0% found this document useful (0 votes)
30 views20 pages

Sample Question Paper of GU CLAT II LL.B

The document is a test paper for the Common Law Admission Test II (GU-CLAT II) for the LL.B. program at Goa University. It consists of multiple-choice questions covering General English, Current Affairs, the Constitution of India, and Legal Aptitude and Reasoning. Each section contains questions that assess the candidates' knowledge and understanding of the respective subjects.

Uploaded by

ytdarkprem
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
0% found this document useful (0 votes)
30 views20 pages

Sample Question Paper of GU CLAT II LL.B

The document is a test paper for the Common Law Admission Test II (GU-CLAT II) for the LL.B. program at Goa University. It consists of multiple-choice questions covering General English, Current Affairs, the Constitution of India, and Legal Aptitude and Reasoning. Each section contains questions that assess the candidates' knowledge and understanding of the respective subjects.

Uploaded by

ytdarkprem
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 20

GOA UNIVERSITY

COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST II


(GU-CLAT II)

PROGRAMME: LL.B.

Page 1 of 20
SECTION I - GENERAL ENGLISH

1. Identify the part of speech of the underlined word in the following sentence:
The new class representative was hungry for power.
(A) Adverb
(B) Noun
(C) Adjective
(D) None of the above
2. Identify the verb in the following sentence:
The Great Wall of China is a national treasure for sure.
(A) for
(B) sure
(C) treasure
(D) None of the above
3. Identify the relative pronoun in the following sentence:
Used books are found in the library that we visited last week.
(A) are
(B) that
(C) last
(D) None of the above
4. State the superlative form of the adjective nice.
(A) Nice
(B) More nicer
(C) Most nicest
(D) None of the above
5. Identify the type of the sentence that follows:
Go to your room now!
(A) Commanding
(B) Declaration
(C) Imperative
(D) None of the above
6. Provide the correct question tag to the following sentence:
You sure have been cunning about this, ________?
(A) have you
(B) are you
(C) aren’t you
(D) None of the above

Page 2 of 20
7. Complete the following sentence correctly:
The defense of the fallacy is to be seen ___________________.
(A) in its merits.
(B) across the merits.
(C) although it merits.
(D) None of the above
8. Identify the correct sentence from the choices provided.
(A) Time has been proved beyond a doubt that it is the perfect healer.
(B) Time has proved beyond a doubt that it is the perfect healer.
(C) Time has proved a doubt that it is the perfect healer.
(D) None of the above
9. What is “Indirect Speech”?
(A) Journalistic speech
(B) Past speech
(C) Reported speech
(D) None of the above
10. What voice is the following sentence in?
Botanists are drawn to well-manicured gardens.
(A) Passive voice
(B) Active voice
(C) Absent voice
(D) None of the above
11. Identify the synonym of 'aberration':
(A) Normality
(B) Deviation
(C) Regularity
(D) Standard
12. Select the word that is spelled correctly:
(A) Recieve
(B) Receive
(C) Recieve
(D) Recieve

Page 3 of 20
13. Which of the following sentences is grammatically correct?
(A) She don't like the movie.
(B) She doesn't like the movie.
(C) She do not like the movie.
(D) She didn't likes the movie.
14. Identify the correct passive voice of "The teacher is explaining the lesson."
(A) The lesson was explained by the teacher.
(B) The lesson is being explained by the teacher.
(C) The lesson is explained by the teacher.
(D) The lesson has been explained by the teacher.
15. Select the word that best completes the sentence: "He is as ___ as his brother."
(A) tall
(B) taller
(C) tallest
(D) the tallest
16. Choose the correct form of the adjective: "This is the ___ book I have ever read."
(A) more interesting
(B) most interesting
(C) interesting
(D) much interesting
17. Identify the correct meaning of the idiom "spill the beans":
(A) To talk nonsense
(B) To reveal a secret
(C) To cook poorly
(D) To waste time
18. Choose the word that fits best: "He managed to ___ the difficult situation."
(A) go
(B) overcome
(C) through
(D) take
19. Which sentence uses the correct form of the verb "lie/lay"?
(A) She lay the book on the table.
(B) She lies the book on the table.
(C) She laid the book on the table.
(D) She lain the book on the table.

Page 4 of 20
20. Select the correct word: "The teacher asked the students to remain ___. "
(A) quite
(B) quit
(C) quiet
(D) quietly

SECTION II - CURRENT AFFAIRS

21. Who among the following is the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha?
(A) President
(B) Vice President
(C) Speaker
(D) Deputy Speaker
22. Who among the following headed the committee to look at various aspects of implementing
the ‘one nation, one election’.
(A) Droupadi Murmu
(B) Ram Nath Kovind
(C) Jagdeep Dhankhar
(D) Pranab Mukherjee
23. Which of the following state published the findings of first ever caste census since the
countries independence in 1947?
(A) Karnataka
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Bihar
24. In which year UN General Assembly adopted the Universal Declaration of Human Rights?
(A) 1945
(B) 1946
(C) 1947
(D) 1948
25. Who among the following is the present Chief Justice of India?
(A) Dhananjay Chandrachud
(B) Sharad Bobde
(C) Ranjan Gogoi
(D) None of the above

Page 5 of 20
26. Which is the Nodal Agency for the scheme Ayushman Bharat in India?
(A) National Swasth Kendra
(B) Family Welfare Bureau
(C) National Health Authority
(D) National Insurance Agency
27. Which part of the Constitution of India deals with Supreme Court?
(A) Part III (Articles 12 to 35)
(B) Part IV Article 36 to 51)
(C) Part V ( Articles 124 to 147)
(D) Part VIII (Articles 239 to 242)
28. What is the theme of India’s G-20 presidency?
(A) “One Planet, One World, One Goal”
(B) “One Earth, One Family, One Future”
(C) “One Nation, One Leader, One Future”
(D) “One Future, One world, One Earth”
29. Name the project initiated by the state of Karnataka to divert water from river Mhadei?
(A) The Kalasa Banduri Nala Project
(B) The Tala Cauvery River Project
(C) The Malaprabha-Mhadei Project
(D) The Kankubi- Surla Nala Project
30. Vishakha Vs. state of Rajasthan case dealt with
(A) ban on the practice of female infanticide
(B) Prevention of domestic violence against women
(C) Promotion of educational and employment opportunities form women
(D) Sexual violence against women at workplace

Page 6 of 20
SECTION III - CONSTITUTION OF INDIA

31. Part IV of the Indian Constitution deals with


(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Directive Principles of State Policy
(C) Fundamental Duties
(D) None of these
32. Who has the power to make Ordinances under the Constitution?
(A) President
(B) Governor
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
33. The President shall hold office for ____ years
(A) Four
(B) Five
(C) Six
(D) Eight
34. What do you mean by double jeopardy?
(A) No person shall be prosecuted for the same offence more than once
(B) No person shall be punished for the same offence more than once
(C) No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once
(D) None of the above
35. Money Bill can be introduced only in which house of the Parliament?
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha
(D) None of these
36. Which Constitutional Amendment introduced Goods and Services Tax in India?
(A) 86th Amendment
(B) 94th Amendment
(C) 100th Amendment
(D) 101st Amendment
37. Which article of the Constitution empowers the High Courts to issue writs?
(A) Article 32
(B) Article 226
(C) Article 141
(D) Article 136

Page 7 of 20
38. The power to summon and prorogue either House of Parliament is vested in
(A) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The Vice President
(D) The President
39. A judge of the Supreme Court can be removed from office on grounds of:
(A) Proved misbehavior or incapacity
(B) Political affiliation
(C) Non-Cooperation with government
(D) None of the above
40. Which committee's recommendations are reflected in the Panchayati Raj system as
introduced in India?
(A) Kothari Commission
(B) Sarkaria Commission
(C) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
(D) Ashok Mehta Committee
41. Which of the following is not a fundamental right in India?
(A) Right to education
(B) Right to equality
(C) Right to property
(D) Right to freedom of speech and expression
42. Directive Principles of State Policy under part IV of the Constitution of India are
(A) Supplementary and Complimentary to the Fundamental Rights
(B) Superior to Fundamental Rights
(C) Inferior to Fundamental Rights
(D) None of the above
43. The Supreme Court of India has
(A) Writ Jurisdiction
(B) Original Jurisdiction to try the disputes between the States
(C) Appellate jurisdiction to hear the matters on appeal from High Courts
(D) All of the above
44. Writ of Habeas Corpus means
(A) Order to arrest a person
(B) Order by the court to produce a person before the court
(C) Order to search a missing person
(D) Order to produce the dead body of the person

Page 8 of 20
45. Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression under Art.19(1)(a) includes
(A) Freedom of Press
(B) Freedom to remain silent
(C) Freedom to comment on the conduct of the judges of the Supreme Court
(D) Bothe (A) and (B)
46. Right to Privacy was declared as fundamental right in the case of
(A) M.P. Sharma v. Satish Chandra
(B) Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) & Anr. v. Union of India & Ors
(C) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
(D) Navtej Singh Johar and others v. Union of India
47. Right to vote is a
(A) Fundamental Right
(B) Constitutional Right
(C) Common Law Right
(D) Statutory Right
48. If an individual’s fundamental right is violated, she can approach
(A) Supreme Court of India under Art 32
(B) Supreme Court of India under Art 136
(C) High Court under Art 226
(D) Either under Art 32 or 226
49. Anti-defection law under 10th Schedule of the Constitution of India deals with
(A) Disqualification of elected members of the legislature when they change the allegiance
after the elections
(B) Disqualification of members of legislature on being convicted for an offence
(C) Disqualification of members of legislature on taking up office of profit
(D) All the above
50 Fundamental Duties under the Constitution of India were inserted by
(A) 1st Amendment, 1951
(B) 42nd Amendment, 1976
(C) 24th Amendment, 1971
(D) 86th Amendment, 2002

Page 9 of 20
SECTION IV - LEGAL APTITUDE AND LEGAL REASONING

51. Which legal maxim means "the thing speaks for itself"?
(A) Nemo judex in causa sua
(B) Volenti non fit injuria
(C) Ignorantia juris non excusat
(D) Res ipsa loquitur
52. What does 'mens rea' refer to in criminal law?
(A) The mental state or intent to commit a crime
(B) The physical act of the crime
(C) The causal link between the act and the harm caused
(D) The defense of necessity
53. Which legal principle holds an employer liable for the actions of its employees?
(A) Res judicata
(B) Vicarious liability
(C) Strict Liability
(D) Absolute Liability
54. Principle: Agreements, the meaning of which is not certain, or capable of being made
certain, are void.
Facts: A agrees to sell to B “a hundred tons of oil”.
Is the agreement valid?
(A) Yes, because the subject matter of the agreement is clearly defined.
(B) No, because the quantity of oil is not specified.
(C) Yes, because A and B are competent parties.
(D) No, because A did not specify the type of oil.
55. Which of the following is not a defence to strict liability?
(A) Act of God
(B) Plaintiff’s own fault
(C) Intoxication
(D) Statutory authority
56. Agreement in restraint of Marriage is ____
(A) Void
(B) Voidable
(C) Valid
(D) None of these

Page 10 of 20
57. Principle: A contract made by a minor is void. A minor may contract for necessities or when
the contract is absolutely necessary for the upkeep and maintenance of his property.
Facts: A, a minor, borrowed Rs. 20,000 from B and as security for the same executed a
mortgage in his favour.
Can A be compelled to repay the amount advanced to him by B?
(A) No, as contracts entered into by minors have no legal effect
(B) Yes, if he ratifies the mortgage on entering into majority
(C) No, but B may keep the mortgaged property
(D) None of the above
58. Principle: Actus reus (guilty act) and mens rea (guilty mind) must coincide to establish
criminal liability.
Facts: X, while cleaning their gun, accidentally shoots and kills Y, believing the gun to be
unloaded.
(A) Yes, because X's negligence led to Y's death.
(B) No, because X did not intend to kill Y.
(C) Yes, because X should have checked the gun before cleaning it.
(D) No, because it was an accident and not a deliberate act.
59. ‘obiter dicta’ means
(A) An opinion given by the court
(B) Judgement of the court
(C) A written statement submitted as evidence
(D) A dissenting opinion
60. Which of the following is a defense that acknowledges the criminal act but claims it was
necessary to prevent greater harm?
(A) Duress
(B) Insanity
(C) Necessity
(D) Intoxication

Page 11 of 20
61. Principle: Negligence is the absence of care by one party which results in some damage to
another. Damage is an essential ingredient to constitute a tort of negligence.
Facts: Albert left his ladder on the public road while unloading it from a truck when he went
to open the shutters of his shop. Mitchel, who was riding his motorcycle had to swerve hard
to avoid hitting the ladder as he came with speed on the road. Saini fell down but was
miraculously not injured
(A) Albert is not liable for the tort of negligence since Mitchel was not injured though he fell
down.
(B) Albert is not liable for the tort of negligence since Mitchel was speeding on the road.
(C) Albert is liable for the tort of negligence since he was careless in leaving the ladder on
the road.
(D) Albert is liable for the tort of negligence since Mitchel fell down due to the presence of
the ladder.
62. Principle: Defamation occurs when false statements are made that harm a person's
reputation.
Facts: D publishes an article falsely accusing E, a public figure, of corruption without any
evidence to support the claim.
Is D liable for defamation?
(A) No, because E is a public figure and should expect criticism.
(B) Yes, if E did not respond to D's accusations promptly.
(C) Yes, because D published false statements that harm E's reputation.
(D) No, because D's article was published in a reputable newspaper.
63. Lis Pendens means:
(A) A decided case
(B) A pending suit
(C) A piece of evidence
(D) None of the above
64. “No person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself.”
What is this called?
(A) Prohibition of Ex Post Facto Laws
(B) Right to fair trial
(C) Right against self-incrimination
(D) Right to legal aid

Page 12 of 20
65. Principle: Use of lawful means to protect one’s person or property is a good defence in tort.
Facts: Ramlal is growing valuable vegetables and fruits in his farm and he has fenced the
farm to prevent the cattle from entering into it. In addition, he has kept a ferocious dog to
chase away intruding urchins and cattle. Some children were playing in a nearby playground
and the ball slipped into the farm. A boy running after the ball came near the fence and
shouted for the ball. But when there was no response, he managed to creep into the farm to
get the ball. The dog which was surreptitiously waiting attacked the boy and badly mauled
him. The boy’s parents filed a suit against Ramlal.
(A) Ramlal is not liable, since the fence and the dog are lawful means of protecting the
property
(B) Ramlal is not liable for the boy trespassing and getting badly injured in that process
(C) Ramlal is liable, since an ordinary barking dog would have sufficed for the purpose
(D) None of the above
66. Tort means civil wrong other than breach of contract and breach of trust. Which of the
following is tort.
(A) Amar borrows money from Akbar and fails to pay on agreed date.
(B) Antony steals the money from Ankona’s pocket.
(C) Ajay plays the music very loudly every day that caused huge disturbance to all the
neighbours.
(D) Arushi a trustee of a public trust uses the trust money for her personal purposes.
67. Who is the executive head of the State in India
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President of India
(C) Chief Justice of India
(D) Speaker of the Lokasabha
68. Child labour is
(A) Prohibited in India
(B) Regulated in India
(C) Permitted with license
(D) None of the above
69. Adultery means
(A) A married man having physical relation with a minor girl
(B) A married man having physical relation with another married woman
(C) A married woman having physical relation with an unmarried man
(D) An unmarried man having physical relation with an unmarried woman

Page 13 of 20
70. Constitution of India came into force on
(A) 26th Nov 1949
(B) 26th Jan 1950
(C) 15th August 1947
(D) 2nd Oct 1948
71. A rule provided that sleeping on the railway platform is punishable with 200 Rs fine. Mr.
Nirmal was laying down on the railway platform and reading the newspaper. He was asked
to pay penalty of Rs. 200. Is he liable? Clue – Object of the rule was to avoid the
inconvenience to the passengers who are boarding or alighting from the train.
(A) Not liable because he was not sleeping just laying down.
(B) Liable because sleeping includes laying down.
(C) Liable only if he has fallen asleep.
(D) Liable only if he has disturbed the passengers.
72. A rule prohibited entry of vehicles inside the park to avoid the accidents. Violation leads to
penalty of 500 Rs. A physically disabled man entered the park with his wheelchair, and he
was charged with violation of the rule and was asked to pay the penalty.
(A) He is liable because wheelchair is his vehicle.
(B) He is not liable because he is privileged.
(C) He is not liable because his wheelchair is not vehicle and does not pose threat to
anybody.
(D) He is not liable because he should be exempted.
73. Which provision of the Constitution of India is described as heart of the Constitution
(A) Article 21 – Right to Life and Personal Liberty
(B) Article 32 – Right to Constitutional Remedies
(C) Article 14 – Right to Equality
(D) Article 21 A – Right to free and compulsory education
74. Under Indian criminal law jurisprudence an accused is
(A) Presumed to be guilty.
(B) Presumed be innocent until guilt his proved.
(C) Presumed to be guilty until he disproves.
(D) No any presumptions.

Page 14 of 20
75. To constitute an offence under IPC actus reus coupled with mens rea is must. Which of the
following amounts to an offence under IPC.
(A) Ashwin by mistake picked up the umbrella of Shankar and returned the same next day -
offence of Theft ?
(B) Rohit along with his friends beaten Hardik with cricket bat for teasing his sister in the
school – Offence of hurt ?
(C) Virat while batting, the bat slipped from his hand hit on the head of the bowler and the
bowler died. – offence of Murder ?
(D) Samson without noticing that Rahul is about to sit on the chair and he pulls the chair for
his use and consequently Rahul fell down and suffered injury.
76. Preamble of the Constitution of India declares India as
(A) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular Democratic Republic
(B) Secular Democratic Republic
(C) Socialist Democratic Republic
(D) Federal republic
77. Dr B R Ambedkar described the Directive Principles of the State Policy as
(A) Bedrock of the Constitution of India
(B) Soul of the Constitution of India
(C) Conscience of the Constitution of India
(D) Foundation of the Constitution of India
78. Who is the present Law Minister of India
(A) Ravishankar Prasad
(B) Arjun Ram Meghwal
(C) Kiren Rijiju
(D) Amith Shah
79. Sustainable Development Stands for
(A) Fixing the liability of the polluter
(B) Taking precaution by the potential polluter
(C) Attributing the trusteeship of environment to the State
(D) Intergeneration equity - fair resource distribution between present and future
generations.
80. Mandate to frame Uniform Civil Code is under
(A) Article 26 of the Constitution of India
(B) Article 44 of the Constitution of India
(C) Article 246 of the Constitution of India
(D) Article 51 A of the Constitution of India

Page 15 of 20
SECTION V - LOGIC AND REASONING

81. In each of the following questions, two statements numbered I and II are given. There may
be cause and effect relationship between the two statements. These two statements may be
the effect of the same cause or independent causes. These statements may be independent
causes without having any relationship. Read both the statements in question and mark your
answer

Statements:
I. The prices of petrol and diesel in the domestic market have remained unchanged for the
past few months.

II. The crude oil prices in the international market have gone up substantially in the last few
months.
(A) Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
(B) Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
(C) Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes
(D) Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause
82. According to new terminology, ‘Aries’ means ‘air’, ‘Taurus’ means ‘light’, ‘Libra’
means ‘water’ and ‘Scorpio’ means ‘earth’. What would an organism breathe in?
(A) Aries
(B) Taurus
(C) Libra
(D) Scorpio
83. Study the information given below carefully, and answer the question that follow:
On a stage, D, N, A and P are standing as described below facing North.
1) N is 2.5 m to the west of A.
2) K is 4 m to the right of A.
3) D is 6 m to the south of K.
4) P is 9 m to the north of D.
Who is to the south-west of P?
(A) A
(B) D
(C) K
(D) Neither N nor A
84. John is introducing his family to Sarah. Pointing to a woman, he says, "This is my aunt, and
the man standing next to her is my father's brother." How is Sarah related to the woman John
introduced?
(A) Sister
(B) Cousin
(C) Niece
(D) Daughter-in-law

Page 16 of 20
85. Which number should come next in the series 1, 2, 3, 10, ___
(A) 79
(B) 99
(C) 89
(D) 98
86. The day before yesterday was Saturday. What will be the day after tomorrow?
(A) Thursday
(B) Friday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Monday
87. Which of the following set of letters complete the letter series, when sequentially placed at
the gaps?
_ ab _ b _ aba _ _ abab
(A) abbab
(B) abbaa
(C) abaab
(D) aaaba
88. A thermometer is to temperature as a compass is to -
(A) Needle
(B) Pressure
(C) Direction
(D) None of the above
Comprehension:
Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions from Question 89 to
Question 93.

Eight friends, V, L, R. Z, G. F, J and N are sitting in a square shaped table facing towards the
center. Four of them sit at the corners and four of them in the middle. All the information is not
necessarily in the same order.
R sits in between J and G. V and L sit facing each other. Z sits immediate to the right of V. G sits at
one of the corners. V sits second to the left of N. F sits at one of the corners and is an immediate
neighbour of L. J sits to the immediate left of V. R sits to the opposite of N, facing each other. G is
an immediate neighbour of both R and L.
89. How many persons sit between left of Z and right of L?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5

Page 17 of 20
90. Who sits fifth to the right of G?
(A) L
(B) R
(C) F
(D) N
91. Who sits second to the right of L?
(A) R
(B) G
(C) N
(D) Z
92. Who sits to the opposite of F?
(A) L
(B) V
(C) J
(D) R
93. Who sits to the immediate left of N?
(A) A
(B) R
(C) L
(D) Z
94. Choose the image that completes the pattern

Which of the shapes below continues the sequence:


1. 2. 3. 4.

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

Page 18 of 20
95. Choose the image that completes the

1. 2. 3. 4.

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
96. Blueberries cost more than strawberries.
Blueberries cost less than raspberries.
Raspberries cost more than strawberries and blueberries.
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is:
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
(D) Partly true
97. All the tulips in Zoe's garden are white.
All the pansies in Zoe's garden are yellow.
All the flowers in Zoe's garden are either white or yellow
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
(D) partly true

Page 19 of 20
98. Class A has a higher enrollment than Class B.
Class C has a lower enrollment than Class B.
Class A has a lower enrollment than Class C.
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
(D) partly true
99. Which word does NOT belong with the others?
(A) index
(B) book
(C) chapter
(D) glossary
100. A Tiebreaker is an additional contest carried out to establish a winner among tied contestants.
Choose one situation from the options below that best represents a Tiebreaker.
(A) At halftime, the score is tied at 2-2 in a football match.
(B) Serena and Maria have each secured 1 set in the game.
(C) The umpire tosses a coin to decide which team will have bat first.
(D) RCB and KKR each finished at 140 all out.

Page 20 of 20

You might also like