A Level AQA Chemistry 30 mins 30 questions

Multiple Choice Questions

Atomic Structure
Fundamental Particles / Mass Number & Isotopes / Time of Flight Mass
Spectrometry / Shells & Orbitals / Electron Configuration / Ionisation Energy /
Ionisation Energy: Trends & Evidence

Easy (10 questions) /10 Scan here to return to the course

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Medium (10 questions) /10

Hard (10 questions) /10

Total Marks /30

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Easy Questions
1 Which of these correctly shows the identity of an ion with 18 electrons and 16 neutrons?

A. 14N3-
B. 31P3-
C. 18O2-
D. 35Cl-
(1 mark)

2 Which two processes can produce ions in a time of flight (TOF) mass spectrometer?

A. Electron impact and electrospray ionisation

B. Electron impact and fragmentation
C. Electrospray ionisation and fragmentation
D. Electron bombardment and acceleration
(1 mark)

3 Which ion in a time of flight (TOF) mass spectrometer will undergo the greatest ion drift?

A. 104Pd+
B. 105Pd+
C. 106Pd+
D. 108Pd+
(1 mark)

4 What is the correct working to calculate the relative atomic mass, Ar, of iridium?

m/z value 191 193

Relative abundance (%) 62.7 37.3

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 A.
( 191 × 193 +
) 62 . 7
( × 37. 3
)

100
191 × 62. 7 × 193 × 37. 3
B.
( ) ( )

100

C. 191 × 62 . 7
( ) + 193 × 37. 3
( )

191 × 62 . 7 + 193 × 37 . 3
D.
( ) ( )

100
(1 mark)

5 Which is the correct equation for the first ionisation energy for magnesium?

A. Mg → Mg+ + e-
B. Mg+ (g) → Mg2+ (g) + e-
C. Mg (g) → Mg+ (g) + e-
D. Mg+ → Mg2+ + e-
(1 mark)

6 Which of the following statements about the structure of the atom is correct?

A. The nucleus is small, dense and neutral and the surrounding space is mainly empty.
B. The nucleus is large, dense and positive and the surrounding space populated with
electrons.

C. The nucleus is large, dense and neutral and the surrounding space populated with
electrons.

D. The nucleus is small, dense and positive and the surrounding space is mainly empty.
(1 mark)

7 An isotope of technetium, 99Tc, is used in medicine for diagnosis scans. What is the
composition of the Tc atom?

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 Protons Neutrons Electrons

A 43 56 42

B 43 56 43

C 43 43 43

D 43 43 44

(1 mark)

8 Which of the following statements about isotopes is not correct?

A. The carbon-14 isotope contains 2 more neutrons than the carbon-12 isotope.
B. In a silicon-30 isotope, there are 14 protons.
C. Isotopes contain different numbers of protons.
D. In a magnesium-26 isotope there are 14 neutrons.
(1 mark)

9 What is the correct sequence of steps in a time of flight (TOF) mass spectrometer?

A. Electron bombardment, ion drift, detection, acceleration

B. Electron bombardment, ion drift, acceleration, detection
C. Ionisation, acceleration, ion drift, detection
D. Ionisation, ion drift, acceleration, detection
(1 mark)

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10 Which of the following has a complete subshell?

A. Mg
B. Si
C. Co
D. Cl
(1 mark)

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Medium Questions
1 In which of the following species are the numbers of protons, neutrons and electrons all
different?

A. 32S2-
B. 16O-
C. 23Na+
D. 19F-
(1 mark)

2 There are six unpaired electrons in atoms of element Z. What could element Z be?

A. Argon
B. Chromium
C. Carbon
D. Iron
(1 mark)

3 The second ionisation energy of magnesium is 1451 kJ mol-1.

Which equation correctly represents this statement?

A. Mg+ (g) → Mg2+ (g) + e- ΔHӨ = +1451 kJ mol-1

B. Mg+ (g) → Mg2+ (g) + e- ΔHӨ = -1451 kJ mol-1

C. Mg (s) → Mg2+ (g) + 2e- ΔHӨ = +1451 kJ mol-1

D. Mg (g) → Mg+ (g) + e- ΔHӨ = -1451 kJ mol-1

(1 mark)

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4 What is the electronic configuration of the ion with a single negative charge and the
atomic number 35?

A. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1 3p6

B. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p5
C. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10 4p5
D. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10 4p6
(1 mark)

5 What is the correct sequence for the orbitals shown in an atom of cobalt in order of
decreasing energy?

A. 3s 3p 4s 3d
B. 4s 3d 3s 3p
C. 3d 4s 3p 3s
D. 4s 3d 3p 3s
(1 mark)

6 The mass spectrum of element X is shown below.

Which of the following statements is correct?

A. The isotope of X with mass 72 will be deflected the most.

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 B. The three isotopes of X are separated after being converted to anions.
C. The most abundant isotope of X contains 71 protons.
D. X has a relative atomic mass between 70 and 71.
(1 mark)

7 A sample of metal Z was analysed using a TOF (Time of Flight) mass spectrometer. The
table shows the relative abundance of each isotope in a mass spectrum of this sample.
What is the relative atomic mass of metal Z to 3 significant figures?

m/z value 70 72 74

Relative abundance (%) 24.4 32.4 43.2

A. 72.4
B. 72.5
C. 72.38
D. 72.45
(1 mark)

8 The successive ionisation energies of element X are shown in the table below. Which
group of the periodic table does element X belong to?

Ionisation number 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
of X

Ionisation energy (kJ 1314 3388 5301 7469 10989 13327 71337 84080
-1
mol )

A. 3
B. 4

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 C. 5
D. 6
(1 mark)

9 In order to ionise the sample of atoms in the Time of Flight (TOF) mass spectrometer, the
sample must be ionised. Two methods of ionisation are electron bombardment and
electrospray ionisation. Which of the following is not true of electrospray ionisation?

A. The sample gains a proton in the process.

B. The sample is dissolved in a volatile, nonpolar solvent.
C. The sample is injected through a hypodermic needle with a high voltage tip.
D. The sample is unfragmented.
(1 mark)

10 A 106Ru+ ion with a mass of 1.76 x 10-25 kg travels through the flight tube of a Time of
Flight mass spectrometer with an energy of 5.67 x 10-16 J. What is the velocity of the ion?

1
KE = mv2
2

A. 80 269 m s-1
B. 56 759 m s-1
C. 0.0000115 m s-1
D. 2538 m s-1
(1 mark)

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Hard Questions
1 Where would you expect the highest jump between successive ionisation energies of
phosphorus to occur?

A. Between the 4th and 5th ionisation energies

B. Between the 5th and 6th ionisation energies
C. Between the 6th and 7th ionisation energies
D. Between the 7th and 8th ionisation energies
(1 mark)

2 Which statement correctly explains the similarity in chemical behaviour for isotopes of
the same element?

A. They may have the same electronic configuration, depending on the reaction.
B. They have different numbers of neutrons.
C. They have the same electronic configuration.
D. The number of protons is the same.
(1 mark)

3 Which species will produce a half full 3d subshell having lost two electrons?

A. Fe2+
B. Co2+
C. Cr2+
D. Mn2+
(1 mark)

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4 The first ionisation energy of sulfur is slightly lower than the first ionisation energy of
phosphorus.

Which statement explains why?

A. Electrons are paired in the same 3p subshell in sulfur.

B. Sulfur has a larger atomic radius than phosphorus.
C. The outer electron in sulfur is in a new orbital.
D. The atomic number of sulfur is higher than phosphorus.
(1 mark)

5 The electronic configurations of four different atoms are shown.

Which atom has the highest first ionisation energy?

A. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6

B. 1s2 2s2 2p6
C. 1s2 2s2 2p4
D. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p1
(1 mark)

6 Element J is located in period 3. Using the successive ionisation data given, what is the
correct electron configuration of element J?

1st 2nd 3rd 4th 5th 6th

Ionisation energy kJ mol-1 786 1580 3230 4360 16 000 19 805

A. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p2

B. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3
C. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p4
D. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p5
(1 mark)

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 7 A charged particle has the electronic configuration [Ar]3d3.

What is the identity of the particle?

A. Cr+
B. V3+
C. Ti2+
D. V2+
(1 mark)

8 Four ionisation energy equations are shown below.

Which ionisation energy requires the largest amount of energy?

A. Na+ (g) → Na2+ (g) + e-

B. Ne (g) → Ne+ (g) + e-
C. Li (g) → Li+ (g) + e-
D. He+ (g) → He2+ (g) + e-
(1 mark)

9 Which one from the following, lists the first ionisation energies of the elements sulfur,
chlorine, argon, potassium in kJ mol-1 in the correct order?

A. 999, 1251, 1521, 1838

B. 999, 1251, 1521, 418
C. 418, 565, 729, 999
D. 999, 729, 565, 418
(1 mark)

10 A sample of sodium was analysed in a time of flight mass spectrometer. The 23Na+ ions
formed travelled down a 3 m flight tube with a kinetic energy of 1.63 x 10-14. (L = 6.022 x
1023)

What is the velocity of the Na+ ion?

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 2KE
v = m

m = mass of particle (kg)

KE = kinetic energy of particle (J)

v = velocity of particle (m s-1)

A. 8.53 x 108 m s-1

B. 29215 m s-1
C. 923798 m s-1
D. 8.53 x 1011 m s-1
(1 mark)

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