Question Paper

Exam Date & Time: 06-Apr-2022 (09:30 AM - 12:30 PM)

SHRI DHARMASTHALA MANJUNATHESHWARA UNIVERSITY

MBBS Second Professional Year Resit Examination March-April 2022

Subject: Microbiology Paper I
QP Code: MU0205
Date of Exam: 06/04/2022/ Wednesday
Time of Exam: 09:30am to 12:30pm
Microbiology Paper I [MU0205]
Marks: 100 Duration: 180 mins.

MCQ
Answer all the questions.
1. Draw Neat Labelled diagrams Wherever Necessary
2. Your answers to be specific to the Questions
3. Read the Questions Carefully before you start writing
4. Please choose Black or Blue colour Ink to write the answers.
5. Other colours from the paint option can be used for drawings only.
6. Choose yellow colour for text highlighting.
7. Choose Ruled page template if you are not able to write in Unruled page properly in a straight line

1 Minimum Inhibitory Concentration of the drug cannot be tested by (1)

Agar dilution Broth dilution Disk diffusion Epsilometer

test test test test

2 The predominant bacterial species that colonizes human skin is (1)

Staphylococcus
Bacteroides fragilis Candida albicans Lactobacillus acidophilus
epidermidis

3 A 48-year-old woman presented with urinary urgency and flank pain. Prior to initiation of antibiotic (1)
therapy, she developed fever, chills and delirium. Hypotension and hyperventilation rapidly
followed. The observations suggest the release of bacterial
Collagenase Exotoxin Hyaluronidase Lipopolysaccharide

4 Who is the Father of Antiseptic Surgery? (1)

Joseph Robert
Alexander Fleming Edward Jenner
Lister Koch

5 The mechanism of transfer of plasmid coding for drug resistance through a bacteriophage is (1)
Conjugation Lysogenic conversion Transformation Transduction

6 The type of antibody present in Breast milk is, (1)

IgM IgG IgA IgE

7 Blood group antigens are (1)

Auto-specific Iso-specific Organ specific Species specific
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8 Di-George syndrome is due to developmental defect affecting (1)
Thymus Pituitary Lacrimal Adrenal

gland gland gland gland

9 In a situation, IgG and IgM antibodies bind to the self-antigens and mark them for destruction by (1)
the body. What is this type of hypersensitivity reaction?
Type Type
Type II Type III
I IV

10 A patient who is immunocompromised can receive any of the following vaccines EXCEPT (1)
DPT Hepatitis B MMR Salk Polio vaccine

11 All of the following are at risk for developing Brucellosis EXCEPT (1)
Veterinary Laboratory People consuming raw People consuming raw

personnel workers milk vegetables

12 Weil's disease is caused by (1)

Leptospira Rickettsia Morganella Chlamydia

13 S. Typhi is the causative agent of typhoid fever. The infective does of S. Typhi is (1)
1-9 bacilli 101 -102 bacilli 103 -106 bacilli 108 -1010 bacilli

14 Epidemic Typhus is caused by (1)

R. R.
R. prowazekii R. akari
typhi conorii

15 A HIV seropositive lady presented with chronic watery diarrhoea. Her stool microscopy showed (1)
acid fast oocysts measuring 5 µ in diameter. What is the likely etiological agent?
Balantidium coli Cryptosporidium parvum Entamoeba histolytica Giardia intestinalis

16 All of the following are the organisms causing Food poisoning EXCEPT (1)
Clostridium botulinum Group B Streptococci Listeria monocytogenes Staphylococcus aureus

17 A child was brought to the OPD with complaints of failure to thrive and gave the history of passing (1)
worms in the stool. On examination, the child was pale and malnourished. Microscopic
examination of her stool showed bile-stained parasitic eggs with thick albuminous coat. What is
the likely pathogen?
A.
A. duodenale S. stercoralis T. trichiura
lumbricoides

18 About Staphylococcus aureus enterotoxin, all are true, except: (1)

Preformed Incubation period is Toxin stimulates vagus nerve and Treatment is mainly by early

toxin short (1-6 hours) vomiting center of the brain institution of antibiotics

19 Which of the parameter is not included in Hospital associated infection surveillance? (1)
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 Catheter associated urinary Central line associated blood Open wound Ventilator associated

tract infection stream infection infection pneumonia

20 Hand rub should NOT be used in which scenario? (1)

After touching patient's Before touching Before conducting a Hands are visibly

surrounding patient procedure soiled

Long Essay
Answer all the questions.

21 A 21 years old female patient with 38 weeks of gestation was admitted and lower segment (10)
cesarean section was performed. She was given IV infusion of diclofenac during surgery to
reduce postoperative pain. About 10-15 min after administration of 5 ml of the drug, she
experienced uneasiness in her chest; there was shortness of breath, palpitations and generalised
itching. Immediately, the infusion of the drug was stopped. At that time, the patient's pulse rate
was 182/min; blood pressure was 80/40 mmHg. She was administered injection adrenaline,
dopamine, hydrocortisone and pheniramine for which she responded. (1+1+2+6=10marks)

a) What is the clinical diagnosis?

b) What type of immune reaction is this?

c) Name various substances that can lead to such reaction.

d) Discuss in detail about the mechanism.

22 A middle aged man presented to the hospital with fever, chills and rigours. His peripheral smear (10)
examination showed crescent shaped gametocytes. (2+3+3+2=10marks)

a) What is the probable diagnosis and causative agent in this case?

b) Describe its life cycle

c) Discuss its laboratory diagnosis.

d) Add a note on its complications.

Short Essay
Answer all the questions.

23 Explain the structure and functions of Central Sterile Supply Department (CSSD) of a hospital. (5)

24 Bacterial spore (5)

25 A thirty year old lady, presented to the causality with complaints of acute diarrhoea & vomiting for (5)
two days, on examination, she was found to be severely dehydrated. Detailed history revealed
that few more people in her locality were suffering from similar illness. Her stool had Rice water
appearance.

a) What is the etiological diagnosis?

b) Discuss its laboratory diagnosis.

26 Discuss the aetiology and laboratory diagnosis of infective endocarditis. (5)

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 27 Discuss the laboratory diagnosis of HIV infection. (5)

28 Describe the laboratory diagnosis of extra-intestinal Amoebiasis. (5)

29 Describe the Spaulding's classification for sterilisation of medical devices. (5)

30 Hydatid Cyst (5)

Short Answers
Answer all the questions.

31 List any two physiological changes that are observed in bacterial cells in the stationary phase of (2)
their growth cycle.

32 Name any two autoimmune disorders. (2)

33 Write two major functions of B-cells. (2)

34 Window period in HIV (2)

35 Enterotest for Giardiasis (2)

36 What are Halophilic Vibrios. Give one example. (2)

37 Name any two viruses causing diarrhoea. (2)

38 Name any two mycotoxins causing human disease. (2)

39 List four important pathogens causing hospital associated infections. (2)

40 N95 Respirator (2)

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Question Paper
Exam Date & Time: 08-Apr-2022 (09:30 AM - 12:30 PM)

SHRI DHARMASTHALA MANJUNATHESHWARA UNIVERSITY

MBBS Second Professional Year Resit Examination March-April 2022

Subject: Microbiology Paper II.
QP Code: MU0206
Date of Exam: 08/04/2022/ Friday
Time of Exam: 9:30am to 12:30pm
Microbiology Paper II [MU0206]
Marks: 100 Duration: 180 mins.

MCQ
Answer all the questions.
1. Draw Neat Labelled diagrams Wherever Necessary
2. Your answers to be specific to the Questions
3. Read the Questions Carefully before you start writing
4. Please choose Black or Blue colour Ink to write the answers.
5. Other colours from the paint option can be used for drawings only.
6. Choose yellow colour for text highlighting.
7. Choose Ruled page template if you are not able to write in Unruled page properly in a straight line

1 Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome is seen in (1)

Neisseria Pseudomonas Yersinia
Streptococcus pneumoniae
meningitides aeruginosa pestis

2 Which of the following bacteria is responsible for pseudomembranous colitis? (1)

Clostridium
Clostridium perfringens Clostridium botulinum Clostridioides difficile
tetani

3 Which of the following organisms may cause encephalitis? (1)

Rabies
Enteroviruses Naegleria fowleri All of the above
virus

4 Which of the following agents is a common cause of pneumonia in immunocompromised (1)

patients?
Pneumocystis Pseudomonas
Staphylococcus aureus None of the above
jiroveci aeruginosa

5 What is the causative agent of lymphogranuloma venerum? (1)

Chlamydia trachomatis Chlamydia trachomatis Chlamydia trachomatis Chlamydophila

serotypes A to C serotypes D to K serotypes L1 to L2 pneumoniae

6 What is the causative agent of chancroid? (1)

Mycoplasma
Haemophilus ducreyi Klebsiella granulomatis Candida albicans
hominis
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7 Which of the following agents can cause sexually transmitted disease without any genital lesions (1)
but with only symtemic manifestations?
Hepatitis B Hepatitis C
HIV All of the above
virus virus

8 What is significant bacteriuria? (1)

4
Bacterial count > 105 Bacterial count between 10 to Bacterial count < 104 None of the

per ml 105 per ml per ml above

9 All of the following are zoonotic infections except: (1)

Plague Leptospirosis Tularaemia Gonorrhoea

10 Opportunistic infections are more common in individual with following conditions except: (1)
Organ transplant
Diabetes mellitus Malignancy Normal immune system
recipient

11 Which of the following viruses are associated with human cancer? (1)
Human papilloma Hepatitis C
Human herpesvirus 8 All of the above
viruses virus

12 Drinking water is considered satisfactory if the presumptive coliform count of water is: (1)
0/100 mL 1-3/100 mL 4-10/100 mL > 10/100 mL

13 All of the following diseases are transmitted by mosquito except: (1)

Japanese
Yellow fever West-Nile fever Oroya fever
encephalitis

14 Chagas disease is transmitted by (1)

Reduviid bug Louse Tick Mite

15 Principle toxin responsible for gas gangrene is: (1)

Alpha Theta Beta Delta

toxin toxin toxin toxin

16 All of the following are true about rhinovirus, except: (1)

More than 100 antigenic types have Acid Incubation period is 10- Transmitted by

been identified labile 14 days respiratory route

17 Human acquire cysticerus cellulosae infection by all, except: (1)

Ingestion of contaminated Reverse Ingestion of contaminated pig`s
Autoinfection
vegetables peristalsis meat

18 In decreasing order of risk of transmission following occupational exposure: (1)

HIV > HBV > HBV > HIV > HBV > HCV >

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 HCV HCV HIV HCV > HBV > HIV

19 Maximum consumption of antibiotics occurs for: (1)

Human therapeutic Human non-therapeutic Animal therapeutic Animal non-therapeutic

use use use use

20 Oriental sore is caused by: (1)

Leishmania Leishmania Leishmania
Leishmania tropica
mexicana braziliensis chagasi

Long Essay
Answer all the questions.

21 A 30-year-old male patient was admitted in Medical intensive care unit (MICU) with drooling of (10)
saliva and fear for intake of liquids since morning. There was a past history of dog bite on his right
leg 8 days back. (1+2+2+2+3=10marks)

a. What is the probable diagnosis ?

b. Draw a neat labelled diagram of the etiological agent

c. Describe the pathogenesis of the above clinical condition.

d. Describe the laboratory investigations to confirm the diagnosis.

e. What is the prophylaxis?

22 Describe the etiology, pathogenesis, clinical features and laboratory diagnosis of urinary tract (10)
infections.

Short Essay
Answer all the questions.

23 Pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis (5)

24 Mention virulence factors of Staphylococcus. Add a note on various diseases caused by these (5)
virulence factors.

25 Mucormycosis- risk factors, clinical manifestations and laboratory diagnosis. (5)

26 Plasmodium vivax (5)

27 Explain the NACO strategy for diagnosis of HIV infections (5)

28 Hospital infection control committee (HICC) (5)

29 Pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of leptospirosis (5)

30 Describe the ethical issues in laboratory testing. (5)

Short Answers

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Answer all the questions.

31 List four vector borne diseases (2)

32 What is emerging infection? (2)

33 Name four tissue nematodes (2)

34 Name four microorganisms causing opportunistic infection in an Immunocomprised patient (2)

35 Cutaneous anthrax (2)

36 Laboratory diagnosis of Dengue (2)

37 Cutaneous larva migrans (2)

38 Life cycle of Chlamydia (2)

39 Laboratory diagnosis of Covid 19 (2)

40 Gonorrhoea (2)

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