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605785244

The document outlines the admission process and important dates for the B.Sc. Paramedical and Bachelor of Public Health courses at the Postgraduate Institute of Medical Education and Research, Chandigarh, for the session starting September 2025. Key dates include the start of online registration on June 25, 2025, and the entrance test scheduled for August 4, 2025. It also details eligibility criteria, application fees, and the structure of various courses offered.

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devinderkumar
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
21 views53 pages

605785244

The document outlines the admission process and important dates for the B.Sc. Paramedical and Bachelor of Public Health courses at the Postgraduate Institute of Medical Education and Research, Chandigarh, for the session starting September 2025. Key dates include the start of online registration on June 25, 2025, and the entrance test scheduled for August 4, 2025. It also details eligibility criteria, application fees, and the structure of various courses offered.

Uploaded by

devinderkumar
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 53

September 2025

PROSPECTUS

POSTGRADUATE INSTITUTE OF
MEDICAL EDUCATION AND RESEARCH
CHANDIGARH
B.SC. PARAMEDICAL & bachelor of
public health course
SESSION september-2025
IMPORTANT DATES AT A GLANCE
Start of Paramedical & BPH online registration on Website
25.06.2025
www.pgimer.edu.in
Application form closes 16.07.2025
Tentative Edit Window Live Date 18.07.2025 to
19.07.2025
Date for submission of 10+2 certificate and marksheet/equivalent certificate
(For Appearing Candidates) by email [email protected] or by 17.08.2025
hand in Academic Section, PGIMER by qualified candidates.
Computer Based Entrance Test (CBT) 04.08.2025
Expected date of declaration of result 11.08.2025
1stCounselling (Physical at PGI, Chandigarh) 26.08.2025
2nd Counselling (Physical at PGI, Chandigarh) 24.09.2025
Note* All the above-mentioned date are tentative in nature and may be subjected to change
due to certain circumstances with the prior notice on PGI website.
APPLICATION AND EXAMINATION FEE
• General /OBC/Sponsored Category: Rs. 1500/- + Transaction Charges as applicable.
• SC/ST Category : Rs. 1200/- + Transaction Charges as applicable
• Persons with Bench-mark Disabilities (PwBD) Candidates are exempted from
payment of fee.
All candidates are directed to deposit the above fees through online payment gateway
available at various Paramedical& BPH application portal w.e.f. 25.06.2025 to 16.07.2025
MODE OF PAYMENT: Through Debit/Credit Card/Net Banking (Payment through UPI may
be avoided)

All applicants are advised to read the Prospectus and Instructions carefully before starting online
registration and ensure that no column is left blank. In the event of rejection of the application form,
no correspondence/request for reconsideration will be entertained. Applicants are also advised to
download and take a print of the Application form. They should retain a copy of Application form till
the completion of Admission Process.

Please visit www.pgimer.edu.in regularly for latest notification/ announcement as well as


any Addendum/Corrigendum/Latest updates etc. regarding the Entrance Test.

DECLARATION OF RESULT
Final result for Paramedical & Bachelor of Public Health courses will only be displayed on PGI
website at www.pgimer.edu.in.
Result of individual candidate will NOT be informed on telephone and candidates are
requested NOT to make call to the Academic Section for such information.
LIST OF COURSES, DURATION &AGE LIMIT
Sr. Courses Duration AGE LIMIT
No.
1. Bachelors in Medical 04 years Not more than 25 years
Laboratory Science and not less than 17 years
2. B.Sc. Medical Radiology & 04 years as on 1st September, 2025
Imaging Technology
3. B.Sc. (Radiotherapy 04 years Not more than 30 years
Technology) and not less than 17 years
4. B.Sc. (Operation Theatre 04 years as on 1st September, 2025
Technology)
5. B.Sc. Medical Technology 04 years Not more than 25 years
(Perfusionist) and not less than 17 years
6. B.Sc. (Embalming and 03 years as on 1st September, 2025
Mortuary Sciences)
7. Bachelor of Audiology & 04 years Not more than 25 years
Speech Language Pathology and not less than 17 years
(BASLP) as on 1st September, 2025
8. B.Sc. Medical Technology 04 years
(Dialysis Therapy Technology)
9. Bachelor of Optometry 04 years
(B.Optom)
10. Bachelors of Physiotherapy 04 & ½
years
11. B.Sc. (Health Information 3 & ½ Not more than 30 years
Management years and not less than 17 years
as on 1st September, 2025
12. Bachelor of Public Health 04 years Not more than 25 years
(BPH) and not less than 17 years
as on 1st September, 2025
13. B.Sc. (Medical Animation and 03 years Not more than 30 years
Audio-Visual Creation) and not less than 17 years
as on 1st September, 2025
ADMINISTRATIVE STAFF

1. Director Prof. Vivek Lal

2. Dean (Academic) Prof. R K Ratho

3. Professor Incharge (Academic) Prof.Ashutosh N.Agarwal

4. Professor Incharge (Examination Cell) Prof. Nalini Gupta

5. Registrar Sh. Ummed Mathur

6. Administrative Officer (Academic) Sh. Ganesh Chandra

Fax 0172-2744401, 2744376

E-mail [email protected]

Web URL www.pgimer.edu.in

Postal address Registrar


PGIMER, Sector-12
Chandigarh - 160012

FOR PARAMEDICAL COURSES ENQUIRY – 0172-2755569, 60


For Technical Support-+91 9513044823

For Technical Support Email [email protected]


CONTENTS
Section PARTICULARS Page No.
1. INTRODUCTION 1

2. AIMS AND OBJECTIVE OF THE INSTITUTE 1

3. ADMISSION TO THE POSTGRADUATE COURSES 1

(3.1) General Admission requirements for Paramedical courses 2-6

(3.2) Other eligibility conditions & requirements for admission for 6-7
sponsored/deputed candidates

(3.3) Number of seats 7-8

(3.4) Reservation of Seats etc 8-11

4. SELECTION PROCEDURE 11-15

5. COUNSELLING & ACADEMIC SECTION 16

Information regarding joining, Anti Ragging Affidavit, Medical 17-19


Examination, Fees & Dues, Leave, General terms and conditions
etc.
6. IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS 20-24
7. ANTI RAGGING 25-26
Annexure – I (Proforma for Sponsored Certificate) 27

Annexure – II (Proforma for NOC certificate) 28

Annexure – III (Proforma Prescribed for SC/ST Certificate) 29-30


Annexure – IV (Proforma Prescribed for OBC) 31-32
Annexure – V (Declaration to be signed by OBC Candidates only) 33
Annexure–VI (Selection Criteria for Persons with Benchmark 34-36
Disability)
Annexure – VI(A) (Form-V of Certificate of Disability) 37
Annexure – VI(B) (Form-VI of Certificate of Disability) 38
Annexure – VI(C) (Form-VII of Certificate of Disability) 39-40

Annexure – VII(A) (Letter of Undertaking for Using Scribe) 41


Annexure – VII(B) (Certificate regarding physical limitation in an 42
examinee to write)
43
Annexure – VII(C) (Letter of Undertaking for Using Own Scribe)
8. USER MANUAL for online submission of application form 44-47
1. INTRODUCTION

The Ministry of Health, Government of India set up a committee known as the


“HEALTH SURVEY AND PLANNING COMMITTEE” on 12th June, 1959 to undertake a
review of the development that had taken place since the publication of the report of HEALTH
SURVERY DEVELOPMENT COMMITTEE (BHORE COMMITTEE) in 1946, with a view to
formulate further health programmes for the country in the third and subsequent five year plan
periods. This committee recommended the setting up of six Postgraduate Medical Institutions
in the country one each at Calcutta, Mumbai, Madras, Hyderabad, Lucknow and Chandigarh to
meet the increasing demand of teachers for the rapidly expanding medical colleges, specialist
services for hospitals, and needs of the armed forces.
The Postgraduate Institute of Medical Education and Research was conceived and
planned in 1960 to create an “ISLAND OF EXCELLENCE” in Chandigarh, providing physical
and intellectual milieu for young scientists working in multiple disciplines of medicine, to
advance the frontiers of knowledge, to render humane service to the sick and suffering, and to
train medical and paramedical manpower. The Institute was established in 1962 under the
erstwhile state of Punjab. It was declared an Institute of National Importance by an Act of
Parliament (Sr. No. 51 of 1966) w.e.f. 1st April, 1967.

2. AIMS AND OBJECTIVES OF THE INSTITUTE

The following are the objectives of the Institute:


a. To develop patterns of teaching in undergraduate and postgraduate education for all its
branches, so as to demonstrate a high standard of medical education.
b. To bring together, as far as possible in one place, educational facilities of the highest order
for the training of personnel in all important branches of health activity.
c. To attain self-sufficiency in postgraduate medical education to meet the country's need for
specialists and medical teachers.

3. ADMISSION TO THE POSTGRADUATE COURSES


a. Admission to various paramedical courses conducted at the Institute is made once in a
year. The session commence from first September each year.
b. The admission to the Paramedical courses of the Institute is made on merit on all India
basis, by holding an entrance test by the Institute, after issuing a countrywide admission
notice. The admission notice is published in leading English/Hindi newspapers
Employment News of India in the month of June/July for September session.

Page | 1
3.1 GENERAL ADMISSION REQUIREMENTS.
A. ELIGIBILITY
The Candidates who are appearing in 10+2 examination in April-May, 2025, can also
apply for the courses, but they will be provisionally allowed to appear in the entrance
examination subject to passing of 10+2 or equivalent examination. They will, however, be
required to submit their certificates/marks sheet from the respective Boards of their
having passed the 10+2 or equivalent examination to the Academic Section, PGI,
Chandigarh or by email [email protected] by 17.08.2025 at 11.00 A.M.
positively failing which they will not be considered for attending the counselling.
For Course at Sr. No. 01 Bachelors in Medical Laboratory Science
Candidate should have passed 10+2 with Biology or Vocational course in MLS/MLT,
minimum percentage of marks: 50% aggregate.
OR
10+2 (Vocational) passed in the respective stream i.e. Medical Laboratory Technology.
OR
Three years Diploma in Medical Laboratory Technology from a recognized Board/University.

Eligibility Criteria for Sponsored Candidates


a) Matriculation/Higher Secondary/Pre-University passed from a recognized Board/ University
with Biology.
b) Certificate/Diploma in concerned subject i.e. Lab. Technology three year duration from a
recognized Institute.
c) 5 year experience as a Lab. Assistant/technician or equivalent in a teaching/ research
institute after obtaining qualification and experience mentioned at ) (a) & (b) above.

For Course at Sr. No. 02 B.Sc. (Medical Radiology & Imaging Technology)
10+2 (Science Group)/Physics, Chemistry & Biology (PCB) passed or its equivalent examination
recognized by any Indian University or a duly constituted board with pass marks in Physics,
Chemistry, Biology
OR
Two and Half (2 &½ ) yearsDiploma in Medical Radiology and Imaging Technology after completing
12th class/10+2 of CBSE or equivalent with minimum aggregate of 50% marks in Physics, Chemistry
and Biology provided the candidate has passed in each subject separately.
OR
Candidates who have passed the Senior Secondary School Examination of National Open School with a
minimum of 5 subjects with any of the following group subjects:
a. English, Physics, Chemistry, Botany, Zoology
b. English, Physics, Chemistry, Biology and any other language.

Eligibility Criteria for Sponsored Candidates


a) Matriculation/Higher Secondary/Pre-University passed from a recognized Board/ University
with Physics, Chemistry and Biology.
b) Certificate/Diploma in concerned subject i.e. two and half years duration from a recognized
Institute.

RAGGING IS CRIME Page | 2


c) 5 year experience as Radiographer in a teaching/ research institute after obtaining
qualification and experience mentioned at) (a) & (b) above.

FOR COURSE AT Sr. No. 03 (B.Sc. Radiotherapy Technology)


(i) Senior Secondary (10+2) or equivalent examination recognized by any Indian University or a
duly constituted Board with pass marks (50%) in Science subjects.
OR

Diploma in Radiotherapy Technology after completing 12 th Class/10+2 of CBSE or equivalent with


minimum aggregate of 50% marks in Science subjects.

(ii) Candidates who have studied abroad and have passed the equivalent qualification as
determined by the Association of Indian Universities will form the guideline to determine the
eligibility and must have passed in the subjects: Physics, Chemistry, Biology/Mathematics and
English upto 12th Standard level.
OR
Candidates who have passed the Senior Secondary School Examination of National Open School with a
minimum of 5 subjects with any of the following group subjects:

a. English, Physics, Chemistry, Botany, Zoology


b. English, Physics, Chemistry, Biology and any other language.

For Course at Sr. No. 04 B.Sc. (Operation Theatre Technology)


Higher Secondary (10+2) or equivalent examination recognized by any Indian University or a
duly constituted board with pass marks (50%) in Physics, Chemistry, Biology/Mathematics.

OR

Diploma in Operation Theatre Technology after completing 12 th Class/10+2 of CBSE or


equivalent with minimum aggregate of 50% marks in Physics, Chemistry and Biology/Mathematics
provided the candidate has passed in each subject separately.

OR
Candidates who have studied abroad and have passed the equivalent qualification as
determined by the Association of Indian Universities will form the guideline to determine the
eligibility and must have passed in the subjects: Physics, Chemistry, Biology/Mathematics and English
upto 12th Standard level.

Eligibility Criteria for Sponsored Candidates

a) Matriculation/Higher Secondary/Pre-University passed from a recognized Board/ University


with Physics, Chemistry, Biology/Mathematics.
b) Certificate/Diploma in concerned subject i.e. Operation Theatre Technology of at least One
Year duration from a recognized Institute.
c) 5 year experience as Operation Theatre Assistant/Anaesthesia Technician/theatre master or
equivalent in a teaching/ research institute after obtaining qualification and experience
mentioned at ) (a) & (b) above.

RAGGING IS CRIME Page | 3


d) CSSR Assistants/who do not possess the requisite experience (Anaesthesia) in a reputed
hospital as such are not eligible for the B.Sc. (Operation Theatre) course as Sponsored
Candidate.
FOR COURSE AT Sr. No. 05 (B.Sc. Med. Tech. Perfusionist)

10+2 (Science group) passed or its equivalent qualification from a recognized Board/
University with Physics, Chemistry, Biology & English.

Eligibility Criteria for Sponsored Candidates


a) 10+2 (Physics/Chemistry/Biology)
b) 5 years experience in Govt. Sector (Govt. Organization/ Institution/Hospital) after obtaining
B.Sc. in Medical Technology/B.Sc. or OT Diploma in OT Assistant/B.Sc. Nursing.

FOR COURSE AT Sr. No. 06 B.Sc. (Embalming & Mortuary Science)


10+2 (Science group) passed or its equivalent qualification from a recognized Board/
University with Physics, Chemistry, Biology, General English and Gen. Knowledge/Current Affairs.

FOR COURSE AT Sr. No. 07 Bachelor of Audiology & Speech Language


Pathology)

Should have passed 10+2 examination or an equivalent examination conducted by the Pre University
Board of Education of the respective State Government securing a minimum of 50% marks.
Should have studied Physics, Chemistry and any one of Biology/Mathematics/Computer
Science/Statistics/Electronics/Psychology.

FOR COURSE AT Sr. No. 08 B.Sc Medical Technology (Dialysis Therapy


Technology)
Candidate should have passed 10+2 with science or have done Diploma in Dialysis Therapy
Technology. Minimum percentage of marks: 50% aggregate in Physics, Chemistry,
Mathematics/Biology (PCM/B).

FOR COURSE AT Sr. No. 09 Bachelor of Optometry (B.Optom)


Higher Secondary (10+2) or equivalent examination recognized by any Indian University or a duly
constituted Board with pass marks (60%) in Physics, Chemistry, Biology/Mathematics
OR
Diploma in Optometry after completing 12th Class/10+2 of CBSE or equivalent with minimum
aggregate of 60% marks in Physics, Chemistry and Biology/Mathematics provided the candidate has
passed in each subject separately.
OR
Candidates who have studied abroad and have passed the equivalent qualification as determined by
the Association of Indian Universities will form the guideline to determine the eligibility and must

RAGGING IS CRIME Page | 4


have passed in the subjects: Physics, Chemistry, Biology/Mathematics and English upto 12 th Standard
level.
OR
Candidates who have passed the Senior Secondary School Examination of National Open School with a
minimum of 5 subjects with any of the following group subjects:

a. English, Physics, Chemistry, Botany, Zoology


b. English, Physics, Chemistry, Biology/Mathematics and any other language.
FOR COURSE AT Sr. No. 10 (Bachelors of Physiotherapy)
Higher Secondary (10+2) or equivalent examination recognized by any Indian University or a
duly constituted Board with pass marks (50%) in Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany & Zoology),
Mathematics (i.e.- Physics, Chemistry and Biology as mandates requirements).

OR

Candidates who have studied abroad and have passed the equivalent qualification as determined by
the Association of Indian Universities will form the guideline to determine the eligibility and must
have passed in the subjects: Physics, Chemistry, Biology and English upto 12 th Standard level.
OR
Candidates who have passed the Senior Secondary School Examination of National Open School with a
minimum of 5 subjects with any of the following group subjects:

a. English, Physics, Chemistry, Botany, Zoology


b. English, Physics, Chemistry, Biology and any other language.

FOR COURSE AT Sr. No. 11 (B. Sc. Health Information Management)


Eligibility Criteria
Pass in 12th class of 10 +2 of CBSE or equivalent with minimum aggregate of 55% marks in
physics, chemistry and biology provided the candidate has passed in each subject separately. A
candidate also must have passed in English (Core or selective or functional) as a subject of studies in
the qualifying examination.
OR

Diploma in Health Information Management after Pass in 12th class of 10 +2 of CBSE or equivalent
with minimum aggregate of 50% marks in physics chemistry and biology provided the candidate has
passed in each subject separately. A candidate also must have passed in English (CORE or selective or
functional) as a subject of studies in the qualifying examination.

FOR COURSE AT Sr. No. 12 Bachelor in Public Health (BPH)


10+2 or equivalent certificate from recognized Board/University.

OR
Should have passed Auxiliary Nurse Midwife (ANM) / Male Health Worker / Female Health
Worker / Multipurpose Health Worker / Lady Health Visitor/ Health Inspector/ Sanitary Inspector /

RAGGING IS CRIME Page | 5


Food Inspector/ Drug Inspector/ Laboratory Technicians course or any other equivalent course.

FOR COURSE AT Sr. No. 13 (B. Sc. Medical Animation and Audio-visual creation)
10+2 or equivalent from recognized Board/ University.

Eligibility Criteria for Sponsored Candidates

a) 10+2 from a recognized board.


b) 5 years experience in Medical/Scientific photography.

3.2.
OTHER ELIGIBILITY CONDITIONS REQUIREMENTS FOR ADMISSION

1. SPONSORED / DEPUTED CANDIDATES

A candidate applying for admission is required to furnish the following certificates from
his/her employer for admission to the course:-
(i) That the candidate concerned is a permanent or regular employee of the
deputing/sponsoring authority for the at least three years.

(ii) That after getting the training at PGI, Chandigarh the candidate will be suitably
employed by the deputing/sponsoring authority to work in the subject in which the
training is received by the candidate at PGI, Chandigarh.

(iii) That no financial implications, in the form of emoluments/stipend etc. will devolve
upon PGI, Chandigarh during the entire period of his/her course. Such payment shall
be the responsibility of the sponsoring authority.

NB: DEPUTATION/SPONSORSHIP OF CANDIDATES ON TENURE APPOINTMENTS


ADHOC OR CONTRACT OR HONORARY OR APPOINTMENT AGAINST A LEAVE
VACANCY SHALL NOT BE ACCEPTED.

Sponsorship/deputation of candidates will be accepted only from the following:-

(i) Central or State Government Departments/Institutions


(ii) Autonomous Bodies of the Central or State Government
(iii) Public Sector Undertakings.
(iv) Medical Colleges affiliated to a University and recognized by the Medical Council of
India. In case of candidates deputed/sponsored by the Medical Colleges affiliated to
Universities and recognized by the Medical Council of India the
deputation/sponsorship certificate signed only by the Principal of the Medical
Colleges concerned shall be accepted.
Deputed/Sponsored candidates are also required to appear in the Entrance Exam. If

RAGGING IS CRIME Page | 6


selected, for admission to any course of the Institute, they are required to make their
own stay arrangement during the period of study. The seats will be allotted to the
sponsored candidates within sponsored category only.

2. FOREIGN NATIONAL (F/N)


A candidate applying for admission as a Foreign National candidate is required to take the print
out of online application form and furnish the relevant certificates required to route their
application through the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India, New
Delhi. An advance copy must be submitted at PGIMER, Chandigarh before the last date of
receipt of applications. However, applications of such candidates will be processed after receipt
of the same through diplomatic channels. These candidates are also required to appear in the
entrance test along with other candidates. A separate merit list of these candidates will be
prepared within their own group. Selection of candidates will be made on merit based on
their performance in the entrance test.

3. OVERSEAS CITIZEN OF INDIA (OCI)


OVERSEAS CITIZEN OF INDIA (OCI): OCI registered under Section 7A of Citizenship Act 1955
are also eligible to appear in this test and all terms and conditions applicable for Indian
Nationals given in this prospectus will be applicable to them. The candidate should submit
proof of Registration as OCI under Section 7A of Citizenship Act 1955 at the time of counselling.

4. EMPLOYED CANDIDATES

The Institute does not have any objection if the candidates in employment apply directly for
Paramedical courses. However, all such candidates should inform their employer in writing
that they are applying for this Entrance Test. They should also sign the undertaking in the down
loaded copy of Application form that they have informed their employer about the submission
of the application to PGIMER, Chandigarh. If any communication is received from their
department /office withholding permission to the candidate’s appearing at the entrance test/
admission to the course, the candidature/admission of the candidate will be cancelled and no
further correspondence in this regard will be entertained.

3.3. NUMBER OF SEATS


The tentative number of seats available for Paramedical courses for the September, 2025 session is
given below. However, the number of seats may vary. Variation in seats, if any will be updated and
displayed before the first counselling.

Sr. Name of Course Duration Total Gen OBC SC ST PwB Spo F/N
No Seats D n
1. Bachelors in Medical Laboratory Science (Only 4 years 14 07 04 02 01 *01 02 02
Medical students)
2. B.Sc. Medical Radiology & Imaging Technology 03 01 01 -- *01 01 02
(Only Medical students) 4 years 07
(Seats below the line are without stipend) -- 01 -- 01 -- -- --
3. B.Sc. (Radiotherapy Technology) 4 years 07 04 01 01 01 -- -- --

RAGGING IS CRIME Page | 7


4. B.Sc. (Operation Theatre Technology) 4 years 02 -- 01 01 -- -- 03 --
5. B.Sc. Medical Technology (Perfusionist) (only 4 years 03 01 01 01 -- -- 01 --
for Medical Students) (without stipend)
6. Bachelor of Science (Embalming and Mortuary 3 years 06 03 02 01 -- -- -- --
Science)
(Only for Medical Students, without stipend)
7. Bachelor of Audiology & Speech Language 4 years 13 07 03 03 -- -- -- --
Pathology (BASLP)
8. B.Sc. Medical Technology (Dialysis Therapy 4 years 04 02 01 01 -- -- -- --
Technology) (without stipend)
9. Bachelor of Optometry (B.Optom) 4 years 10 05 03 01 01 *01 -- --
10. Bachelor of Physical Therapy (B.Ph.T) (Only 4&½ 12 07 04 01 -- *01 -- 02
Medical Students) years
11. B.Sc. (Health Information Management 3&½ 10 05 03 01 01 --
years
12. Bachelor of Public Health (BPH) 4 years 15 08 04 02 01 *01 -- --
(10+2 Any Stream) (without stipend)
13. Bachelor of Science (Medical Animation and 3 years 10 05 03 01 01 *01 03 --
Audio-Visual creation) (10+2 or equivalent)
(without stipend)
Total 113 57 32 17 07 *06 10 06
*The number of seats mentioned for Persons with Benchmark Disability (PwBD) will be filled up on horizontal roster
basis.

NOTE:

a. Number of seats mentioned above is subject to variation without prior notice.


b. Selection will be held at PGIMER, Chandigarh during third week of August, 2025 for which the
candidates will have to appear for the Entrance Test at their own expenses.

c. Candidates are required to fill only ONE online application for courses Sr. No. 1 to 11 and
fill separate online application for courses 12 and 13. Candidates must ensure that they
are eligible to apply for courses in accordance with the qualification and other terms and
conditions for the purpose.

d. Self financing candidates are not accepted for any course.

3.4 RESERVATION OF SEATS


A. Scheduled Caste (SC), Scheduled Tribe (ST) & Other Backward Classes (OBC)
(i) This PGIMER provides Reservation for Scheduled Caste (SC), Scheduled Tribe (ST), Other
Backward Classes (OBC) - Non Creamy Layer (NCL), wherever applicable and admissible
as per instructions from Government of India.

RAGGING IS CRIME Page | 8


(ii) All candidates, irrespective of category may be considered against UR vacancies, subject to
fulfilment of parameters for UR candidates. However, against the vacancies earmarked for
specific categories (SC/ST/OBC), only candidates belonging to that community will be
considered.

(iii) For availing reservation, SC/ST/OBC candidates should furnish Caste Certificate from
competent authorities as per the format given at Annexure-III (for SC/ST candidates) and at
Annexure-IV (for OBC-NCL candidates) at the time of counselling. Further, in case of OBC
candidates, the certificates should specifically indicate that they do not belong to the
Persons/Sections (Creamy Layer) mentioned in Column 3 of the Schedule of the
Government of India, Department of Personnel and Training O.M.No.36012/22/93-Estt.
(SCT) dated 08.09.93 & its subsequent revision through O.M.No.36033/3/2004-Estt. (Res)
dated 09.03.2004, 27.05.2013, 13.09.2017 and further revision, if any, received till the closing
date for OLINE Registration of applications for entrance test. The candidates should ensure
that they belong to the OBC category while applying for the posts. Such candidates should
produce a valid OBC certificate in the prescribed format during document verification.
Further, in addition to the category certificate (OBC), a declaration in the prescribed format
as per Annexure-V has to be furnished by the candidates during document verification, that
he/she does not belong to the creamy layer. The certificate produced should have been
issued between 01.10.2024 to 30.09.2025. In case of not complying to these stipulations, their
claim for reserved status (OBC) will not be entertained.

B. PERSONS WITH BENCHMARK DISABILITY (PWBD)

1. As per provisions (Chapter VI Clause 32) of the Rights of the Persons with Disabilities
Act. 2016 Five percent of seats shall be reserved for Persons (Indian Nationals) with
Benchmark Disabilities (PwBD). The reservation will be provided on horizontal basis,
as per their rank in order of merit in Entrance Test.

2. CRITERIA FOR PERSONS WITH BENCHMARK DISABILITY (PwBD): In accordance


with the provisions of the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016, 5% seats of the
sanctioned intake capacity shall be filled up by candidates with benchmark
disabilities, based on the merit list of PGIMER Entrance Test, July/January session. For
this purpose, the Specified Disability contained in the Schedule to the Rights of
Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 is annexed in ANNEXURE-VII. The candidate must
possess a valid certificate certifying his/her physical disability. The disability
certificate should be certified by a duly constituted and authorized Medical Board of
the State or Central Govt. Hospitals/Institutions. All PWBD candidates shall be
evaluated by a Medical Board of the PGIMER to determine his/her eligibility and
suitability to the specialization.

3. Suitability of the candidates with disability for the particular specialization shall be
decided by the Medical Board constituted by the PGIMER.

RAGGING IS CRIME Page | 9


4. Degree of Benchmark Disability for Reservation and Competent Authority for Issue of
Disability Certificate: Only such persons would be eligible for relaxation in
conditions/ reservation in posts who suffer from not less than 40 percent of relevant
benchmark disability. Those Persons with Benchmark Disabilities (PwBD) who have
availed the relaxation and/or reservation have to submit Certificate of Disability
issued by the Competent Authority as per the form VI and VII of rule 18(1) under
chapter 7 of Rights of Persons with Disabilities Rules, 2017 dated 15.06.2017. Refer
Annexure-VI (A),Annexure-VI(B) and Annexure- VI(C) for the revised formats.

5. Assistance of Scribe:Visually Impaired (VI) candidates/candidates whose writing


speed is affected by Cerebral Palsy/muscular dystrophy/candidates with Loco-motor
disability (one arm)/Intellectual disability (Autism, specific learning disability and
mental illness) can avail the assistance of scribe for writing answers on their behalf.
For engaging the scribe, candidates will have to intimate through email
[email protected] at the time while filling ONLINE application form.
Engagement of scribe will be subject to the following conditions:-

(i) Candidates will have to arrange for the scribe on their own.

(ii) The qualification of the scribe should be one step below the qualification of the
candidate taking entrance test.

(iii) The scribe so arranged should not himself/herself be the candidate for the
PGIMER entrance test for which the candidate is appearing. Also same scribe
should not be engaged for more than one candidate. The scribe and the
candidate shall give a declaration to this effect. Any violation, if detected at
any stage, will render both candidate and scribe disqualified.

(iv) Candidates opting for scribe will have to provide additional details for scribes
before closing date of submission of ONLINE application form as per
Annexure- VII (A, B & C) so that PGIMER can issue Call Letter for scribe and
the same shall be signed by both candidate and scribe. Scribe should produce
original and valid ID proof at the Examination Center and bring passport size
photograph.

(v) Separate Call Letter will be issued to scribes accompanying the candidates.

(vi) The candidate shall be responsible for any misconduct on the part of the scribe
brought by him/her during the test.
(vii) Candidates availing the assistance of a scribe shall be eligible for
compensatory time of not less than 20 minutes for every hour of entrance test.
(viii) Candidates who wish to avail services of scribe but are unable to furnish the
details of scribe by the stipulated time, may avail the services of scribe by
filling up necessary details in Format given at Annexure-VII (A, B & C) at the
examination center duly complying the conditions stipulated for scribe. The

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change of scribe may also be allowed in emergency duly recording reasons
and filling the relevant details including pasting of photograph of the new
scribe as per Annexure-VII (A, B & C).
6. All one eyed candidates and candidates whose visual degree of disability is less than
40% shall not be considered as Visually Impaired persons and the provision for
engaging scribe shall not be applicable to them.
7. Selected Persons with Benchmark Disability (PwBD) candidates will be subjected
to medical examination by Medical Board constituted by the PGIMER at the time of
counselling or on the date decided by the institute and only those conforming to the
medical standards for the particular specialty, will be eligible for admission.

4. SELECTION PROCEDURE
4.1 COMPETETIVE ENTRANCE TEST
The Entrance Examination shall be conducted through a Computer Based Test
(CBT).The Entrance Test shall be held on 3rd August, 2025 and duration shall be 1
and ½ hours (One and a Half hours/90 minutes) for all courses.

The (CBT) Entrance Test will be conducted in one shift:


Timing –09.00 A.M. to 10.30 A.M. for B.Sc. Paramedical and 01.00 P.M. to 02.30
P.M. for Bachelor of Public Health & B.Sc. (Animation & Audio-Visual Creation)
courses.
4.2 TYPE OF PAPER
Candidates will be considered for selection to Paramedical courses based on a test
consisting of following:-
A. FOR 10+2 (SCIENCE GROUP) PASSED CANDIDATE. (For courses 1 to 4 & 9)
The theory paper will consist of objective type question in the following subject:-
1. Chemistry 25question 25marks
2. Physics 25question 25marks
3. Math or Biology 25question 25marks
4. General English 15question 15 marks
5. Gen. Knowledge/Current Affairs 10question 10marks

The standard of theory paper will be 10+2 (SCIENCE GROUP) passed.

B. FOR 10+2 VOCATIONAL STREAM PASSED CANDIDATES

(I) For Bachelors in Medical Laboratory Science Course.

The theory paper will consist of objective type questions in the following subject:-
1. Anatomy and Physiology 25question 25marks

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2. Biology & Chemistry 25question 25marks
3. Lab Techniques 25question 25marks
4. General English 15question 15 marks
5. Gen. Knowledge/Current Affairs 10question 10marks

(II) For B.Sc. in Medical Radiology & Imaging Technology

The theory paper will consist of objective type questions in the following subject:-
1. Anatomy and Physiology 25question 25marks
2. Gen. Physics & Radiation Physics 25question 25marks
3. X-Ray Techniques 25question 25marks
4. General English 15question 15 marks
5. Gen. Knowledge/Current Affairs 10question 10marks

C. FOR SPONSORED/DEPUTED/DMLT CANDIDATES

(I) FOR Bachelors in Medical Laboratory Science Course.


1. Biochemistry Lab. Techniques 25question 25marks
2. Microbiology Lab. Techniques 25question 25marks
3. Hematology& Histopathology 25question 25marks
Lab. Techniques.
4. General English 15question 15 marks
5. Gen. Knowledge/Current Affairs 10question 10marks

(II) For B.Sc. in Medical Radiology & Imaging Technology and Radiotherapy
Technology.

1. Anatomy and Physiology 25question 25marks


2. Radiation Physics 25question 25marks
3. Radiography Techniques 25question 25marks
4. General English 15question 15 marks
5. Gen. Knowledge/Current Affairs 10question 10marks

(III) For B.Sc. (Operation Theatre Technology)


1. Anatomy and Physiology 25question 25marks
2. Operation Theatre Equipment 25question 25marks
3. Anesthesia& Surgical Tech 25question 25marks
4. General English 15question 15 marks
5. Gen. Knowledge/Current Affairs 10question 10marks

(IV) For B.Sc. Medical Technology (Perfusionist)

The theory paper will consist of objective type question in the following subject:-

1. Chemistry 25question 25marks


2. Physics 25question 25marks
3. Biology 25question 25marks
4. General English 15question 15 marks
5. Gen. Knowledge/Current Affairs 10question 10marks

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D. The standard of theory paper will be 10+2 (Medical GROUP) Passed Candidates
(For courses Sr. no. 5, 6 & 10).
For Perfusionist, B.Sc.(Embalming and Mortuary Science)and Bachelors of
Physiotherapy.
The theory paper will consist of objective type question in the following subject:-

1. Chemistry 25question 25marks


2. Physics 25question 25marks
3. Biology 25question 25marks
4. General English 15question 15 marks
5. Gen. Knowledge/Current Affairs 10question 10marks

E. The standard of Theory paper will be 10+ 2 or equivalent passed candidates (For
course Sr.no.12 (B.Sc. Medical Animation and Audio-Visual Creation)

The theory paper will consist of objective type question in the following subject:-
1. General English 25question 25marks
2. G.K. & Current Affairs 25question 25marks
3. General Art 25question 25 marks
4. Basic Science 25question 25marks

F. The standard of theory paper will be 10+2 (Medical/Non-Medical)Passed


Candidates (For courses Sr. No. 08).
ForB.Sc. Medical Technology (Dialysis Therapy Technology)
The theory paper will consist of objective type question in the following subject:-
1. Chemistry 25question 25marks
2. Physics 25question 25marks
3. Biology or Math 25question 25marks
4. General English 15question 15 marks
5. Gen. Knowledge/Current Affairs 10question 10marks

G. The standard of theory paper will be 10+2 (Medical/Non-Medical)Passed


Candidates (For courses Sr. No. 09).
For Bachelor of Optometry (B.Optom)
The theory paper will consist of objective type question in the following subject:-
1. Chemistry 25question 25marks
2. Physics 25question 25marks
3. Biology or Math 25question 25marks
4. General English 15question 15 marks
5. Gen. Knowledge/Current Affairs 10question 10marks

H. The standard of theory paper will be 10+2 (Medical GROUP) Passed Candidates or
equivalent passed candidates (For courses Sr. no. 11 B.Sc. (Health Information
Management).

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The theory paper will consist of objective type question in the following subject:-

1. Chemistry 25question 25marks


2. Physics 25question 25marks
3. Biology 25question 25marks
4. General English 15question 15 marks
5. G. K. & Current Affairs 10question 10marks

I. The standard of Theory paper will be 10+ 2 or equivalent passed candidates (For
course Sr. No13/14 Bachelor in Public Health (BPH)/B. Sc. Medical Animation and
Audio-visual creation)
The theory paper will consist of objective type question in the following subject:-
1. General English 25question 25marks
2. G.K. & Current Affairs 25question 25marks
3. General Art 25question 25 marks
4. Basic Science 25question 25marks

4.3 PASS PERCENTILE


Actual scores will not be considered further since these percentile scores will depend on
relative difficulty of the question paper, and the relative ability of candidates, and it is
not advisable to use these in generating cut-offs for selection. These will be converted
into percentile score using the formula: Percentile= [(B+(0.5xE))/N]x100 where0 B=
number of scores below the candidate’s score, E= number of scores equal to the
candidate’s score (1 if there is no tie, and >1 if there is a tie), and N= number of
candidates appearing for exam. Overall rank of all the candidates shall be decided
based on these percentile scores, with a higher percentile score translating into a better
rank.

4.4 INTER-SE MERIT


If two or more candidates obtain equal percentile scores, then inter-se merit for
selection shall be determined on the following basis:
(i) A candidate who has made more attempts in passing 10+2 examination would
rank junior to the candidate who has made lesser attempts.
(ii) If the attempts made in passing 10+2 examinations are also the same then the
candidate who has obtained higher marks in the 10+2 examination shall rank senior
to a candidate who has obtained lower marks.
(iii) If the attempts made in passing said examination and the marks obtained in the
examination are also the same, then a candidate senior in age shall rank senior to a
candidate who is junior in age.
NB: The admission to the course is initially made on probation for a period of three months.
At the end of 3 months, if the performance of the candidate is not found to be
satisfactory, his/ her admission may be cancelled.

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4.5 MERIT LIST & MINIMUM CUT-OFF PERCENTILE

A combined merit list based on the percentile obtained by all the candidates appearing in
the entrance test (irrespective of their category) and applying the above method for
resolving ties shall be prepared. The candidates with minimum cut-off percentile in
entrance test as mentioned below against each category, will qualify for admission:

• Open (General)/Sponsored/Foreign National: 55th percentile


• SC/ST/OBC &PwBD : 50th percentile

Candidates from reserved categories are also eligible for general category seats (open
seats).Thus, in addition to category wise list; a combined merit list of all the candidates will
also be prepared.

SUMMARY OF PARAMEDICALENTRANCE TEST PATTERN


(Please see the text for details and explanations)
1. Mode of Examination Computer Based Test (CBT) / Online
2. Duration of Examination (90minutes)
3. Date of Examination 04.08.2025
4. Timing of Examination 09.00 A.M. to 10.30 A.M.(Sr.No.01 to 11 except 12&13)
11.00 AM to 12.30 P.M. (Sr.No. 12&13)
5. Location of Examination Chandigarh (Tricity), Ambala, Delhi (NCR), Amritsar,
Centres Jalandhar, Patiala (PB.), Hamirpur, Kangra , Shimla
Bilaspur, (HP), lucknow, (UP), Dehradun (Uttarakhand)
Jaipur, ( Rajasthan)
6. Language of Paper English
7. Type of Examination Objective Type
8. Number of Questions
9. Marking Scheme
10. Method of Cut-Off Please see the concerned sections for detail.
11. Method of determining
merit
12. Method of resolving ties

Note: (a) The PGIMER will endeavor to accommodate the candidates in centers/cities opted by
them. However, the PGIMER reserves the right to cancel any Centre/city and ask the candidates of that
centre/city to appear from another centre/city. PGIMER also reserves the right to divert candidates of
any centre/city to some other Centre/city to take the examination.

RAGGING IS CRIME Page | 15


(b) Other important instructions:
(i) No electronic/metal item and ornaments inside the exam center will be allowed.
(ii) Shoes/footwear with thick soles and garments with large buttons will not be permitted.
(iii) For details please see and follow instructions given in the admit card.

(c) Unfair means, cheating, forgery and impersonation:


The candidates will not resort to/adopt any unfair means, cheating, forgery and impersonation
during the examination. In case a candidate is caught guilty of such act he/she shall be expelled
from the examination hall and examination of such candidates including the outcome shall be
terminated / cancelled right away. Such candidate’s in possession of prohibited items shall be
confiscated immediately by the invigilator. Identity and communication details of candidate
shall be noted down by invigilators/observer for reporting to authorities in TCS/PGI/Police.
Forgery is a cognizable offence and strictness disciplinary action. A FIR may also be lodged
with the police. Any request for reappearing and refund of fees shall not be accepted.

5. COUNSELLING & ACADEMIC SESSION


Allocation of various disciplines of Paramedical courses will be done on the basis of a personal
counselling, strictly in order of merit in the Entrance Test. The number of candidates to be
considered for 1stcounselling will be three times the total number of seats to be filled for each
category of candidates, provided the candidates fulfil the cut-off percentile mentioned in
‘Selection Procedure’. The selection will be finalized only after the counselling of the
candidates. Any candidate who is absent at the time of counselling will not be considered for
admission. Under exceptional circumstances, if any candidate reports for counselling after
his/her turn, he/she will be considered for admission only in the disciplines available at that
time. The seats will be filled purely on merit basis. All the candidates must bring the original
certificates at the time of counselling and joining.

NOTE:
No TA/DA shall be paid to the candidates for attending any Counselling. No individual
communication will be sent for Counselling session.

Admission to all courses will be closed on 30th September, 2025

5.1 INFORMATION REGARDING JOINING


Selected candidates must join course on the prescribed date as indicated in their admission
letter. The selection of candidates who fail to join by the specified date shall automatically
stand cancelled.

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Under exceptional circumstances, a candidate may be allowed to join late, upto a
maximum of one month, on the condition that he/she will make up the deficiency caused
in his/her academic term due to late joining, by forfeiting his/her leave, during the first
year of his/her admission, to which he/she will be entitled on joining the Institute, by the
same number of days. For this the candidates will be required to intimate the un-availed
leave to Registrar Office at the end of the first year and get the same adjusted by forfeiting
the same amount of leave, before the end of the second year.
However, the candidates whose absence (apart from their absence on leave admissible to
them during the period of their studies) does not exceed one month will be permitted to
appear in the final Paramedical courses entrance test along with other eligible candidates
joining the Institute during the same session. This concession will not, however, be
admissible to candidates for their unauthorized absence, if any, during the period of their
studies.

The candidates selected for admission to Paramedical courses are required to make
their own arrangements for stay during the period of their entire studies.

5.2 ANTI RAGGING UNTERTAKING


The Paramedical courses candidates are required to be submitted two Anti Ragging
Affidavits from Parents/Guardian and himself/herself on non-judicial stamp paper of
minimum Rs. 10/- or above value. Any candidate who joins Paramedical courses and
leaves the course midway, the security submitted by the candidate will be forfeited.

5.3 MEDICAL EXAMINATION

Medical fitness is a pre-condition for admission to the course of the Institute. Selected
candidates (except sponsored candidates) will be medically examined by a Medical Board
constituted by the Institute for the purpose.

5.4 FEES AND DUES


The following dues are payable to the Institute, by the candidates admitted to the
Paramedical courses:
a) Registration Fee Rs. 200/-
b) Tuition Fee Rs. 250/- per annum
c) Laboratory Fee Rs. 120/- per annum
d) Amalgamated Fund Rs. 120/- per annum
e) Security Rs. 300/- (refundable only after
completion of course.
f) Library Fee 40/-
Examination Fee
a) Semester Examination Fee Rs. 1000/- for each semester

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b) Compartment Fee Rs. 500/- for each paper.

The first instalment of annual fees/charges for the FIRST YEAR is required to be paid in
advance immediately after selection /allotment of seat (to confirm the seat). Fees & other
charges for the subsequent years (2nd/3rd year so on) are required to pay annually in
advance by 15th September every year. The onus of payment of fee with the Cashier
in the Academic/Training Branch will be on the student/candidate. No notice for
payment of fee will be issued by the department.

(i) Fees and other charges once paid shall not be refunded in any case including that
of a candidate leaving the Institute before the completion of the term or not
joining the institute for any reason. No correspondence in this connection shall be
entertained. The claim for the refund of security must be submitted within 3
years of the date of completion of studies by the candidate concerned failing
whom the amount will be forfeited to the institute.
(ii) a) The dues/fee must be paid by the prescribed date i.e. 15th September for
every year. For late payment, a fine @Rs.5/- per day is charged up to a
maximum of 15days. After 15days the name of the candidate who does not
pay the dues is removed from the rolls of the institute and fine till the date of
termination will be charged. For re-admission, if otherwise eligible, a sum of
Rs.500/-will be charged as re-registration fee in addition to the fine till the
date of re-admission. Such a candidate will have to repeat the period of
his/her training for which he/she remains off the rolls.
(iii) Security will be released only after the receipt of the “No Dues Certificate”
on completion of the duration of course. No security will be released to those
candidates who do not join or discontinue the course midway.
Any candidate who joins Paramedical courses and leaves the course midway,
the security submitted by the candidate will be forfeited.

Note: The above-mentioned fees and dues are under consideration and subject
to revision.

5.5 LEAVE

Candidates admitted to Paramedical courses will be entitled to 30 days leave


during the each year. Leave for one year cannot be carried forward to the
subsequent year. Further, the period as well as exam of students, who avail leave
over & above their entitlement, will be extended.

5.6 LIBRARY
Dr. Tulsi Das Library, PGIMER, was established in 1962 primarily for meeting the

RAGGING IS CRIME Page | 18


requirements of faculty members and postgraduate students of different disciplines at
the Institute. Dr. Tulsi Das Library is the backbone of the Institute supporting
Research work, education, teaching and patient care. The library has a collection of
more than one Lac books, bound journals and theses as the print material. The theses
include M.Sc, MD, MS, M.Ch, DM and Ph.D. of various disciplines. The library is
transforming from conventional to hybrid and later digital by acquiring around 2000
e-journals, e-books including videos. In addition the access of information is through
library gateway i.e. RemoteXs with EBSCO Discovery services.

The library subscribes to around 38 databases which include major publishers like
Elsevier, Lippincott, Wiley, Springer, BMJ, Karger, Oxford, ASM, Taylor & Francis etc.
and software’s like TURNITIN for plagiarism check, Grammerly, Endnote, SPSS on
demand of our end users. The services are available to members of library 24×7×365
days i.e. Access- Anytime, Anywhere (3A’s) to all the digital content as stated above.
The library has implemented the latest information technologies like Wi-Fi facility
with high speed internet connection.

Moreover, the library is also providing digital services on request in the form of full-
text articles, chapters of books, references and so-on through e-mail. The OPAC
services for in-house collection are also available in library and remotely through the
pgimer web page: http://pgimer.edu.in under Education window. The library also
supports evidence based practice research to its members and teaches the building of
search strategies used for writing systematic reviews. The library has a separate
reading room facility for the residents and members of the library for 24 hours.

5.7 SPORTS AND CULTURAL ACTIVITIES


The Institute has upheld the healthy tradition of maintaining the intellectual as well
as the-physical fitness of its employees and trainees. Facilities for indoor as well as
outdoor games like table tennis, badminton, cricket, lawn tennis, football, etc. have
been consistently available to the enthusiasts. A huge complex for water sports
situated in the immediate vicinity of the men’s hostel is functional. Institute
Cultural Programmes Committee works for the promotion of Art, Culture and
Literary activities in the campus. Various functions and participation both outside
and within the campus, are organized and jointly presented by the students of
various courses in the institute. As the students come from far and wide, it bestows
integration and international understanding. In addition to creative art, dance,
drama, song and music presentations by the Institute staff members, Cultural
Programmes Committee also organizes performances by artists of international
repute from India and abroad, periodic film festivals and retrospectives from
special bonanzas for mass entertainment. Bhargava Auditorium of the Institute is a
special attraction, being the biggest and one of the best auditorium in this part of
the country. The medium of extracurricular activities is exploited to the maximum

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of promoting better interpersonal relationship and character building
5.8 INTERNAL ASSESSMENT
Internal Assessment/progress report should be evaluated periodically by the
faculty members of the concerned department on the theoretical knowledge and
practical skills of a candidate. The Head of the Department should send such an
internal assessment/progress report of each candidate on regular basis i.e. six
monthly and send to the Academic Section for official records.

6. IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS

1. INSTRUCTIONS FOR FILLING THE ONLINE APPLICATION FORM

a) Candidate should fill in the Online Application with utmost care and follow the
instructions and help manual as given on the index page. Candidate should fill in
the Online Application form correctly. Incorrect filled form may leads to rejection.
b) A candidate seeking admission to the Entrance Examination is required to submit
his/her application in the prescribed format available online with the Prospectus on
www.pgimer.edu.in.
c) The cost of Application Form includes the fee for entrance examination which is
non-refundable and no correspondence in this regard will be entertained. The
candidate is required to go through the Prospectus carefully and acquaint
himself/herself with all requirements with regard to filling of the online application
form.
d) Online Registration:

i) After selecting the online registration, fill the mandatory details asked for and
deposit the prescribed fee through debit/credit card/Net Banking. After
submitting fees filled required information step by step. Follow the Instructions
carefully.
ii) It will be the responsibility of the candidate to ensure that correct details are
filled in the Registration Slip. The Institute will not be responsible for any
incorrect information/cancellation of candidature/loss or lack of
communication etc. due to wrong filled online Application form.
iii) No candidate should register more than one application.
iv) All applicants are required to ensure that Photo/Signature is uploaded
according to the instructions provided in the Prospectus. Failure to do so may
result in rejection of applications.
v) Duplicate applications from any applicant will result in cancellation of all such
applications. No intimation regarding such summary rejections will be
provided.

e) STATUS OF ONLINE REGISTRATION

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Acknowledgement of successful Online Registration will be forwarded to
applicant‘s Registered Email ID. The Registration Form will remain Under Review
regarding uploaded images and eligibility.

f) Admit Card for Accepted Registration Form will only be uploaded on the website. If
the status of Registration Form or Admit Card is not available on website, he/she should
immediately write an email to the Registrar, PGIMER on
[email protected] along with full particulars of the Registration Form.

g) DOCUMENTS TO BE ATTACHED WITH REGISTRATION SLIP


The candidates must upload their self attested/attested copies of
certificates/documents in support of their educational qualifications, marks, date of
birth, category, experience etc. If a candidate fails to upload self attested copies of
the requisite documents as above, his/her candidature will be cancelled and he/she
will not be allowed to participate in subsequent stages of selection/admission
process.

For Sponsored Candidates and Foreign nationals.

1) Sponsorship Certificate (in the case of sponsored candidate) in the format


prescribed in the Prospectus, duly completed and signed by the competent
authority.
2) NOC from Ministry of Health & Family Welfare in case of Foreign National.

Note:
• Sponsored/Foreign National category candidates should send the above
documents in a separate envelope to the Training Branch, PGIMER,
Chandigarh, indicating their Registration No. on the top of the envelope and
on the documents followed by the name of course/discipline applied for.
• In case of non-receipt of the nominations/clearance/no objection from the
concerned Ministry by due date, their candidature will not be considered.
• Candidates belonging to Sponsored Category are required to submit their
NOC & Sponsorship Certificate in original from their Competent Authority
and presently employed candidates are required to submit their NOC from
Employer (as per format given in Annexure-II). The Applications of above
mentioned categories i.e. Foreign national and Sponsored category alongwith
requisite certificates must reach the office of Registrar, Academic Section
PGIMER, Sector-12, Chandigarh-160012, at least 15 days before the
commencement of the Entrance Examination.

h) Discrepancy, if any, in the date and time of the entrance examination mentioned in
the Prospectus, Admit Card etc. should be immediately brought to the notice of the
Training Branch, PGIMER, Chandigarh through email. Complaints received at later

RAGGING IS CRIME Page | 21


stage will not be entertained. In case any discrepancy is found in the information
provided in the various documents, the data provided on the Application Form will
be considered as final for all purposes.

i) It will be the responsibility of the candidate to ensure that correct address,


Mobile No. & email ID in the Application Form is filled. The Institute shall not
be responsible for any miscommunication due to incorrect address, Mobile No.
and email ID given by the applicant on the Application Form or non-receipt for
any communication.

2. Other Important Instructions


a) All the candidates should ensure to take printout of application form after completing
all details.
b) A list of candidates who qualify the written test and eligible for counselling should submit the
print out of their online application form along with photocopies of relevant self-attested
certificates/documents in support of educational qualification(s), experience, age/date of birth
certificate, caste certificate, Fresh OBC certificate, and NOC from the present employer (if
employed at the time of counselling) either through online or by hand in the Academic
Branch of PGIMER, Chandigarh within 02 days after declaration of result through
given email ID to prepare final list of candidates for counselling.
c) Incomplete applications will not be considered, and no correspondence will be
entertained in this matter. All particulars in the application form must be entered
carefully. All claims made in the application must be supported with documentary
proof.
d) Candidates in employment must forward their application through proper channel.
Online Application will be treated as advance copy of the application. Application
through proper channel should be sent to the Registrar, Academic Section of the Institute
within 10 days after the last date fixed for online registration.
e) No request for a change of category applied for shall be entertained after the
submission of the application.
f) The number of the vacancies are provisional and may vary.
g) Roll Numbers/Admit Cards/Hall ticket for appearing in the entrance examination
will be available for download to eligible candidates approximately 10 days in
advance and can be downloaded from the website by logging into their accounts
on the website with their respective login id and password. Roll Numbers / Admit
Cards will NOT be sent by post. The candidates are allowed to enter in the
examination hall on the production of the Admit Card/ Hall Ticket.
h) All candidates appearing for the entrance test are instructed ‘NOT TO BRING’ water
bottle, car key (Remote), chain, any mobile phones/pager/pen/wrist
watch/ring/wallets/ladies purse/ornaments (Earrings, rings etc) or any other
electronic device. The candidates with these articles will not be permitted to enter in
the examination hall. The examination centres are not responsible for the safe custody
of the belongings of the candidates and they have to make their own arrangement for
their safe custody.
i) Entrance examination/counselling will be held as per schedule. These dates will not

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be changed, even if the day is declared as a holiday or half-holiday by any competent
authority. Attending the counselling is mandatory.
j) The candidates invited for the selection/counselling may have to stay at Chandigarh
for 2-3 days. No TA/DA is admissible to them for the purpose.
k) Selected candidates in counselling shall have to pay the fee etc. on the same day,
failing which his/her selection will be treated as cancelled and the seat will be offered to
the candidates on the waiting list in order of merit.
l) The candidates selected for the course shall have to submit the migration certificate from
the University/Institute from which they passed their last examination at the time of their
joining, alongwith all other certificates in original in support of their qualification etc.
m) No individual intimation is sent to unselected candidates, and no correspondence on the
subject is entertained.
n) All the candidates are advised to download their Admit Cards from the website. It may
please be noted that the Admit Cards will not be sent by Post.
o) If a candidate is at any stage found to have provided false information/certificate or is
found to have withheld or concealed some information in his/her application form,
he/she will be debarred from admission, his/her tenure will be terminated with
immediate effect.
p) If ineligibility is detected at any stage, candidature/admission of the candidate will be
cancelled without any notice.
q) Candidate must not obtain or give or attempt to obtain or give irregular assistance of
any kind during the examination; this will entail expulsion and cancellation of
candidature for the examination. The admission of the candidate will be cancelled and
appropriate criminal/civil proceedings will be initiated against the candidates, if at any
stage of the examination the candidate is found to have secured admission by using any
unfair means.
r) The Institute will not intimate the result of Entrance Test individual. No correspondence in
this regard will be entertained. However, the marks/result of individual candidate will be
made available on PGIMER website www.pgimer.edu.in after declaration of final result by
login their credential.
s) There is no provision for re-checking/re-evaluation of the answer sheets and no query in
this regard will be entertained.
t) The decision of the Director of the Institute shall be final in the matter of selection of
candidates for admission to various courses and no appeal will be entertained in this regard.
u) Selected candidates must join the course on the date stipulated in the letter of selection,
failing which the selection/admission shall stand cancelled/withdrawn.
v) The selected candidates will have to submit the original Permanent Registration Certificate
at the time of joining.
w) Private practice in any form during the course is prohibited. The period of training is strictly
full time and continuous.
x) The rules are subject to change in accordance with the decision of the Institute to be taken
from time to time.
y) No question papers and/or answer keys shall be provided to any candidate (as per the
institute policy laid down in office order Endst. No. EC/PGI/2022/16 dated February 02,
2022). However, candidates having any objections or concerns regarding the correctness of
question(s) included in the exam that they have appeared for, may submit their objections or
concerns to the Examination Cell in writing by mentioning the details or the problematic
questions strictly within a period for three days from the date of the exam. Such
representations can be emailed to [email protected] will be examined by

RAGGING IS CRIME Page | 23


a committee constituted for the purpose. The Committee’s decision will be full and final and
the same will be conveyed to the applicant(s).
z) Any dispute in regard to any matter referred to herein shall be subject to the
jurisdiction of Chandigarh Courts alone.

3. CODE OF CONDUCT FOR STUDENTS AT PGIMER, Chandigarh


a) Maintenance of Discipline among students of the PGIMER:
a. All powers relating to discipline and disciplinary action are vested with the Director,
PGIMER.
b. The Director, PGIMER may delegate all such powers, as he/she deems proper to such other
persons as he/she may specify on his behalf.
c. Without prejudice to the generality of power to enforce discipline under the Rules. The
following shall amount to acts of gross indiscipline:

I. Physical assault or threat to use physical force against any member of the teaching or
nonteaching staff of any Department/Centre of PGIMER or any other persons
within/outside the premises/ Campus of PGIMER.
II. Carrying or use or threat of use of any weapon.
III. Violation of the status, dignity and honour of students belonging to the Scheduled Castes,
Scheduled Tribes and Other Backward Castes.
IV. Any practice, whether verbal or otherwise, derogatory to women.
V. Any attempt at bribing or corruption in any manner.
VI. Wilful destruction of institutional property.
VII. Creating ill-will or intolerance on religious or communal grounds.
VIII. Causing disruption in any manner of the functioning of the PGIMER, Chandigarh.
IX. Without prejudice to the generality of his/her powers relating to the maintenance
of discipline and taking such action in the interest of maintaining discipline as
may seem to him/her appropriate. The Director, may in exercise of his/her
powers aforesaid order or direct that any student or students.

(a) Be expelled;
(b) Be, for a stated period: be not for a stated period, admitted to a course or
courses of study in PGIMER.
(c) Be fined with a sum of rupees that may be specified/decided by the
Director;
(d) Be debarred from taking any examination(s) for one or more semesters.
(e) Withhold the result of the student(s) concerned in the Examination(s) in
which he/she or they have appeared be cancelled.
(f) Be prohibited for appearing or completing any examination for any unfair
means like copying taking notes, mobiles or any other electronic gadgets
inside the examination halls.

At the time of admission, every student shall be required to sign a declaration that on
admission he/she submits himself/herself to the disciplinary jurisdiction of the Director
and several authorities of the PGIMER who may be vested with them.

RAGGING IS CRIME Page | 24


A. RAGGING:

Ragging is a cognizable offence, and is banned in the Institute. Stern action shall be taken
against any offenders. Any one indulging in ragging shall be punished appropriately.
Punishment may include expulsion from the Institute, imprisonment upto three years
and/or a fine upto Rs. 25000/-. As per direction of the Hon’ble Supreme Court of India, the
Government has banned ragging completely in any form inside and outside the campus and
all the PGIMER, Chandigarh authorities are determined not to tolerate any form of ragging.
Whosoever directly or indirectly commits, participates in, abets or instigates ragging within
or outside the PGIMER, Chandigarh shall have an FIR lodge against him/her and he/ she
will be suspended or rusticated from the institution. In case the applicant is found to have
indulged in ragging in the past or if it is noticed later that he/she has indulged in ragging,
admission can be refused or he/ she shall be expelled from the educational institution. The
punishment may also include suspension from at ending the classes, withholding/
withdrawing fellowship/ scholarship and other financial benefits or withholding the result.

Prohibition of and Punishment for Ragging: Ragging in any form is strictly prohibited,
within the premises of College/Department of Institution and any part of PGIMER and
also outside the PGIMER Campus. Any individual or collective act or practice or ragging
constitute gross indiscipline shall be dealt with under this Rules. Ragging for the purposes
of this rules, ordinarily means any act, conduct or practice by which dominant power or
status of senior students is brought to bear on students freshly enrolled or students who
are, in any way, considered junior or inferior by other students and includes individual or
collective acts or practice which:-
a) Involve physical assault or threat or use of physical force;
b) Violate the status, dignity and honour of women students;
c) Violate the status; dignity and honour of students belonging to the Scheduled
Castes, Scheduled Tribes and Other Backward Castes.
d) Expose students to ridicule and contempt and affect their self-esteem;
e) Entail verbal abuse and aggression, indecent gesture and obscene behaviour.

Selected candidates shall register himself/ herself in the website www.antiragging.in/


www.amanmovement.org and take a print out and submit the self-attested print out to
Academic Section at the time of admission.

In case of Ragging, student may contact on the following numbers:-

HELPLINE NUMBER 7087008700


SECURITY CONTROL ROOM (24 HOURS) 0172-2756100, 2756109

NOTE: Telephone numbers of members of Anti Ragging Committee/Flying squad


including “Medical Council of India (Prevention and Prohibition of Ragging in Medical
Colleges/Institutions) Regulations, 2009” is available on PGI Website i.e.
www.pgimer.edu.in

RAGGING IS CRIME Page | 25


B. Anti Sexual Harassment Monitoring Committee: A statutory committee, comprising of
members from the teaching and non-teaching staff as well as students looks into matters
related to sexual harassment of students and staff in the college. Any person aggrieved in
this matter may fearlessly approach the committee for a fair and concerned hearing and
redressal.

C. Unauthorized absence of students: Unauthorised absence of students will be


informed to the Students and also Parents or Local Guardians. At least 3 reminders
will be issued with a gap of 10 days by the Academic Section to these students.
Thereafter, the action of cancellation of the registration of the concerned will be
decided by the Dean/ Director, PGIMER.

IMPORTANT NOTE
In case any candidate is found to have supplied false information or certificate
etc., or is found to have concealed or withheld some information in the application
form, he/she shall be debarred from admission. Any other action, that may be
considered appropriate by the Director of the Institute, may also be taken against
him/her, which may include criminal prosecution.

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ANNEXURE – I
SPONSORSHIP CERTIFICATE
(Applicable only in case of candidates who are sponsored/deputed)
Note: Sponsorship for Private Hospital/Institute/Nursing Homes, etc. is not accepted.

Certified that Dr. ______________________________________ son/daughter of


Shri _________________________is an employee of the Govt. Deptt/Medical College since
(Date) and have been working for THREE YEARS. Please select ( ) the type of Institution/
Department sponsoring / deputing the candidate viz.

1. 1. Central Govt. 2. State Govt. 3. Autonomous Body of Central Govt. 4. Autonomous


Body of State Govt. 5. Public Undertaking 6. Govt. Medical College / Hospital affiliated
to a University and recognized by Medical Council of India.

2. Certified that if selected for the course applied for by the applicant he/she will be
suitably employed by us after the completion of his/her training course to work for at
least five years in the specialty in which the training is received by him/her at PGI,
Chandigarh.

3. Certificate that no financial implication in the form of emoluments/stipend etc. will


devolve upon PGI, Chandigarh during the entire period of applicant’s course. Such
payment will be the responsibility of sponsoring/deputing authority.

Date:__________________ Signature of the sponsoring /deputing


Station:_____________________ authority with seal

NB:1. Deputation/Sponsorship of candidates holding tenure appointment (like House Job or


Junior or Senior or Senior Residency), ad-hoc or contract or honorary or appointment
against a leave vacancy shall not be accepted.
2. The sponsoring/deputing Institution should not nominate more than one candidate
for a specialty/super specialty.
3. The candidate must indicate the subject or their choice in the application clearly.
Sponsoring/deputation of candidates will be accepted only from the following:-
(a) Central Govt. Departments/Institution
(b) State Govt. Departments/Institution
(c) Autonomous bodies of the central or State Govt.
(d) Public Sector Undertakings.
(e) Government Medical College affiliated to a University and recognized by the Medical
Council/Dental Council of India. In case of candidates deputed/sponsored by Medical College
affiliated to a University and recognized by the Medical Council of India, the deputation/
sponsorship certificate signed by the Principal of Medical College concerned only shall be accepted.

RAGGING IS CRIME Page | 27


ANNEXURE – II

NO OBJECTION CERTIFICATE
ENDORSEMENT BY THE EMPLOYER, IF THE APPLICANT IS IN SERVICE

No........................... Date......................

Forwarded to theREGISTRAR, PostgraduateInstitute of Medical Education and Research,


Chandigarh for consideration. The undersigned has no objectiontoDr.
_______________________________ s/o ____________________ being considered by the
Institute for the course applied for by him/her and if selected, he/she will be relieved within
the prescribed time limit. The applicant is “sponsored /deputed or not sponsored /deputed
by us and the sponsorship/deputation –certificate is enclosed.

Address: _____________________

(Signature of employer with official seal)

RAGGING IS CRIME Page | 28


ANNEXURE – III
FORM OF SC/ST CERTIFICATE PRESCRIBED
Form of certificate to be produced by Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes candidates applying for
appointment to posts under the Government of India

CASTE CERTIFICATE
This is to certify that Shri/Smt./Kum. .....................................................son/daughter*
of....................................................... of village/Town*......................................in
district/Division*.................................... of the State/Union Territory*.................... belongs to
the.............................Caste/TribewhichisrecognisedasaScheduledCaste/ScheduledTribe*under:
@The Constitution (Scheduled Caste) Order, 1950
@The Constitution (Scheduled Tribe) Order, 1950
@ The Constitution (Scheduled Caste) Union Territories Order, 1951
@The Constitution (Scheduled Tribe) Union Territories Order, 1951
1. [As amended by the Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe Lists (Modification) Order, 1956, the BombayRe-
organization Act, 1960, the Punjab Re-organization Act, 1966-the State of Himachal Pradesh Act, 1970 The North
Eastern Areas (Re-organization) Act, 1971 and the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Orders (Amendment)
Act, 1976), the State of Mizoram Act, 1986, the State of Arunachal Pradesh Act, 1986 and the Goa, Daman and Diu
(Re-organisation) Act, 1987]
@ The Constitution (Jammu and Kashmir) Scheduled Caste Order, 1956.
@ The Constitution (Andaman and Nicobar Islands) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1959 as amended by the Scheduled
Castes and Scheduled Tribes Order (Amendment) Act, 1976
@ The Constitution (Dadar and Nagar Haveli) Scheduled Castes Order, 1962.
@ The Constitution (Dadar and Nagar Haveli) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1962.
@ The Constitution (Pondicherry) Scheduled Castes Order, 1964.
@ The Constitution (Uttar Pradesh) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1967.
@ The Constitution (Goa, Daman & Diu) Scheduled Castes Order, 1968.
@ The Constitution (Goa, Daman & Diu) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1968.
@ The Constitution (Nagaland) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1970.
@ The Constitution (Sikkim) Scheduled CastesOrder, 1978.
@ The Constitution (Sikkim) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1978.
@ The Constitution (Jammu & Kashmir) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1989
@ The Constitution (SC) Order (Amendment) Act, 1990
@ The Constitution (ST) Order (Amendment) Act, 1991
@ The Constitution (ST) Order (Second Amendment) Act, 1991
@The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Orders (Amendment) Act 2002
@ The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order (Amendment) Act, 2002
@ The Constitution (Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes) Orders (Amendment) Act, 2002
@ The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Orders (Second Amendment) Act, 2002

%2. Applicable in the case of Scheduled Caste/Schedule Tribe persons who have migrated from one State/Union
Territory/Administration to another.
This certificate is issued on the basis of the Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribe certificate issued to
Shri/Smt*......................................................................................... Father/mother of
Shri/Smt/Kum*........................................................................Of village/ town*................................. ........ in
District/Division*............................................of the State/Union Territory*.................................... who belongs to
the....................Caste/tribe which is recognized as a Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribe* in the State/Union
Territory* of............................................. issued by the..................................(Name of prescribed authority) vide their
No........................ Date.........................

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%3.Shri/Smt./Kum*.............................................................and/or*his/her* family ordinary reside(s) in
Village/town*.......................................of…………........................................ State/Union Territory
of................................................

Place: ....................... Signature.............


Date: ....................... **Designation....................
(With seal of office)
State/Union Territory*…………….

* Please delete the words which are not applicable.


@ Please quote specific Presidential Order.
% Delete the paragraph which is not applicable.

NOTE: The term “ordinarily reside (s)” used here will have the same meaning as in Section 20 of the Representation of the People
Act, 1950.

** List of authorities empowered to issue Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribe Certificate.


(i). District Magistrate/Additional District Magistrate/Collector/Deputy Commissioner/Additional Deputy
Commissioner/Deputy Collector/1st Class Stipendiary Magistrate/ Sub-Divisional Magistrate/Taluka
Magistrate/Executive Magistrate/Extra Assistant Commissioner.
(not below of the rank of 1st Class Stipendiary Magistrate.)
(ii) Chief Presidency Magistrate/Additional Chief Presidency Magistrate/Presidency Magistrate.
(iii) Revenue Officers not below the rank of Tehsildar.
(iv) Sub Divisional Officer of the area where the candidate and/or his/her family normally resides.
(v) Administrator/Secretary to Administrator/Development Officer (Lakshadweep)

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ANNEXURE –IV
FORM OF CERTIFICATE TO BE PRODUCED BY OTHER BACKWARD CLASSESAPPLYING
FOR ADMISSION TO CENTRAL EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTE (CEIs) UNDER THE
GOVERNMENT OF INDIA

This is certify that Shri/Smt./Kum. __________________Son/Daughter of


Shri/Smt._______________________ of village ______________________ District/Division
____________________________ in the _______________ State belongs to the ______________________
community which is recognized as a Backward Class under:-

(i) Resolution No.12011/68/93-BCC (C) dated 10/09/93 published in the Gazette of India Extraordinary
Part I Section I No. 186 dated13/09/93.
(ii) Resolution No. 12011/9/94-BCC dated 19/10/94 published in the Gazette of India Extraordinary Part I
Section I No. 163 dated20/10/94.
(iii) Resolution No. 12011/7/95-BCC dated 24/05/95 published in the Gazette of India Extraordinary Part I
Section I No. 88 dated25/05/95.
(iv) Resolution No. 12011/96/94-BCC dated 9/03/96.
(v) Resolution No. 12011/44/96-BCC dated 6/12/96 published in the Gazette of India Extraordinary Part I
Section I No. 210 dated 11/12/96.
(vi) Resolution No. 12011/13/97-BCC dated 03/12/97.
(vii) Resolution No. 12011/99/94-BCC dated 11/12/97.
(viii) Resolution No. 12011/68/98-BCC dated 27/10/99.
(ix) Resolution No. 12011/88/98-BCC dated 6/12/99 published in the Gazette of India Extraordinary Part I
Section I No. 270 dated 06/12/99.
(x) Resolution No. 12011/36/99-BCC dated 04/04/2000 published in the Gazette of India Extraordinary
Part I Section I No. 71 dated04/04/2000.
(xi) Resolution No. 12011/44/99-BCC dated 21/09/2000 published in the Gazette of India Extraordinary
Part I Section I No. 210 dated21/09/2000.
(xii) Resolution No. 12015/9/2000-BCC dated06/09/2001.
(xiii) Resolution No. 12011/1/2001-BCC dated19/06/2003.
(xiv) Resolution No. 12011/4/2002-BCC dated13/01/2004.
(xv) Resolution No. 12011/9/2004-BCC dated 16/01/2006 published in the Gazette of India Extraordinary
Part I Section I No. 210 dated16/01/2006.
(xvi) Resolution No. 12011/14/2004-BCC dated 12/03/2007 published in the Gazette of India Extraordinary
Part I Section I No. 67 dated12/03/2007.
(xvii) Resolution No. 12018/6/2005-BCC dated 10/10/2007 published in the Gazette of India Extraordinary
Part I Section I No. 311 dated12/10/2007.
(xviii) Resolution No. 12015/2/2007-BCC dated 18/08/2010 published in the Gazette of India Extraordinary
Part I Section I No. 232 dated 18/08/2010 & Corrigendum dated11/10/2010.

Sh./Smt./Kum. ____________________ and/or his/her family ordinarily reside(s) in the _____________


District/Division of the ______________________ State. This is also to certify that he/she does not
belong to the persons/sections (Creamy Layer) mentioned in Column 3 of the Schedule to the
Government of India , Department of Personnel and Training, O.M. No. 36012/22/93-Estt. (SCT), dated
08.09.1993. Which is modified vide O.M. No.36033/3/2004 Estt. (Res.) dated 09.03.2004 or the latest
modification of the Govt. of India.

Dated:
District Magistrate/Competent Authority
Seal

RAGGING IS CRIME Page | 31


NOTE:
(a) The term ‘Ordinarily’ used here will have the same meaning as in Section 20 of the Representation of the
People Act, 1950.
(b) The authorities competent to issue Caste Certificates are indicated below:
(i) District Magistrate / Additional Magistrate / Collector / Deputy Commissioner / Additional Deputy
Commissioner / Deputy Collector / 1st Class Stipendiary Magistrate / Sub-Divisional magistrate /
Taluka Magistrate / Executive Magistrate / Extra Assistant Commissioner (not below the rank of 1 st
Class Stipendiary Magistrate).
(ii) Chief Presidency Magistrate / Additional Chief Presidency Magistrate / Presidency Magistrate.
(iii) Revenue Officer not below the rank of Tehsildar.
(iv) Sub-Divisional Officer of the area where the candidate and / or his family resides.
(c) The annual income/status of the parents of the applicant should be based on financial year ending March
31st

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ANNEXURE – V

DECLARATION TO BE SIGNED BY OBC CANDIDATES ONLY

I ................................................ son/daughter of Shri ............................................. resident of

village/town/city ............................................................. district ……….................................

state .........................................................certificate enclosed) hereby declare that I belong

to the............................................................................ community which is recognized as a

backward class by the Govt. of India for the purpose of reservation in services as per

orders contained in Department of Personnel and Training Office Memorandum

No.36012/22/93-Esstt (SCT)dated 8-9-1993. It is also declared that I do not belong to

the Persons/Sections (Creamy Layer) mentioned in Column 3 of the Schedule of the

Government of India, Department of Personnel and Training O.M.No.36012/22/93-

Estt. (SCT) dated 08.09.93 & its subsequent revision through O.M.No.36033/3/2004-

Estt. (Res) dated 09.03.2004, 27.05.2013, 13.09.2017

Place…………………….. (Signature of applicant in running handwriting)


Date………………………

Note: The closing date for receipt of application will be treated as the date of reckoning for
OBC status of the candidate and also for as summing that the candidate does not fall in the
creamy layer.

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ANNEXURE – VI

SELECTION CRITERIA FOR PERSONS WITH BENCHMARK DISABILITY


A SCHEDULE is annexed regarding, “SPECIFIED DISABILITY” clause (zc) of
section 2, that states as under,
1. Physical disability
A. Locomotor disability (a person’s inability to execute distinctive activities
associated with movement of self and objects resulting from affliction of musculoskeletal
or nervous system or both), including—
(a) “leprosy cured person” means a person who has been cured of leprosy but is
suffering from—
(i) loss of sensation in hands or feet as well as loss of sensation and paresis in
the eye and eye-lid but with no manifest deformity;
(ii) manifest deformity and paresis but having sufficient mobility in their hands
and feet to enable them to engage in normal economic activity;
(iii) extreme physical deformity as well as advanced age which prevents him/her
from undertaking any gainful occupation, and the expression “leprosy cured” shall
construed accordingly;
(b) “cerebral palsy” means a Group of non-progressive neurological condition
affecting body movements and muscle coordination, caused by damage to one or more
specific areas of the brain, usually occurring before, during or shortly after birth;
I“dwarfism” means a medical or genetic condition resulting in an adult height of 4
feet 10 inches (147 centimeters) or less;
(d) “muscular dystrophy” means a group of hereditary genetic muscle disease
that weakens the muscles that move the human body and persons with multiple
dystrophy have incorrect and missing information in their genes, which prevents them
from making the proteins they need for healthy muscles. It is characterized by
progressive skeletal muscle weakness, defects in muscle proteins, and the death of
muscle cells and tissue;
(e) “acid attack victims” means a person disfigured due to violent assaults by
throwing of acid or similar corrosive substance.
B. Visual impairment—
(a) “blindness” means a condition where a person has any of the following
conditions, after best correction—
(i) total absence of sight; or
(ii) visual acuity less than 3/60 or less than 10/200 (Snellen) in the better eye with
best possible correction; or 92

RAGGING IS CRIME Page | 34


(iii) limitation of the field of vision subtending an angle of less than 10 degree.
(b) “low-vision” means a condition where a person has any of the following
conditions, namely: —
(i) visual acuity not exceeding 6/18 or less than 20/60 upto 3/60 or upto 10/200
(Snellen) in the better eye with best possible corrections; or
(ii) limitation of the field of vision subtending an angle of less than 40 degree up
to 10 degrees.
C. Hearing impairment-
(a) “deaf” means persons having 70 DB hearing loss in speech frequencies in
both ears;
(b) “hard of hearing” means person having 60 DB to 70 DB hearing loss in
speech frequencies in both ears;
D. “Speech and language disability” means a permanent disability arising out of
conditions such as laryngectomy or aphasia affecting one or more components of
speech and language due to organic or neurological causes.

2. Intellectual disability, a condition characterized by significant limitation both in


intellectual functioning (reasoning, learning, problem solving) and in adaptive behavior
which covers a range of every day, social and practical skills, including—
(a) “specific learning disabilities” means a heterogeneous group of conditions
wherein there is a deficit in processing language, spoken or written, that may manifest
itself as a difficulty to comprehend, speak, read, write, spell, or to do mathematical
calculations and includes such conditions as perceptual disabilities, dyslexia,
dysgraphia, dyscalculia, dyspraxia and developmental aphasia;
(b) “autism spectrum disorder” means a neuro-developmental condition typically
appearing in the first three years of life that significantly affects a person’s ability to
communicate, understand relationships and relate to others, and is frequently
associated with unusual or stereotypical rituals or behaviors.

3. Mental behavior,—“mental illness” means a substantial disorder of thinking, mood,


perception, orientation or memory that grossly impairs judgment, behavior, capacity to
recognize reality or ability to meet the ordinary demands of life, but does not include
retardation which is a condition of arrested or incomplete development of mind of a
person, specially characterized by sub normality of intelligence.

4. Disability caused due to—


(a) chronic neurological conditions, such as—
(i) “multiple sclerosis” means an inflammatory, nervous system disease in which
the myelin sheaths around the axons of nerve cells of the brain and spinal cord are
damaged, leading to demyelination and affecting the ability of nerve cells in the brain
and spinal cord to communicate with each other;

RAGGING IS CRIME Page | 35


(ii) “parkinson’s disease” means a progressive disease of the nervous system
marked by tremor, muscular rigidity, and slow, imprecise movement, chiefly affecting
middle-aged and elderly people associated with degeneration of the basal ganglia of the
brain and a deficiency of the neurotransmitter dopamine.
(b) Blood disorder—
(i) “haemophilia” means an inheritable disease, usually affecting only male but
transmitted by women to their male children, characterized by loss or impairment of the
normal clotting ability of blood so that a minor would may result in fatal bleeding;
(ii) “thalassemia” means a group of inherited disorders characterized by reduced
or absent amounts of haemoglobin.
(iii) “sickle cell disease” means a hemolytic disorder characterized by chronic
anemia, painful events, and various complications due to associated tissue and organ
damage; “hemolytic” refers to the destruction of the cell membrane of red blood cells
resulting in the release of hemoglobin.

5. Multiple Disabilities (more than one of the above specified disabilities) including
deaf blindness which means a condition in which a person may have combination of
hearing and visual impairments causing severe communication, developmental, and
educational problems.
6. Any other category as may be notified by the Central Government.

Note: Any amendment to the Schedule to the RPWD Act, 2016, shall consequently
stand amended in the above schedule.

The selection shall be subjected to medical fitness by Medical Board.

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ANNEXURE – VI(A)
FORM-V
Certificate of Disability
(In cases of amputation or complete permanent paralysis of limbs or dwarfism and in cases of
blindness)

[See Rule 18(1)]

(NAME AND ADDRESS OF THE MEDICAL AUTHORITY ISSUING THE CERTIFICATE)


Recent Passport
Size Attested
Photograph
(Showing face only)
of the person with
Certificate No.:………………………………………………… Date: disability
……………………..….

This is to certify that I have carefully examined Shri / Smt / Kum ……………………….. son /
wife / daughter of Shri …………………………………………………………… Date of Birth
…………………. (DD/MM/YYYY) Age………… Years, Male/Female ……… Registration No.
……………………………… Permanent Resident of House No. ………….…………... Ward /
Village / Street ……………….. Post Office…………………… District……………………. State
………………………, whose photograph is affixed above, and am satisfied that:

(A) He/she is a case of:


*Locomotor Disability
*Dwarfism
*Blindness
(Please tick as applicable)

(B) The diagnosis in his/her case is …………………………………..…………….

(1) He / She has ……………% (in figure)…………….………….…. percent (in words)


permanent locomotor disability / dwarfism/blindness in relation to his/her
……………………..……. (part of body) as per guidelines (to be specified).

(2) The applicant has submitted the following document as proof of residence:

Nature of Document Date of Issue Details of authority issuing certificate

Signature/Thumb Impression of the (Signature and Seal of Authorized Signatory of


person in whose favour disability
certificate is issued notified Medical Authority)

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ANNEXURE –VI(B)
FORM-VI
Certificate of Disability
(In case of multiple disabilities)
[See Rule 18(1)]
(NAME AND ADDRESS OF THE MEDICAL AUTHORITY ISSUING THE CERTIFICATE)

Certificate No.:………………………………… Date: ………………………. Recent Passport


Size Attested
1. This is to certify that we have carefully examined Shri/Smt./ Kum Photograph
(Showing face only)
……………………………………………….…….. son/wife/daughter Of Shri
of the person with
…………………………….……..… Date of Birth……………………(DD/MM/YYYY) disability
Age………….years, Male/Female ……………Registration No. ……………......... Permanent
Resident of House No. ….….. Ward/Village/Street ………….…………….. whose photograph is
affixed above and are satisfied that:
(A) He/She is a case of Multiple Disability. His / Her extent of permanent physical impairment/disability has been evaluated as
per guidelines (to be specified) for the disabilities ticked below and shown against the relevant disability in the table below:
S. No. Disability Affected Part of Body Diagnosis Permanent Physical Impairment/ Mental Disability (in%)

1 Locomotors Disability @
2 Muscular Dystrophy
3 Leprosy cured
4 Dwarfism
5 Cerebral Palsy
6 Acid attack Victim
7 Low Vision #
8 Blindness #
9 Deaf £
10 Hard of Hearing £
11 Speech and Language disability
12 Intellectual Disability
13 Specific Learning Disability
14 Autism Spectrum Disorder
15 Mental illness
16 Chronic Neurological Conditions
17 Multiple Sclerosis
18 Parkinson‘s Disease
19 Hemophilia
20 Thalassemia
21 Sickle Cell disease
(B) In the light of the above, his/her overall permanent physical impairment as per guidelines (to be specified), is as follows:
In figures: ………………………..percent , In words : ……………………………...percent
2. This condition is progressive/non-progressive/likely to improve/not likely to improve.
3. Reassessment of disability is :
i) not necessary, Or ii) is recommended/after ……………….Year …………………….…months, and therefore this certificate shall
be valid till ……………………………………………(DD/MM/YYYY)
@ e.g. Left/Right/both arms/legs; # e.g Single eye/both eyes; £e.g. Left/Right/both ears
4. The applicant has submitted the following document as proof of residence:
Nature of Document Date of issue Details of authority issuing certificate

5. Signature and seal of the Medical Authority

Name and seal of Member Name and seal of Member Name and seal of the Chairperson
Signature/Thumb Impression of the person in
whose favour disability certificate is issued
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ANNEXURE –VII
FORM-VII
Certificate of Disability
{In case of other than those mentioned in Forms V and VI i.e. Annexure IX (A & B)}
[See Rule 18(1)]
(NAME AND ADDRESS OF THE MEDICAL AUTHORITY ISSUING THE CERTIFICATE)
Certificate No.……………………………………..…… Date: …………………………….
Recent Passport
1. This is to certify that we have carefully examined Shri/Smt./ Kum Size Attested
Photograph
……………………………………………….…….. son/wife/daughter Of Shri (Showing face
…………………………………..….……..… Date of only) of the person
Birth……………..………………………(DD/MM/YYYY) Age……………..…. years, with disability
Male/Female …....…………Registration No. ……………............ Permanent Resident of
House No. …………….….. Ward/Village/Street ………….…………….. whose photograph
is affixed above and are satisfied that He/She is a case of
…………………………………………………….…….Disability. His / Her extent of
permanent physical impairment/disability has been evaluated as per guidelines (to be
specified) for the disabilities ticked below and shown against the relevant disability in the
table below:
S. No. Disability Affected Part of Body Diagnosis Permanent Physical Impairment/ Mental Disability
(in%)

1 Locomotors Disability @
2 Muscular Dystrophy
3 Leprosy cured
4 Cerebral Palsy
5 Acid attack Victim
6 Low Vision #
7 Deaf £
8 Hard of Hearing £
9 Speech and Language disability
10 Intellectual Disability
11 Specific Learning Disability
12 Autism Spectrum Disorder
13 Mental illness
14 Chronic Neurological Conditions
15 Multiple Sclerosis
16 Parkinson‘s Disease
17 Hemophilia
18 Thalassemia
19 Sickle Cell disease
(B) In the light of the above, his/her overall permanent physical impairment as per guidelines (to be specified), is as follows:
In figures: ………………………...percent, In words: ……………………………...percent
2. This condition is progressive/non-progressive/likely to improve/not likely to improve.
3. Reassessment of disability is:
i) not necessary, Or
ii) is recommended/after ………………. Year …………………….…months, and therefore this certificate shall be valid
till ……………………………………………(DD/MM/YYYY)
@ e.g., Left/Right/both arms/legs; # e.g. Single eye/both eyes; £e.g., Left/Right/both ears
4. The applicant has submitted the following document as proof of residence:

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Nature of Document Date of issue Details of authority issuing certificate

5. Signature and seal of the Medical Authority

Countersigned [ (Countersignature and seal of the CMO / Medical Supdt.) (Authorised Signatory of notified Medical
Superintendent / Head of Government Hospital in case the certificate is issued Authority) (Name and Seal)
by a medical authority who is not a government servant (with seal)]

Signature/Thumb Impression of the person in whose favour disability certificate is


issued

Note: In case this certificate is issued by a medical authority who is not a government servant, it shall be valid only if countersigned
by the Chief Medical Officer of the District. The principal rules were published in the Gazette of India vide notification number S.O.
908(E),dated the 31st December, 1996issued.

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ANNEXURE –VII(A)
LETTER OF UNDERTAKING FOR USING SCRIBE
NOTE: Candidates who are Visually Impaired (VI)/candidates whose writing speed is affected by Cerebral Palsy /
muscular dystrophy / candidates with locomotor disability (one arm)/Intellectual disability (Autism, specific learning
disability and mental illness) are eligible for Scribe. PARTICULARS OF SCRIBE PROPOSED TO BE ENGAGED BY
THE CANDIDATE

1. Name of the Candidate ................................................................ Paste here recent colour


2. Roll No ……………………………………………..…………………. Passport Size Photograph of the
3. Name of Examination Centre ………………………………………. SCRIBE of size 3.5 cm x 4.5 cm
(The colour photograph should
4. Qualification of Candidate …………………………….…………….
not be more than 3 months old.
5. Disability Type …………………………………….………………….
6. Name of the Scribe ......................................................................
7. Date of Birth of the Scribe ….......................................................
8. Father ‘s Name of the Scribe ........................................................
9. Address of the Scribe:
(a) Permanent Address ......................................................
............................................................................................
(b) Present Address ........................................................... Signature of SCRIBE in the
........................................................................................... . above box below the photograph
10. Educational Qualification of the Scribe .................................
..................................................................................................
11. Relationship, if any, of the Scribe to the Candidate……..............

12. DECLARATION:
i) We hereby declare that the particulars furnished above are true and correct to the best of our knowledge and
belief. We have read/ been read out the instructions of the PGIMER regarding conduct of the candidates assisted
by Scribe/Scribes at this examination and hereby undertake to abide by them.

ii) We do hereby undertake that the qualification of scribe is mentioned correctly and the qualification of the scribe
is one step below qualification of candidate. In case, subsequently it is found qualification of scribe is not as
declared by the candidate, I (the candidate) shall forfeit my right to the post and claims relating thereto.

iii) We declare that the Scribe himself/herself is not a candidate in this examination. We understand that in case it
is found otherwise the candidature of both of us will be rejected.

iv) We declare that the scribe has not acted/will not act as Scribe to any other candidate of this examination.

(Signature of the Candidate) (Signature of the Scribe)


Left thumb impression of the Candidate in the box Left thumb impression of the Scribe in the box given
given above above

Signature of the Observer/Office Supdt. Of the Examination Centre

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ANNEXURE –VII(B)

Certificate regarding physical limitation in an examinee to write

This is to certify that I have carefully examined Shri/Smt./ Kum


……………………………………………….…….(name of the candidate with disability) a person
with…………………………..(nature and percentage of disability as mentioned in the certificate of disability,
son/wife/daughter Of Shri …………………………….……..… a Resident of ……………….….…..
Village/District/State and to ensure that he/she has physical limitation which hampers his/her writing
capabilities owing to his/her disability.

Signature

Chief Medical Officer/Civil Surgeon/Medical Superintendent of a


Government Health Care Institution
Name and Designation
Name of Govt Hospital/Health Care Centre with Seal

Place:
Date:

Note:
Certificate should be given by a specialist of the relevant stream/disability (e.g., Visual Impairment-
Ophthalmologist,Locomotor disability –Orthopedic specialist/PMR)

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ANNEXURE –VIII

Letter of Undertaking for Using Own Scribe

I ___________________________, a candidate with ______________________________ (name of the


disability) appearing for the ____________________________________ (name of the examination) bearing Roll No.
____________________ at ______________________________________________________ (name of the
centre) in the District ___________________, ____________________ (Name of the State). My qualification is
________________________.
I do hereby state that ______________________________ (name of the scribe) will provide the service of
scribe/reader/lab assistant for the undersigned for taking the aforesaid examination.
I do hereby undertake that his qualification is ______________________. In case, subsequently it is found
that his qualification is not as declared by the undersigned and is beyond my qualification, I shall forfeit my right to
the post and claims relating thereto.

(Signature of the candidate with Disability)

Place:
Date:

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USER MANUAL FOR ONLINE SUBMISSION OF APPLICATION FORM

Steps involved in the filling of the application form of PGIMER include


registration, candidate login, etc. The steps are mentioned below:

1. Registration
2. Candidate Login
3. Payment of fee
4. Printing of Confirmation page

The detailed process of filling the application form of PGIMER Paramedical courses
Exam 2025 (September session).

Step 1: PGIMER Paramedical 2025 registration

The application process begins with the basic registration of candidates. For this the candidates
are required to follow the steps below:-

• Visit the Official website


• Then click on the Specific “Exam Name” for which you want to fill the application form.
• Then click on “New Registration” and you will be directed to registration form page that
you enter the required information as below correctly.
• Name of Candidate: This should be the same as on Matric certificate.
• Date of Birth: Use the calendar icon the select the correct date.
• Gender: Enter your gender (Male/Female/Others).
• Mobile Number: Should be valid and unique. You will receive your User ID and Password
on this email address only.
• Email Address: Should be valid and unique. You will receive your USER ID and Password
on this email address only.
• Captcha: The Captcha box is a special set of characters displayed on the screen. You will
need to retype the characters in the box provided. This is a safety feature designed to ensure
that a human is entering the details and not a computer program. If you have trouble reading
the characters, click on “Get a new image” to refresh the letters.
• By selecting the ‘Submit’ button, you are committing to be honest and fair in all your
actions and information provided in the Registration Form.
• Confirmation of Registration
• Within minutes of submitting the Registration Form, you will receive a User ID and
password on the registered email address from the Administrator. Ensure that you check
your mailbox immediately and that it is not considered as spam mail.
• You will also receive the User ID and Password as an SMS* on the registered mobile
number. Using these credentials, you may proceed to complete your application. (*Please
note SMS will not be sent to international numbers).
• This ends Step 1 of the Registration Process

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Step 2: Fill Application Form

Registered Users Click on ‘Applicant login’ to access the Application form with User ID and
Password received on your email and mobile number.

Click on the ‘Go the Application Form’ button and please read the important instruction
carefully.

The Application Form is categorized into the following three sections:

1. Personal Details
2. Qualification Details
3. Test Center Details

Read the Note on pop-up page of the form before you begin filling the information. You need to
fill section-wise application form. Once the mandatory details in a section are filled, you can
move to the next section by clicking on Save and Next. However, you will not be allowed to
navigate to next section, if mandatory information is not filled or the required documents are not
uploaded. To navigate back to the previous section, you can click on the name of the previous
section tab.

Once you have completed the last section and then, click on Submit button, you will be
redirected to make the payment. Once payment is done, your application is considered
complete. Post this, changes to application can be done but, are applicable to limited fields only
as defined above.

*Please note* Once the form is submitted, payment has to be made for the particular
Exam to ensure the particular Test City chosen by you is assigned to you.

PGIMER Paramedical Test Cities 2025

Sr.No. Exam City


1 Ambala (HRY)
2 Chandigarh (Tricity)
3 Kangra (HP)
4 Delhi (NCR)
5 Bilaspur
6 Amritsar (PB)
7 Shimla (HP)
8 Hamirpur
9 Patiala
10 Jalandhar

Note: (a) The PGIMER will endeavor to accommodate the candidates in centers/cities opted by them. However,
the PGIMER reserves the right to cancel any Centre/city and ask the candidates of that centre/city to appear from
another centre/city. PGIMER also reserves the right to divert candidates of any centre/city to some other Centre/city to
take the examination.

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Photograph and Signature upload

• Candidates have to upload their scanned photograph and signature as per specifications.
The photograph and signature should not appear blurry after upload.
• Save signature as ‘Candidate Signature.jpg’ and photograph as “Candidate
Photograph.jpg”
• The photograph must be taken with the candidate holding a placard having his/her name
and date of taking the photograph (refer to the picture attached below)

Deepak
20-04-2025

Step 3: Payment of PGIMER Paramedical 2025 application fee

Candidates who complete the above steps have to make the application fee payment.
Special care should be taken while making payment as fee for application form is non-
refundable under any circumstances. Fee will only be accepted through Net
Banking/Credit Card/Debit Card.

Application Form of PGIMER Paramedical Exam- Do’s and Don’ts

The following points regarding PGIMER Paramedical application form 2025 are
important and candidates are required to go through them thoroughly for a clear idea
about how to fill the form:

• Candidates are advised to fill their application forms using Internet Explorer (version 11)
or Mozilla Firefox (version 50 to 61) or Google Chrome (50 to 69 version).
• The process of filling application form is complete only after the confirmation page gets
displayed on screen.
• The fee submitted by candidates while filling the application form will not be refunded
under any circumstances
• The data submitted once will not be changed under any situation at any time. Applications
with false information will be rejected.
• Candidates need to make sure that details on their id proof and mark sheet match with the
PGIMER Paramedical 2025 application form
• Black & white/Polaroid photographs will not be accepted

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Frequently Asked Question (FAQs)- PGIMER Paramedical Application Form 2025

Q.1. Will be there be a correction window facility for PGIMER Paramedical


application form 2025 ?
Answer- Correction Window available only for if there is any update in Candidate
photograph & Signature. Thus candidates are advised to fill the application form
carefully.

Q.2. Can I submit the PGIMER Paramedical application form in the offline
mode?
Answer- No, candidates must fill the application form of PGIMER Paramedical 2025 in
online mode only. Any other form of the application form will not be accepted.

Q.3. How can I pay the application fee?


Answer- The application fee of PGIMER Paramedical registration 2025 has to be paid in
online mode. Candidates can use methods like credit/debit card or internet
banking to pay the fee.

***********************

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