Computer Networks and Internet Protocol

Week-1 Assignment
1) How many collision domains are in a 10-port hub, an 8-port switch (L2), and a 4-port
router. respectively? A collision domain is the segment of a network, where if more than
one device tries to send data simultaneously, it causes a collision and the data is lost.

a) 1, 8, and 4, respectively.

b) 10, 8, and 4, respectively.

c) 10, 10, and 10, respectively.

d) 5, 4, and 2, respectively.

Ans: a
2) Map the devices their associated layer in the TCP/IP model.

A. NIC 1. Physical Layer

B. Router 2. Data Link Layer

C. Bridge 3. Network Layer

D. Hub 4. Transport Layer

a) A-2, B-3, C-2, and D-1

b) A-3, B-3, C-2, and D-1

c) A-3. B-3, C-1, and D-2

d) A-2, B-3, C-2, and D-2

Ans: a

3) Map the protocols with their associated layer in TCP/IP.

A. FTP

B. UDP

C. PPP
D. IP

E. HTTP

a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4, and E-5

b) A-5, B-4, C-3, D-2, and E-1

c) A-5, B-2, C-2, D-3, and E-5

d) A-5, B-4, C-2, D-3, and E-5

Ans: d

4) Which of the statement(s) are concerned with encapsulation in computer networks?

I. It involves an addition of a header and trailer to the actual data as it moves down in the
TCP/IP protocol stack.

II. At the transport layer, encapsulation includes port numbers and at the network layer.
encapsulation includes IP addresses.

a) Only (1)

b) Only (II)

c) Both (I) and (II)

d) Neither (I) nor (II)

Ans: c

5) Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of the circuit switching technique over the
packet switching technique in computer networks?

a) Delay in the establishment of a dedicated connection between two hosts

b) Inefficient utilization of the resources

c) Less scalable

d) a dedicated communication path between two end hosts

Ans: d

6) Choose the FALSE statement.

a) Bridges filter network traffic based on IP addresses.

b) Hubs share bandwidth among all attached devices.

c) Switch provides dedicated bandwidth for each LAN segment.

Ans: a

7) Which transport layer protocol will be chosen by an application that does not require
any reliability?

a) TCP

b) UDP

Ans: b

8) You are a network administrator in your college. You are asked to do troubleshooting for
an issue of a remote server using telnet. Which of the following consideration(s) should
you keep in mind when. using Telnet for this task?

a) Telnet is more secure than SSH while making a remote connection.

b) It is advisable to use telnet in a local network rather than on the internet to avoid security
risks.

c) Telnet encrypts all traffic by itself during communication.

d) Telnet transmits data as a plaintext including login credentials.

Ans: b, d

9) Choose the statement(s) that correctly describe(s) the roles and responsibilities of the
Network Interface Card (NIC) in the computer networks.
I. NIC takes over the responsibility of segmenting large chunks of data into smaller packets that
can be transmitted over the networks.

II. It converts digital data from the computer's processor to an analog signal.

a) Only (1)

b) Only (II)

c) Both (I) and (II)

d) Neither (1) nor (II)

Ans: c

10) Identify the INCORRECT statement(s) related to Bridge and Switch (L2) in computer
networks.

a) For small enterprises (without the need for features like QoS, VLANs, and STP), a switch is
more economical/suitable in the case of segmenting the traffic between two LANs than a
bridge.

b) Switches operate in full-duplex mode while bridges in half-duplex mode.

c) broadcast traffic to all ports, while bridges broadcast the traffic to designated ports (ports
having the same VLAN port as the sender) by using a MAC address table.

d) Switches and bridges are both equally important in modern, large, and complex networks.

Ans: a, c, d

Week-2 Assignment
 1. What is the difference between a 'domain' and 'zone' in DNS?

a) Zone is a subset of a domain, and a domain can contain multiple zones.

b) Domain is a subset of a zone, and a zone can contain multiple domains.

c) Domain is a logical hierarchy, whereas a zone is a physical DNS server.

d) DNS zones must be physically separated from each other.

Ans: a

2. What makes FTP more secure than TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol)?

a) TFTP lacks features like user authentication and secure data transfer mechanisms.

b) TFTP allows simultaneous connections without encryption.

c) TFTP uses TCP, which is inherently less secure than UDP.

d) TFTP is designed for unreliable networks, making it inherently less secure.

Ans: a

3. In the HTTP architecture, which of the following best describes a Uniform Resource
Locator (URL)?

a) A secure protocol for encrypting HTTP communication.

b) A client-side scripting language for web development.

c) A unique identifier for resources, including the protocol, hostname, and path

d) A header that allows caching of web pages for better performance.

Ans: c

4. Which of the following statements about HTTP proxy servers is NOT true?

a) They can cache responses from web servers to improve performance.

b) They can filter requests based on predefined rules.

c) They only work with secure connections (HTTPS).

d) They act as intermediaries between clients and web servers.

Ans: c

5. Which of the following is correct for statements P. Q and R?

P: HTTP uses TCP port 80 for communication.

Q: TELNET transmits data in an encrypted format.

R: DNS can operate on both TCP and UDP.

a) Both P and R is False, Only Q is True

b) Both P and R. is True, Q is False

c) Only Q is True

d) Only R is False

Ans: b

6. What is the correct syntax to be written in the command line to initiate a Telnet
connection to the web server of www.iitkgp.ac.in?

a) telnet//www.iitkgp.ac.in

b) telnet:www.iitkgp.ac.in

c) telnet://www.iitkgp.ac.in

d) telnet www.iitkgp.ac.in

Ans: d

7. Which of the following protocols allow non-ASCII data to be sent over email?

a) IMAP4
b) TELNET

c) MIME

d) POP3

Ans: c

8. Which of the following is true about the mail transfer protocol?

S1: Can send image files with the help of IMAP4

S2: Can send image files with the help of POP3

S3: is more secure than POP3

a) S1

b) Only $2

c) $2 and $3 only

d) $3 Only

Ans: d

9. A user is accessing a webpage hosted on a remote server. The webpage contains

multiple elements, such as text content, several images, and a JavaScript file. The user's
browser starts by initiating a connection to the server and sending requests to fetch the
necessary resources. Assume the following steps:

 The browser must first resolve the web server's domain name to an IP address.
 After the server IP is obtained, the browser opens a TCP connection to request the
webpage and its embedded resources.
 The packets leaving the user's machine, in some order, are as follows:

(1) HTTP GET request for the main HTML page

(ii) DNS query to resolve the web server's domain name

(iii) TCP SYN to establish a connection with the server

(iv) HTTP GET request for a JavaScript file

(v) HTTP GET request for an image file

Which of the following is the correct chronological order in which the packets leave the user's
computer (from first to last)?

a) (ii), (iii), (i), (v), (iv)

b) (iii), (ii), (i), (v), (iv)

c) (ii), (iv). (1). (m), (v)

d) (ii), (i), (iii), (v), (iv)

Ans: a

10. Consider the following statements:

S1: A user requests a web page that consists of some text and one image. For this page the
client will send one request message and receive 4 response messages.

S2: It is not possible to send two different web pages (for example,
www.nptel.ac.in/student.html and www.nptel.ac.in/course.html) over the same persistent
connection.

Which one of the above statements are true?

a) Only Sl is true

b) Only S2 is false

c) Both S1 and $2 are true

d) Both S1 and S2 are false

Ans: d
 Week-3 Assignment

1. What kind of sequence number does TCP use?

a) byte-oriented sequence number

b) packet-oriented sequence number

c) Randomly generated fixed sequence numbers

d) none of them

Ans: a

2. Identify the FALSE statement(s) in the following-

I. The transport layer functionalities (e.g.. connection establishment, flow control, error
detection) operate at an abstract level using data structures, algorithms, and system calls
implemented in the OS kernel.

II. The operating system (OS) kernel does not play any role in supporting the transport layer
functionalities of the TCP/IP protocol stack.

a) Only (1)

b) Only (II)

c) Both (I) and (II)

d) Neither (1) nor (II)

Ans: b

3. Which of the following services is NOT supported by the transport layer?

a) End-to-end packet delivery

b) Ordered packet delivery

c) Reliable data delivery

d) Forwarding the datagram from one hop to another hop in the network

Ans: d

4. What can be a primary mechanism used to ensure the reliable data transfer in a stop-
and-wait algorithm (Noisy Channel)?

a) Employing only error detection and correction codes without requiring acknowledgements.

b) Increasing the timeout interval.

c) Using a sequence number to identify each packet uniquely and waiting for an
acknowledgement for each packet before sending the next packet.

d) Using a sliding window to send multiple packets without waiting for their acknowledgements.

Ans: c

5. A data of 40 bytes need to be delivered using TCP protocol but a sender can send a
segment of maximum size 12 bytes only. Identify the sequence number of the last
segment formed if the sequence number field uses 5 bits only? [Assume sequence
number starts from 0]

a) 1

b) 4

c) 12

d) 31

Ans: b

6. A sender uses a sliding window protocol with a window size of 5. The range of sequence
numbers follows modulo 8 (the sequence number starts from 0 to 7). If the receiver
acknowledges packet 1. what will be the sender's new window range?

a) 1-5
b) 2-6

c) 3-7

d) 0-4

Ans: b

7. Determine whether the following information is True or False?

"During the three-way handshaking of connection establishment procedure (from Host 1 to

Host 2), Delayed duplicate SYN can be handled by TCP at Host 2 simply by ignoring it, as the
sequence number is invalid"

a) True

b) False

Ans: a

8. TCP instance uses a sliding window protocol in the noisy channel. A timeout occurs due
to the loss of a segment (or the acknowledgement). Mark the RIGHT statement among
the following-

a) In the of Go-Back-N ARQ., if any segment of the sliding window is lost, all the segments of the
sliding window are retransmitted while in Selective Repeat ARQ, only the lost packets are
selectively transmitted.

b) In the case of Go-Back-N ARQ, if any segment of the sliding window is lost, only the lost
packets of the sliding window are selectively retransmitted while in Selective Repeat ARQ. all
packets of the sliding window are retransmitted.

c) In both cases, Go-Back-N ARQ and Selective Repeat ARQ, all packets of the sliding window
retransmitted.

d) In the both cases, Go-Back-N ARQ and Selective Repeat ARQ, only lost packets of the sliding
window are selectively retransmitted.

Ans: a
 9. Consider a sender using the Go-Back-N ARQ protocol with a window size 5. The
sequence number ranges from 0 to 7 (modulo 8). The sender initially transmits packets
with the sequence numbers- 0. 1, 2, 3, and 4. During the transmission, packet 3 is lost in
the network. The sender receives a cumulative ACK for the packet 2. The sender
continues sending packet 5, 6, and 7 but the receiverdenies accepting them due to the
loss of packet 3. Identify the range of packets that will be retransmitted by the sender
after the timeout of packet 3?

a) 0, 1, 2, 3, and 4.

b) 2.3.4.5, and 6.

c) 3. 4. 5. 6, and 7.

d) 1.2.3.4, and 5.

Ans: c

10. A client and a server establish a connection using TCP's three-way handshake. The
following details are given:
 Initial sequence number of the client: 100 and initial sequence number of the server:
300.
 RTT (Round Trip Time): 80ms.
 Each TCP segment carries 40 bytes of header information.
 The server sends a SYN-ACK segment, and the acknowledgement (ACK) segment from
the client is delayed due to congestion, taking 100ms to reach the server.

How much time does it take to establish the connection under such a scenario?

a) 100ms

b) 280ms.

c) 180ms

d) 260ms

Ans: c

Week-4 Assignment
 1. Which statement about choosing a transport protocol based on BDP (Bandwidth Delay
Product) is correct?

a) Sliding window protocols always outperform stop-and-wait protocols, regardless of the BDP.

b) When the BDP is smaller than the segment size, a sliding window protocol significantly
improves performance.

c) Stop-and-wait protocols are preferred when the BDP is smaller than the segment size to
minimize complexity.

d) Selective repeat ARQ should always be chosen over go-back-N ARQ to maximize throughput.

Ans: c

2. Which of the following best describes Max-Min Fairness in congestion control?

a) Allocating bandwidth equally to all flows regardless of their requirements...

b) Allocating bandwidth based on the relative priority of each flow, does not ensure optimal
network efficiency.

c) Maximizing the minimum bandwidth across all links in the network.

d) Allocating bandwidth so that no flow can increase its allocation without decreasing another
flow's allocation.

Ans: d

3. What happens if a transport-layer application Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)

attempts to send data before the connection is established?

a) The data is queued until the connection is established.

b) The operation is invalid, and the transport layer prevents it.

c) The data is sent, but the receiver might ignore it.

d) The data is fragmented and sent in packets to the destination.

Ans: b

4. Which of the following conditions does not influence the segment size in TCP?

a) Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU) of the underlying link.

b) Receiver's advertised window size.

c) Network congestion window size.

d) Header length of the IP protocol.

Ans: d

5. In the TCP connection release process, why does the active closer enter the TIME-WAIT
state after the final acknowledgment?

a) To confirm that the other host has received the FIN message.

b) To allow the passive closer to resend data if needed.

c) To ensure that any delayed packets in the network are discarded.

d) To avoid reusing the same port for a new connection.

Ans: c

6. In a distributed system, a server advertises a receiver window of 0 due to lack of buffer

space. However, the application frees up space but the updated acknowledgment is lost.
What should the client do to prevent deadlock?

a) Wait indefinitely until the server sends a new acknowledgment.

b) Resend data packets at periodic intervals to elicit a response.

c) Use a keep-alive mechanism to periodically check the buffer status.

d) Close the connection and restart communication.

Ans: c
 7. A TCP sender observes a mismatch between the advertised window size from the
receiver and the available buffer space. Which of the following is True?

a) The receiver has miscalculated the advertised window size.

b) Congestion control mechanisms have reduced the sender's transmission rate.

c) The sender's maximum segment size (MSS) is incorrectly set.

d) A delayed acknowledgment has caused the advertised window size to be outdated.

Ans: d

8. A transport-layer protocol using AIMD starts with an initial sending rate of 1 Mbps. After
four successful additive increases (each adding 0.5 Mbps). it detects packet loss. If the
multiplicative decrease factor is 0.5, what will be the new sending rate?

a) 2.5 Mbps

b) 1 Mbps

c) 3 Mbps

d) 1.5 Mbps

Ans: d

9. A TCP connection is experiencing high delays and packet reordering. Which features of
TCP help maintain reliable and ordered communication in this scenario?

(i) Sequence numbers in the TCP header.

(ii) Acknowledgment numbers indicating the next expected byte.

(iii) The urgent pointer to prioritize packets.

(iv) Sliding window flow control.

a) (i), (iii), (iv)

b) (i), (ii), (iii)

c) (ii), (iii), (iv)

d) (i), (ii), (iv)

Ans: d

10. In the case of a simultaneous TCP open (both hosts initiate a connection at the same
time), which of the following are true?

(1): Both hosts will transition to the SYN-RECEIVED state after exchanging SYN messages.

(ii): The three-way handshake completes with the exchange of SYN+ACK messages.

(iii): Both hosts will immediately move to the ESTABLISHED state after receiving SYN messages.

(iv): Simultaneous open is less secure due to lack of proper sequence number synchronization.

a) (i) and (ii)

b) (iii) and (iv)

c) All are True

d) All are False

Ans: a

Week-5 Assignment
 1. How does the TCP Sliding Window mechanism contribute to efficient data transmission?

a) By retransmitting all data upon detecting a single packet loss

b) By dynamically adjusting the size of the transmission window

c) By sending data in fixed-size packets regardless of network conditions

d) By prioritizing specific data packets for faster delivery

Ans: b

2. What is a potential drawback of Nagle's algorithm?

a) Increased error rate

b) Increased latency for small packets

c) Reduced bandwidth utilization

d) Inefficient congestion control

Ans: b

3. Which mechanism is used to avoid Silly Window Syndrome at the receiver side?

a) Delayed acknowledgment

b) Nagle's algorithm

c) Clark's solution

d) Fast retransmit

Ans: c

4. What impact does a higher a value have on Jacobson's algorithm?

a) It makes SRTT more sensitive to sudden RTT changes.

b) It reduces the impact of new RTT measurements on SRTT.

c) It increases the weight of RTTVAR in RTO calculation.

d) It eliminates the need for RTTVAR.

Ans: b

5. When does TCP enter the Congestion Avoidance phase?

a) When ssthresh (slow start threshold) is reached

b) After three duplicate acknowledgments

c) When the receiver's buffer is full

d) After the congestion window is halved

Ans: a

6. If the Checksum field in the UDP header is set to 0, what does it indicate?

a) The checksum is not computed.

b) The checksum failed.

c) The checksum is valid.

d) The checksum is reserved for future use.

Ans: a
7. What is the purpose of the pseudo-header used in the UDP checksum calculation?

a) To verify data integrity across multiple networks

b) To include additional information like source and destination IPs

c) To ensure compatibility with TCP

d) To pad the UDP datagram to a fixed size

Ans: b
8. What does the listen() function do in socket programming?

a) It binds a socket to an address.

b) It puts the socket into a passive mode to wait for incoming connections.

c) It actively connects to a server socket.

d) It sends data over the socket.

Ans: b

9. Which function can be used to configure socket options like timeout or buffer size?

a) setsockopt()

b) sockopt()

c) configure()

d) options()

Ans: a

10. What is the advantage of an iterative server over a concurrent server?

a) It is faster in handling multiple requests.

b) It is easier to implement and debug.

c) It supports asynchronous I/O.

d) It has lower response times for high-traffic scenarios.

Ans: b

Week-6 Assignment

1. What is the primary function of the network layer in the TCP/IP model?

a) Establish end-to-end connections between nodes.

b) Ensure reliable data transfer between devices.

c) Handle logical addressing and routing of data.

d) Encrypt and decrypt data for secure transmission.

Ans: c

2. Which of the following is a key advantage of using a Layer 3 switch over a Layer 2
switch?

a) It reduces the need for VLANs.

b) It improves network performance by enabling faster switching at Layer 1.

c) It can route traffic between different subnets without requiring a separate router.

d) It only supports static routing.

Ans: c

3. Which of the following is NOT typically offered by an ISP?

a) Email hosting services.

b) Web hosting services.

c) Content creation for websites.

d) Virtual Private Network (VPN) services.

Ans: c

4. In a network communication scenario involving an Internet Service Provider (ISP), which

of the following is responsible for determining the most efficient path for packet
delivery?

a) Transport Layer

b) Network Layer

c) Data Link Layer

d) Application Layer

Ans: b
 5. When communicating between two nodes, what role does the transport layer protocol
play

a) Routing the data packets.

b) Providing IP logical addressing to the communicating devices.

c) Ensuring reliable or fast data delivery based on protocol choice.

d) Forwarding the data to the next hop through LAN.

Ans: c

6. What type of address is "0.0.0.0" in IPv4?

a) Loopback address

b) Default route address

c) Broadcast address

d) Unspecified address

Ans: d

7. What is the significance of CIDR notation 1 point in IP addressing?

a) To replace the traditional classful addressing system with a more flexible and efficient way of
allocating IP addresses.

b) To enhance encryption during transmission.

c) To improve the speed of DNS resolution.

d) To allocate MAC addresses dynamically.

Ans: a

8. How many subnets can created from a/24 network if the subnet mask is extended to
/26?

a) 2
b) 4

c) 6

d) 16

Ans: b

9. What is the CIDR notation for a supernet 1 point that aggregates 192.168.0.0/24 and
192.168.1.0/24?

a) \23

b) \24

c) \25

d) \22

Ans: a

10. In a home network using NAT, how does a router differentiate between multiple devices
accessing the same web server?

a) By assigning unique public IP addresses to each device.

b) By using different MAC addresses for each device.

c) By assigning unique port numbers for each session.

d) By encrypting the IP packets.

Ans: c

Week-7 Assignment

1. Which of the following statements about delay components in a network is false?

a) Propagation delay depends on the length of the transmission link.

b) Queuing delay increases when incoming data exceeds the processing rate of a router.

c) Transmission delay is influenced by the packet size and the bandwidth of the channel.

d) Transmission delay is typically greater than queuing delay in congested networks.

Ans: d

2. How does traffic shaping differ from traffic policing in the context of QoS?

a) shaping identifies and marks packets for prioritization, while traffic policing drops packets
that violate QoS.

b) shaping regulates outgoing traffic rates, while traffic policing monitors and drops packets
violating QoS.

c) Traffic shaping prioritizes real-time traffic, while traffic policing prioritizes non-real-time
traffic.

d) Traffic shaping is applied only at the router, while traffic policing is applied only at the source.

Ans: b

3. Which of the following statements about the token bucket algorithm are correct?

S1: It allows burst traffic by using accumulated tokens.

S2: It discards excess tokens when the bucket is full.

S3: It smooths out traffic to a constant rate by dropping excess packets.

S4: It allows traffic to exceed the token generation rate temporarily if tokens are available.

a) S1 and S3 only

b) S2 and S4 only

c) S1, S2 and S4 only

d) S2, S3 and S4 only

Ans: c
 4. A video streaming service uses a token bucket with a token generation rate of 5 Mbps
and a bucket size of 10 MB. If the stream has a sudden burst requiring 20 MB of data,
how much data can be transmitted immediately without exceeding the allowed rate?

a) 10 MB

b) 15 MB.

c) 20 MB

d) 5 MB

Ans: a

5. During peak traffic, a network's RED mechanism begins dropping packets when the
average queue size reaches the maximum threshold. Why is this early packet drop
strategy crucial for maintaining QoS?

a) It reduces packet loss for inelastic traffic by halting elastic traffic completely.

b) It triggers congestion control in TCP before queue overflow occurs.

c) It ensures low-priority traffic is always prioritized over high-priority traffic.

d) It guarantees that all packets from elastic traffic are evenly distributed.

Ans: b

6. What is the primary role of a bandwidth broker in the DiffServ architecture?

a) Assign DSCP values to packets dynamically.

b) Reserve resources in all routers within a domain.

c) Facilitate inter-domain QoS agreements.

d) Manage traffic shaping at edge routers.

Ans: c
 7. A company deploys IntServ for a critical application requiring guaranteed QoS. However,
some flows experience denial of service due to resource unavailability. What mechanism
in IntServ likely caused this issue?

a) RSVP Policy Control

b) Admission Control

c) Priority Queuing

d) Traffic Policing

Ans: b

8. A network router using Weighted Fair Queuing (WFQ) schedules packets from three
classes with the following weights: 1, 2, and 3. If the total available bandwidth is 600
Mbps, how much bandwidth is allocated to the second class?

a) 100 Mbps

b) 200 Mbps

c) 240 Mbps

d) 300 Mbps

Ans: b

9. In a DiffServ domain, which of the following are responsibilities of the edge router?

(1) Packet classification and marking based on DSCP.

(ii) Queue management for congestion control.

(iii) Policing to ensure compliance with Service Level Agreements (SLAs).

(iv) Per-hop behavior (PHB) enforcement for forwarding packets.

a) (i), (iii) only

b) (i), (ii) only

c) (ii), (iii) only

d) (i), (iv) only

Ans: a

10. Which of the following parameters must be considered for admission control in QoS
architectures to determine whether a new flow can be admitted?

(i) Bandwidth availability on the network

(ii) Delay tolerance of the existing flows

(iii) Jitter requirements of the new flow

(iv) Packet loss rate of the current network traffic

a) (i), (ii) and (iii)

b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

c) All are True

d) All are False.

Ans: c

Week-8 Assignment

1. What is the network address of the following?

IP address: 5.6.7.212

Subnet Mask: 255.255.252.0

a) 5.6.4.0

b) 5.6.7.0
c) 5.6.7.255

d) 5.6.255.255

Ans: a

2. Consider the following CIDR blocks: 192.168.0.0/24 and 192.168.3.0/24. Identify the
possible aggregated prefix (route summarization/supernetting) among the following.

a) 192.168.0.0/22

b) 192.168.0.0/23

c) 192.168.0.0/24

d) 192.168.0.0/25.

Ans: a

3. Which of the following statements are true for Autonomous Systems (AS)?

a) The internet is composed of interconnected Autonomous Systems.

b) It is administered by multiple authorities.

c) BGP protocol is primarily used for communication between different Autonomous Systems
(ASs).

d) An Area in an Autonomous System (AS) is a collection of routers, networks, and hosts within
an AS.

Ans: a, c, d

4. How many bits are used to identify the Autonomous Systems (AS)?

a) 1

b) 32

c) 64

d) 8
Ans: b

5. Which transport layer protocol does BGP use for communication between peers?

a) TCP

b) UDP

c) QUIC

d) ICMP

Ans: a

6. Consider the following topology of a network. Numbers labeled in the link between two
routers represent cost. Using the Distance Vector algorithm, identify the updated
distance vector at Router after the first round of updates.

a) A: 0, B: 3, C: 1, D: 4, E: 2

b) A: 0, B: 3, C: 4, D: 4, E: 5

c) A: 0, B: 3, C: 1, D: 4, E: 5

d) A: 0, B: 3, C: 4, D: 4, E: 2

Ans: b

7. The Link State Routing Algorithm is/are NOT concerned with-

a) It shares the routing table rather than sending the information about its neighborhood only.
b) Each router computes the shortest paths to all independently using Dijkstra's algorithm.

c) Each router does not have a complete view of the network topology.

d) Once a router has detected a local link failure, it generates and floods a new LSP that no
longer contains the failed link and the new LSP replaces the previous LSP in the network.

Ans: a, c

8. Match the following-

A. BGP local traffic 1. Traffic to an AS either originates or terminates within the AS.

B. Stub AS 2. Traffic that passes through an AS but neither originates nor

terminates in it.

C. BGP transit traffic 3. It connects to two or more Internet Service Providers (ISPs) or
systems.

D. Multihomed AS 4. It has has only one connection to another AS, usually to an upstream
Internet Service Provider (ISP).

a) A-1, B-4, C-2, and D-3

b) A-2, B-3, C-1, and D-4

c) A-2, B-4, C-1, and D-3

d) A-1, B-2, C-3, and D-4

Ans: a

9. An ISP is assigned the CIDR block 192.168.0.0/16. Identify the valid subnet(s) among the
following that can be allocated to its customers.

a) 192.169.0.0/16

b) 192.168.0.0/17

c) 192.168.128.0/17

d) 192.168.0.0/18
Ans: b, c, d

10. What is the default value of TTL field in BGP packets in eBGP?

a) 255

b) 1

c) 128

d) 64

Ans: b

Week-9 Assignment

1. What is the primary purpose of a routing table in a router?

a) To store user credentials

b) To log network traffic

c) To maintain information about the routes to various network destinations

d) To assign MAC addresses to devices

Ans: c

2. What is the main disadvantage of using static routing?

a) High bandwidth usage

b) Inability to adapt to network topology changes

c) Complex configuration for small networks

d) Requires a routing protocol

Ans: b
 3. Which switching fabric mechanism is most scalable for high-speed routers handling
large volumes of traffic?
a) Shared bus
b) Crossbar switch
c) Memory based switching
d) Circuit switching

Ans: b

4. In the context of router architecture, what does "line card" refer to?

a) Component that connects routers to electrical power supplies.

b) A hardware module containing input and output ports.

c) A software routine for managing forwarding tables.

d) A routing protocol used to configure static routes.

Ans: b

5. If a router receives a new routing update from a protocol like OSPF, where is this
information first stored?

a) In the FIB

b) In the MAC address table

c) In the RIB

d) In the ARP table

Ans: c

6. Which of the following is not a core principle of Software-Defined Networking (SDN)?

a) Centralized control of the network through a controller

b) Dynamic configuration of network devices without manual intervention

c) Tight coupling of data plane and control plane

d) The ability to programmatically define network behavior

Ans: c

7. Which of the following is a major benefit of OpenFlow in SDN?

a) OpenFlow does not allow network applications to run over the connected devices.

b) OpenFlow allows for granular control over the flow of packets.

c) OpenFlow is primarily used to monitor network security.

d) OpenFlow increases network congestion by adding overhead.

Ans: b

8. Which of the following best describes the "Southbound API" in an SDN architecture?

a) It facilitates communication between the SDN controller and network applications.

b) It manages communication between the control plane and data plane, typically using
protocols like OpenFlow.

c) It connects the SDN controller with other controllers in a multi-controller setup.

d) It is used to monitor the health of the physical devices in the network.

Ans: b

9. Which of the following is an example of a "Northbound API" in SDN?

a) OpenFlow

b) OVSDB

c) NETCONF

d) RESTful API

Ans: d
10. In a multi-controller SDN setup, what mechanism is commonly used to ensure consistent
state across controllers?
a) Flow migration

b) Controller federation

c) Dynamic flow recalculation

d) Multi-path routing

Ans: b

Week-10 Assignment

1. The CSMA/CD protocol, predominantly used in Ethernet, addresses which of the

following challenges?

a) Efficient encoding and decoding of data signals

b) Synchronization of devices in wireless networks.

c) Detection and management of data collisions in shared media networks.

d) Guaranteeing data delivery across multiple broadcast domains.

Ans: c

2. Which MAC technique is most suitable for bursty traffic with sporadic transmissions?

a) Synchronous MAC with reserved slots.

b) Asynchronous MAC with round-robin allocation.

c) Token passing in ring topology.

d) Contention-based asynchronous MAC.

Ans: d
3. In Go-Back-N ARQ. why must the size of the sender's window be less than 2th, where m
is the number of bits in the sequence number?

a) To prevent out-of-order frames from being accepted by the receiver

b) To allow cumulative acknowledgments to function correctly

c) To ensure the receiver's window size can accommodate all pending frames

d) To avoid ambiguities in the sequence numbers during retransmission

Ans: d

4. What is the minimum frame size for Ethernet (IEEE 802.3), and why is it important?

a) 46 bytes, to prevent collisions from being detected too late

b) 64 bytes, to ensure collision detection within the frame transmission time.

c) 512 bytes, to maximize bandwidth efficiency.

d) 1500 bytes, to support large data payloads.

Ans: b

5. In a Selective Repeat ARQ system with a 4-bit sequence number and a sender's window
size of 8. what is the minimum size of the receiver's buffer to prevent loss of out-of-
order frames?

a) 4

b) 8

c) 16

d) 1

Ans: b

6. A wireless CSMA/CA network uses a backoff algorithm with a contention window size
that doubles after each collision. If the initial contention window size is 32, what is the
maximum contention window size after 4 collisions?

a) 256

b) 512

c) 128

d) 1024
Ans: b

7. In a shared 75 kbps channel, each station transmits a 20-bit frame every 2000 ms. If the
network uses Slotted Aloha, what is the maximum number of stations that can be
supported?

a) 7500

b) 2775

c) 7000

d) 5000

Ans: b

8. Consider a CSMA/CD network where the frame transmission time Tris much larger than
the propagation delay tp. Which of the following factors affect the efficiency of the
network?

(i) Frame size.

(ii) Propagation delay to

(iii) Backoff time after a collision.

(iv) Total number of stations.

a) (i), (ii) and (iii)

b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

c) All are True

d) All are False

Ans: c
9. In a round-robin MAC technique, a network has 10 stations, and each station gets a time
slot of 2 ms. If a station has a data frame of 2 KB to transmit, and the transmission rate is
1 Mbps, how many rounds will it take for the station to complete its transmission?

a) 4
b) 8

c) 16

d) 20

Ans: b

10. A network administrator is analyzing a collision on a traditional Ethernet network using

CSMA/CD. They observe the following sequence:

(1) A node transmits a frame after sensing the medium is free.

(ii) A collision occurs, detected by voltage fluctuations.

(iii) A jam signal is transmitted, and the node applies a backoff algorithm.

If the backoff limit is reached without successful transmission, what should the node do next?

a) Retry immediately without further sensing.

b) Send another jam signal and continue to backoff indefinitely.

c) Abort the transmission and report a failure.

d) Switch to a synchronous MAC protocol.

Ans: c

Week-11 Assignment
1. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is primarily concerned with-

a) To resolve IP addresses to MAC addresses.

b) To resolve hostnames to IP addresses

c) To resolve port numbers to IP addresses.

d) To resolve MAC addresses to IP addresses.

Ans: a

2. Identify the WRONG statement in the following-

a) BOOTP is a legacy protocol used to assign IP addresses and other configuration information to
devices during startup.

b) BOOTP evolved from DHCP to support dynamic IP addressing and reusable addresses.

c) Both DHCP and BOOTP serve the purpose of providing IP addresses and configurations to
devices.

d) None of them.

Ans: b

3. Which port number does DHCP use for client-server communication at layer 2?

a) TCP 80

b) UDP 67 & 68

c) UDP 80 & 81

d) UDP 23

Ans: b

4. Which protocol is used to prevent bridge loops in an Ethernet network?

a) Point-To-Point Protocol (PPP)

b) Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)

c) Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)

d) Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)

Ans: d
 5. Which feature is/are concerned with trunk links in VLAN-based networks?

I. It can carry data from multiple VLANs over a single physical connection.

II. It allows VLANs to span across multiple switches, enabling seamless communication for
devices in the same VLAN, even if they are connected to different switches.

a) Only (1)

b) Only (II)

c) Both (1) and (II)

d) Neither (I) nor (II)

Ans: c

6. Which provides a solution to the hidden terminal problem in wireless LANs?

a) RTS/CTS mechanism

b) backoff timers

c) Interframe Space (IFS)

d) None of these.

Ans: a

7. Given a wireless network using CSMA/CA (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision
Avoidance), where the transmission time of a data frame is 200 ms. The contention
window backoff time (in the event of a collision) always follows an exponential backoff
mechanism, with a random backoff time selected from a of 0 to 10 slots. Each slot is 10
ms. A collision happens, and the backoff time for retransmission is selected randomly
within the range of 0 to 10 slots. What is the total time spent (in ms) for the first
retransmission if the backoff is randomly selected to be 7 slots? (Ignore the time spent in
the first transmission attempt)
a) 200 ms

b) 250 ms

c) 260 ms

d) 270 ms

Ans: d

8. In which layer, Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) works?

a) Layer 2

b) Layer 3

c) Layer 4

d) Layer 5

Ans: a

9. The configuration of a DHCP server is as follows-

Network Address: 192.0.1.0/24

Reserved Addresses: 192.0.1.1 to 192.0.1.20 (for routers and servers)

How many addresses are available for clients?

a) 256

b) 255

c) 234

d) 231

Ans: c

10. Match the following-

A. Ethernet Working Group 1. 802.11f

B. Mess Networking 2. 802.11af

C. Wi-Fi in TV spectrum white spaces 3.802.3

D. Power control 4. 802.11h

E. Handover 5.802.11s

a) A-3, B-5, C-2, D-1, E-4

b) A-3, B-5, C-2, D-4, E-4

c) A-3, B-5, C-2, D-1, E-1

d) A-3, B-5, C-2, D-4, E-1

Ans: d

Week-12 Assignment

1. In which layer of the OSI model does the HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol) operate?

a) Transport Layer

b)Network Layer

c)Application Layer

d) Data Link Layer

Ans: c

2. Which of the best describes "Manchester Encoding"?

a) A method that encodes data using transitions at the beginning of each bit period.

b) A self-clocking encoding technique with a transition in the middle of each bit period.

c) A signaling method that uses voltage levels directly to represent 1s and Os.

d) An encoding technique that combines multiple signals into one.

Ans: b

3. A time-division multiplexing (TDM) link transmits 4,000 frames per second, with each
time slot containing 8 bits. What is the transmission rate of this TDM circuit

a) 32kbps

b) 500bps

c) 500kbps

d) 32bps

Ans: a

4. What is the main difference between Manchester and Differential Manchester

encoding?

a) Differential Manchester requires more bandwidth

b) Differential Manchester uses a transition for every 1-bit

c) Manchester encoding has no transitions at all

d) Manchester encoding is only used in analog signals

Ans: b

5. In Phase Shift Keying (PSK), how is information transmitted?

a) By varying the frequency of the carrier signal

b) By varying the amplitude of the carrier signal

c) By varying the phase of the carrier signal

d) By varying both amplitude and phase of the carrier signal

Ans: c
 6. A channel has a capacity of 1 Mbps and an SNR of 9. If the SNR is halved, what happens
to the channel capacity?

a) It remains the same.

b) It is reduced by exactly 50%.

c) It is reduced by less than 50%.

d) It is reduced to zero.

Ans: c

7. What is the primary limitation of NRZ-L when used over long distances?

a) Increased signal distortion at high frequencies.

b) Difficulty in handling multiple voltage levels.

c) Poor synchronization for long sequences of Os or 1s.

d) Requires higher power for transmission.

Ans: c

8. Which of the following statements is true for FSK modulation?

a) It is more bandwidth-efficient than QPSK.

b) It is inherently immune to noise.

c) It is suitable for applications requiring constant envelope signals.

d) It is always more power-efficient than QAM.

Ans: c
9. Which of the following firewalls offers the highest level of security?

a) Packet-filtering firewall

b) Stateful firewall

c) Proxy firewall

d) NAT firewall
Ans: c

10. A firewall rule that permits outgoing HTTP traffic but denies all incoming traffic except
for established connections operates under which principle?

a) Default allow

b) Default deny

c) Least privilege

d) Fail-safe defaults.

Ans: b