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The document consists of a series of questions related to aviation regulations, flight operations, and aircraft performance. It covers topics such as flight rules, weight categories, pre-flight responsibilities, fuel calculations, and aeronautical chart usage. Each question provides multiple-choice answers, indicating a focus on knowledge assessment for aviation professionals.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
3 views23 pages

doc 3

The document consists of a series of questions related to aviation regulations, flight operations, and aircraft performance. It covers topics such as flight rules, weight categories, pre-flight responsibilities, fuel calculations, and aeronautical chart usage. Each question provides multiple-choice answers, indicating a focus on knowledge assessment for aviation professionals.

Uploaded by

nareshshres1212
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Q 001 One of the following letter to denote the category of Flight rules with which the

pilot intends to comply first VFR then IFR

a) I
b) V
c) Y
d) Z

Q 002 If an aircraft type with a maximum certificated take-off weight is 15600 lbs what
will be the wake turbulence category:

a) H
b) M
c) L

Q 003 Who will be jointly responsible for the pre-flight planning, delay and dispatch
release of the flight

a) The aircraft dispatcher


b) The pilot-in-command
c) Joint dispatcher and pilot
d) Joint dispatcher and commercial staff

Q 004 If an item does not appear on the MEL then it must be operative for flight

a) Always true
b) Sometimes true
c) False

Q 005 Items which are obviously required for flight, such as the engines, will appear on
the MEL.

a) True
b) False

Q 006 Basic aircraft weight is known as:

a) Take-off weight – pay load


b) Zero fuel weight + sector fuel
c) Aircraft empty weight
d) APS weight
Q 007 Take-off weight is known as:

a) APS weight + traffic load


b) Dry operating weight + pay load
c) Landing weight + burn off fuel
d) Landing weight + taxi fuel

Q 008 Landing weight is known as:

a) Dry operating weight + zero fuel weight


b) Take off weight – burn off fuel
c) APS weight + pay load
d) Take off weight – taxi fuel

Q009 Max pay load of an aircraft is known as:

a) Take-off weight – sector fuel


b) Zero fuel weight – dry operating weight
c) Dry operating weight + sector fuel
d) Take-off weight – ramp weight

Q010 When preparing the flight plan one of the following must be kept in view:

a) Minimum tail wind component


b) Maximum tail wind component
c) Atmospheric density
d) En route weather conditions and the decision as to the best route and
altitude.

Q011 When a choice is available which of the following must be taken into account
while selecting the route

a) Aircraft weight
b) High speed cruise
c) Navigational aids available
d) Cruising level

Q 012 One of the following factors must be considered while selecting a proper altitude
at which to dispatch the aircraft:
a) The shortest distance
b) ‘Optimum altitude’ at which the efficiency of the aircraft power plant
is maximum
c) Territorial restriction
d) B and c both correct

Q013 The performance of aircraft depends upon:

a) RPM
b) Airspeed
c) Aircraft weight
d) All above are correct

Q 014 If an aircraft is departing special VFR on IMC, the departure alternate aerodrome
must be open for :

a) IFR
b) VFR
c) Special VFR
d) Sector VFR

Q 015 An aircraft takes 02:50 minutes to travel 360 nm. Find the Ground Speed of the
aircraft:

a) 126 kts
b) 127 kts
c) 127.5 kts
d) 128 kts

Q016 An aircraft travels 14 minutes with a ground speed of 197 kts. Find the distance

a) 45 nm
b) 46 nm
c) 47 nm
d) 48 nm

Q 017 Route Tc (T) TASW/VDISTFuel FF


A–B 090 200 kt 090/20 500 nm 2100 lbs 750lbs/hr

Find PNR distance:

a) 275 nm
b) 277 nm
c) 279 nm
d) 281 nm

Q018 Three axis intersect:


a) Lift equal weight
b) Angle of attack
c) Centrifugal force and gravity
d) Center of gravity

Q019 Load factor in constant turn depend on :


a) Angle of Bank
b) Centrifugal force and gravity
c) Center of gravity
d) Angle between chord line and relative wind

Q 020 The shape of the earth is :

a) Perfect sphere
b) An oval like egg
c) An oblate spheroid bulging at poles
d) An oblate spheroid bulging at equator

Q 021 The shortest distance between two poles on the surface of the earth is:

a) The arc of a great circle


b) The arc of a small circle
c) The arc of a rhomb line
d) The straight line

Q022 When crossing the international date line from the east to west we should:
a) Advance the date by one day
b) Retard the date by one day
c) No change in the date
d) Retard the time by 12 hrs

Q23 The aeronautical chart is used for:


a) reading the ground features on a route
b) reading the ground features and plotting
c) plotting only
d) for flying over the poles

Q024 The high altitude en-route charts give the following details:
a) all ground features
b) all ground features and radio facilities
c) radio facilities only
d) radio facilities, tracks and distances

Q025 The scale of 1:2 million on a map means:


a) 2 million part of map is equal to one part on earth
b) One part of map is equal to 2 million parts on earth
c) One inch of map is equal to 2 million yards on earth
d) One inch of map is equal to 2 million miles on earth

Q026 Date time consists of


a) 2 digits
b) 2 digits
c) 6 digits
d) 8 digits

Q028 Priority indicator for departure message is


a) SS
b) FF
c) GG
d) JJ

Q029 A transmission information relating to Air Navigation that is not address to


specific station or stations:
a) Blind transmission
b) Broad cast
c) Air to ground communication
d) Air to air communication

Q030 Which of the following information shall not notified by NOTAM


a) Major changes to search and rescue facilities and services available
b) Changes to and limitations on availability of fuel, oil and oxygen
c) The lack of apron marshalling services and road traffic control
d) Establishment, withdrawal or significant changes make to visual aids

Q031 The world Aeronautical chart series are:


a) Mercator projection
b) Poly projection
c) Lambert conformal projection
d) Gnomonic projection

Q032 The altitude above the ground level is known as:


a) Pressure altitude
b) True altitude
c) Absolute altitude
d) Density altitude
Q033 The temperature decrease in ISA from ground upward per 1000 ft:
a) 2 degree F
b) 2 degree c
c) 1.98 degree c
d) 1.98 degree F

Q034 The angle between track required and track made good is known as:
a) Track error
b) Drift angle
c) Wind angle
d) Cross tract

Q035 If the UTC is 0300 hrs LMT of a place 97:30 w (longitude ) will be:
a) 09:30 hrs
b) 20:30 hrs
c) 06:30 hrs
d) 01:00 hrs

Q036 Automatic and continuous record of diurnal variation of atmospheric pressure at


any station is provided by:
a) New patron barometer
b) Aneroid barograph
c) Fortin’s barometer
d) Dine’s pressure tube anemograph

Q037 An instrument which gives automatic and continuous record of atmosphere


humidity is:
a) Hydro meter
b) Rain gauge
c) Siphon gauge
d) Hydrograph

Q038 In northern hemisphere, wind circulation in HIGH and LOW pressure area, would
be respectively
a) Clockwise into the centre, and counterclockwise out of the centre
b) Clockwise out of the centre, and counterclockwise into the centre
c) Clockwise out of the centre and clockwise into the centre
d) Clockwise into the centre, and counterclockwise into the centre

Q039 The radio altimeter or ( the radar altimeter) of an aircraft, indicates in relation to
the earth
a) Pressure altitude
b) Density altitude
c) Absolute altitude
d) Indicated altitude

Q040 In the dissipitation stage of the cycle of thunderstorm, the ground air circulation
is:
a) Downdraft throughout
b) Updraft throughout
c) Both up and downdrafts throughout
d) In rolling turbulent motion

Q041 If cold dry air runs over warm air the instability can be released from the system
such as:
a) General surface cooling
b) General overall surface heating
c) Appearance of very high clouds over the system
d) An earth quake tremor

Q042 In cumulus stage of the cycle of the thunderstorm, the general air circulation is:
a) Up drafts
b) Down drafts
c) Both up and down drafts
d) In a rolling motion

Q043 Radiation fog will persist in a given area, when wind velocities are:
a) 10 knots
b) 18 knots
c) 12 knots
d) Little or no wind

Q044 When a flight dispatcher is on the flight deck of an aircraft his duties will be:
a) To inform ground personnel of any forecast weather
b) To keep operations department informed of their specific flight
operations plans
c) To maintain flight watch and flight assistance after the flight has
commenced
d) To maintain Jesppesen, Planning, performance manual etc in flight

Q045 When you receive a sabotage threat after the aircraft is airborne what shall be
your first action
a) Request captain to adverse his intentions, then advise stations(s)
concerned and other activities involved of the plan
b) Contact crew and advise of threat with brief details of all known facts
on the basis of known information, suggest that flight land at nearest
suitable airport or continue next schedule stop.
c) Act as coordinator between aircraft operations department and
ground personnel.

Q046 Block time is known as:


a) Departure time to destination time
b) Departure time to destination time + alternate
c) Chocks off time to chocks on time
d) Chocks off time to chocks on time + alternate

Q047 Flight time is known as:


a) Chocks off time to chocks on time
b) Taxi out tine to taxi in time
c) Elapsed time between the opening of the throttles on take off power
and completion of the landing run
d) Elapsed time between the opening of the throttles on take off power
and completion of the landing run + alternate time

Q048 Sector fuel is the total fuel of:


a) Fuel burnt from departure airport to destination airport
b) Fuel burnt from departure airport to destination airport + alternate
airport
c) Fuel burnt from departure airport to destination airport + 45 mts
holding
d) Fuel burnt from departure airport to destination airport + reserve fuel

Q049 ISA ( International Standard Atmosphere) means:


a) Temperature at sea level 10 degree c. and pressure 1013.5 mbs
b) Temperature at sea level 15 degree c. and pressure 1013.2 mbs
c) Temperature at sea level 15 degree c. and pressure 1013.5 mbs
d) Temperature at sea level 15 degree c. and pressure 1013.0 mbs

Q050 Endurance is known as:


a) Total sector fuel
b) Climb, cruise and descent fuel
c) The time an aircraft can remain in the air
d) Total sector fuel + reserve fuel

Q051 The objective of the FOO/FD is :


a) The objective of course is to known the principal duties of flight
operations officer (FOO/FD) as specified in ICAO annex 6 part 1
b) The objective of course is to known the principal duties of flight
operations officer (FOO/FD) as specified in ICAO annex 1 part 2
c) The objective of course is to known the principal duties of flight
operations officer (FOO/FD) as specified in ICAO annex 1 part 6
d) The objective of course is to known the principal duties of flight
operations officer (FOO/FD) as specified in ICAO annex 6 part 2

Q052 Given: TAS: 230 kts


Air distance: 750nm
Ground distance: 720 nm
What is the Ground Speed (GS) and Wind Component (WC):
a) 225kts - 17 kt
b) 225 kts + 17 kts
c) 221 kts - 19 kts
d) 221 kts + 19 kts

Q053 An rotor wing ( Helicopter) is to operate from KTM ( Tribhuvan International


Airport) to Narjun and there is no 4 letter ICAO code is assigned to Nagrjun. In
that case you will fill on ICAO flight plan destination column
a) ZZZZ on destination column and RMK/Nagrjun on itmem no 18
b) WWWW on destination column and DEST/Nagrjun on itmem no 18
c) YYYY on destination column and RMK/Nagrjun on itmem no 18
d) ZZZZ on destination column and DEST/Nagrjun on itmem no 18

Q054 Given: TAS: 390 kts


W/C out: + 32 kts
W/C Home - 38 kts
Usable endurance: 4 hrs
What is the distance to the point of no return (PNR) ?
a) 777.7 nm
b) 777.6 nm
c) 767.7 nm
d) 767.8 nm

Q055 Operational control of a flight refers to:


a) Exercising the privileges of pilot-in command of an aircraft
b) The specific duties of any required crewmember
c) Exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight

Q056 An aircraft is flying from A to B distance of 200 nm with TAS 210 kts and wind
component + 10 kts. Find CP (critical point) distance and time

a) 94 nm 00:26 minute
b) 95 nm 00:27 minute
c) 95 nm 00:26 minute
d) 94 nm 00:26 minute

Q057 If an aircraft is flying at FL 310 on .80 M cruising level on ISA+10 condition the
TAS of the aircraft will be constant:
a) True
b) False

Q058 in a level flight at a constant airspeed:

a) Thrust exceeds drag


b) Lift exceeds the weight of the aircraft
c) Lift equals weight
d) Thrust exceeds gravity

Q059 Which feature is associated with the tropopause

a) Absence of wind and temperature


b) Abrupt change of temperature lapserate
c) Absolute upper limit of cloud formation

Q060 Assuring that appropriate aeronautical charts are aboard an aircraft is the
responsibility

a) Aircraft dispatcher
b) Pilot-in-command
c) Flight navigator

Q061 For each aircraft shall be based on:


a) Aircraft flight manual
b) Operation manual
c) Flight dispatch manual
d) Master minimum equipment list

Q062 As per flight operation requirement (FOR) published CAAN. Flight crew shall not
fly:
a) More than 8o hours in any period of one calendar month
b) More than 90 hours in any period of one calendar
c) More than 100 hours in any period of one calendar month
d) More than 110 hours in any period of one calendar
Q063 An applicant for Flight Operations Officer ( Flight Dispatcher ) minimum age must
be not less than:
a) 16 years
b) 18 years
c) 21 years
d) 24 years

Q064 As per FOR published by CAAN, Flight Operations Officer License shall be valid
for:
a) 12 months
b) 24 months
c) 36 months
d) 48 months

Q065 Which point assists the captain of an aircraft in deciding whether to continue on
the destination or to return in the event of engine trouble?

a) CP
b) PNR
c) PET

Q066 Loading the aircraft such that its C.G is within fore-aft limitation:
a) For aerodynamic stability
b) To ensure that the aircraft is always horizontal in cruise
c) To ensure that the structural strength is no exceeded
d) To acquire the maximum volume capacity, weight ratio

Q067 Engine performance depends upon:


a) RPM
b) Atmospheric density
c) The manifold pressure
d) All are correct

Q068 An aircraft shall not be refueled or defueled at an aerodrome:


a) Within 5 meters of a building
b) Within 10 meters of a building
c) Within 15 meters of a building
d) Within 20 meters of a building

Q089 With the use of higher V1:


a) The Take off distance (TOD) required is lower, and the accelerate stop
distance required is higher
b) The TOD required is higher, and the accelerate stop distance is lower
c) The TOD required is unaltered, and the accelerate stop distance is
higher
d) The TOD required is unaltered, and the accelerate stop distance is
lower

070 The maximum permissible take-off weight should be:

a) the minimum of:

i) Max ZFW + T/O fuel


ii) Max RTOW ( i.e. max regulated TOW)
iii) Max RLW + Trip fuel
b)the minimum of:
i) Max ZFW – T/O fuel
ii) Max TOW
iii) Max LW

c)the maximum of :
i) Max ZFW + T/O fuel
ii) Max RTOW
ii) Max RLW + trip fuel
d)the maximum of
i) Max ZFW + T/O fuel
ii) Max TOW
iii) Max RLW + trip fuel
Q071 Higher temperature results:
a) Lower fuel consumption
b) Higher fuel consumption
c) No change in fuel consumption
d) Fuel flow remain constant

Q072 At FL 330 ISA deviation is -17 degree c. ( ISA -17), the actual temperature will be:
a) -64
b) -66
c) -68
d) -70
Q073 At FL 350 the actual temperature is -45 degree Celsius the ISA deviation will be:
a) ISA*5
b) ISA+10
c) ISA-5
d) ISA-10
Q073 The boundary layer between the TROPOPHERE and the STARTOSPHERE is
referred to as the ……….
a) STRATOSPHERE
b) MESOSPHERE
c) TROPOPAUSE
d) MESOPAUSE
Q074 Bad weather conditions are often associated with …………..pressure pattern
a) LOW
b) MEDIUM
c) HIGH
d) COLD

Q075 In the STRATOSPHERE, the strong winds of the upper TROPOSPHERE generally
tend to:
a) Increase slowly with increase of height
b) Remain unchanged with height
c) Decrease rapidly with increase of height
d) Become easterly abruptly as soon as the troposphere is crossed from
the troposphere side to the stratosphere-side

Q076 In the measurement of distance a minute of latitude is equal to :


a) 1 kilometer
b) 1 statue mile
c) 1 nautical mile
d) 60 foot

Q077 In the measurement of distance 1 nautical mile is equal to:


a) 5080 ft
b) 6080 ft
c) 3280 ft
d) 7080 ft

Q078 The airspeed corrected for instrument, Position, Pressure and Temperature is
known as:
a) True airspeed (TAS)
b) Calibrated airspeed (CAS)
c) Rectified airspeed (RAS)
d) Indicated airspeed (IAS)

Q079 Given SPECI:


VNKT 020020Z 20010G30 4000 + TSRA FEW015 BKN020 SCT030CB BKN035
30/28 Q1004
The bad weather condition is:
a) Low visibility
b) Strong wind
c) Heavy rain and thunderstorm
d) Cloudy

Q080 In a TAF message, a group 31018G32 shows that the forecast:


a) Gust is less than the wind speed by 14 kts
b) Gust is more than the wind speed by 32 kts
c) Gust is more than the wind speed by 14 kts
d) Gust is less than the wind speed by 18 kts

Q081 One of the subject for which SPECI observation is made and issued, is:
a) Air temperature (surface)
b) Minimum temperature ( surface)
c) Relative humidity
d) visibility

Q081 If the ground speed of an aircraft was 350 kts, and the tail wind en route was 50
kts, how much Air Distance will this aircraft cover in 30 minutes:
a) 150 nm
b) 175 nm
c) 200 nm
d) 225 nm

Q082 A system of computation involving the four basic elements, position, direction,
distance and time, is called:
a) Pilot navigation
b) Dead reckoning navigation
c) Radio or radar navigation
d) Celestial navigation
Q083 On all types of aeronautical charts, position may be identified by popular system
called;
a) Name of that position
b) Position that refers to the direction and distance from well known
place
c) Geographical coordinates ( Latitude and Longitude )
d) Longitude and Latitude

Q084 Great circle which pass through the North and South geographic poles are
known as;
a) Parallels
b) Isogonics
c) Meridians
d) Isobars

Q084 The altitude is of interest primarily in the control of engine performance is;
a) Indicated altitude
b) Calibrated altitude
c) Density altitude
d) Pressure altitude

Q085 An aircraft is flying from A to B with a distance of 100 nm and it took 00:18
minutes ; find Ground Speed
a) 335kts
b) 334kts
c) 333kts
d) 332 kts

Q086 An aircraft is flying from A to B with a Ground speed of 195 kts, how long it takes
to cover 140 nm
a) 44 minutes
b) 43 minutes
c) 42 minutes
d) 41 minutes

Q087 Asymmetrical airfoil with zero angle of attack pressure below the wing;
a) High atmospheric pressure
b) Low atmospheric pressure
Q088 A line defined as the line joining positions of equal variation. Is called
a) Isogonic line
b) Isobaric line
c) Isothermal line
d) isohyetline

Q089 The wet operating weight is the sum of:


a) Aircraft prepared for service ( APS) weight + Operating items + fuel for
take-off
b) Aircraft Prepared for Service (APS) weight + Operating items +
Fuel for take-off + Traffic load
c) Dry Operating (DOW) + Fuel for take off + Traffic load
d) Zero Fuel Wight ( ZFW) + Unusable fuel + oil

Q090 During flight with zero angle of attack pressure along the upper surface of the
wings:
a) Higher than atmospheric pressure
b) Less than atmospheric pressure
c) Equal to atmospheric pressure

Q091 The most famous projection used for navigation by pilots and it is famous chart
for correct scale is named:
a) Mercator
b) Transverse Mercator
c) Lambert Conformal
d) Polar Stereographic

Q092 The speed line LOP is used to check ;


a) Ground Speed
b) Course
c) Heading
d) True Air Speed

Q092 Transition Level , the …………..flight level available above the transition altitude
a) Highest
b) Lowest
Q093 Transition Altitude, that altitude around an aerodrome or in a control area below
which flights are conducted at altitude and above which they are conducted at
flight levels.
a) True
b) False

Q094 Alternate, an airfield within reasonable range of the destination or departure


point of a flight which is stipulated by the ground staff as the airfield which will
be used if conditions prohibit landing at the normal airfield.
a) True
b) False

Q095 Given:
Pressure Altitude – 12000’
True Air Temperature - -2 degree c.
Calibrated Altitude - 12000’
Find: True Altitude
a) 12200’
b) 12300’
c) 12400’
d) 12500’

Q096 Wind speed measuring Instrument is


a) Ammeter
b) Anemometer
c) Barometer
d) Thermometer

Q097 A squall line is usually associated with


a) A fast moving cold front
b) A fast moving warm front
c) A stationary front
d) An occluded front

Q098 Thunder storms are produced by which type of clouds:


a) Strati cumulus
b) Altostratus
c) Cumulonimbus
d) Nimbostratus

Q099 Which type of clouds are very strong turbulence:


a) Nimbostratus clouds
b) Standing lenticular clouds
c) Cirrocumulus clouds

Q100 The speed line LOP ( Line of Position ) is used to check:


a) Ground Speed
b) Crouse
c) Heading
d) True Air Speed

Q101 To measure distance of true course on Mercator chart using scale at :


a) Departure point
b) Destination point
c) Mid-latitude
d) Any point on course

Q102 The cloud type associated with the most serve turbulence in the mountain
waves is:
a) Cap clouds
b) Roll clouds
c) Orographic
d) Squall line

Q103 Density altitude is used to determine


a) True altitude
b) Terrain clearance in mountainous areas
c) Performance capability of an aircraft
d) Absolute altitude

Q104 In northern hemisphere wind blows clockwise


a) Around low
b) Around high
c) Around an isobar
d) All are correct
Q105 Warm up fuel: the fuel required to enable the engine to reach operating
temperature before taxing
a) True
b) False

Q106 Sector fuel flow, the calculated average fuel that will be consumed over a certain
sector of a flight
a) True
b) False

Q107 Angle of attack of an asymmetrical air foil is increased the center of pressure will
a) Move backward
b) Move forward
c) Remain same

Q108 Angle of attack


a) Thrust equal to drag
b) Lift equal to weight
c) Angle between chord line and relative wind
d) Angle between chord line of with and longitudinal axis

Q109 An aircraft is t0 fly from A to B and has the following limitations, calculate MTOW
and pay load
a) MTOW 115000 kg
b) MLW 90000 kg
c) MZFW 87000 kg
d) APS weight 75 000 kg
e) Flight ( A to B) trip fuel 20000 kg
f) Reserved fuel 4000 kg
g) Taxi fuel 200 kg

1) MTOW will be:


a) 115000 kg
b) 110000 kg
c) 110200 kg
d) 111000 kg
2) PAY LOAD will be:
a) 11000 kg
b) 12000 kg
c) 11200 kg
d) 12200 kg

Q110 Problem no1, An aircraft leaves from airport A, elevation 3000 ft, to cruise at
18000 ft, ROC 500 ft at 120 kts TAS, TC 100 degree ; wind on climb 300 degree at
20 kts, magnetic variation 2 degree west
Find : time on climb and distance made good during climb
a) 00:32 minutes 60 nm
b) 00:30 minutes 63 nm
c) 00:30 minutes 60 nm
d) 00:32 minutes 63 nm

Q111 Problem no2, Continuing problem no. 1 elevation of airport B at destination


4000 ft ROD 500 ft at 100 kt TAS, average wind 240/10 kts magnetic variation 3
degree west
Find :Time on descent and distance made good during distance
a) 00:30 minutes 50 nm
b) 00:28 minutes 52 nm
c) 00:30 minutes 52 nm
d) 00:28 minutes 50 nm

Q112 Problem no 3, Continuing no. 1 and no 2, with 300/15 kts and temperature -15
degree c. at pressure altitude of 18000 ft Indicated Air Speed 130 kts and total
distance ( from A to B ) 300 nm
Find :TAS , GS and time
a) 184 kts 196 kts 00:58 minutes
b) 182 kts 198 kts 00:58 minutes
c) 182 kts 196 kts 00:58 minutes
d) 182 kts 196 kts 00:56 minutes

Q113 Dry Operating Weight ( DOW) is the :


a) Dry Operating Weight + Take Off Fuel
b) Basic Empty Weight + Variable Load + Take Off Fuel
c) Dry Operating weight + Trip Fuel
d) Both (a) and (b) are correct
Q114 The Take off weight of any airplane is:
a) Max take off weight
b) Landing weight – trip fuel
c) Dry operating weight + sector fuel
d) Zero fuel weight + take off fuel

Q115 The Zero fuel weight of any airplane is:


a) Dry operating weight + traffic load
b) Dry operating weight + pay load
c) Operating weight + Total fuel
d) Take off weight – trip fuel

Q116 What effect does on overweight take off have an staling speed
a) Increase stalling speed
b) Decrease stalling speed
c) No change

Q117 In weight and balance terms, what is an index?


a) A cut down version of a force
b) A moment divided by a constant
c) A moment divided by a weight
d) A mass divided by a moment

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