:

a) y = qEd
2

x
b) y = qEd
(
d
− x)
2 2
2 mV
mV0 0

c) y = qEd
(x − d)
d) y = qEd
x
2 2
mV mV
0 0

19. An electric dipole is formed by two equal and opposite charges q with separation d. [4]
The charges have same mass m. It is kept in a uniform electric field E. If it is slightly
rotated from its equilibrium orientation, then its angular frequency ω is
 a) √−−
−
qE b) −−
−
qE
2√
md md

c) √−−− qE d) √−−− 2qE

2md md

20. Two charged spherical conductors of radius R1 and R2 are connected by a wire. [4]
Then the ratio of surface charge densities of the spheres ( is
σ1
)
σ2

a) R2 b) R1

R1 R2

c) −−−
R1
−−
d) R
2

√( ) 2
R2
R2

21. Two metal spheres of same mass are suspended from a common point by a light [4]
insulating string. The length of each string is same. The spheres are given electric
charges +q on one end and +4q on the other. Which of the following diagrams best
shows the resulting positions of spheres?

a) b)

c) d)

22. One metallic sphere A is given positive charge whereas another identical metallic [4]
sphere B of exactly same mass as of A is given equal amount of negative charge.
Then:

a) mass of A and mass of B still b) mass of B decreases

remain equal

c) mass of A increases d) mass of B increases

23. The electric potential at a point in free space due to charge Q coulomb is Q × 1011 [4]
volt. The electric field at that point is:

a) 12πε 0
22
× Q × 10 volt/m b) 12πε 0
20
× Q × 10 volt/m
 c) 4πε 0 × Q × 10
22
volt/m d) 4πε 0 × Q × 10
20
volt/m

24. An object A has a charge of + 2μC and the object B has a charge of + 6μC. Which [4]
statement is true?

a) FAB = - FBA b) FAB = -3 FBA

c) 3 FAB = - FBA d) FAB = 4 FBA

25. Three concentric metal shells A, B and C of respective radii a, b and c (a < b < c) [4]
have surface charge densities +σ, -σ and +σ respectively. The potential of shell B is:

a) σ
[
b −c
2 2

+ a]
b) σ
[
a −b
2 2

+ c]
ϵ0 c ϵ0 a

c) σ
[
b −c
2 2

+ a]
d) σ
[
a −b
2 2

+ c]
ϵ0 b ϵ0 b

26. Three charged particles A, B and C with charges -4q, 2q and -2q are present on the [4]
circumference of a circle of radius d. The charged particles A, C and centre O of the
circle formed an equilateral triangle as shown in figure. Electric field at O along x-
direction is:

a) √3q b) 3√3q

2 2
π ∈0 d 4π∈0 d

c) √3q d) 2√3q

2 2
4π∈0 d π∈0 d

27. The electric potential at a point (x, y, z) is given by V = - x2y - xz3 + 4. The electric [4]
field E⃗ at that point is:

a) E⃗ = ^i (2 xy - z3) + ^j x2 + k
^
3 xz
2 b) E⃗ = ^i 2xy + ^j (x2 + y2) + k
^
(3xz -
2
y )

c) E⃗ = ^i (2 xy - z3) + ^j xy2 + k 2
^ 3z x d) E⃗ = ^i z3 + ^j xyz + k 2
^ 3z x
28. The electric flux through a closed surface are S enclosing charge Q is ϕ . If the [4]
surface area is doubled, then the flux is:

a) ϕ
b) 2ϕ
4

c) ϕ d) ϕ

29. Force acting upon a charged particle kept between the plates of a charged [4]
capacitor is F. If one of the plates of the capacitor is removed, force acting on the
same particle will become:

a) F b) 2F

c) F
d) 0
2

30. The number of electric lines of force that radiate outwards from one coulomb of [4]
charge in vacuum is:

a) 0.61 × 109 b) 1.13 × 1011

c) 1.13 × 1010 d) 0.61 × 1011

31. Three charges, each +q, are placed at the comers of an isosceles triangle ABC of [4]
sides BC and AC, 2a. D and E are the midpoints of BC and CA. The work done in
taking a charge Q from D to E, is:

a) qQ
b) zero
4πε0 a

c) 3qQ
d) 3qQ

4πε0 a 8πε0 a

32. In finding the electric field using Gauss law the formula |E⃗| = is applicable. In the [4]
qenc

ε0 |A|

formula ε is permittivity of free space, A is the area of Gaussian surface and qenc is
0

charge enclosed by the Gaussian surface. This equation can be used in which of the
following situation?

a) Only when the Gaussian surface b) For any choice of Gaussian

is an equipotential surface and surface
⃗
|E ∣ is constant on the surface
 c) Only when the Gaussian surface d) Only when |E⃗∣ = constant on
is an equipotential surface the surface

33. A dipole of electric dipole moment p is placed in a uniform electric field of strength [4]
E. If θ is the angle between positive directions of p and E, then the potential energy
of the electric dipole is largest when θ is:

a) π

4
b) zero

c) π

2
d) π

34. Two identical charged particles each having a mass 10 g and charge 2.0 × 10-7 C [4]
placed on a horizontal table with a separation of L between then such that they stay
in limited equilibrium. If the coefficient of friction between each particle and the
table is 0.25, find the value of L. [Use g = 10 ms-2]

a) 10 cm b) 8 cm

c) 5 cm d) 12 cm

35. Two insulating plates, both are uniformly charged in such a way that, the potential [4]
difference between them is V2 - V1 = 20 volt (i.e., plate 2 is at a higher potential).
The plates are separated by d = 0.1m and can be treated as infinitely large. An
electron is released from rest on the inner surface of plate 1. What is its speed when
it hits plate 2?

a) 2.65 × 10-6 m/s b) 7.02 × 1012 m/s

c) 1.87 × 106 m/s d) 32 × 10-19 m/s

36. The ratio of electric fields on the axis and at equator of an electric dipole will be: [4]

a) 1 : 1 b) 4 : 1

c) 2 : 1 d) 1 : 4

37. Two spherical conductors of radii 4 m and 5 m are charged to same potential. If σ 1 [4]
and σ be the respective values of the surface density of charge on the two
2

conductors, then the ratio σ1

σ2
is:
 a) 25
b) 16

16 25

c) 5
d) 4

4 5

38. Charge Q is distributed to two different metallic spheres having radius R and 2R [4]
such that both spheres have equal surface charge density, then charge on larger
sphere is:

a) 4Q
b) 5Q

5 4

c) Q
d) 3Q

5 5

39. In moving from A to B along an electric field line, the electric field does 6.4 × 10-19 J [4]
of work on an electron. If ϕ , ϕ are equipotential surfaces, then the potential
1 2

difference (VC - VA) is:

a) 64V b) 4V

c) -4V d) zero

40. The time period of revolution of a charge q1 and of mass m moving in a circular path [4]
of radius r due to Coulomb force of attraction with another charge q2 at its centre
is:

a) −−−−−−
3
16πε0 mr b) −−−
16π
−
3
−−−
3
ε0 mr
√ √
q q q q
1 2 1 2

c) −−−−−
3
ε0 mr d) −−2−−−−
8π
3
ε0 mr
√ √
16q q q1 q2
1 2

41. A particle of positive charge Q is fixed at point P. A second particle of mass m and [4]
negative charge -q moves at constant speed in a circle of radius r1, centered at P.
The work W that must be done by an external agent on the second particle to
increase the radius of the motion to r2, is given by:

a) W = Qq
(
1
−
1
)
b) W = Qq
(
1
−
1
)
8πε0 r2 r1 4πε0 r2 r1

c) W = Qq
(
1
−
1
)
d) W = Qq
(
1
−
1
)
4πε0 r1 r2 8πε0 r1 r2

42. A charged hollow sphere does not produce an electric field at any [4]
 a) Outer point b) Inner point

c) Beyond 2 metres d) Beyond 10 metres

43. Four equal charges of magnitude q each are placed at four corners of a square with [4]
its centre at the origin and lying in the xy-plane. A fifth charge +Q is moved along
the x-axis. The electrostatic potential energy (U) varies on the x-axis as:

a) b)

c) d)

44. A sphere of radius R has a uniform distribution of electric charge in its volume. At a [4]
distance x from its centre for x < R, the electric field is directly proportional to:

a) x2 b) 1
2
x

c) 1

x
d) x

45. Figure shows the field lines of a point negative charge. In going from B to A, the [4]
kinetic energy of a small negative charge will:

a) data insufficient b) remains constant

c) decrease d) increase

CHEMISTRY
46. Consider the following reaction [4]

Which of the following products is not expected to form?

a) b)

c) d)

47. With reference to R, S convention, the CORRECT order of priority of groups -CHO, - [4]
OH, -SO3H, -Br and C6H5 is:

a) -SO3H > -CHO > -C6H5 > -Br > - b) -Br > -SO3H > -OH > -CHO > -
OH C 6H 5

c) - OH > -C6H5 > -Br > -SO3H > - d) -CHO > -OH > -SO3H > -C6H5 >
CHO -Br

48. For the reaction: [4]

- Acetone

RCH2Br + I −−−−→ RCH 2

−
I + Br
major

The correct statement is:

a) Br- can act as competing b) The transition state formed in

nucleophile. the above reaction is less polar
than the localised anion.

c) The reaction can occur in acetic d) The solvent used in the reaction
acid also. solvates the ions formed in rate
determining step.

49. The reactivity of PhMgBr with the following compounds is: [4]
P. PhOH
Q. CH3CHO
R. R - C ≡ CH
S. H3 C − C − Cl
||

a) R > P > Q > S b) S > R > Q > P

 c) P > Q > R > S d) P > R > S > Q

50. The reaction of 4-bromobenzyl chloride with NaCN in ethanol leads to: [4]

a) 4-Cyanobenzyl cyanide b) 4-Bromobenzyl cyanide

c) 4-Bromo-2-cyanobenzyl d) 4-Cyanobenzyl chloride

chloride

51. R+ [4]

a) b)

c) d)

52. In alkaline hydrolysis of tert-butyl bromide, the order of reaction with respect to [4]
nucleophile is ________,

a) first b) pseudo

c) second d) zero

53. Which of the following compounds undergo nucleophilic substitution reaction most [4]
easily?

a) b)

c) d)

54. Benzene reacts with n-propyl chloride in the presence of anhydrous AICl3 to give: [4]

a) 3-propyl-I-chlorobenzene b) isopropyl benzene

c) n-propyl benzene d) no reaction

55. Identify the correct order for the given property for following compounds [4]
A. Boiling Point:
B. Density
 C. Boiling Point:

D. Density:

E. Boiling Point:

a) (B), (C) and (D) only b) (A), (C) and (D) only

c) (A), (C) and (E) only d) (A), (B) and (E) only

56. Decreasing order towards SN1 reaction for the following compounds is: [4]

a) d > b > c > a b) b > d > c > a

c) a > b > c > d d) a > c > d > b

57. Rate of reaction with aqueous ethanol follows the order: [4]

a) R > P > S > Q b) Q > P > R > S

c) P > R > Q > S d) P > Q > S > R

[4]

58.

Correct order of rate of SN2 for A, C, and D will be:

a) A > C > D b) C > A > D

c) A > D > C d) C > D > A

59. Major product of the following reaction is: [4]

 a) b)

c) d)

60. The following reaction is described as: [4]

a) Intramolecular SN2 reaction b) SN1 reaction with racemisation

with walden inversion

c) Intramolecular SN2 reaction d) Intramolecular SN2 reaction

with racemisation with retention of configuration

61. Chlorobenzene reacts with Mg in dry ether to give a compound (A) which further [4]
reacts with ethanol to yield:

a) phenyl ether b) ethyl benzene

c) benzene d) phenol

62. Which is not correct about SN2? [4]

a) Rate of SN2 increases as b) Rate of SN2 is directly

stability of carbocation proportional to the nature of
increases. leaving group.

c) Rate of SN2 inversely d) Role of SN2 is faster in polar

proportional to the steric aprotic solvents.
hindrance present in substrate.

63. Which one is most reactive towards SN1 reaction? [4]

a) C6H5CH2Br b) C6H5CH(C6H5)Br

c) C6H5C(CH3)(C6H5)Br d) C6H5CH(CH3)Br
64. The correct decreasing order of densities of the following compounds is: [4]

a) (D) > (C) > (B) > (A) b) (A) > (B) > (C) > (D)

c) (C) > (B) > (A) > (D) d) (C) > (D) > (A) > (B)

65. The most probable product in the following reaction is: [4]
⊖ ⊕

C H3 C H2 OK

−−−−−−−→

a) b)

c) d)

66. What is the principal product of the following reaction? [4]

+ NaN3 → Product

a) b)

c) d)

67. Select the correct order of decreasing reactivity of the following compounds [4]
towards the attack of Grignard reagent.
I. Methyl benzoate
 II. Benzaldehyde
III. Benzoylchloride
IV. Acetophenone

a) II > III > I > IV b) II > IV > I > III

c) III > II > IV > I d) I > II > III > IV

[4]
68.

Which of the following is correct for the reaction?

a) No reaction b)

c) d)

1. Mg, Ether [4]

69. In the following reaction C6H5CH2Br −−−−→ X the product X is
2. H3 O
+

a) C6H5CH2OH b) C6H5CH2CH2C6H5

c) C6H5CH3 d) C6H5CH2OCH2C2C6H5

70. In 3-bromo-3-methylcyclohex-l-ene, bromine is linked to ________ carbon atom. [4]

a) quaternary b) primary

c) secondary d) tertiary

71. Match the following: [4]

Column A Column B
i. Vinyl halide a. m-ClCH2C6H4CH2CMe3
ii. Aryl halide b. CH3CH = CHC(Br)2CH2CH3
iii. Benzyl halide c. CH3CH = C(Cl)CH2CMe3
iv. Allyl halide d. p-(I)C6H4CH(CH3)(CH2)5CH3
e. C6H5CH2CH2CH2Br
 a) i - c, ii - a, iii - d, iv - b b) i - c, ii - d, iii - a, iv - b

c) i - b, ii - a, iii - e, iv - c d) i - b, ii - e, iii - d, iv - c

72. Three sets of SN1 reactions are given below, each set has two reactions. In which of [4]
these set/s, the first reaction takes place faster than the second one?
i. a. (CH3)3CCl + H2O → (CH3)3COH + HCl
b. (CH3)3CBr + H2O → (CH3)3COH + HBr
ii. a. (CH3)3CCl + H2O → (CH3)3COH + HCl
b. (CH3)3CCl + CH3OH → (CH3)3COCH3 + HCl
C2 H5 OH
iii. a. (CH3)3CCl(1.0M) + CH3CH2O− −−−→ (CH3)3COCH2CH3 + Cl-

C2 H5 OH
b. (CH3)3CCl (2.0 M) + CH3CH2O- −−−→ (CH3)3COCH2CH3 + Cl-

a) option (ii), (iii) b) option (iii)

c) option (ii) d) option (i), (ii)

Mg/ THF
[4]
73. −−−−→ (P )
Δ

Identify (P):

a) b)

c) d)

74. The hydrolysis of optically active 2-bromopentane with aqueous NaOH results in the [4]
formation of ________.

a) (-) pentan-2-ol b) (±) pentan-2-ol

c) (+) pentan-2-ol d) (±) pentan-1-ol

75. Order of rate of reaction of following compound with phenyl magnesium bromide is: [4]
O O O
|| || ||

Me − C − Cl, Me − C − H, Me − C − O − Et
I II III

a) II > III > I b) I > II > III

c) III > I > II d) II > I > III

76. The correct order of increasing reactivity of [4]

I.

II.

III. (CH3)3C-X
IV. (CH3)2CH-X
C-X bond towards nucleophile in the following compounds is :

a) IV < III < I < II b) III < II < I < IV

c) I < II < IV < III d) II < III < I < IV

77. In the given reaction PhMgBr + D2O ⟶ (X); (X) will be: [4]

a) b)

c) d)

78. What is the product of the reaction of ethylbromide with the nucleophiles CH3OH? [4]

a) CH3CH2OCH3 b) CH2CH3N-(CH3)3Br+

c) CH3CH2NH2 d) CH3CH2N+(CH3)2Br-

79. Which of the following compounds will undergo substitution of the halogen atom [4]
most readily with CH3ONa in CH3OH?
 a) b)

c) d)

80. An alkyl halide may be converted into an alcohol by: [4]

a) substitution b) dehydrohalogenation

c) elimination d) addition

81. Find the product of the following reaction: [4]

a) b)

c) d)

Cr2 O3 Cl2 KCN⋅ELOH [4]

82. C7H16 −−−−−−−−−→ A −→ B −−−−→ C
+
773 K,10−20 atm hv H3 O

Identify C in the following reaction.

a) Benzoic acid b) Phenylacetic acid

c) 4-Chlorobenzoic acid d) 3-Chlorobenzoic acid

83. The major product in the reaction [4]

CH3 CH3

| + − |

CH3 − C − Cl + KO − C − CH3 → ? is
| |

CH3 CH3

a) 2, 2-Dimethyl butane b) t-Butyl ethyl ether

c) 2-Methyl pent-1-ene d) 2-Methyl prop-1-ene

84. Replacement of -Cl in chlorobenzene to give phenol requires drastic conditions, but - [4]
Cl of 2, 4-dinitrochlorobenzene is readily replaced. This is because ________.

a) —NO2 donates electrons at b) -NO2 group withdraws

meta position electrons from meta position

c) —NO2 withdraws electrons d) -NO2 group makes the ring

from ortho and para positions electron-rich at ortho and para
positions

[4]
Ether
85. + Mg −−→

a) b)

c) d)

86. Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of their reactivity towards [4]
nucleophilic substitution reactions.

a) II < IV < I < III b) III < I < IV < II

c) IV < III < II < I d) I < III < II < IV

87. Which reaction should be the fastest with benzene in presence of anhydrous AlCl3? [4]

a) CH 3
− C H − CH3 b) CH 3
− C H − CH3
| |

F I
 c) CH3
− C H − CH3 d) CH3
− C H − CH3
| |

Cl Br

88. Consider the following bromides: [4]

The correct order of SN1 reactivity is:

a) B > C > A b) B > A > C

c) A > B > C d) C > B > A

89. Consider the following reaction [4]

Which of the following products is not expected to form?

a) b)

c) d)

90. Compound (A), C8H9Br, gives a yellow precipitate when warmed with alcoholic [4]
AgNO3. Oxidation of (A) gives an acid (B), C8H6O4. (B) easily forms anhydride on
heating. Identify the compound (A).

a) b)

c) d)

BIOLOGY
91. The Function of filiform apparatus is to: [4]

a) Both (a) and (c)

 b) bring about the bursting of the
pollen tube.

c) guide the pollen tube into the d) prevent the entry of more than
synergid one pollen tube inside the
embryo sac.

92. The given figure showing compact inflorescence and well-exposed stamens which [4]
helps in pollination by:

a) Water b) Air

c) All of these d) Insect

93. Pollination by slug and snails is called: [4]

a) Chiropterophilous b) Malacophilous

c) Anemophilous d) Omithophilous

94. The given diagram shows different types of pollination marked as X, Y, and Z [4]
between two plants (A and B) of the same species. Identify the types of pollination
and select the correct option.

X Y Z
(a) Autogamy Allogamy Geitonogamy
 (b) Allogamy Geitonogamy Autogamy
(c) Geitonogamy Allogamy Autogamy
(d) Allogamy Autogamy Geitonogamy

a) Option (c) is correct. b) Option (a) is correct.

c) Option (d) is correct. d) Option (b) is correct.

95. Select the option with incorrect statement(s). [4]

i. During the development of a dicot embryo, heart-shaped embryo is followed by
globular embryo.
ii. The part of the embryonal axis above the level of cotyledons is epicotyl, while the
part below the level of cotyledons is hypocoty.
iii. Dicot seeds possess a single cotyledon represented by scutellum.

a) (i) and (iii) b) (i) and (ii)

c) Only (iii) d) (ii) and (iii)

96. Identify the different stages in embryogenesis in the given diagram 1, 2, 3 and 4: [4]

a) 1 -Zygote, 2-Globular embryo, b) 1-Two-celled stage, 2-Heart-

3-Heart-shaped embryo, 4- shaped embryo, 3-Globular
Mature embryo embryo, 4-Mature embryo

c) 1-Two-celled stage, 2-Globular d) 1-Zygote, 2-Mature embryo, 3-

embryo, 3-Heart-shaped Heart-shaped embryo, 4-
embryo, 4-Mature embryo Globular embryo

97. The embryo sac is to ovule as ________ is to an anther. [4]

a) Pollen grain b) Androecium

c) Filament d) Stamen

98. Thalamus contributes in the formation of [4]

a) parthenocarpic fruits b) true fruits

 c) false fruits d) Both true fruits
and parthenocarpic fruits

99. The megasporangium is equivalent to: [4]

a) Ovule b) Embryo

c) Nucellus d) Fruit

100. Identify 1 to 4 in the following diagram: [4]

a) 1 -Filament, 2-Line of b) 1-Pollen sac, 2-Pollen grain, 3-

dehiscence, 3-Pollen sac, 4- Line of dehiscence, 4-Filament
Pollen grain

c) 1-Filament, 2-Pollen sac, 3-Line d) 1-Pollen grain, 2-Pollen sac, 3-

of dehiscence, 4-Pollen grain Filament, 4-Line of dehiscence

101. What is the function of filiform apparatus at the entrance into ovule? [4]

a) Prevents entry of more than b) Helps the entry of pollen tube

one pollen tube into a synergid into a synergid

c) Brings about opening of the d) Guides pollen tube from

pollen tube synergid to egg

102. Pollination in Zostera is: [4]

a) Both Hydrophilous b) Omithophilous

and Entomophilous

c) Hydrophilous d) Entomophilous

103. A plant is male sterile and inhabit an area where there are no pollen plants growing [4]
far and wide but this plant is still able to set the seeds. Select the phenomenon this
plant exhibit for seed production.
 a) Nuclear genome b) Parthenocarpy

c) Both Parthenocarpy and d) Apomixis

Apomixis

104. The given diagram is related to the result of double fertilization. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 are [4]
identified as:

a) 1-Egg, 2-Polar nuclei, 3-Male b) 1-Degenerating synergids, 2-

gamete, 4-Primary endosperm Zygote, 3-Primary endosperm
nucleus (PEN), 5-Zygote cell (PEC), 4-Primary
endosperm nucleus (PEN), 5-
Degenerating antipodal cells

c) 1-Degenerating synergids, 2- d) 1-Egg, 2-Degenerating

Egg, 3-Primary endosperm cell synergids, 3-Zygote, 4-Polar
(PEC), 4-Primary endosperm nuclei, 5-Degenerating
nucleus (PEN), 5-Zygote antipodal cell

105. The true embryo develops as a result of fusion of [4]

a) a synergid and a male gamete. b) two polar nuclei of embryo sac.

c) an egg cell and a male gamete. d) a male gamete and antipodals.

106. Which one of the following statements regarding post-fertilization development in [4]
flowering plants is incorrect?

a) Ovary develops into fruit b) Central cell develops into

endosperm

c) Zygote develops into embryo

 d) Ovules develop into
embryo sac

107. In angiosperms embryo sac is usually developed from: [4]

a) Microspore b) Integument

c) Microspore mother cell d) Megaspore mother cell

108. Flowers which have single ovule in the ovary and are packed into inflorescence are [4]
usually pollinated by:

a) Water b) Bee

c) Bat d) Wind

109. Which plant will lose its economic value, if its fruits are produced by induced [4]
parthenocarpy?

a) Banana b) Orange

c) Grape d) Pomegranate

110. The ovule of an angiosperm is technically equivalent to: [4]

a) Megaspore mother cell b) Megaspore

c) Megasporophyll d) Megasporangium

111. Wind pollinated flowers are: [4]

a) Small, producing large number b) Small, producing nectar and dry

of dry pollens pollen

c) Small, brightly coloured, d) Large, producing abundant

producing large number of nectar and pollen
pollen grains

112. In angiosperms, each pollen grain produces two sperms. What do these sperms do [4]
in fertilization of a flower?
A. Each one fertilizes a separate egg cells to give rise to two seeds.
B. One fertilizes an egg cell and the other fertilizes antipodal cell that gives rise to
the endocarp of the fruit.
C. Both fertilize a single egg cell.
 D. One fertilizes an egg cell and the other fertilizes the polar nuclei that for food
reserve tissue.

a) Only B b) Only C

c) Only A d) Only D

113. Germ pore is the region where the sporopollenin is: [4]

a) Thick or absent b) Thick

c) Thin d) Absent

114. Filiform apparatus is found in: [4]

a) antithetical cell b) Antipodal cell

c) Synergids d) Central cell

115. Geitonogamy is found in: [4]

a) Sorghum b) Maize

c) Coconut d) Hydrilla

116. Identify the labelling of given diagrams and choose the correct option for it. [4]

a) 1-Zygote, 2- Megaspore dyad, b) 1-MMC, 2-Nucellus, 3-

3-Nucellus, 4-Nucleus, 5- Megaspore dyad, 4-Nucleus, 5-
Megaspore tetrad Megaspore tetrad

c) 1-Nucellus, 2-MMC, 3-Nucleus, d) 1-Nucleus, 2-MMC, 3-Nucellus,

4-Megaspore tetrad, 5- 4-Megaspore dyad, 5-
Megaspore dyad Megaspore tetrad

117. Number of meiotic divisions required to produce 200 seeds of pea would be: [4]

a) 250 b) 300

c) 200 d) 400
118. The required divisions for the complete development of male gametophyte are [4]

a) two mitotic cell divisions. b) one meiotic cell division and

two mitotic cell divisions.

c) one meiotic cell division and d) two meiotic cell divisions and
one mitotic cell division. one mitotic cell division.

119. The number of meiotic divisions required for the formation of 50 functional [4]
megaspores is:

a) 50 b) 25

c) 100 d) 75

120. Progeny produced as a result of cross-pollination: [4]

a) Genetically inferior b) Is homozygous with phenotypic

uniformity

c) Shows a high degree of d) Genetically abnormal

variability and is evolutionary
important

121. Coconut water from a tender coconut is: [4]

a) Degenerated nucellus b) Innermost layers of the seed

coat

c) Free nuclear endosperm d) Immature embryo

122. Select the structure which exhibits a fascinating array of patterns and designs. [4]

a) Anther wall b) Exine of pollen grain

c) Intine of pollen grain d) Synergids of embryo sac

123. Dicot embryo consists of: [4]

a) Radicle, plumule and cotyledons b) Radicle, plumule, cotyledons,

only endosperm

c) Radicle, plumule and d) Radicle and plumule only

endosperm

124. Point out the odd one. [4]

 a) Micropyle b) Embryo sac

c) Nucellus d) Pollen grain

125. How many pollen grains are formed from 20 microspore mother cells by meiosis? [4]

a) 10 b) 80

c) 20 d) 40

126. The pollination by the birds is called: [4]

a) Ornithophily b) Chiropterophily

c) Entomophily d) Malacophily

127. Tegmen develops from: [4]

a) Chalaza b) Third integument

c) Inner integument d) Outer integument

128. The embryo sac is: [4]

a) Megasporangium b) Female gametophyte

c) Megaspore d) Both Megasporangium

and Megaspore

129. Match the columns: [4]

Column I Column II
(a) Monoecious (i) Primula
(b) Dioecious (ii) Maize
(c) Cleistogamous (iii) Date palm
(d) Heterostyle (iv) Commelina

a) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - b) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) -
(iv) (i)

c) (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - d) (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) -
(i) (iv)

130. Apomictic embryos in Citrus arise from: [4]

 a) Diploid egg b) Synergids

c) Antipodal cells d) Maternal Sporophytic tissues in

ovule

131. In which of the following pairs both are haploid structures? [4]

a) Nucellus and synergids b) Egg cells and antipodal cells

c) Synergids and megaspore d) Antipodal cells and primary

mother cells endosperm nucleus

132. Pollen grains can be stored for several years in liquid nitrogen having a temperature [4]
of:
o o
a) -196 C b) -120 C

c) -160oC d) -80oC

133. What is the function of germ pore? [4]

a) Absorption of water for seed b) Release of male gametes

germination

c) Initiation of pollen tube d) Emergence of radicle

134. Persistent nucellus in the seed is known as: [4]

a) Hilum b) Chalaza

c) Tegmen d) Perisperm

135. Which of the following are the important floral rewards to the animal pollinators? [4]

a) Nectar and pollen grains b) Floral fragrance and calcium

crystals

c) Colour and large size of flower d) Protein pellicle and stigmatic

exudates

136. Geitonogamy involves: [4]

a) Fertilization of a flower by the b) Fertilization of a flower by the

pollen from another flower of pollen from a flower of another
the same plant. plant belonging to a distant
population.
 c) Fertilization of a flower by the d) Fertilization of a flower by the
pollen from the same flower. pollen from a flower of another
plant in the same population.

137. Advantage of cleistogamy is: [4]

a) higher genetic variability b) Vivipary

c) No dependence on pollinators d) More vigorous offspring

138. Anemophilous flower have: [4]

a) All of these b) Coloured flower

c) Large feathery stigma d) Small, smooth stigma

139. Apomictic embryos in citrus arise from [4]

a) nucellar cells b) zygote

c) antipodal cells d) synergies

140. Pollen grains are well preserved as fossils because of the presence of [4]

a) sporopollenin b) Chitin

c) pectose d) cellulose

141. Select the correct statement(s) regarding the mature embryo sac. [4]
i. Egg apparatus is situated towards chalazal end.
ii. Antipodal cells are situated towards micropylar end.
iii. The mature embryo sac is 8-celled and 7-nucleate.

a) (iii) and (i) b) only (i)

c) only (iii) d) (i) and (ii)

142. In anatropous ovule, the micropyle is: [4]

a) Side by side with funicle b) At right angle with funicle

o
c) At 45 with funicle d) In straight line with funicle

143. Which one of the following may require pollinators, but is genetically similar to [4]
autogamy?
 a) Cleistogamy b) Xenogamy

c) Geitonogamy d) Apogamy

144. Which floral part forms the pericarp after fertilisation? [4]

a) Outer integument of ovule b) Ovary wall

c) Both Outer integument of ovule d) Inner integument of ovule

and Inner integument of ovule

145. Select the correct statement regarding cleistogamous flowers. [4]

a. They are cross-pollinated.
b. Their seed dispersal is more efficient.
c. They produce seeds with greater genetic diversity.
d. They produce assured seed-set even in the absence of pollinators.

a) Statement (d) is correct. b) Statement (c) is correct.

c) Statement (b) is correct. d) Statement (a) is correct.

146. Asexual reproduction and apomixis are common in [4]

a) clone nature of offspring. b) type of cell division.

c) only indicot plant. d) Both type of cell division and

clone nature of offspring.

147. Which of the following is a parthenocarpic fruit? [4]

a) Papaya b) Pomegranate

c) Apple d) Orange

148. A number of integuments in the ovule of angiosperms is generally: [4]

a) One b) Two

c) Three d) Four

149. The white kernel of the coconut is [4]

a) free-nuclear endosperm b) coleoptile

c) residual nucellus d) cellular endosperm

150. Identify the incorrect statement regarding post-fertilisation changes. [4]

a) The ovary wall develops into b) The fertilised ovule develops

pericarp. into seed.

c) The nucellus of the ovule d) The fusion nucleus (triple

develops into seed coats. nucleus) develops into
endosperm.

151. Meiosis occurs in [4]

a) megaspore b) primary endosperm nucleus

c) None of these d) microspore

152. Match the phenomena given in column I with their descriptions given in column II and [4]
choose the option with correct combination.

Column I Column II
(Phenomena) (Descriptions)
(A) Polyembryony (i) Development of fruit without fertilisation.
(B) Parthenocarpy (ii) Development of seeds without fertilisation.
(C) Apomixis (iii) Occurrence of more than one embryo

a) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii) b) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii)

c) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i) d) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii)

153. Seedless fruits can be obtained through [4]

a) apomixis b) meiosis

c) polyembrony d) parthenocarpy

154. Which one of the following generates new genetic combinations leading to [4]
variation?

a) Vegetative reproduction b) Nucellar polyembryony

c) Parthenogenesis d) Sexual reproduction

155. Which prevents self-pollination? [4]

a) Self sterility b) All of these

 c) Dichogamy d) Herkogamy

156. Choose the correct option for a given diagram: [4]

a) 1-Epidermis, 3-Endothesium, 4- b) 1-Epidermis, 4-microspore

Middle layer, 5-microspore mother cell, 5-Tapetum
mother cell

c) 3-Middle layer, 4-Tapetum, 5- d) 1-Epidermis, 4-Tapetum, 5-

microspore mother cell Sporogenous tissue

157. The sequence of development during the formation of female gametophyte is: [4]
A. Archesporium → megaspore mother cell → megaspore → embroyo sac
B. Megaspore mother cell → archesporium → megaspore → embroyo sac
C. Archesporium → megaspores → megaspores mother cell → embroyo sac
D. Megaspore mother cell → spore mother cell → embryospore mother cell →
embroyo

a) Only D b) Only C

c) Only B d) Only A

158. Edible part in litchi is: [4]

a) Endosperm b) Mesocarp

c) Pericarp d) Fleshy aril

159. In Capsella, embryo sac is: [4]

a) Triploid b) Polyploid

c) Diploid d) Haploid

160. Malacophily is the name given to pollination by: [4]

 a) Animal b) Bat

c) Snail d) Birds

161. An anther with five microspore mother cells will produce ________ pollen grains. [4]

a) 25 b) 20

c) 5 d) 10

162. Double fertilization is exhibited by: [4]

a) Gymnosperms b) Angiosperms

c) Fungi d) Algae

163. When pollen grains of a flower pollinate the stigma of another flower of the same [4]
plant is called:

a) Xenogamy b) allogamy

c) Autogamy d) Geitonogamy

164. Which of the following is incorrect for wind pollinated plants? [4]

a) Flowers are small and not b) Well exposed stamens and

brightly coloured stigma

c) Many ovules in each ovary d) Pollen grains are light and non-
sticky

165. Double fertilization is characteristic of: [4]

a) Pteridophytes b) Gymnosperms and

angiosperms

c) Bryophytes d) Angiosperms

166. In a pollen grain, larger cell is: [4]

a) Male gamete b) All of these

c) Generative cell d) Vegetative cell

167. The plant whose seeds are known to have the longest viability period is: [4]

a) Triticum Vulgare (wheat) b) Carica papaya (papaya)

 c) Lupinus (Lupine arcticus) d) Phoenix dactylifera (date palm)

168. Ovule is inverted with body fused to funicle, micropyle lying close to hilum and [4]
facing the placenta. It is:

a) Orthotropous b) Hemitropous

c) Campylotropous d) Anatropous

169. Male gametophyte with least number of cells is present in: [4]

a) Pteris b) Pinus

c) Funaria d) Lilium

170. Middle layer of anther wall is formed by secondary outer parietal layer in: [4]

a) cots b) Dicots

c) Both Dicots and Monocots d) Monocots

171. In which of the following pollination is autogamous? [4]

a) Chasmogamy b) Cleistogamy

c) Geitonogamy d) Xenogamy

172. the male gametes are formed by: [4]

a) Vegetative cell b) Generative cell

c) Tube cells d) microspore mother cell.

173. The tapetum of the angiosperm anther is: [4]

a) Mostly haploid b) Mostly pentasomy

c) Mostly polyploidy d) Mostly aneuploidy

174. Select the correct option. [4]

i. The seeds of dicots and monocots are similar.
ii. The early stages of embryo development are similar in both monocotyledons and
dicotyledons.
iii. Fruit is the final product of sexual reproduction.

a) Only (ii) b) Only (i)

 c) (i), (ii) and (iii) d) Only (ii)

175. Which of the following options is correct? [4]

A. Pollination gives the guarantee of the promotion of post-pollination events that
fertilization.
B. The events “from pollen deposition on stigma until pollen tubes enter the ovule
together referred to as pollen-pistil interaction.
C. Pollen-pistil interaction is a dynamic process involving pollen recognition followed
by only promotion (not rejection) of the pollen.
D. Pistil has no ability to recognize the pollen, whether right or wrong type.

a) Only B b) Only C

c) Only D d) Only A

176. If a plant has 14 chromosomes in its synergid, the number of chromosomes in the [4]
endosperm cells would be:

a) 28 b) 42

c) 14 d) 7

177. A typical angiospennic embryo sac is [4]

a) 8-celled and 7-nucleate b) 7-celled and 7-nucleate

c) 7-celled and 8-nucleate d) 8-celled and 8-nucleate

178. The function of the tapetum is: [4]

a) Support b) Nutritive

c) Protective d) Mechanical

179. Find out the correct statement: [4]

a) Parthenocarpic fruits are b) Parthenocarpy is developed by

seedless hormones

c) Parthenocarpic fruits are d) Parthenocarpic seeds are

seedless and Parthenocarpy is developed by the fertilized
developed by hormones ovary

180. The coconut water from tender coconut represents: [4]

a) Free nuclear endosperm b) Free nuclear proembryo

c) Fleshy mesocarp d) Endocarp