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52-Dhanlaxmi Instructions Sample

The document provides detailed information about the online examination for the recruitment of Junior and Senior Officers, including test structure, timing, and types of questions. It outlines five objective type tests with a total of 200 questions and a duration of 120 minutes, along with instructions on answering and scoring. Sample questions are included to illustrate the types of questions candidates can expect in the examination.
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
27 views8 pages

52-Dhanlaxmi Instructions Sample

The document provides detailed information about the online examination for the recruitment of Junior and Senior Officers, including test structure, timing, and types of questions. It outlines five objective type tests with a total of 200 questions and a duration of 120 minutes, along with instructions on answering and scoring. Sample questions are included to illustrate the types of questions candidates can expect in the examination.
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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ON-LINE EXAMINATION - RECRUITMENT OF JUNIOR OFFICER AND SENIOR OFFICER

INFORMATION HANDOUT

This handout contains details pertaining to various aspects of the online exam you are going to undertake and important
instructions about related matters. You are advised to study the handout carefully as it will help you in preparing for the
examination.
The on-line examination will comprise the following objective type multiple choice tests as stated below :

Sr. Name of the Test No. of Max. Marks Duration Version


No. Question

1 Reasoning 40 40 25 Minutes

2 English Language 40 40 25 Minutes


Only
3 Quantitative aptitude 40 40 25 Minutes
English
4 General Awareness (with 40 40 25 Minutes
special reference to
Banking industry)

5 Computer Knowledge 40 40 20 Minutes

Total 200 200 120 Minutes


Note: candidates applying for two posts, will appear for the exam only once and they will be considered in the merit list
for both the posts.

The time for the test is 120 minutes; however, you may have to be at the venue for approximately 180 minutes including
the time required for logging in, collection of the call letters, going through the instructions etc. All tests will be in English.
Tests are separately timed. You can attempt any question in a particular test during the time allotted to that test only.
All the objective questions will have multiple choices. Out of the five answers to a question only one will be the correct
answer. You have to select the most appropriate answer and ‘mouse click’ that alternative which you feel is
appropriate/correct. The alternative/option that you have clicked on will be treated as your answer to that
question. There will be no penalty for wrong answers marked by you. However, you are advised, not to mark
answers by random guessing.
The Scores of Online Examination will be obtained by adopting the following procedure :
(i) Number of questions answered correctly by a candidate in each objective test is considered for arriving at
the Corrected Score.

Note : Cutoffs may be applied in two stages :


(i) On scores in individual tests
(ii) On Total Score

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Please note that the types of questions in this handout are only illustrative and not exhaustive. In the actual
examination you will find questions of a higher difficulty level on some or all of these types and also questions
on the types not mentioned here.
Some sample questions are given below.

SAMPLE QUESTIONS
REASONING
This is a test to see how well you can think and also to judge your aptitude/ knowledge for working with computer.
It contains questions of various kinds. Here are some sample questions.
Directions : In each of the following questions, there are five letter groups or words in each question. Four of
these letter groups or words are alike in some way, while one is different. Find the one which is different.

Q.1. (1) black (2) red (3) green (4) paint (5) yellow

Q.2. (1) BC (2) MN (3) PQ (4) XZ (5) ST

Q.3. (1) Mango (2) Apple (3) Orange (4) Guava (5) Rose

Directions : In each of the following questions, there is a question mark in which only one of the five alternatives
given under the question satisfies the same relationship as is found between the two terms to the left of the sign ::
given in the question. Find the correct answer.

Q.4. Foot : man : : hoof : ?


(1) leg (2) dog (3) horse (4) boy (5) shoe

Q.5. Day : Night : : Kind : ?


(1) Dark (2) Bright (3) Cruel (4) Generous (5) Gratitude

Q.6. Hut : Mansion : : Rabbit : ?


(1) Hole (2) Carrot (3) Elephant (4) Small (5) Rat

Q.7. If the letters in the word TOPS can be rearranged to form a meaningful word beginning with O, the last letter
of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed, M is the answer and if no such word
can be formed, X is the answer.
(1) T (2) P (3) M (4) S (5) X

Q.8. ‘Some leaders are dishonest. Satyapriya is a leader.’ Which of the following inferences definitely follows
from these statements ?
(1) Satyapriya is honest (2) Satyapriya is dishonest
(3) Some leaders are honest (4) Leaders are generally dishonest
(5) Satyapriya is sometimes dishonest

Q.9. If ‘A ” B’ means ‘add B to A’, ‘A ’ B’ means ‘subtract B from A’, ‘A # B’ means ‘divide A by B’ and ‘A  B’
means ‘multiply A by B; which of the following gives the average sales of two days where S 1 and S2 are the
sales of the first and the second day respectively ?
(1) (S1 ’ S2) # 2 (2) 2 # (S1 ” S2) (3) (S1 ” S2 # 2)
(4) (S1  S2) # (S1 ” S2) (5) Other than those given as options

Q.10. Every person above eighteen years of age who is registered as a voter, can vote. To find out whether
Madhu, who was born twenty years ago, can vote, which of the following further information is needed ?
(I) Madhu’s date of birth (II) Whether Madhu is registered as a voter
(1) Only I (2) Only II (3) Either I or II (4) Neither I nor II (5) Both I and II

Q.11. In each question below are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have
to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts,
consider the two conclusions; together and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from
the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements : All machines are windows. All windows are clouds.
Conclusions : I. All machines are clouds.
II. All clouds are machines.

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(1) None follows (2) Only I follows (3) Both I & II follow
(4) Only II follows (5) Either I or II follows

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
This is a test to see how well you know English. Your English language ability would be tested through questions
on grammar, vocabulary, sentence completion, synonyms, antonyms, comprehension of a passage, etc. Study
and answer the sample questions given below :

Directions : Pick out the most appropriate word from amongst the words given below each sentence to complete
it meaningfully.

Q.1. He quickly glanced ________ the book to find what it said about the Indian economy.
(1) at (2) through (3) in (4) to (5) over

Q.2. The counsel urged the court to ________ down the obnoxious law.
(1) enact (2) enforce (3) cancel (4) strike (5) declare

Q.3. The local official ________ the Minister of the situation.


(1) explained (2) warned (3) apprised (4) told (5) intimated

Directions : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be
in one part of the sentence. The number of that part of the sentence is your answer. If there is no error, the answer
is (5).

Q.4. I am twenty / two years old / when I first / joined the bank. No error
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

Q.5. To the Hindus / the Ganga is / holier than / any other river. No error
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

Q.6. Of all the teachers / in our school / our class teacher / were very strict. No error
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

Directions : In each of the following questions, select from amongst the five alternatives, the word nearest in
meaning to the word given in capitals.

Q.7. LETHAL
(1) light (2) dangerous (3) deadly (4) cruel (5) thoughtless

Q.8. CENTENARY
(1) a guard (2) a hundred years (3) a very old man
(4) hundred runs (5) hundredth anniversary

Q.9. TRIUMPH
(1) conquer (2) smash (3) earn (4) brave (5) capture

Directions : In each of the following questions, select from amongst the five alternatives, the word most opposite
in meaning of the word given in capitals.

Q.10. LIVELY
(1) simple (2) weak (3) dull (4) angry (5) moron

Q.11. INADVERTENT
(1) adequate (2) available (3) sluggish (4) negligent (5) intentional

Q.12. INEPT
(1) accurate (2) skilful (3) sensible (4) artistic (5) apt

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QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
This test is designed to measure how fast and accurate you are in dealing with numbers, viz. computation,
quantitative reasoning, interpretation of tables and graphs etc.
Q.1-3. Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below ––––
Distribution of 1000 candidates as regards their marks in written examination
out of 300 and interview out of 100 in a selection examination

Written INTERVIEW MARKS


Examination
Marks Below 30 30-39 40-49 50-59 60-69 70 & above
260 & above 8 18 26 18 26 4
210 to 259 5 4 30 22 10 9
160 to 209 16 10 45 56 18 9
110 to 159 28 42 100 190 15 5
60 to 109 35 115 20 8 7 5
Below 60 32 32 20 4 6 2

Q.1. How many candidates did obtain more than 69 percent marks and above in both written examination and
interview ?
(1) 22 (2) 49 (3) 13 (4) 9 (5) Other than those given as options
Q.2. If approximately 325 candidates were to be qualified in the written examination, what should be the
percentage of the qualifying marks ?
(1) above 20 (2) above 70 (3) above 36
(4) above 63 (5) Other than those given as options
Q.3. About 42 percent of the candidates fall in which of the following ranges of the interview marks ?
(1) 110-159 (2) 110 & below (3) 50 to 70
(4) 50 & above (5) Other than those given as options
Some of the questions may require arithmetical reasoning. For example :
Q.4. At 10 paise each, how many paise will 6 lemons cost ?
(1) 6 (2) 10 (3) 60 (4) 610 (5) Other than those given as options
Q.5. Which of the following can be exact multiple of 4 ?
(1) 27114 (2) 58204 (3) 48402 (4) 32286 (5) Other than those given as options
Q.6. If the profit made by selling a pen for Rs.10 is as much as its cost, what is the cost price of the pen ?
(1) Rs.3/- (2) Rs.5/- (3) Rs.10/- (4) Rs.20/- (5) Other than those given as options
Also, there may be some questions based on graphs and tables.
Q.7-9. Directions : Given below is a table showing percentages out of a total of 700 employees ranking six
attributes that help promotion. Rank I is the highest. Study the table carefully and answer the questions
that follow :

% of Employees Giving Different Ranks


Attribute I II III IV V VI
Seniority 32 17 22 19 5 5
Perseverance 14 19 17 9 27 14
Efficiency 15 19 21 14 14 17
Intelligence 10 14 10 14 17 35
Honesty 24 17 7 9 27 16
Sociability 5 14 23 35 10 13

Q.7. Which attribute for promotion has received the highest rank ?
(1) Perseverance (2) Seniority (3) Honesty (4) Sociability (5) Efficiency

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Q.8. How many employees gave rank III to intelligence ?
(1) 119 (2) 98 (3) 77 (4) 70 (5) 10

Q.9. Which attribute is considered the least important for promotion ?


(1) Honesty (2) Intelligence (3) Perseverance (4) Efficiency (5) Sociability

GENERAL AWARENESS (With special reference to the Banking Industry)


Q.1. National Securities Depositary Limited (NSDL), an electronic securities depository, was promoted in 1996 by
IDBI, UTI, leading public and private sector banks and ________
(1) Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) Limited
(2) National Stock Exchange of India (NSE) Limited
(3) Multi Commodity Exchange of India (MCX) Limited
(4) Indian National Multi-Commodity Exchange (NMCE) Limited
(5) National Commodity & Derivative Exchange (NCDEX) Limited
Q.2. According to Socio Economic and Caste Census (SECC) exercise that started in 2011 the total number of
households in India are around _______
(1) 17.39 crore (2) 19.39 crore (3) 21.39 crore (4) 24.39 crore (5) 27.39 crore
Q.3. To combat the menace of money laundering, which of the following financial institutions has introduced the
‘Known Your Customer’ Scheme ?
(1) IDBI (2) RBI (3) NABARD (4) SIDBI (5) None of these
Q.4. Which taxes at the Central level are being subsumed into GST ?
(1) Central Excise Duty (2) Additional Excise Duty (3) Service Tax
(4) Special Additional Duty of Customs (5) All the given options
Q.5. RBI has issued guidelines based on the Basel III reforms on capital regulation to the extent applicable to banks
operating in India. The Basel III capital regulations continue to be based on three mutually reinforcing Pillars.
In this connection, which among the following is not a part of such Pillars ?
(1) Minimum Capital requirement
(2) Profit Maximization
(3) Supervisory review of Capital Adequacy
(4) Market Discipline of the Basel II capital adequacy framework
(5) All the given options are pillars
COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE
This test is designed to measure your computer knowledge.
Q.1. _______ is an output device of a computer.
(1) Printer (2) CPU (3) Monitor (4) Keyboard (5) CD
Q.2. What is the full form of RAM ?
(1) Random Adaptive Mouse (2) Random Adaptive Memory (3) Random Access Memory
(4) Random Access Mouse (5) Other than those given as options
Q.3. Pick the odd man out.
(1) Monitor (2) Keyboard (3) Floppy drive (4) Windows (5) Hard-disk drive
Q.4. Which of the following is a popular Computer Language ?
(1) A + (2) BA + (3) C ++ (4) CA + (5) Other than those given as options
Q.5. Which of the following is the shortcut to print a word document ?
(1) Press ‘Ctrl + P’ Keys together (2) Press ‘Ctrl + F’ Keys together
(3) Press ‘Shift + P’ Keys together (4) Press ‘Shift + Print’ Keys together
(5) Press ‘Tab + Print’ Keys together

Details of the online Examination :

(1) The examination would be conducted on-line i.e. on a computer.


(2) All tests will be in English.

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(3) All the questions will have multiple choices. Out of the five answers to a question only one will be the correct
answer. The candidate has to select the correct answer and ‘mouse click’ that alternative which he/ she
feels is correct. The alternative/ option that is clicked on will be treated as the answer to that question.
Answer to any question will be considered for final evaluation, only when candidates have submitted the
answers by clicking on “Save & Next” or “Mark for Review & Next”.
(4) The clock has been set at the server and the countdown timer at the top right corner of your screen will display the
time remaining for you to complete the exam. When the clock runs out the exam ends by default - you are not
required to end or submit your exam.
(5) The Question Palette displayed on the right side of screen will show the status of each question using one of the
following symbols:

The Marked for Review status for a question simply indicates that you would like to look at that question again. If a
question is answered and Marked for Review, your answer for that question will be considered in the evaluation.
(6) To select a question to answer, you can do one of the following :
(a) Click on the question number on the question palette at the right of your screen to go to that numbered
question directly. Note that using this option does NOT save your answer to the current question.
(b) Click on ‘Save & Next’ to save answer to current question and to go to the next question in sequence.
(c) Click on ‘Mark for Review and Next’ to save answer to current question, mark it for review, and to go to the
next question in sequence.
(7) To select your answer, click on one of the option buttons.
(8) To change your answer, click another desired option button.
(9) To save your answer, you MUST click on Save & Next.
(10) To deselect a chosen answer, click on the chosen option again or click on the Clear Response button.
(11) To mark a question for review click on Mark for Review & Next. If an answer is selected for a question that is
Marked for Review, the answer will be considered in the final evaluation.
(12) To change an answer to a question, first select the question and then click on the new answer option followed by
a click on the Save & Next button.
(13) Questions that are saved or marked for review after answering will ONLY be considered for evaluation.
(14) Test name(s) will be displayed on the top bar of the screen. Questions in a test can be viewed by clicking on the
test name. The test you will view will be highlighted.
(15) After clicking the Save & Next button on the last question for a test, you will automatically be taken to the first
question of the same test.
(16) You can move the mouse cursor over the test names to view the status of the questions for that test.
(17) You can shuffle between test and questions during the examination as per the time allotted to the tests only.
(18) The candidates are requested to follow the instructions of the “Test Administrator” carefully. If any candidate does
not follow the instructions / rules, it would be treated as a case of misconduct/ adoption of unfair means and such
a candidate would be liable for debarment from appearing for examinations for a period as decided by Dhanlaxmi
Bank
(19) The candidates may ask the Test Administrator about their doubts or questions only before the commencement of
the test. No query shall be entertained after the commencement of the examination.

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(20) After the expiry of the allotted time, the candidates will not be able to attempt any question or check their answers.
The answers of the candidate would be saved automatically by the computer system even if he/ she has not clicked
the “Submit” button.
(21) Please note :
(a) Candidates will not be allowed to “finally submit” unless they have exhausted the actual test time.
(b) Under no circumstances should a candidate click on any of the ‘keyboard keys’ once the exam starts
as this will lock the exam.

B] General Instructions :

(1) Please note Date, Reporting time and Venue address of the examination given in the call letter.
(2) You may visit the venue one day before the Online Examination to confirm the location so that you are able to report
on time (as printed on the call letter) on the day of the examination. Late comers will not be allowed.
(3) The call letter should be brought with you to the examination venue along with your recent passport size photograph
duly pasted on it. (Preferably paste the same photograph as was as uploaded).
(4) You must scrupulously follow the instructions of the Test Administrator and Dhanlaxmi Bank Representative at the
examination venue. If you violate the instructions you will be disqualified and will be asked to leave the examination
venue.
(5) No use of calculators (separate or with watch), books, note books or written notes or any other electronic device
will be allowed during the examination.
(6) Please bring the call letter with your recent photograph affixed thereon, photocopy of the ID proof stapled with call
letter and same currently valid photo identity proof in original. - THIS IS ESSENTIAL. Please submit the call-letter
along with photocopy of photo identity proof duly stapled together by handing it over to the Invigilator.
Currently valid photo identity proof may be PAN Card/Passport/ Permanent Driving License/Voter’s CardAadhar
Card/E-aadhar card with photograph. Please Note - Ration Card and Learner’s Driving License will NOT be
accepted as valid ID proof for this examination. Please note that your name as appearing on the call letter
(provided by you during the process of registration) should exactly match the name as appearing on the photo
identity proof. Female candidates who have changed first/middle/last name post marriage must take special note
of this. If there is any mismatch between the name indicated in the Call Letter and Photo Identity Proof you will not
be allowed to appear for the exam. In case of candidates who have changed their name will be allowed to appear
for exam, only if they produce Gazette notification/their marriage certificate / affidavit.
(7) Your responses (answers) will be analysed with other candidates to detect patterns of similarity of right and wrong
answers. If in the analytical procedure adopted in this regard, it is inferred/concluded that the responses have been
shared and scores obtained are not genuine/valid, your candidature may be cancelled. Any candidate who is found
copying or receiving or giving assistance or engaging in any behaviour unbecoming of a candidate will not be
considered for assessment. The Dhanlaxmi Bank may take further action against such candidates as deemed fit
by it.
(8) You must bring a ball-point pen with you. You can bring ink stamp pad (blue/black) with you. A sheet of paper will
be provided which can be used for rough work or taking down the question number you would like to review at the
end of the test before submitting your answers. After the test is over you MUST handover this sheet of paper along
with the Call Letter to the invigilator before leaving the venue.
(9) The possibility for occurrences of some problem in the administration of the examination cannot be ruled out
completely which may impact test delivery and/or result from being generated. In that event, every effort will be
made to rectify such problems, which may include the conduct of another examination if considered necessary. The
decision of the test conducting body in this regard shall be final. Candidates not willing to accept such change shall
lose his/her candidature for this exam.
(10) If the examination is held in more than one session, the scores across various sessions will be equated to adjust
for slight differences in difficulty level of different test batteries used across sessions. More than one session is
required if the nodes capacity is less or some technical disruption takes place at any centre or for any candidate.
(11) Anyone found to be disclosing, publishing, reproducing, transmitting, storing or facilitating transmission and storage
of test contents in any form or any information therein in whole or part thereof or by any means verbal or written,
electronic or mechanical or taking away the papers supplied in the examination hall or found to be in unauthorised
possession of test content is likely to be prosecuted.

7
(12) Instances for providing incorrect information and/or process violation by a candidate detected at any stage of the
selection, process will lead to disqualification of the candidate from the selection process and he/she will not be
allowed to appear in any recruitment process of the Dhanlaxmi Bank in the future. If such instances go undetected
during the current selection process but are detected subsequently, such disqualification will take place with
retrospective effect.
(13) Please read instructions related to the Social Distancing given below.

INSTRUCTIONS WITH REGARD TO SOCIAL DISTANCING

1 Candidate is required to report at the exam venue strictly as per the time slot mentioned in the Call Letter. Latecomers
will not be allowed to take the test.
2 Mapping of ‘Candidate Roll Number and the Lab Number’ will NOT be displayed outside the exam venue, but the
same will be intimated to the candidates individually at the time of entry of the candidate to the exam venue.
3 Items permitted into the venue for Candidates
Candidates will be permitted to carry only certain items with them into the venue.
a. Mask
b. Personal hand sanitizer (50 ml)
c. A simple pen and ink stamp pad (blue/black)
d. Exam related documents (Call Letter and Photocopy of the ID card stapled with it, ID Card in Original)
e. In the case of Scribe Candidates - Scribe form duly filled and signed with Photograph affixed.
No other Items are permitted inside the venue.
4 Candidate should not share any of their personal belonging/material with anyone.
5 Candidate should maintain safe social distance with one another.
6 Candidate should stand in the row as per the instructions provided at venue.
7 If a candidate is availing services of a scribe, then scribe also should bring their own Mask.
8 On completion of examination, the candidates should move out in an orderly manner without crowding as instructed
by the venue staff.

WISH YOU GOOD LUCK!

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