Total Geography-10

Teachers’ Handbook

Chapter 1
EXERCISES
I. Short Answer Questions
1. A map is defined as a representation of the earth’s surface or a part of it, showing natural or man-made
features drawn to scale on a flat  surface.
2. The essential features of a map are:
(i) Title; (ii) Scale; (iii) Key; (iv) Direction; (v) Grid System.
3. ‘Key’ of a map explains the meaning of the symbols used on the  map.
4. On the basis of scale the maps have been classified into two categories – Large scale maps and Small
scale maps. Large scale maps are further classified into two categories–Topographical maps and
Cadastral maps. Small scale maps are also classified into two categories–Wall maps and Atlas maps.
On the basis of their purpose and content maps are classified into three categories Physical maps,
Political maps and Thematic maps.
5. Maps that show natural features such as hills, rivers, etc. and man- made features such as buildings,
canals, etc. are called topographical maps.
6. National Grid Reference is the map reference system used on all Ordnance Survey maps to find the
position of different features on the maps.
II. Structured Questions
1. (a) Malgaon (6131), Pamera (6233); (b) Pamera (6233) Posintra (6032);
(c) 6231; (d) Hathal (6030); (e) 6232 (f) 6131
2. (a) 627336; (b) 610311; (c) 616313; (d) 601321 (e) 608325 (f) 623341

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Chapter 2
EXERCISES
I. Give the terms used in contours for each of the following:

1. Spot height 2. Contour Interval 3. Triangulated Height
4. Relative Height 5. Benchmark
II. Describe the following terms:
1. Contour Interval is the difference of height between two consecutive contours.
2. Vertical Interval is the vertical distance between any two contour lines.
3. Horizontal Equivalent is the actual distance between two points on two contour lines.
4. Gradient determines the steepness of a slope. It is ratio between the vertical height and the horizontal
distance measured along the ground,  i.e.,
Vertical Interval
Gradient =
Horizontal Equivalent
III. Explain how would you distinguish between the following on the basis of contour:
1. Gentle Slope Steep Slope
1. In such a slope, the change of elevation is 1. When the land suddenly slopes up or down,
gradual usually 1:25. it is known as a steep slope.
2. The contours are placed wide apart. 2. The contours are drawn close to one another.
4 TEACHERS’ HANDBOOK (TOTAL GEOGRAPHY-X)

2. Scarp Dip
1. Steep side of an escarpment is called Scarp. 1. Gradual/Gentle side of an escarpment is
called Dip.
2. Gradient of 1:3. 2. Gradient of 1:12.
3. Close contour lines. 3. Contour lines are farther apart.

3. Ridge Water Divide

1. It is a long and narrow highland sloping 1. It is a ridge, which separates the tributaries
steeply downwards on its sides. It has a draining towards one side of it from those
number of summits. draining towards the other.
2. Contours showing a ridge are elongated and 2. The side on which the ridge is steeper, the
are closely spaced. contours are drawn closely together, whereas
the side on which the ridge is gentle, the
contours are drawn far apart.

4. Peak Depression
1. The highest point of a mountain is known 1. A sudden decrease in height at the top of a
as a mountain peak. conical hill forms a depression.

IV. Short Answer Questions

1. Relief refers to actual configuration of land which includes its altitude and slope. The relief features
found on the earth’s surface include mountains, valleys, hills, plains and plateaus.
2. (i) Hachures; (ii) Hill-shading; (iii) Form-lines. For details refer to the textbook.
3. A contour is an imaginary line joining places which have the same height above mean sea level.
4. (i) Elevation of land; (ii) Steepness of its slope; (iii) Shape of land at various heights.
5. Contours give detail information of the relief features. They show elevation of land, steepness of its
slope and shape of land at various heights whereas all these features are not shown by hachures and
hill-shading. The latter give no indication of the relative or actual height.
6. Contour lines show all the places that are at the same height above sea level. The distance between
contour lines is indicative of the slope of the land. When contour lines are close together they depict
steep slopes and when they are far apart they show gentle slopes or level ground.
7. V.I. refers to Vertical Interval. It is the distance between any two contour lines. H.E. refers to Horizontal
Equivalent. It is the actual distance between two points on two contour lines.
8. Bench Mark Spot Height
(i) Bench marks are marks etched on a stone (i) Spot height is the height of a point on the
or shown on a building to indicate accurate ground above mean sea level.
height determined by surveys.
(ii) It is indicated by BM followed by a number. (ii) It is indicated on a map by a dot followed
(iii) It includes the height of the object on which by a number.
a Bench mark is etched. (iii) Spot height indicates the height of a specific
point only. (Any two)
9. Two contours never intersect each other because a point on the surface of the earth cannot have
different elevations.
10. Water flows from a high level of land to a lower level following the slope of land. The direction of the
slope as represented by contours gives the direction of flow of rivers and streams.
V. Symbols and Conventional Signs
Refer to table on Conventional Signs and Symbols on page 18 in the textbook.

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CHAPTER 3 5

Chapter 3
EXERCISES
I. Short Answer Questions
1. Refer to ‘Direction’ in the textbook.
2. The Representative Fraction (RF) represents the scale as a ratio or fraction, wherein the numerator
(usually 1) is map distance and the denominator is ground distance.

3. The main advantage of R.F. is that it is a fraction that is independent of any particular unit of
measurement, and thus has universal application.
4. Refer to Fig. 3.8 and its explanation in the textbook.
5. Grid North differs from the True North due to spherical shape of the earth. To represent Grid North
semi-circular lines of longitude are assumed to be straight and hence a variation comes between True
North and Grid North.
II. Answer the following questions:
1. (i) The scale is the ratio between the distance of any two points on the map and the actual distance of
the same points on the ground. It can be expressed as:

The main methods of representing the scale on a map:

(i) By a statement
(ii) By a linear or graphic scale
(iii) By representative fraction (RF)
(ii) (a) 1 : 20,000. (b) 1 : 1,26,720. (c) 1 : 9,00,000.
(d) 1:10,000 (e) 1: 40,000
2. (i) The statement is 1 inch to 1 mile.
(ii) The Statement is 1 cm to 10 km.
(iii) The Statement is 1 cm to 1 metre.
(iv) The statement is 10 cm to 1 metre.
(v) The statement is 1 cm to 2 km.
3.
4. RF is 1:571429.
5. The scale is 5 cm to 70 km or 1 cm = 14 km or RF is   1 : 14
6. Scale is 1 cm to 0.1 km.
(a) B would reach first provided all (A, B and C) leave home at the same time and travel at the same
speed.
(b) The distance of D’s house from the school is the least.
(c) D will have to walk a distance of 1.35 km to reach the village  well.
(d) Distance of B’s house from the bus depot on the ground is 1.15 km
(e) C will have to walk a distance of 750 m to reach the railway  station.
(f) C’s house is in North-West direction from the school.

III. Study the given map extract and answer the following questions:

(a) 3 squares of 4 sq cm or 1 sq km. ∴ area enclosed is 3 sq km.
(b) (i) south-west (ii) north-east
(c) 4.8 cm or 2.4 km.

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6 TEACHERS’ HANDBOOK (TOTAL GEOGRAPHY-X)

Chapter 4
EXERCISES
I. Short Answer Questions
1. (a) Tanks and canals indicate that the land is used for   agriculture.
(b) Open scrub indicates that the land is used for sheep and  goat  rearing
(c) Stony waste indicates uncultivable land.

(d) Causeway indicates an area of scanty or seasonal rainfall. A stream with a causeway is motorable
during the dry season.
2. The thickly settled areas are located in a village over fertile plains and near rivers.
3. A dendritic drainage pattern indicate soft surface rock material suitable for agriculture.
4. Topo-sheets do not provide any direct information about the climate of a place. But climate can be
inferred from the latitudinal extent of the area covered by the topo-sheet and the type of vegetation
found there. A place at 10°N latitude would be warmer than the place at 35°N latitude. Similarly, the
presence of scanty growth of cactus, thorny bushes and grass suggest arid and semi-arid climate.
5. Refer to ‘Factors Affecting Settlements’ in the textbook.
II. Match the following:

(a) — (6); (b) — (1); (c) — (4); (d) — (3); (e) — (8); (f) — (5); (g) — (2); (h) — (7).

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Chapter 5
For all the answers refer to the textbook.

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Chapter 6
EXERCISES
I. Answer the following questions:
Q.1 (a) Refer to Page 72 in the textbook.
(b) Himalayas are young fold mountains. Purvanchal Hills.
(c) (i) 1. The rivers of South India are  seasonal and mainly rainfed.They remain dry during the summer
and therefore, do not provide  water all year round; 2. Difficult to dig canals from them due to
the rocky surface.
(ii) The peninsular plateau is composed of old crystalline igneous and metamorphic rocks showing
it was a part of Gondwana land that collided with the Eurasian Plate. This collision led to the
rise of the sea bed and to the folding of three successive ranges of the Himalayas. The central
part remained as a table land called the Peninsula.
(iii) Narmada  and  Tapi flow through hard rocks so they are not able to form deltas.
(d) The Northern plains were formed by the gradual filling of an initial marine depression by the
sediments brought down by the Indus, the Ganga, the Brahmaputra and their tributaries.
CHAPTER 6 7

Q.2 (a) Plains of North India Coastal Plains

1. They are drained by perennial rivers. 1. They are drained by seasonal rivers.
2. They are formed by deposition of alluvial 2. They are formed by igneous rocks.
soil.
3. They are very fertile. 3. They are not as fertile as Northern plains.
4. They are densely populated. 4. They are not densely populated.

(b) Narmada and Tapi.

Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, Cauveri (Any  two)
(c) (i) 1. The width of west coast is less than east coast; 2. The area is rocky. 3. The west flowing
rivers do not form deltas; 4. The west coast is  uneven.
(ii) 1. The hills are continuous and can be crossed only through   gaps such as the Thalghat or Palghat
gap; 2. The hills are higher; 3. The hills rise steeply from the west coast;
(iii) 1. It is covered by a sheet of lava — volcanic eruptions have  brought forth the minerals
deposited in the great depth of the earth; 2. It is the oldest part of its kind thus it also has
minerals  deposited in the sedimentary rocks.
(d) (i) The Peninsular Plateau is divided into:
1. The Central Plateaus; 2. The Eastern Plateaus; 3. The Kathiawar and Kutch; 4. The Deccan
Plateau
(ii) 1. The north-west limit of the Peninsular Plateau is marked by the Aravalli range. 2. Its northern
extreme has the raised Bundelkhand  Plateau. 3. At its western and eastern ends are the Western
Ghats and the Eastern Ghats respectively.
Q.3 (a) Refer to Table on page 70 in the textbook.
(b) Gangotri; Haridwar in Uttarakhand.
(c) (i) 1. Fertile soil due to flood plains — suitable for agriculture, —occupation of 65 per cent of
population of India; 2. Perennial rivers provide water for the basic needs of the   humans. 3. The
climate too is favourable.
(ii) The Deccan plateau is an example of a dissected plateau i.e.,  a  highly eroded plateau because
it is eroded by: 1. many rivers flowing to east and west direction; 2. There are many streams
flowing through the  area.
(iii) 1. Presence of natural waterfalls. 2. They flow over igneous rocks — less silt.
(d) (i) Gomati, Ghagra, Gandak, Kosi and Ramaganga. (Any two)
(ii) It is continuously fed with water in summers by melting of snow and in monsoons by the
South-West monsoon rains.
Q.4 (a) Refer to Table on page 68 in the textbook.
(b) Luni. Majuli.
(c) (i) 1. Larger rivers. 2. Slope of the land towards Bay of Bengal. 3. Large catchment areas and
formation of large deltas.
(ii) 1. Semi-arid plain with no significant or large river. 2. Rivers dry up and disappear into the
land—area of inland drainage.
(iii) The rivers of the area do not have sufficient water to reach the sea and dry up or disappear
into the sand.
(d) (i) Cultivation in these plains is carried out in small patches where water is provided by small
streams originating from the Aravalli range during the rainy season.
(ii) These fertile tracts are known as Rohi.

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8 TEACHERS’ HANDBOOK (TOTAL GEOGRAPHY-X)

Chapter 7
EXERCISES
I. Choose the correct option:
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (b)
11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (a)
21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (b)
II. Answer the following questions:
Q.1 (a) Tropical Monsoon Type of Climate. Two factors responsible:
l India lies in the tropical latitudes and experiences fairly high temperature throughout the year;
l It experiences seasonal rain accompanied by seasonal reversal in the direction of winds.
(b)
There is rainfall over three months and the rest of the year is dry. Seventy per cent of annual
l
rainfall occurs in the rainy season.
l The monsoon rainfall is mainly of relief type. The windward slopes of the mountains get more
rain than the leeward  side.
(c) (i) Refer to the Temperature under the ‘Hot Dry Summer’ in the textbook.
(ii) Refer to ‘Tropical Cyclones’ in the textbook.
(iii) The Indo-Gangetic Plain gets some rainfall in the months of December and January due to the
western disturbances originating in West Asia and the regions near the Mediterranean Sea.
(d) (i) Monsoon refers to winds in South Asia that blow from the South-west in summer and from
north-east in winter.
(ii) Mawsynram in Meghalaya.
Q.2 (a) In Punjab, the primary source of rain during the winter season are ‘Western Disturbances’ and
in TamilNadu, it is ‘Retreating Monsoon’.
(b) A region on the leeward side of a mountain range that experiences significantly less rainfall
compared to the windward side. Deccan Plateau.
(c) (i) 114.3 cm.
(ii) Continental
l A considerable temperature difference between the warmest months and the cooler months.
l Concentration of rainfall in the later months, with drier conditions in the earlier months.
l The total annual rainfall is relatively low.
(iii) The season with the heaviest rainfall is Northeast Monsoon season. A probable station satisfying
this criteria could be Chennai. It receives a significant portion of its rainfall during the Northeast
Monsoon season (October-December)
(d) (i) l Aravalli Range is parallel to the south-west Monsoon winds. l It is lower in height. Therefore
it is unable to stop the moisture-laden winds making Rajasthan dry desert.
(ii) Mangalore is located on the coast and enjoys maritime climate and thus has a much warmer,
moderate winter.
(iii) Because temperature decreases as we move to higher altitudes. There is a decrease of 1°C for
every 166m rise in height.
Q.3 (a) North India South India
l Lies in the Temperate zone. l Lies in the Tropical zone.
l Mid-day sun not vertically overhead all year l Mid-day sun almost vertically overhead all
round. year round.
l Warm Temperate or Subtropical climate with l Tropical climate warmer than the North
hot summers and cold winters. and no clearcut winter season.
(b) l Major source of moisture to the summer monsoons;
l Proximity to the sea ensures moderate climate despite being in the Torrid Zone.
CHAPTER 7 9

(c) (i) The presence of the Himalayas in the north coupled with the surrounding seas, varied relief
and the monsoon mechanism lead to variations in climatic conditions in India.
(ii) Under the influence of the moisture laden South West Monsoon Winds.
(iii) In October the low pressure over the Ganga Plains becomes weaker due to the apparent
southward movement of the sun and the low pressure shifts towards the Bay of Bengal.
(d) Refer to ‘Jet Streams’ in the textbook.
Q.4 (a) Refer to ‘El-Nino Effect’ in the textbook.
(b) Refer to ‘North-East Monsoon’ on page 82 in the textbook.
(c) Refer to ‘Rainfall’ in the textbook.
(d) (i) Mumbai is along the western coast in the direct path of the Arabian Sea Branch of the Monsoon
Winds. It is on the windward side of the Western Ghats whereas Pune is on the leeward side
of the Western Ghats.
(ii) Tropical Cyclones blow from the seas so they are moisture laden and bring heavy rainfall.
Temperate Cyclones originate in West Asia (land) hence they bring light rainfall.
(iii) Kerala lies in the Tropical zone while Bihar lies in the Temperate zone.
Q.5 (a) Burst of Monsoon refers to the sudden violent onset of rainfall by the South-West Monsoon in the
first week of June, whereas the failure of the South-West Monsoon to bring rainfall for two or
more weeks, causing a dry period in the rainy season is called the Break of Monsoon.
(b) (i) l ‘Western disturbances’ are cyclones which originate in the Mediterranean Sea region. They
enter India from the north-west to bring cyclonic rain in winter; l The winter rain is specially
beneficial for the wheat crop.
(ii) Mango showers or Cherry blossoms are pre-monsoon showers in Karnataka, Kerala and Goa
that are crucial to mango cultivators as they help in early ripening of mangoes. They are also
important for tea and coffee  plants.
(c) (i) l Due to the different physiographic divisions; l The amount of rainfall is determined by the
direction of winds bearing moisture and cyclonic depression. The monsoon winds change their
direction  seasonally.
(ii) l North India experiences Continentals Type of climate as it is far away from the sea; l The snowfall
in the nearby Himalayan ranges create a cold wave situation; l In the month of February, the
cold winds from the Caspian Sea and Turkmenistan bring cold waves over the north-western
parts of India.
(iii) North-East monsoon winds blow from the land to sea, thus they are dry. However, when these
winds blow over the Bay of Bengal they pick up moisture and bring some rainfall to Coromandel
Coast in India.
(d) (i) Deccan Plateau and Rajasthan.
(ii) Kalbaisakhi and Bardoli Chheerha.
Q.6 (a) Retreating Monsoon refers to the withdrawal of the South-West Monsoon from northern India in
early October due to  the  weakening of the monsoon trough of low pressure. Hence, the months of
October and November are known as the season of Retreating Monsoon. This leads to clear skies
and drop in night temperature.
(b) October and November.
(c) (i) Because the Northern Plains are protected by the Himalayas from the cold winds of Central
Asia and Siberia.
(ii) l The Aravalli range is parallel to the Arabian Sea branch of the south-west monsoon and the
moisture laden winds are not obstructed and pass over the area without rainfall. l The Bay of
Bengal branch has to cross a large distance over land to reach up to Rajasthan. Also, Rajasthan
lies on the rain shadow side of the Aravalli range.
(iii) Because of its coastal location and exposure to monsoon winds from the Bay of Bengal.
(d) (i) North-East Trade Winds dominate during the cold weather season.
(ii) These winds blow from land to sea and hence, for most parts of the country it is dry season.
However, when these winds pass over Bay of Bengal they pick up some moisture and cause
some amount of rainfall on the Coromandal Coast.
10 TEACHERS’ HANDBOOK (TOTAL GEOGRAPHY-X)

Q.7 (a) Refer to Table on Page No. 86 in the textbook.

(b) Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh.
(c) (i) Western part of Rajasthan is a desert region because the Aravalli hills lie parallel to the
Arabian Sea branch of the southwest monsoons, which prevents orographic rainfall in the
region. Additionally, the temperature remains very high in summer, contributing to the desert
conditions.
(ii) Kochi, being a coastal city, experiences the moderating influence of land and sea breezes,
resulting in a smaller temperature range throughout the year. Agra, located inland, has a
continental climate with more extreme temperature variations between summer and winter.
(iii) The low pressure depressions from Central Asia travel to India in winters causing rain in Punjab
and Northern Plains.
(d) (i) The Coromandel coast receives rainfall from the Retreating Monsoon in winters as the winds
blow from the NE and pick up moisture from the Bay of Bengal.
(ii) Tamil Nadu.
Q.8 (a) Refer to Table on Page No. 87 in the textbook.
(b) The match had to be cancelled because of the cyclonic storm and rain. This is a season of retreating
monsoon. During this season the low pressure conditions of the land are transferred to the centre
of the Bay of Bengal that give rise to cyclonic depressions. These cyclonic storms move from north-
east to the south-west causing widespread damage and heavy rainfall.
(c) (i) (i) Kanyakumari lies at the southern most tip of India — i.e., at 8° N latitude, near the Equator
and has uniformly high temperatures throughout the year; (ii) It has a coastal location, so the
temperature conditions are further moderated by the sea.
(ii) Because it lies in the ‘rain shadow’ of the Western Ghats, blocking moisture-laden winds from
reaching the eastern coast.
(iii) Mangalore lies on the windward side of the Western Ghats and experiences more rainfall than
Mysore which lies on the leeward side of the Western Ghats.
(d) (i) East coast of India.
(ii) Windward side of the Western Ghats and North-East Hills (Garo, Khasi and Jaintia Hills) of
Meghalaya.
Q.9 (a) Refer to Q.No. 7(c) (iii).
(b) The local winds that blow in West Bengal in summer are called Kalbaisakhis. These winds bring
rainfall that is beneficial for growing jute and rice in West Bengal and tea in Assam.
(c) (i) Since Thiruvananthapuram lies on the windward side of the Western Ghats, it receives heavy
rainfall from the South-West Monsoon winds while Chennai gets light rainfall from both South-
West Monsoon winds and North-West Monsoon winds.
(ii) Shillong lies on the leeward side of the Khasi hills and being in the rain shadow area, gets less
than 200 cm of rainfall than Cherrapunji which lies on the windward side of the Khasi hills
and receives more than 1250 cm of rainfall.
(iii) Because Jaipur is less influenced by the moderating effects of the ocean.
(d) (i) In the hot weather season, the Himalayas do not allow equatorial maritime air masses to cross
the Himalayas and force them to curve around the north-west. Thus creating conditions for
the south-west monsoon.
(ii) Himalayas force moisture laden South West Monsoon Winds to cause heavy rainfall on the
Indo-Gangetic plains of India during the south-west monsoon season.
Q.10 (a) Refer to ‘El Nino’ in the textbook. Expected date for onset of Monsoon is first week of June.
(b) By the end of June - the whole country usually gets rain. Relative humidity is high and the rains
continue till the beginning of September. Below average rainfall in June and dry August leads to
greater requirement of irrigation for water dependent crops like rice, jute and sugarcane. Thereby
reducing their yields.
(c) (i) Assam gets rains from the Bay of Bengal Branch which sheds most of its moisture in the
southern hills.
CHAPTER 8 11

(ii) Low temperatures and low pressure from Central Asia that travels into India cause the cold-
wave in Northern India.
(iii) Refer to ‘October Heat’ in the textbook
(d) (i) City A: 115.6 cm
City B: 103.6 cm
(ii) City A is a land-locked city in Central India-temperature variation from 15.4 to 29.8. It lies on
the windward side of the western ghats.
City B is a coastal city along the western coast — equable temperature (24°–32°) and receives
rains from South-West Monsoons.
Q.11 (a) Climate, Clothing, Lifestyle, Language and Food. Self explanatory.
(b) Due to the pressure gradient and the Coriolis effect.
(c) The low-pressure area would be less intense, potentially leading to a weaker monsoon and reduced
rainfall in the region.
(d) Because the monsoon winds retreat from the subcontinent by this time. Tamil Nadu- North East
Monsoon- originate from the Bay of Bengal. Punjab- western disturbances.
Q.12 (a) Sufficient water for crops-higher agricultural output-higher income for farmers- increased rural
consumption-overall economic growth-reduced expenditure on drought relief measures.
(b) Recharged groundwater levels and reservoirs-water security for the future.
(c) Water scarcity for irrigation-reduced agricultural output-drinking water shortage.
Example: Punjab could lead to reduced crop yields, impacting farmer’s income and state’s economy.
(d) Heavy rainfall. To bring relief immediate aid such as food, shelter and medical assistance should
be provided, followed by long-term rehabilitation efforts.
Q.13 (a) (i) Western disturbances
(ii) Orographic lift
(b) (i) Loo
(ii) The loo is a hot and dry wind that blows during the day in the Indo-Gangetic plain, including
Lucknow. It increases the temperature, leading people to stay indoors to avoid the heat and
potential heatstroke.

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Chapter 8
EXERCISES
I. Choose the correct option:
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (a)
9. (c) 10. (c) 11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (d) 16. (b)
II. Answer the following questions:
Q.1 (a) Soil is the thin layer of loose mixture of small rock particles and rotting organic matter that covers
the surface of the earth. Alluvial, Black, Red and Laterite.
(b) (i) Forces of nature-changing temperature, running water and wind.
(ii) Chemical and organic changes in the soil.
(c) (i) The colour of the soil depends on the depth of deposition, the texture of materials and the
time taken for maturity.
(ii) Bhangar is older alluvium while Khadar comprises new deposits replenished every year during
monsoon floods hence the latter is more fertile.
(iii) High clay content causes the soil particles to shrink during the dry season leading to
development of cracks which help in air circulation.
12 TEACHERS’ HANDBOOK (TOTAL GEOGRAPHY-X)

(d) (i) The forces of nature coupled with chemical and organic changes in the soil over a million years
contribute to the evolution of soil.
(ii) Humus.
Q.2 (a) Alluvial soils are mainly formed from the debris brought down by the Himalayan rivers and from
the silt left out by the ancient retreating sea.
(b) Alluvial soils are (i) easily tillable (soft and porous); and (ii) fertile.
(c) (i) Soil type is dependent on the parent rock material and weathering agents. India has many
different physiographic regions and different types of climate in different regions hence different
soil types for agriculture.
(ii) Refer to ‘Texture’ under ‘Characteristics of Alluvial Soil in the textbook’.
(iii) Riverine soils are soft and porous i.e. easily tillable and are fertile so nearly all crops can be
grown in them.
(d) (i) India is predominantly an agricultural economy and agriculture is dependent on soil’s health.
(ii) Refer to ‘Black Soil’ in the textbook.
Q.3 (a) Regur or Black soil.
l It is fertile in most of the places.
l It is highly water retentive and stores moisture in the subsoil during all seasons.
(b) Black soil. Cotton.
(c) (i) l The coastal alluvium is mixed with sand so it cannot retain water whereas deltaic alluvium
retains water.
l The deltaic alluvium is enriched with fresh deposits of river alluvium whereas the coastal
alluvium is not refreshed.
(ii) Black soil is formed by the denudation of volcanic rocks, which are found in the Deccan Trap
region.
(iii) Cotton grows well in the well-drained clayey soils containing lime and phosphates. These
characteristics are present in the Black  Soils hence they are also called cotton soils.
(d) Pawan’s soil is Khadar.
Akash’s soil is Bhangar.
For second part of question refer to the Table on page no. 97.
Q.4 (a) (i) Laterite soils are formed by atmospheric weathering of rocks under conditions of high rainfall
and temperature with alternate wet and dry periods.
(ii) Disadvantage — high acidity and low moisture   retention.
(b) Refer to ‘Characteristics of Laterite’ in the textbook.
(c) (i) Laterite soils are red in colour and acidic in nature due to the presence of iron oxides and
become hard when exposed to air. This makes them useful for construction purpose.
(ii) Soils of the Western Ghats are mainly laterite soils which are porous and loose; hence they
are prone to wind erosion.
(iii) Soil at the foothills of the Himalayas forms a thin layer over the rocks making it prone to erosion
by water and wind. The absence of vegetation due to deforestation and agricultural practises
contribute to the soil erosion.
(d) (i) Coffee is grown on laterite soil.
(ii) Refer to Table on Page No-100 in the textbook.
Q.5 (a) Black (Regur) soil is found in Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka,
Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh. (Any two)
(b) Refer to the Table on Page No-100 in the textbook.
(c) (i) Maharashtra has black clayey soil which is considered best for the cultivation of jowar.
(ii) Bajra can be grown on poor light sandy soils which are found in Rajasthan.
(iii) Sugarcane needs very fertile and well drained alluvial soil found in Uttar Pradesh.
(d) (i) Sugarcane and cereals.
(ii) Refer to ‘Black Soil’ in the textbook.
CHAPTER 8 13

Q.6 (a) Tamil Nadu and Karnataka. Rice, Groundnuts.

(b) Soil may be red soil or laterite soil.
l pH is neutral for red soil and highly acidic for laterite soil.

l Shallow and aerated (red soil).

l Red soil is poor in potassium while laterite soil is rich in potassium.

(c) (i) It is alluvial soil in the upper reaches of the Ganga river valley.
(ii) It is alluvial soil in the plains in the lower reaches of the Ganga valley.
(iii) It is red soil which has developed on old crystalline rocks.
(d) (i) Red soil is formed as a result of prolonged weathering by rainfall of ancient crystalline and
metamorphic rocks of Peninsular plateau.
(ii) It is not suitable for agriculture as it is poor in nitrogen, potassium and organic matter and is
not fertile. But responds to fertilisers, thus suitable for dry farming.
Q.7 (a) Soil erosion is the removal of top layer of soil by water,  wind or human activities.
Areas affected by soil erosion by water are: the badlands of the Chambal and Yamuna rivers; the
piedmont zone of the western Himalayas.
Areas affected by soil erosion by wind are: the dry areas of Rajasthan, Gujarat and Haryana.
(b) Refer to ‘Methods of Soil Conservation’ in the textbook.
(c) (i) Shelter belts decrease wind speed within the shelter zone preventing top soil from being carried
by the winds.
(ii)
Rural development would increase awareness among the rural people about the need to
l

conserve soil.
l It would make available new technology that would help them to increase production and

conserve soil as well.

(iii) Water harvesting is the collection and storage of rain water with the aim of conservation and
effective utilisation of water. Rain water run off is a major cause of soil erosion. Water harvesting
utilises this run off thus preventing soil erosion.
(d) (i) Soil conservation means prevention of soil loss from erosion or prevention of reduced fertility
of soil caused by over usage, acidification, salinisation or other types of soil contamination.
(ii) Terrace farming; Planting trees.
Q.8 (a) Deforestation leads to soil erosion because when forests are cut to provide land for constructing
buildings and for cultivation of crops, the soil is exposed to both agents of erosion — water and  wind.
(b) l By terrace farming which prevents the soil from being washed away by running water. l By
ploughing along the contours on a slope.
(c) l Erosion by wind: By planting trees in several rows around their fields to check wind erosion
(shelter belts).
l Erosion by water: By practising terrace farming on the   hilly  slopes.
(d) We need to prevent soil erosion because: l Loss of soil reduces soil fertility and agricultural
productivity. l Soil erosion lowers the underground water table and  decreases soil moisture.
l Soil erosion increases the frequency of droughts and floods.

Q.9 (a) The soil is Black or Regur soil. It is formed by the denudation of volcanic rocks.
(b) Cotton, Jowar, Wheat, Linseed, Gram (any two).
(c) Climate, topography, parent material and biological activity. Self explanatory.

mmm

* Read (b) aforestry.

14 TEACHERS’ HANDBOOK (TOTAL GEOGRAPHY-X)

Chapter 9
EXERCISES
I. Choose the correct option:
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (c)
9. (d) 10. (a) 11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (b)*

II. Answer the following questions:

Q.1 (a) Natural vegetation refers to the plant cover that has not been disturbed over a long time, so as to
allow its individual species to adjust themselves fully to the climate and soil conditions.
(b) Vegetation Forest
1. The assemblage of plant species   living A large tract of land covered by trees and
in association with each other in an shrubs.
environmental set  up.
2. Vegetation encompasses forests, coastal Forests constitute a part of vegetation.
mangroves, roadside weed patches, wheat
fields, cultivated gardens and lawns.
(c) (i) Because thick Evergreen forests thrive in areas of heavy rainfall as is found in Western Ghats
whereas deciduous forests develop in areas of low to moderate rainfall between 100 to 200 cm.
(ii) Refer to ‘Characteristic Features’ under ‘Tropical Evergreen Forests’ in the textbook.
(iii) These forests are not as dense as the Tropical Evergreen Forests, therefore, they are easily
accessible. They have trees of high commercial value.
(d) (i) Western slopes of the Western Ghats, hills of the north-eastern region and the Andaman and
Nicobar Islands.
(ii) l Tropical Evergreen Forests are dense, multi-layered and have many types of trees and shrubs;
l In these forests, trees reach great heights of more than 45 m.
Q.2 (a) Tropical Evergreen Forests Tropical Deciduous Forests
1. They are found where rainfall is more than They are found where rainfall is 100-200  cm.
250 cm.
2. Trees do not have a fixed time to shed their Trees shed their leaves from six to eight weeks
leaves so they appear green all year round. during spring and early summer.
3. They do not have an under- growth because They have a dense undergrowth since the trees
of the dense canopy of trees. are not very tall.
4. These forests are not fully exploited because These forests are fully exploited and are of
of tangled mass of canes, palms, bamboos. immense economic value.
5. Rosewood, ebony, mahogany, toon, etc. are Sal, teak, shisham, mahua, etc. are some trees
some trees found in these forests. found in these forests. (Any Two)
(b) These forests develop at places where temperature ranges between 25ºC and 27ºC; the annual
rainfall is more than 250 cm and average annual humidity is more than  77 per cent.
(c) (i) l Trees do not grow as a single entity and there is a tangled mass of canes, palms, bamboos,
ferns and climbers; l Because of dense canopy, there is little sunlight, which makes these
forests difficult to access.
(ii) The Sunderbans are so called because of the Sundari trees found in these forests.
(iii) The forests are grown around the cities having the Iron and Steel industries because: l these
industries emit particulate matter, sulphur dioxide, nitrogen oxide, hydrocarbons and hydrogen
flouride which pollute the air; l they emit significant dust levels of about 20 kilograms per
metric ton of steel.
(d) (i) Refer to Q.No. 2(a) above.
(ii) Moist Deciduous; Dry Deciduous
CHAPTER 9 15

Q.3 (a) Tropical Desert vegetation is found in south-western Punjab, Haryana, UP, Rajasthan, Madhya
Pradesh and Gujarat.
(b) Littoral Forests develop in areas where temperature ranges between 26ºC and 29ºC and rainfall
is more than 200 cm.
(c) (i) The forest area has greatly depleted in India due to l rapid population growth and overexploitation
of forest resources; l overgrazing by animals; l conversion of forest land into agricultural land
and pasture land; l construction of multi-purpose river valley projects.
(ii) Because this region remains warm and wet throughout the year, with 200 cm of annual rainfall
and average annual temperature between 25°C and 27°C, which are ideal for the growth of
Tropical Evergreen forests.
(iii) Acacia has long roots that can reach deep ground water resources and help the tree to survive
under drought like  conditions.
(d) (i) l Trees have long roots spread in a radial pattern; l The trees are scattered with large patches
of coarse grasses in between; The plants remain leafless for most part of the year.
Babool and Date.
(ii) Tropical Deserts have stunted trees due to scarcity of rainfall. There is not enough water for
the growth of trees.
Q.4 (a) Refer to ‘Forest Conservation’ in the textbook.
(b) Refer to ‘Van Mahotsav’ in the textbook.
(c) Refer to ‘Characteristic Features’ under Littoral or Tidal Forests in the textbook.
(d) Refer to ‘Environmental Correlation’ in the textbook.
Q.5 (a) Tidal forests are found in wet marshy areas, in river deltas, in saline or other swampy areas and
along the sea coasts. These forests have mainly evergreen species of varying density and height.
The tree trunks are supported by a number of stilt like roots with tangle of climbers.
Trees include — Sundari and  Keora.
(b) Tropical Evergreen Rain forests. They are so named because:
l trees in these forests do not have a fixed time to shed their leaves and therefore, appear green
all the year round; l these forests are chiefly distributed in the areas of heavy   rainfall.
(c) (i) l Forests provide a number of a natural resources like timber fuel, fruits and vegetables, medicinal
plants; l forests provide habitation to a large variety of animals and birds; l forests influence
human environment by moderating climate, regulating water supply, maintaining fertility of
soil and purifying air.
(ii) To facilitate the movement of animals between habitats, promoting genetic diversity.
(iii) Tidal forests have profuse growth with tangle of climbers as an adaptation to survive in soft
and shifting mud in wet marshy areas, river deltas and swampy areas along the sea coast.
(d) (i) Afforestation refers to the plantation of new forests. It is done to meet the growing demand for
wood.  The newly  planted forests are carefully supervised to protect against forest fires.
(ii) Using Alternative Sources of Energy like solar energy, tidal energy, biomass energy, etc. instead
of conventional sources of energy like firewood which deplete the forest resources.
Q.6 (a) Social Forestry refers to the management and protection of forests and afforestation on barren
lands with the aim of helping in the environmental, social and rural development.
(b) Agro-Forestry Traditional Forestry
1. It is not vulnerable to population stresses It has been destroyed due to population stress.
as local population is involved.
2. It is created in accordance with the socio- It is not created but occurs naturally.
cultural practices of the population.
(c) Increasing the area under forests and planting trees on degraded land unsuitable for agriculture;
l
Putting a strict ban on indiscriminate felling of trees; l Using alternative sources of energy like
l
solar energy and hydel energy to check the consumption of wood for domestic and industrial uses.
(d) Refer to ‘Objectives of Agro-Forestry’ in the textbook.
Q.7 (a) The vegetation in Himalayas vary with altitude because the temperature decreases with altitude
and this has a corresponding effect on the growth of vegetation. For example, at the foothills of
Himalayas, Deciduous forests are found whereas Moist Temperate forests are found at an altitude
between 1000 m to 2000 m.
16 TEACHERS’ HANDBOOK (TOTAL GEOGRAPHY-X)

(b) Inside Tropical Evergreen forests it appears dark because of the dense canopy of trees which do
not allow enough sunlight to reach the ground.
(c) (i) Because of the region’s closeness to the tropics and height of only 1500 m above sea level, the
vegetation is temperate in the higher regions and sub-tropical on the lower regions.
(ii) Because Sundari trees yield hard durable timber.
(iii) Because these forests are chiefly found in the deltas of large rivers and exposed to tides. These
forest can survive in both fresh water and sea water.
(d) Self Explanatory. Refer to the topics in the textbook.
Q.8 (a) Uttar Pradesh and Maharashtra.
(b) Because the conical shape allows snow to slide down and not accumulate on the branches and
leaves. It thus, helps the coniferous trees to survive in extreme winters.
(c) (i) The breathing roots have pores which help the trees to breathe when other roots remain
submerged under water during high tide.
(ii) As the human lungs purify the blood so do the forests by absorbing a large amount of carbon
dioxide, producing oxygen and purifying the air.
(iii) Van Mahotsav is celebrated every year to raise awareness about the depletion of forest cover
and to encourage afforestation.
(d) Farm forestry refers to the practice of growing trees on farm land to produce saleable products
like timber and tannin.
Advantages of Farm forestry:
1. It enhances the income of the farmers from sales of products like timber, tannin and charcoal.
2. It provides shade and shelter for stock and crops.

mmm

Chapter 10
EXERCISES
I. Choose the correct option:
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (a)
11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (c)
II. Answer the following questions :
Q.1 (a) Water resource refers to any of the entire range of natural waters that occur on the earth and are
of potential use to living beings.
(b) Surface Water Ground Water
1. Water on land surface as a result of Water collected under the surface of land.
precipitation or seepage from underground.
2. Lower mineral content so soft water. Higher mineral content (hard water) due to
the cover of subsurface layer of soil or rock.

(c) (i)
About 75 per cent of the total cultivated area depends on  rainfall for crop production. The
l
rainfall is highly irregular and uneven.
l The availability of surface and ground water, varied relief features, soil and climatic conditions
from place to place require different means of irrigation.
l The dry period is very long in India as there is rainfall for 3 to 4 months only.

(ii) l Declining availability of fresh water; l irregular and uneven distribution of rainfall;
l increasing demand for water.
(iii) Refer to ‘Need to Conserve Water’ in the textbook.
CHAPTER 10 17

(d) (i) Rainwater harvesting refers to the system of collecting and storing rainwater, preventing the loss of
water through evaporation and seepage with the aim of conservation and efficient utilisation of  water.
(ii) Refer to ‘Objectives of Rainwater Harvesting’ in the textbook.
Q. 2 (a) Irrigation refers to the process of watering of agricultural plants through artificial means from
wells, tanks, tubewells, canals, etc.
Different crops need different quantities of water at various stages of growth. High yielding varieties
of crops require higher input of water. Thus to increase agricultural output irrigation is needed.
(b) Water scarcity is lack of fresh water resources to meet standard water demand. It occurs in India
because of:
l highly irregular and uneven distribution of rainfall; and

l rapidly increasing population.

(c) (i) l Inundation Canals remain functional only during the rainy season as they use excess water
when the rivers are in flood. l Inundation Canals can irrigate small areas whereas perennial
Canals can irrigate large areas.
(ii) Tanks are most widely used in Peninsular India in the states of Maharashtra and Gujarat
because:
l The rivers of the Deccan are not snow-fed and are mainly dependent on the rainwater.

l There are many streams which become torrential during the rainy season but dry up when
the rain ceases.
l The natural hollows formed by the undulating surface make tank building easy and cheap.

(iii) Ground water resources are depleting at a fast rate:

l due to increase in population, irrigation and industrialisation, the demand for water has

risen manifold, resulting in overexploitation of underground water and lowering of water

table.
l the loss of vegetation causes drought and reduction of rainfall, lowering of water table and

depletion of ground water resources.

(d) (i) Conventional methods of irrigation are those which have been in use for centuries in India.
(ii) These include Tanks, Canals and Wells.
Q.3 (a) Refer to ‘Disadvantages of Using Conventional System of Irrigation’ in the textbook.
(b) Refer to ‘Advantages of Well Irrigation’ and ‘Disadvantages of Well Irrigation’ in the textbook.
(c) (i) lThe Alluvial plains are made up of soft soil in which it is easy to dig wells; l The depth of the
water table does not exceed 15m; l The ground water is available in plenty due to proximity of
perennial rivers.
(ii) Most parts of Tamil Nadu get winter rains while summers are dry. Canals provide water during
the dry season.
(iii) Drip irrigation reduces loss of water through evaporation as it contains perforated pipes that
are placed between rows of crops which give water directly to the crops.
(d) (i) Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana.
(ii) Advantages of Tube Well Irrigation over surface wells:
l It is easier to bring up a large amount of water in a short   time.

l They are a perennial means of irrigation as surface wells  might dry up.

Disadvantages of Tube Well Irrigation over surface wells:

l They are expensive as they require drilling.

l They require continuous supply of electricity. (Any one)

Q.4 (a) Refer to ‘Canals’ in the textbook.

(b) Refer to ‘Persian Wheel Method’ in the textbook.
18 TEACHERS’ HANDBOOK (TOTAL GEOGRAPHY-X)

(c) (i) Water table is few feet below the ground causing alkaline salts to come to the surface, mix with
the soil making it infertile.
(ii) Because it requires continuous supply of electricity.
(iii) l Roots are unable to absorb water, the plants require to grow;
l changes in the pH leads to change in the composition of nutrients and hence their absorption
by the plant.
(d) (i) Perennial rivers and favourable terrain
(ii) (a) Soil infertility (b) Expensive Construction
Q.5 (a) Refer to ‘Need to Conserve Water’ in the textbook.
(b) Refer to ‘Conservation Practices’ in the textbook.
(c) (i) Wells are cheap, simple and dependable source of water for farmers.
(ii) Rainfall in India occurs in short spells of high intensity. Due to such intensity and short
duration, most of the rain flows away rapidly and does not recharge the groundwater.
(iii) Refer to ‘The ideal conditions for the drilling of tubewells’ under the heading Tubewells in the
textbook.
(d) (i) Watershed management refers to the efficient management and conservation of both the
surface and groundwater resources. It includes prevention of water run-off as well as storage
and recharge of groundwater.
(ii) Watershed management recharges both surface and groundwater. Therefore, it is significant
in maintaining the water supply for agriculture in the long run.
Q.6 (a) Refer to ‘Drip Irrigation’ in the textbook.
(b) Refer to ‘Need to Conserve Water’ in the textbook.
(c) (i) They are scientific so ensure best utilisation of water minimising wastage.
(ii) No loss of water due to seepage and evaporation.
(iii) Require installation of network of pipes with nozzles all over the field so spray irrigation is
expensive.
(d) Refer to ‘Furrow Irrigation’ in the textbook.
Q.7 (a) Refer to ‘Drip Irrigation’ in the textbook.
(b) Self explanatory. Refer to the topic in the textbook.
(c) (i) Its large area and shallow depth.
(ii) It leads to depletion of groundwater.
(iii) They are sown after the monsoon season when rainfall is significantly reduced.
(d) Self explanatory. Refer to ‘Modern Irrigation Methods’ in the textbook.

mmm

Chapter 11
EXERCISES
I. Choose the correct option:
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (d)
11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (d) 18. (a)
CHAPTER 12 19

II. Answer the following questions:

Q.1 (a) A mineral is a naturally occurring substance of organic or inorganic origin having a definite
chemical composition and structure. Their characteristics include:
l Good quality minerals are less in quantity than low quality minerals.
l Minerals are exhaustible over time and need to be conserved.
(b) Metallic minerals are the source of metals like iron, gold, copper whereas Non-metallic minerals
are either organic or inorganic in origin like fossil fuels (coal and petroleum) and mica, limestone,
graphite.
(c) Haematite: Odisha, Jharkhand.
Magnetite: Tamil Nadu, Karnataka.
Limonite: Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh.
(d) (i) Magnetite.
(ii) Odisha, Jharkhand
Q.2 (a) Copper is a non-ferrous metal found in nature in its native form and also in three combinations
— sulphides, oxides and carbonates. Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.
(b) Refer to ‘Uses of Alluminium’ in the textbook.
(c) (i) Manganese makes steel tough and resistant to rusting.
(ii) Aluminium is a good conductor of electricity.
(iii) Raw iron by itself is not strong or hard to be used for construction etc.  However, it becomes
strong and hard when alloyed with other elements making it then useful in construction,
automobiles and other industries.
(d) Aluminium. The main reserves of Bauxite in India are found in the states of Jharkhand,
Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Goa and Gujarat.
Q.3 (a) Brass - alloy of copper and zinc; Bronze - alloy of copper and tin. For second part refer to ‘Uses’
under the heading ‘Copper’ in the textbook.
(b) Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh. Refer to ‘Uses of Manganese’ in the textbook.
(c) (i) It possesses magnetic property.
(ii) Copper is a good conductor of electricity.
(iii) They have different chemical compositions and crystal structures.
(d) (i) l Iron ore deposits occur as hill masses and are easily extractable. l They are found in close
proximity to areas with other raw materials required for iron and steel plants like coal,
manganese etc.
(ii) Steel manufacturing, construction automobiles, etc.
Q.4 (a) Mining activities can lead to deforestation, soil erosion and water pollution. The use of minerals
can result in air pollution and the release of greenhouse gases.
(b) Refer to ‘Uses of Iron Ore’ in the textbook.
(c) Recycling, alternative minerals, improved mining and extraction techniques etc.
(d) (i) Bauxite (oxide of aluminium)
(ii) Lightweight, strong and rust resistant metal

mmm

Chapter 12
EXERCISES
I. Choose the correct option:
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (a)
9. (d) 10. (d) 11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (d) 16. (b)
II. Answer the following questions:
Q.1 (a) Conventional sources of energy are those which have been used by man for a long time and are
still in use. They are coal, petroleum, natural gas and hydel  power.
20 TEACHERS’ HANDBOOK (TOTAL GEOGRAPHY-X)

(b) Deccan region and north-eastern region.

(c) (i) Anthracite is used for domestic purposes because it has l high calorific value; l carbon content
of 90 per cent; l burns without smoke.
(ii) The crude oil needs to be carried by pipelines to refineries for refining. These oil refineries are
located along the coast or near the oilfields to minimise the cost of transport and to reduce the
risk of accidents due to its inflammable nature.
(iii) l Coal is used as a source of power in many industries.
l It is used as raw material in iron and steel industry.

(d) Refer to ‘Distribution and Uses of Different Varieties of Coal in India’ in the textbook.
Q.2 (a) Gondwana Coalfield Tertiary Coalfield
Location River valleys of Damodar, Mahanadi and Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya,
Godavari. Nagaland.
Quality Almost free from moisture, low amounts High moisture content and more sulphur.
of sulphur and phosphorus.

(b) West Bengal: Raniganj; Jharkhand: Jharia.

(c) (i) A lot of substances like petrol, diesel, kerosene, petroleum jelly, etc. are obtained during the
refining process of petroleum. No part of crude petroleum goes waste or remains unused. That
is why it is called ‘Liquid gold’.
(ii) Natural gas is a fossil fuel because it has been formed by decomposing remains of dead animals
and plants buried under the earth.
(iii) CNG is an eco-friendly fuel because it is made up of methane and results in less carbon
emissions and therefore causes less damage to the environment.
(d) (i) Coal is easy to burn, abundant, inexpensive and reliable source of energy. (Any two)
(ii) Digboi (Assam).
Q.3 (a) Natural Gas is the fossil fuel that occurs in association with mineral oil. Two variants are LPG
and CNG.
(b) Three fourths from Mumbai High.
Coastal Refineries: Chennai Refinery, Trombay Refinery.
Inland Refineries: Mathura Refinery, Panipat Refinery.
(c) (i) Because natural gas occurs in association with mineral oil and therefore the oilfields also yield
natural gas invariably.
(ii) Ethyl mercaptan is added to LPG so that any leakage of LPG from the cylinder can be easily
detected.
(d) Refer to ‘Advantages’ and ‘Disadvantages’ under ‘Natural Gas’ in the textbook.
Q.4 (a) Jharkhand: Jharia
West Bengal: Raniganj.
(b) The calorific value is low.
(c) (i) West Bengal, Jharkhand; (ii) Iron and Steel; Power Generation.
(d) (i) Maharashtra; (ii) Refer to ‘Advantages of Hydel Power’ in the textbook.
Q.5 (a) India has very limited reserves of crude oil, whereas the demand for oil in India is increasing
rapidly at 10% per annum. To meet this ever increasing demand for oil, India has to import oil
from oil rich countries.
(b) Private sector: The Reliance Petroleum Limited at Jamnagar in Gujarat. Public sector: Mumbai
High off the coast of Mumbai, Maharashtra.
(c) Trombay Refinery (west coast) processes imported crude oil and oil from Ankleshwar fields;
Visakhapatnam Refinery (east  coast) processes imported crude oil; Digboi Refinery (inland)
processes crude oil from Moran and Naharkatiya fields.
(d) Petroleum is normally found in underground reservoirs in sedimentary rock formations like
sandstone, shale and limestone.
CHAPTER 13 21

l Petroleum is used for the production of various petrochemical products like synthetic rubber,
synthetic fibre, PVC, etc.
l It is used for generating power in thermal power stations.
Q.6 (a) Petrol, diesel, kerosene, tar, Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG), lubricants and paraffin. (Any four)
(b) Refer to ‘Advantages’ under ‘Petroleum’ in the textbook.
(c) Refer to ‘Disadvantages’ under ‘Petroleum’ in the textbook.
(d) Refer to ‘Disadvantages’ under ‘Hydel Power’ in the textbook.
Q.7 (a) Refer to ‘Mumbai High’ in the Textbook.
(b) l Coal is very bulky and cannot be transported easily.
l It is mainly used in iron and steel industries, these  industries have to be located in close
proximity to the coal fields.
l Mineral oil can be easily transported through pipelines and therefore the various processed
products of mineral oil are transported from oil refineries near the coast to far away locations.
(c) India’s main coal resources are located in the Gondwana coal fields that are largely confined to
the river valleys like those of Damodar, Mahanadi and Godavari.
(d) Advantages of dams are:
l it provides water for irrigation, l it helps to generate hydro-electricity, and l it prevents flooding
from rivers.
Q.8 (a) Hydel power refers to the energy that is produced when water falls from a high level with great
force and moves the blades of a turbine located at the bottom of a dam which in turn rotates the
generator to produce electricity.
(b) (i) Sutlej.
(ii) Punjab and Haryana.
(c) (i) It is located on Mahanadi river in Odisha.
(ii) l It irrigates 75,000 square kilometres of land.
l It helps control floods in the Mahanadi delta.

(d) Disadvantages of building a dam are:

l the cost of building a dam for producing hydroelectricity is quite high.
l building a large dam alters the natural water-table level.
l building a large dam can cause serious geological damage like triggering earthquakes in the
area.
l building of a dam to produce electricity, displaces many people from the area and disturbs
their life physically, mentally and psychologically. (any three)

mmm

Chapter 13
EXERCISES
I. Choose the correct option:
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (b)
11. (d) 12. (b)
22 TEACHERS’ HANDBOOK (TOTAL GEOGRAPHY-X)

II. Answer the following questions:

Q.1 (a) Non-conventional sources of energy are those which have been developed in the recent past as
an alternative to conventional sources of energy.
(b) Conventional sources of energy Non-conventional sources of energy
(a) The sources of energy which have been in (a) The resources which are still in the process
use for a long time, e.g., coal, petroleum, of development over the past few years, e.g.,
natural gas and hydel power. solar, wind, tidal, biomass and geothermal.
(b) They are exhaustible except for water. (b) They are inexhaustible.
(c) They cause pollution when used, as they (c) They are generally pollution free.
emit smoke and ash (except hydel power).
(d) They are very expensive to be maintained, (d) Less expensive due to local use and are
stored and transmitted. easy to maintain.(Any two)
(c) (i) They are      renewable and therefore, inexhaustible, l non- polluting, l less expensive and
l     l easy
to maintain.
(ii) Refer to Q 1 (d).
(iii) Most
l     manufacturers give 20-25 years warranty. l    
No moving parts hence low wear and tear.
(d) India’s location on the Tropic of Cancer — Most parts of the country have 300 clear sunny days
in a year — per hour per square km availability of solar energy is between 5 to 7 kW.
Q.2 (a) Refer to ‘Solar cells’ in the textbook.
(b) Electricity generated by wind turbines present on farms can be used for domestic consumption
and surplus power can be sold to the local grid resulting in an additional source of income for the
farmers.
(c) Refer to ‘Advantages’ under ‘Solar Energy’ in the textbook.
(d) Refer to ‘Generation of Wind Energy’ in the textbook.
Q.3 (a) Tidal energy refers to the energy produced by the periodic rise and fall of waters of the ocean.
Tidal energy is a clean energy as it does not generate any carbon emissions and therefore no
pollution and no effect on climate.
(b) Refer to ‘Advantages of Wind Energy’ in the textbook.
(c) Wind farms refer to a place where a number of windmills are installed in a definite pattern in
clusters. They are usually installed in coastal regions, open grasslands or hilly regions.
(d) (i) Geothermal energy is the heat energy contained in the rock and fluid that fills the fractures
and pores within the rock in the earth’s crust. It is clean and sustainable.
(ii) Refer to ‘Generation of Geothermal Energy’ in the textbook.
Q.4 (a) Solar: Bhadla, Rajasthan.
Wind: Nagercoil to Madurai in Tamil Nadu.
Tidal: Gulf of Kutch, Gujarat.
Geothermal: Manikaran, Himachal Pradesh.
(b) Refer to ‘Advantages of Geothermal Energy’ in the textbook.
(c) Nuclear fission. Refer to ‘Advantages’ under ‘Nuclear Power’ in the textbook.
(d) Refer to ‘Advantages’ under ‘Biogas’ in the textbook.
Q.5 (a) Nuclear power is obtained from energy stored in the nuclei of atoms of naturally occurring
radioactive elements like Uranium, Thorium and Plutonium.
(b) Uranium and Thorium. Kaiga (Karnataka) and Kalpakkam (Tamil Nadu).
(c) Countries prefer nuclear power to conventional energy sources because of reduced cost of transport,
handling and extraction of nuclear fuel.
(d) l Nuclear fission produces 10 million times the energy produced by burning fossil fuel or hydro or
wind power. Thus producing large quantities of power in short periods of time. l It does not release
carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. l Cost of mining and transportation are lower as compared to
fossil fuels. l India has good reserves of the raw materials. l Waste produced is very small when
compared to conventional sources.
CHAPTER 14 23

Q.6 (a) Refer to ‘Generation of Biogas’ in the textbook.

(b) Methane, carbon dioxide, hydrogen and hydrogen sulphide.
(c) Refer to ‘Advantages’ under ‘Biogas’ in the textbook.
(d) Refer to ‘Compressed Biogas’ in the textbook.
Q.7 (a) Geothermal Energy. For advantages refer to ‘Advantages in the textbook’.
(b) (i) Volcanic regions, (ii) hot springs
(c) Refer to Generation of Geothermal Energy in the textbook.
(d) (i) Himachal Pradesh, (ii) Jammu & Kashmir, (iii) Chattisgarh

mmm

Chapter 14
EXERCISES
I. Choose the correct option:
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (d)
11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (b)
II. Answer the following questions:
Q.1 (a) Agriculture means cultivation of the soil in order to grow crops and rear livestock.
(b) l Two-third of India’s population depends on agriculture.
l Agriculture accounts for 25% of GDP, 16% of total exports.
l It provides employment to about 65 per cent of labour   force.
l It provides food for the people, supplies raw material   for   agro-based industries, and a large
market for industrial goods.
(c)
Indian agriculture is dependent to a large extent on the monsoons, which are uncertain, irregular
l
and unequally   distributed.
l Majority of landholdings in India are very small, which cannot promote new improved scientific
methods of agriculture.
l Mainly subsistence agriculture with an old and inefficient techniques is practised in India.
(d) Refer to ‘Advantages of Cooperative farming’ in the textbook.
Q.2 (a), (b), (c) and (d) Refer to ‘Green Revolution’ in the textbook.

Q.3 (a) Extensive Farming Intensive Farming

1. It is practised in large farms. 1. It is practised in small farms.
2. Machines are used so it is capital intensive. 2. It is labour intensive.
3. It is practised in the Terai region of 3. It is practised in plains of northern India
Sub-Himalayas and in parts of North- and the coastal areas of South India.
western  India. (Any two)

(b) l In commercial farming, small land holdings are consolidated to make large   farms. Since the land
holdings are large they give a considerable  output; l Scientific methods and new technologies can
be implemented and thus quantity and quality of crops can be improved; l Since the crops are
grown mainly for sale this improves the economic condition of the farmers. (Any two)
(c) (i) The large farm size and costs involved in plantation farming are high. So they are managed by
large multinationals.
(ii) Refer to Q.No. 5(a).
(iii) The total area under cultivation is high ensuring a large total yield despite low per hectare
yield.
24 TEACHERS’ HANDBOOK (TOTAL GEOGRAPHY-X)

(d) (i) Extensive Farming.

(ii) Terai regions of Himalayas and parts of North-western India.
Q.4 (a) Plantation Mixed Farming
1. One crop is cultivated. 1. Two or more crops are grown together, and
animals are also raised simultaneously.
2. It is practised on large farms. 2. It is practised on small farms.
3. Modern and scientific methods of farming 3. Traditional methods are employed along
are applied. with some new techniques.
4. Crops are not sown every year. 4. Crops are sown every year. (Any two)

(b) l Indian markets have been thrown open to the world. Consequently, India can export its
agricultural products to the other countries and also import foreign products.
l Indian agriculture has to bear the adverse effect  of  competition from developed countries which
use sophisticated farm machinery and therefore, have lower cost of production.
l Reduction in import duties on agricultural products have proved detrimental to agriculture in
India.
(c) l Introduction of land reforms such as abolishment of Zamindaries and all intermediaries.
l Consolidation of fragmented land holdings to prevent subdivision of land beyond a certain limit.
l Provision of better irrigation facilities..
(d) Refer to ‘Environmental factors’ under ‘Indian Agriculture:Problems’.
Q.5 (a) Shifting cultivation is a primitive agricultural practice in which a patch of forest is cleared which
is then cultivated for a few years until the fertility of soil is reduced. Then after two or three years
the cultivators abandon this piece of land and move to a new land and then the same process is
repeated.
(b) Shifting cultivation is practised in some hilly regions of North-East India and in the Himalayan  region.
l It accelerates soil erosion and causes floods and silting in lower reaches of the riverine flood
plains; l It results in deforestation; l It affects the ecosystem. l It causes air pollution. (Any one)
(c) Government is encouraging settled cultivation and social forestry to discourage shifting cultivation.
(d) Refer to ‘Subsistence Farming’ in the textbook.
Q.6 (a), (c) and (d) Refer to ‘Organic Farming’ in the textbook.
(b) Refer to ‘Cooperative Farming’ in the textbook.

mmm

Chapter 15
EXERCISES
I. Choose the correct option:
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (a)
9. (b) 10. (a) 11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (d)
II. Answer the following questions:
Q.1 (a) Kharif, Rabi, Zayad or Zaid.
(b) Japanese Method. It ensures high yield.
(c) Punjab and Haryana. Rice is a major food supplement and predominant source of energy that is
consumed by about 65% of world population making it a cash crop.
CHAPTER 15 25

(d) The Upland Rice The Lowland Rice

1. Grown on mountainous regions. 1. Grown in low-lying regions.
2. Sown in March-April and harvested in 2. Sown in June and harvested in October.
September-October.
3. Produce used for local consumption only. 3. Produce used for local consumption and
surplus for other regions.
Q.2 (a) ‘Cereals’ refer to all kinds of grass-like plants which have starchy, edible seeds. For example, rice,
wheat, maize, barley, etc.
(b) Tropical crop. Mean temperature of 24°C; annual rainfall 150 cm and deep fertile clayey or   loamy   soils.
(c) (i) Refer to Q.No. 6(b).
(ii) Refer to Q.No. 3(c) (ii).
(iii) Refer to Q.No. 4(b).
(d) (i) West Bengal.
(ii) Rice requires plenty of water during sowing and harvesting which is easily available in the
lowlands.
Q.3 (a) Wheat requires well drained loams and clay loams.
(b) l Temperature in the range of 10°C-15°C for sowing and 20°C-25°C during harvesting.
l Annual rainfall of about 80 cm with about 12.5 cm of rainfall in winter months.
(c) (i) Uttar Pradesh and Punjab.
(ii) l About 12.5 cm of rainfall in winter months is a boon for wheat cultivation.
l Wheat requires about 10°C of temperature at the time of sowing, 15°C for plant growth and
20°C for the maturity of grains. These temperature ranges are available in these   states.
(d) l Wheat grows best in cool, moist climate and ripens in a warm, dry climate whereas rice grows
best in warm and humid climate.
l Wheat requires temperature in the range of 10°C-15°C for sowing and 20°C-25°C during
harvesting whereas rice requires temperature in the range of 16°C-20°C for flowering and
fertilization and 18°C-32°C during ripening.
l Also, wheat requires about 80 cm of annual rainfall with about 12.5 cm of rainfall in winter
months whereas rice requires good rainfall in the range of 150 -300 cm. It also requires 5-10
cm of standing water.
Q.4 (a) Transplantation is a method of cultivating rice. In this method, seedlings are first grown in
nurseries and after 4 to 5 weeks when saplings attain 25 to 30 cm of height they are transplanted
into prepared rice fields.
Advantages: l Only healthy plants are picked and sowed in the field. l less wastage of seeds.
(b) Pulses are leguminous crops that have a bacteria called rhizobium in their root nodules that fix
the atmospheric nitrogen in the soil and this process helps in increasing the fertility of the soil.
(c) (i) Pulses are useful rotation crops as they have nitrogen fixing bacteria, rhizobium, in their root
nodules and thus they help in increasing soil fertility.
(ii) Pulses are a good source of vegetable protein and compliment the dietary requirements
for Indians who mostly consume starchy vegetarian diets. They serve as excellent forage
and grain concentrates in cattle feed.
(d) Refer to ‘Methods of cultivation of Rice’ in the Textbook.
Q.5 (a) Millets is a term that is applied to a number of inferior grains. These include jowar, bajra, ragi, etc.
(b) Millets do not require much input and can grow in arid in fertile land with little water. Also, their
straw makes valuable cattle fodder. Since, millets are easily cultivated and available at a cheaper
price, these serve as foodgrains for the poorer sections of the society.
(c) Millets are dry crops as they do not need much rainfall. Rainfall in the range of 50 cm to 120 cm
is adequate for millets whereas rice is a water intensive crop which requires heavy rainfall in the
range of 150-300 cm and standing water of 5 to 10 cm.
(d) Millets are grown where the soil is rather infertile owing to its rocky or sandy character whereas
rice is grown in well drained, deep fertile clayey or loamy soils.
26 TEACHERS’ HANDBOOK (TOTAL GEOGRAPHY-X)

Q.6 (a) Ragi is grown in drier parts of South India and in some areas of northern India. It is one of the
hardiest crops and can grow under conditions of very low rainfall and can withstand very severe
drought.
(b) Wheat is a winter crop in India because wheat grows in a cool climate. It requires temperature in
the range of 10°C-15°C for sowing and 20°C-25°C during harvesting. These temperature ranges
are available in the northern plains of India during   winters.
(c) Eastern and extreme southern parts of India have excessive heat and high rainfall which is not
suitable for the wheat crop. Therefore, wheat is not grown in these parts. Uttar Pradesh.
(d) For rice, standing water is the requirement for saplings to get maximum yield - low rainfall means
less water and low yield - low yield so government restricted exports.
Q.7 (a) In the given picture, rice is being planted, by the puddled or wet method of cultivation.
The main advantage of this method is that it provides the essential requirements of 5 to 10 cm of
standing water for the rice to grow.
(b) The other method of planting rice is called the dry system of cultivation of rice. It is practised in
areas which depend on rains and do not have supplementary irrigation facilities.
(c) (i) l Rice grows best in clayey alluvial soil which is not present in large tracts in Deccan Plateau;
l The Deccan area receives moderate rainfall whereas for cultivation of rice heavy rainfall is
required.
(ii) Despite deficient rainfall rice is grown in Punjab with the help of irrigation from the network
of canals and tubewells.
(iii) Wheat requires sufficient soil moisture during germination of the plant. Since the loamy soil
can retain water for long time wheat grows best in it.
(d) Refer to Q.No. 2(b).
Q.8 (a) Dry farming is a method of agriculture used in regions with low rainfall, where crops are grown
without irrigation, relying solely on the moisture available in the soil.
(b) Millet. Black soil.
(c) (i) The soil should be able to retain standing water in the field for rice cultivation.
(ii) Rice is the leading crop of West Bengal as its climate and fertile alluvial soil are ideal for rice.
(iii) In north India wheat is a rabi crop as it is sown in winter.
(d) (i) High temperature
(ii) High rainfall
(iii) Fertile alluvial soil
Q.9 (a) Refer to ‘International Year of Millets’ in the textbook.
(b) Refer to ‘Pulses’ in the textbook.
(c) (i) Japanese Rice, (ii) Proper water management and appropriate fertilisers.
(d) (i) Depletion of ground-water level
(ii) Maize, Pulses, Oilseeds

mmm

Chapter 16
EXERCISES
I. Choose the correct option:
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (a)
11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (d) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (c)
CHAPTER 16 27

II. Answer the following questions:

Q.1 (a) Uttar Pradesh (North India); Tamil Nadu (South India).
(b) Sugarcane production is increasing in Maharashtra because of the favourable maritime climate free
from the effects of summer loo and winter frost, sufficient irrigation and new farming techniques.
(c) Sett method of planting sugarcane is the one in which cuttings called setts from old plants are
taken and planted in the furrows. These setts quickly take root and after a few days buds sprout
to form new stalks.
(d) Ratooning is the method of obtaining a successive crop of sugarcane from the little bit of stalk
which is left in soil with roots after the first harvest.
l Ratoons mature early;
l The cost of production is much lower since there is less expenditure on preparing the fields
and planting.
Q.2 (a) Heavy rains reduce the sucrose content of sugarcane.
(b) It is labour intensive because: l the crop has to be irrigated frequently as the deficiency of water
produces a fibrous crop; and l it takes eight months to mature and therefore, requires continuous
monitoring and care.
(c) The greatest accumulation of sucrose is at the base of the stem.
(d) Refer to ‘Problems of Sugarcane Cultivators’ in the textbook.
Q.3 (a) Sugarcane exhausts the fertility of the soil so soil requires addition of manures and nitrogenous
fertilizers to be productive.
(b) l Temperature between 20ºC and 26ºC.
l Short dry season during ripening and harvesting.
l Rainfall between 100-150cm, well distributed throughout the year.
(c) l South India has favourable maritime climate free from North India’s summer loo and winter
frost.
l It has sufficient irrigation facilities and new farming    techniques.
(d) l Planting seeds; l ratooning. (Refer to the textbook for details)
Q.4 (a) Refer to Table on Page 187 in the textbook.
(b) Gujarat and Telangana. Groundnut is highly susceptible to frost and thrives well in tropical
climates so it is grown extensively in peninsular India.
(c) l Groundnut is used to manufacture hydrogenated oil.
l It is used in cooking.
l It is used in making margarine, medical emulsions and soap.
(d) Oil Cake. It is used as l cattle feed and l manure.
Q.5 (a) Groundnuts, mustard and soyabean. Groundnut.
(b) Refer to Table on Page 194 in the textbook.
(c) (i) It grows well on slightly heavy loams. Sutluj Ganga plains.
(ii) Uses: l cooking oil; l cattle feed; l leaves eaten as vegetable; l manure.
(d) Refer to Table on page 194 in the textbook. Uses l as a substitute animal protein as soya milk
and tofu and; l cooking oil.
Q.6 (a) The farmers faced significant financial losses.
(b) Refer to ‘Ratooning’ in the textbook.
(c) (i) Sugarcane is a tropical plant. Frost can damage the plant cells and hinder growth.
(ii) The spacing allows adequate sunlight, nutrients and space for each plant to grow optimally.
(iii) The alluvial soil, warm climate and availability of water in these plains make them ideal for
sugarcane cultivation.
(d) (i) (a) Low temperature slows down or even stops the growth of sugarcane.
(b) It ensures the sugar content in the cane at its peak.
(ii) It maximizes the yield, as the lower part of the stalk has the highest sugar concentration.

mmm
28 TEACHERS’ HANDBOOK (TOTAL GEOGRAPHY-X)

Chapter 17
EXERCISES
I. Choose the correct option:
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (b)
11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (a)
21. (d)
II. Answer the following questions:
Q.1 (a) Fibre crops are the crops that yield fibre which is used as raw material in textile industry. Cotton
and jute are plant fibre crops.
(b) Cotton grows well in the well-drained clayey soils containing lime and phosphates. The deep and
medium black soils of the Deccan and the Malwa Plateau are ideal for cotton cultivation.
(c) (i) Deccan Plateau and Upper Ganges Valley.
(ii) The deep and medium black soils of Gujrat and Maharashtra are conducive to cotton cultivation.
(d) (i) Frost kills the cotton plant and destroys the crop. Dry weather is required because: (i) The cotton
balls will be destroyed by water; (ii) Rainfall during harvesting makes the plant vulnerable to
pests and diseases.
(ii) There is a decline in global demand for cotton coupled with erratic rainfall due to climate
change. This has led to a decline in a sowing area as farmers are opting for other crops.
Q.2 (a) Long staple cotton has long cotton fibres. The longer the fibre, the resulting fabric is strong, soft,
durable and fades less.
(b) They have black cotton   soil, 1.5 metres deep in some parts and 80-100 cm of annual rainfall, the
pre-requisites for growing short staple variety of cotton.
(c) Refer to ‘Processing’ under ‘Methods of Cultivation’ (cotton) in the textbook.
(d) Problems associated with the growing of cotton are:
l Late spring or early autumn frosts kill the plant.
l Rainfall of more than 85 cm destroys the crop.
l Rainfall during harvesting makes plants vulnerable to pests and diseases.
l Regular weeding and irrigation is essential for the crop.
l Rising costs of seeds fertilizers and labour.
l Cotton picking is completely manual.
Q.3 (a) Jute grows best on the soil enriched by new alluvium brought   by river inundation. Loamy soils
are most suitable for jute production as water sinks quickly into it.
(b) Ganga-Brahmaputra delta is enriched regularly by fresh deposits of silt during floods which are
well suited for the crop as jute depletes the soil fertility.
(c) (i) Jute is retted to soften the outer bark so that the fibre within can be easily  removed.
(ii) Retting of Jute is done by: (i) submerging the jute in special tanks; (ii) chemical additives are
added in the water; and  (iii) the fleshy part of the stem is decomposed and the fibre is  scraped.
(d) Refer to ‘Processing’ under ‘Methods of Cultivation’ (Jute) in the textbook.
Q.4 (a) Mesta fibre is coarser than jute. Assam, Bihar, Odisha, Kerala.
(b) Golden fibre. Brings high revenue due to its extensive use in packaging materials and utility
products.
(c) (i) Floods ensure new top soil which is good for the jute crop. Floods also provide water for the process
of retting.
(ii) Advantage: Higher yield.
Disadvantage: Coarse fibre.
(d) Uses: l Packaging materials like sacks; l carpets and rugs; l tarpaulins.
Q.5 (a) l Good rainfall (150 cm), well distributed throughout the year.
l Adequate hours of sunshine due to location in the tropical  zone.
l Hill slopes conducive to growth of tea plants. (Any two)
CHAPTER 18 29

(b) Tea is cultivated on hill slopes so that annual inundations and stagnant water during the rainy
season do not harm the crops. The hills also provide the shade required by the crops. Tea grown
at higher elevation tastes well and gives a better flavour.
(c) (i) 1. Black Tea; 2. Green Tea; 3. Oolong Tea.
(ii) Tea obtained from different gardens have different flavours depending on soil, temperature and
rainfall. So, to ensure consistency of flavour a number of teas are blended together.
(d) (i) Assam. l The summer temperature is 30°C and winter temperature never falls below 10°C.
The weather is frost free throughout the year; l The tea estates are on slightly elevated areas
where suitable slope for proper drainage is available; l There is about 300–400 cm of annual
rainfall extended over four months; l The soil is deep and moderate in texture. (Any two)
(ii) Clonal planting is the method by which cuttings are taken from the mother plant to get the
desired characteristics. Pruning is the process where the planter selectively removes parts of a
plant to encourage production of fresh leaves and shoots.
Q.6. (a) l Coffee needs temperature between 15°C to 28°C throughout the year. It is grown in shade as
direct sun rays are harmful for the crop; l It needs heavy rainfall ranging between 125–250 cm.
It can also grow in areas having 325 cm of rainfall if the rainfall is well distributed. Dry weather
is required during ripening.
(b) Coffee Robusta, Coffee Liberica and Coffee Arabica. Karnataka.
(c) (i) Coffee is a typical highland crop of tropics and grows well on the slopes of hills. There is no
stagnation of water on hill slopes as stagnation is harmful for coffee plants.
(ii) To protect the coffee plants from direct sunlight; to generate extra income.
(iii) Frequent pruning encourages rapid production of fresh leaves and shoots.
(d) Refer to ‘Processing of Coffee’ in the textbook.

mmm

Chapter 18
EXERCISES
I. Choose the correct option:
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (a)
11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (b)
II. Give the difference between the following:
1. Medium Enterprise Micro Enterprise
1. These enterprises require less than Rs. 50 1. These enterprises require investment not
crore investment on plant and machinery or exceeding Rs. 1 crore on plant and machinery
equipment. or equipment.
2. They employ larger number of workers. 2. They employ only a few workers.
3. Their turnover is less than Rs. 250 crores. 3. Their turnover is less than five crores

2. Heavy Industries Light Industries

1. These industries produce capital goods and 1. These industries produce goods which are
consumer durables which are quite bulky. light in weight.
2. They require huge capital, large quantity of 2. They require less capital, raw material and
raw material and labour. labour.
3. These industries require sophisticated 3. These industries require simple machinery.
machinery.
4. For example ship, building, iron and steel, 4. Cycle industry, sewing machine, electronic
cement, etc. goods, etc.
30 TEACHERS’ HANDBOOK (TOTAL GEOGRAPHY-X)

3. Basic Industries Secondary Industries

1. These industries form the core industries 1. These industries process the basic raw
on which other industries depend for their materials into primary goods for direct use
manufacturing. by consumers.
2. These industries require huge infrastructure. 2. These industries require less infrastructure
than basic industries.
3. For example, iron and steel, and petroleum. 3. For example, textiles, sugar and paper making.

III. Answer the following questions:

Q.1 (a) Agro-Based Industries Mineral-Based Industries
1. They are industries that use agricultural 1. They are industries that use minerals as
products as raw materials. raw materials.
2. The products are mainly consumer goods. 2. The products are either consumed by
consumers or they serve as raw materials
for other industries.
3. They are mainly small-scale or cottage. 3. They require heavy infra-structure.
4. Eg. Cotton and jute textile industries, sugar, 4. Eg. Iron and steel, heavy engineering and
tea, coffee industry, etc. machine tool, cement industry, etc.

(b) Refer to ‘Classification of Industries on the basis of finished product’ in the textbook.
(c) (i) It is necessary to crush sugarcane within 24 hours because its sugar content goes on decreasing
with the passage of time.
(ii) Cottonopolis is a city with highest concentration of cotton textile mills. Mumbai is a port city
providing transport and market facilities. It also has high humidity conditions ideal for cotton
textile mills.
(iii) Competition from artificial silk as it is cheaper and better in quality than raw silk.
(d) (i) l Small scale industries provide employment to more than 30 million people.
l They help the farmers to generate extra income.

l They help in development of rural areas. (Any two)

(ii) Public Sector Private Sector

1. These are owned and managed either 1. These are owned and managed by an
by the Central government or the State individual or group of individuals.
Government.
2. For example, BHEL, GAIL, IOC. 2. For example, Reliance Indian Limited (RIL),
Infosys and  Wipro.

Q.2 (a) l Bagasse: It is the leftover cane after crushing. It is used for making cardboard, paper and
insulation board.
l Molasses: It is a thick brown liquid obtained by repeated crystallization and centrifugation of
the sugar. It is used in the alcohol industry for the distillation of liquor, power  alcohol,  etc.
(b) The sugar industry is highly dispersed in India because sugarcane is grown in north as well as
south India. As the sugarcane needs to be processed within 24 hours of harvesting the mills need
to be located near the sugar producing areas.
(c) (i) Because sugarcane requires adequate moisture for growth.
(ii) Because India is a major producer and exporter of sugar. Decreased supply would lead to
increased price.
(iii) Karnataka is an important centre of silk because it has favourable climate for rearing of
silkworms and a large part of land is under mulberry cultivation.
(d) l Due to marine impact, the climate of Maharashtra is ideal for cultivation of sugarcane as a
result of which the recovery rate of sucrose is higher. l Crushing season is longer. l Excellent
transport facilities.
Q.3 (a) l India is the third largest exporter of cotton textiles. Thus, export of cotton textiles generates
foreign currency.
CHAPTER 19 31

l Cotton textile industry supports directly or indirectly more than 40 per cent of the country’s
labour force.
l It provides the basic raw material for manufacturing cotton  clothes.
(b) Refer to ‘The Main Cotton Manufacturing Centres’ in the textbook.
(c) Refer to ‘Problems of Cotton Textile Industry’ in the textbook.
(d) Rearing of silkworms on mulberry leaves for silk production is called sericulture. Refer to ‘Problems
of Silk Industry’ in the textbook.
Q.4 (a) Refer to ‘Factors affecting the Location of Industries’ in the  textbook.
(b) Refer to ‘Problems of Silk Industry’ in the textbook.
(c) (i) Sugarcane needs to be processed within 24 hours of cutting to preserve sugar content. After
24 hours the sugar content is lost rapidly.
(ii) Uttar Pradesh has been relegated to second place because of old mills, poor management, labour
problems and shorter crushing period.
(iii) To ensure sufficient supply for domestic consumption and to control price fluctuations.
(d) (i) Assam; (ii) Assam: Muga ; Bihar: Tasar
Q.5 (a) (i) The government may continue the ban on exports due to reduced sugar output caused by
patchy rains in key producing states of Maharashtra and Karnataka to stabilize domestic
prices.
(ii) l Patchy rains reduce yield due to water stress during crucial growth stages.

l Lower sugar content in the cane impacts the overall sugar production.

(b) The ban on sugar export: (i) ensures sufficient domestic supply; (ii) controls prices; (iii) sugar
diversion for ethanol production to support the biofuel programme.
(c) Heavy rainfall and flooding damage sugarcane crops, disrupt harvesting and transportation
leading to losses. The ban may be lifted to some extent depending on the extent of the damage
and government’s assessment of domestic supply.
(d) (i) Reduced global sugar supply, potentially leading to higher international prices.
(ii) Other sugar exporting countries may increase production and export to fill the gap.
(iii) Import dependent countries may face challenges in securing sugar supplies.
Q.6 (a) Refer to ‘Cotton Textile’ in the textbook.
(b) Gujarat or Maharashtra
(c) Refer to ‘Problems of Cotton Textile Industry’ in the textbook.
(d) Self Explanatory

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Chapter 19
EXERCISES
I. Choose the correct option:
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (a)
11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (a)
21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (c) 25. (a)
II. Answer the following questions
Q.1 (a) Iron and steel industry. Key industry because it provides raw material for making industrial
machines, defence equipment, railway   tracks, railway engines, bridges, dams, automobiles, etc.
32 TEACHERS’ HANDBOOK (TOTAL GEOGRAPHY-X)

(b) All the three processes of steel making—iron ore reduction, steel making and rolling are done at
one place in an integrated Steel Plant. TISCO at Jamshedpur.
(c) l Availability of raw materials l Abundant water supply
l Power supply l Cheap labour
l Transport facilities l Market. (Any three)
(d) (i) Availability of raw materials
(ii) Labour Force
(iii) Transport facilities
Q.2 (a) Bhilai Iron and Steel Plant, Rourkela Steel Plant, Vishakhapatnam Steel Plant. Bhilai Iron and
Steel Plant in Chhattisgarh.
(b) Mini Steel Plants have electric furnaces — do not have all the facilities at one place — require
separate units for completing the process of steel making.
(c) Vishakhapatnam steel plant.
l Latest technology with large size units.
l Location at deep land locked port of Vishakhapatnam facilitates import of raw material and
export of finished products.
(d) (i) Galvanization, the process of coating steel with zinc, is essential to protect steel products from
rusting.
(ii) Manganese acts as a purifying agent and enhances the hardness, strength and durability of
steel.
(iii) Mini-steel plants use electric arc furnaces rather than iron-ore.
Q.3 (a) Petrochemicals are important organic chemicals derived from petroleum products, LPG and coal.
(b) l Petrochemicalproducts are cost effective, economically stable, cheaper because they are produced
on a mass scale; l They are easily available as they do not depend on agricultural raw  materials.
(c) (i) Fertilizers and Resins.
(ii) Because transportation of petroleum and its products is always dangerous hence expensive.
(d) Entertainment: Due to the progress in electronic industry, the television and audio industries
have developed providing wholesome entertainment to the people.
Education: Electronic industry has enabled digitalisation of education by making available all
types of information available through the internet.
Q.4 (a) Jamshedpur and Durgapur.
(b) Mini steel plants cause less pollution than intrgrated steel plants because they do not use coal
and are dependent on electric  power.
(c) l Heavy Investment.
l Government Controlled Prices.
l Non-availability of Raw Materials.
l Old Techniques.
l Sick Mini-Steel Plants.
l Under Utilisation of Capacity.
(d) Refer to Chapter 18­ ‘Major Industrial Regions’ in the  textbook.

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CHAPTER 20 33

Chapter 20
EXERCISES
I. Choose the correct option:
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (a)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (b) 20. (c)
II. Answer the following questions:
Q.1 (a) Roads Maintained by
National Highways Central Government (NHAI)
Expressways and Freeways Central Government (NHAI)
State Highways State Government
District Roads State Government
Rural Roads State Government
Other Roads (Border Roads and International Border Road Organisation
Highways

(b) l Golden Quadrilateral; l North-South and East-West Corridors.

(c)
An efficient transport system helps better utilisation   of resources by linking backward areas with
l

more advanced  areas.

It aids in the process of industrialisation and urbanisation.
l

l It removes scarcity of goods during any crisis.

l It brings homogeneity in thought and culture through easy movement of people.
(d) l In the Northern Plains it is easy to construct roads;
l The cost of construction of roads is lower that of the railway   line;
l The movement of goods is safer, easier and economical   through road transport.
Q.2 (a) An expressway is a highway that has cemented six-lane roads, designed to provide smooth high
speed movement without any on-road obstacles like traffic or speed brakers. Eg. Delhi-Gurgaon
Expressway.
(b) Expressway Highway
Controlled access to expressway Multiple roads to access the highway
Facilities like access ramps, lane dividers, Most of these facilities are not there.
CCTV cameras for high speed and greater
safety and convenience.

(c) Refer to ‘Advantages of Railways’ and ‘Disadvantages of Railways’ in the textbook.

(d)
Railways operate on different gauges and the shift from one to another guage becomes a time-
l

consuming and expensive   affair.

l Rail traffic has increased and the old tracks are unable to carry the increased load. This also
cause frequent accidents.
l Perishable goods cannot tolerate a slow moving mode of   rail transport.
Q.3 (a) The main roads which are constructed and maintained by the Central Government are known as
the National Highways. These are main highways running through the length and breadth of the
country connecting major ports, state capitals, large industrial and tourist centres.
(b) and (c) Refer to ‘Golden Quadrilateral’ in the textbook.
(d) Refer to ‘Advantages of Roadways’ in the textbook.
Q.4 (a) Refer to ‘Importance’ on page 237 in the textbook.
(b) l Broad Gauge: The distance between rails is 1.676 metre. Almost all the main routes are broad
gauge. This system links all major parts of India with the interior towns and industrial centres
as it is more suitable for transport of heavier and bulky goods.
34 TEACHERS’ HANDBOOK (TOTAL GEOGRAPHY-X)

l Metre Gauge: The distance between rails is one metre. It is suitable for passenger trains and
accounts for 21.02 per cent of the total route length.
l Narrow Gauge: The distance between rails is 0.762 metre and 0.610 metres. It is mainly confined
to hilly areas. There is less gap between tracks and hence can be given curves easily.
(c) (i) Refer to ‘Advantages of Railways’ in the textbook.
(ii) Hilly terrain and thick forests — not conducive to laying railway tracks.
(iii) Level ground is conducive to laying roadways and rail tracks.
(d) l Transports over 18 million passengers and more than 2 million tonnes of freight daily.
l World’s largest employer with more than 1.4 million  employees.
l Has 6,909 stations over a total route length of more than 63,327 kilometres.
Q.5 (a) Airport Authority of India.
l Creating, upgrading maintaining civil aviation infrastructure.
l Providing safe and efficient Air Traffic Services and communication.
(b) Air India is the 16th largest airline in Asia, serving 50 domestic destinations and 39 international
routes, serving over 100 cities.
(c) Advantage: l fastest; l comfortable mode of transport.
Disadvantage: Air transport is very costly.
(d) Advantages: l Operate in hilly and inaccessible areas; l Airdrop food, medicines etc. in case of
calamities.
Disadvantages: Small size, so very low tonnage.
Q.6 (a) l India has an extensive network of navigable rivers, canals, backwaters and creeks.
l Presence of long coastline due to its peninsular shape making it accessible through seas.
l Presence of natural harbours — converted into ports — along coastline.
(b) Oceanic waterways constitute an important role in the transport sector of India’s economy. Ocean
routes handle 95 per cent of India’s foreign trade by volume and 70 per cent by value.
Besides international trade these routes are also used for transportation between the islands and the
rest of the country.
(c) (i) Refer to the box on Page 247 of the Textbook.
(ii) (a) They are seasonal and rainfed. Thus, they have water only in the rainy season and go dry
during summer. (b) They are swift flowing. (c) They have shallow basin. (d) They are narrow and
their beds have a generally steep gradient. (e) They have a number of waterfalls and rapids.
(iii) Mumbai Port lies midway on West Coast of India on the natural deep-water harbour of Mumbai.
It opens in the south to the Arabian Sea. It has all the port facilities with three wet docks, 63
anchorage points and four jetties for handling liquid chemicals and petroleum products.
(d) Refer to ‘Advantages of Waterways’ and ‘Disadvantages of Waterways’ in the textbook.
Q.7 (a)
Rivers, canals, backwaters and creeks should be deep   enough to allow boats and ships to
l
navigate.
l These waterways must be free of barriers such as waterfalls and rapids.
(b) Inland Waterways Oceanic Waterways
1. Inland waterways refer to using waterbodies 1. Oceanic waterways refer to using
like rivers, canals, backwaters, creeks, etc. for waterbodies like ocean, sea, bays, etc.
transporting goods and people from one place for transporting goods and people from
to another. one place to another.
2. These mainly connect places within the country. 2. These connect two or more countries.

(c) (i) They require lower infrastructure costs; more fuel efficient.
(ii) Transport network provides easy access to raw materials, labour and markets that are pre-
requisites for industrial  progress.
(iii) In times of calamities roads, railways and waterways may be blocked. Evacuation and dropping
of relief material can be done by airways.
CHAPTER 21 35

(d) (i) Refer to the table on page 249 in the textbook.

(ii) River Brahmaputra. Dhubri (Assam) to Kolkata port (West Bengal).
Q.8 (a) Refer to ‘Advantages of Airways’ in the textbook.
(b) Refer to ‘Advantages of Waterways’ in the textbook.
(c) (i) Srinagar, Delhi, Nagpur and Bengaluru
(ii) (1) Improved road connectivity
(2) Reduced travel time
(d) Yamuna Expressway helps in giving impetus to the sugar industry by facilitating the quick
transportation of sugarcane to sugar mills and reducing post-harvest losses.

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Chapter 21
EXERCISES
I. Choose the correct option:
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (a)
11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (a) 16. (d)
II. Answer the following questions:
Q.1 (a) Waste is a term used to describe any material that is discarded because it has served its purpose.
Sources: Domestic and Industrial.
(b) Use and throw concept leads to accumulation of waste as  people do not use a product after one
use and throw it as a waste.
(c) Oxides of nitrogen and sulphur released by burning of coal, wood or petroleum react with water
vapour present in the atmosphere to form acids like sulphuric acid and nitric acid. When these
acids precipitate together with rainwater, they form acid rain.
Impact: l The gypsum and calcium sulphate are washed away by water causing damaging marks on
statues and monuments. l Limestone statues are destroyed because carbonic acid in rainwater
converts limestone into bicarbonate which is water soluble and is washed away.
(d) Refer to ‘Ozone Layer Depletion’ in the textbook.
Q.2 (a) Refer to ‘Electronic Waste or e-waste’ in the textbook.
(b) Refer to ‘Industrial Waste’ in the textbook.
(c) (i) Because accumulation of waste contaminates the soil and makes it infertile. Non-biodegradable
waste release harmful chemicals into the soil and disrupts its natural composition.
(ii) Because the use of medical supplies, medical equipment and disposable items such as masks,
gloves and sanitizing wipes increased.
(iii) Short lifespan of electronic devices; lack of proper recycling infrastructure; increased affordability
and accessibility of electronics.
(d) Toxic Waste Non toxic Waste
l Pose a serious threat to human life and l Do not pose a serious threat to living
the environment. organisms and the environment.
l Non-biodegradable. l Biodegradable.
Q.3 (a) Refer to ‘Eutrophication’ in the textbook.
(b) When the waste is dumped near water bodies it enters in them with rainwater and results in water
pollution and the natural cleansing process in the water bodies cannot function properly. This
leads to eutrophication.
36 TEACHERS’ HANDBOOK (TOTAL GEOGRAPHY-X)

(c) (i) As a result of consuming plastic wastes that end up in the oceans.
(ii) Radioactive waste remain in the environment for a longer time; and is toxic to all living organisms.
(iii) Because it releases smoke and other air pollutants into the atmosphere. Most of these substances
are toxic to the environment.
(d) Refer to ‘Biomagnification’ in the textbook.
Q.4 (a) Refer to ‘Transmission of Diseases’ in the textbook.
(b) Asthma, Asbestosis, Lung Cancer.
(c) Refer to the box on Page 260.
(d) Refer to ‘Need for Waste Management’ in the textbook.
Q.5 (a) Segregation of waste l composting l recycling (Refer to the next chapter for details).
(b) Methane. It is highly inflammable and may cause explosions if not handled properly.
(c) (i) Refer to Q 1 (b).
(ii) Run-off from fields contains high amounts of nutrients causing eutrophication of the waterbodies
leading to death  of  aquatic  life.
(iii) Agricultural wastes contain chemicals that are toxic to birds and feeding upon it leading to
thinner and weaker eggshells and increased mortality.
(d) The increased concentration of Greenhouse Gases leads to the increase in temperature on the
earth, called Global Warming. Carbon dioxide, methane, nitrogen oxide.
Q.6 (a) The main cause is the enormous quantity of municipal solid waste generated daily in Delhi,
exceeding the capacity to process it.
(b) (i) Composting
(ii) Waste-to-Energy
(iii) Incineration
(c) An individual can reduce waste generation by reducing consumption of unnecessary items, reusing
things instead of dumping them and recycle whenever possible.
(d) Delhi can adopt following waste management practices like Indore:-
(i) Segregation at source; (ii) door-to-door collection; (iii) processing and treatment; (iv) public
awareness and participation; (v) continuous improvement and monitoring.
Q.7 (a) Ragpickers play an important role in waste management by collecting and sorting recyclable
materials from the waste. It helps in the reduction of the amount of waste going to landfills.
(b) (i) Implementing recycling programmes; (ii) Reducing the use of disposable items; (iii) Composting
food waste
(c) Bengalure- (i) effective waste management practices; (ii) recycling
Mumbai- (i) efficient waste collection; (ii) larger informal recycling sector.
(d) (i) Lifestyle and consumption patterns; (ii) Industrial activities; (iii) Waste management
infrastructure; (iv) Socio-economic factors

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Chapter 22
EXERCISES
I. Choose the correct option:
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (c)
11. (a) 12. (d)
CHAPTER 22 37

II. Answer the following questions:

Q.1 (a) Segregation of waste refers to separating waste into different categories such as biodegradable
and non-biodegradable. This reduces the volume of wastes entering landfills and is key to effective
waste management.
(b) Refer to ‘Open Dumping’ in the textbook.
(c) (i) To prevent scattering of waste as well as exposure of waste to environmental factors.
(ii) It allows for safe and effective waste disposal.
(iii) It allows for utilisation of plastic waste and reduction of bitumin used in road construction.
(d) (i) and (ii) Refer to ‘Sanitary Landfill’ in the textbook.
Q.2 (a) Biodegradable wastes refer to those wastes which can be broken down into carbon dioxide, water
and simple organic molecules by composting, aerobic or anaerobic digestion or similar processes.
Products: Compost; Gobar Gas.
(b) Rag-pickers segregate the biodegradable waste from the non-biodegradable waste. Pieces of metal,
glass, rubber, plastics and polybags are separated and recycled.
(c) Refer to ‘Municipal Waste Management’ in the textbook.
(d) Refer to ‘Composting’ in the textbook.
Q.3 (a) Reduce, Reuse and Recycle.
(b) Refer to ‘Reusing Waste’ in the textbook.
(c) (i) l Paper can be made from old and used wood, clothes and paper. l Millions of trees are felled
every year to make paper pulp. These trees can be saved.
(ii) Bagasse can be used for manufacturing paper.
(iii) Because polythene carry bags and styrofoam are non-biodegradable. l Plastic bags
react chemically with the food and other items carried in these bags and make the
food stuff poisonous. l Fumes from burnt plastic bags can cause serious irritation in the eyes
and throat and suffocation. l Plastic bags can choke the drains and the entire sewage system.
(d) Refer to ‘Recycling Waste’ in the textbook.
Q.4 (a) Refer to ‘Composting’ in the textbook.
(b) By refusing to buy products that generate waste and consciously choosing eco-friendly products
empowers customers. It gives customers a self satisfaction that they are contributing for the
betterment of the society by saving environment.
(c) (i) By using sustainable materials; (ii) Reducing waste; (iii) Promoting recycling and upcycling; (iv)
adopting ethical production practices.
(d) (i) Increase green cover; (ii) Improve air quality; (iii) Conserve biodiversity; (iv) Promote environmental
awareness

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