Risk and Return Analysyis
Risk and Return Analysyis
Since too few runs in the case would indicate that the movement of
prices is not random. We employ a two- tailed test the randomness of prices.
Test at 5% level of significance att.05 using t- table at 18 degrees of freedom
The lower limit = 10.26– 2.101 × 2.06 = 5.932
Upper limit = 10.26 + 2.101 × 2.06 = 14.588
At 10% level of significance at 18 degrees of freedom
lower limit =10.26 – 1.734 × 2.06 = 6.688
Upper limit =10.26 + 1.734 × 2.06 = 13.832
SFM - COMPILER 413
As seen r lies between these limits. Hence, the market exhibits weak
form of efficiency
2009
Question 3 : May 2009 RTP
Following information is available on Return (%) of shares of two
companies A andB :
Probabilities Return of A Return of B
0.05 6 8
0.20 12 18
0.50 20 28
0.20 24 34
0.05 30 44
(i) Compute expected return from the portfolio
(ii) If the investment in A and B is in the ratio of 70:30 what is the risk of the
portfolio ?
Solution
(i) Expected Return and SD for Stock A and Stock B
Stock A
Return Probability X.P ̅)
d (X – 𝑿 d2 = (x – 𝒙
̅)2 d2 . p
6 0.05 0.3 -13 169 8.45
12 0.20 2.4 -7 49 9.80
20 0.50 10.0 1 1 0.50
24 0.20 4.8 5 25 5.00
30 0.05 1.5 11 121 6.05
19 29.80
Mean = 19
SD = 29.80 = 5.46%
Stock A
Return Probability X.P ̅)
d (X – 𝑿 d2 = (x – 𝒙
̅)2 d2 . p
8 0.05 0.4 -19 361 18.05
18 0.20 3.6 -9 81 16.20
28 0.50 14.0 1 1 0.50
34 0.20 6.8 7 49 9.80
44 0.05 2.2 17 289 14.45
27 59
Mean = 27
SD = 59 = 7.68%
(ii) Risk of the portfolio at 70:30 ratio =
414 SFM - COMPILER
(ii) Suppose the investor invests Gain Rs.4,000 out of Rs.8,000 in security A.
How he will allocate the balance between security B and C to ensure that
his portfolio is on minimum variance set?
Solution
(i) Investment committed to each security would be:-
A B C Total
Portfolio X Rs.1,500 Rs.2,000 Rs.1,500 Rs.5,000
Portfolio Y Rs.600 Rs.1,500 Rs.900 Rs.3,000
CombinedPortfolio Rs.2,100 Rs.3,500 Rs.2,400 Rs.8,000
Therefore, Stock weights 0.26 0.44 0.30 1
(ii) The equation of critical line takes the following form:-
WB = a + bWA
Substituting the values of WA & WB from portfolio X and Y in above
equation, we get
0.40 = a + 0.30b, and
0.50 = a + 0.20b
Solving above equation we obtain the slope and intercept, a = 0.70 and b= -1
and thus, the critical line is
WB = 0.70– WA
If half of the funds is invested in security A then,
WB = 0.70–0.50 = 0.20
Since WA + WB + WC =1
WC = 1- 0.50– 0.20 = 0.30
Therefore Allocation of funds to security B = 0.20 x 8,000 = Rs.1,600,
= 0.30 x8,000
Security C = Rs.2,400
(ii) Assume that a portfolio is constructed using equal portions of the six
stocks listed above.
(a) Why is the expected return of such a portfolio?
(b) What would the expected return if this portfolio was increased by 40%
through borrowed funds with the cost of borrowing at 12%?
Solution
(i)
Security Expected Beta Required Return Valuation
Return (β) =0.08 + 0.04β
O 0.32 1.70 0.148 Under Valued
P 0.30 1.40 0.136 Under Valued
Q 0.25 1.10 0.124 Under Valued
R 0.22 0.95 0.118 Under Valued
S 0.20 1.05 0.122 Under Valued
T 0.14 0.70 0.108 Under Valued
All the securities listed above are undervalued because their expected returns
plot above the SML.
(ii)
(a) Expected return on the portfolio
0.32+0.30+0.25+0.22+0.20+0.14
= 6 = 0.2383
0.165
0.265 = X1
0.623 = X1
X2 = 0.377
62.3% in small cap value
37.7% in large cap growth.
COVBM 106.68
βσ = σ2m = 78.96 = 1.351
2010
Question 14 : May 2010 - RTP
Mr. Sunil Mukharjee has estimated probable under different
macroeconomic conditions for the following three stocks:
Stock Current Rates of return (%) during different
Price macroeconomics scenarios
(Rs.) Recession Moderate Boom
Him Ice Ltd 12 -12 15 35
Kalahari Biotech 18 20 12 -5
Puma Softech 60 18 20 15
Mr. Sunil Mukharjee is exploring if it is possible to make any arbitrage profits
from the above information.
Required
Using the above information construct an arbitrage portfolio and show
the payoffs under different economic scenarios.
Solution
The rates of return in different scenarios should be changed in to rupee
pay – off per share as indicated below:
Stock Price Price under various Macroeconomic Scenarios
Rs. Recession Moderate Boom
Him Ice Ltd 12 12 – 12% = 10.56 12 + 15% = 13.8 12 + 35% = 16.20
Kalahari Biotech 18 18 + 20% = 21.60 18 + 12% = 20.16 18 – 5% = 17.10
Puma Softech 60 60 + 18% = 70.80 60 + 20% = 72.00 60 + 15% = 69.00
b. Because the stocks are identical, efficient portfolios are equally weighted.
To obtain a standard deviation of 43%, we need to solve for n:
602 602(n - 1)
4.32 = n - 0.5 x n
n = 36.73 - Thus we need 37 stock and will come in with volatility slightly
under the target.
c. As n gets very large, the variance of an efficient (equally weighted)
portfolio diminishes, leaving only the variance that comes from the
covariances among stocks, that is
σρ = p x σ2 = 0.5 x 602 = 42.43
D. If the risk-free is 10%, then the risk premium on any size portfolio is 15%
- 10% = 5%. The standard deviation of a well-diversified portfolio is
(practically) 42.43%; hence the slope of the Capital Allocation Line (CAL)
is S = 5/42.43 = 0.1178
2011
Question 19 : May 2011 - RTP
As on 1.4.10 ABC Ltd. is expecting net income and capital expenditure
over the next five years (2010-11 to 2014-15) as follows:
Year 2010-11 2011-12 2012-13 2013-14 2014-15
Net 27,00,000 32,00,000 28,00,000 30,000,000 38,00,000
Income
Capital 24,00,000 28,00,000 22,00,000 26,00,000 32,00,000
CEO of the company is planning to finance their capital outlay with debt and
equity in the ratio of 1:1 Suppose you as a CFO advises for residual dividend
policy then what will be the expected stream under the following approaches:
(i) Pure Residual Dividend Policy
(ii) Fixed Dividend Payout Ratio
Solution
As per planed financing of capital expenditures in equal proportions by debt
and equity , the retained earning to support capital expenditure over the
period of 2010-11 to 2014-15 will be as follows:
24,00,000+28,00,000+22,00,000+26,00,000+32,00,000
= 2 = Rs.
66,00,000
The expected stream of net income over the period will be
27,00,000+32,00,000+28,00,000+30,00,000+38,00,000 = 1,55,00,000
Thus, the total amount of dividend expected to paid over the period
forthcoming is expected to be
Rs. 1,55,00,00 – Rs. 66,00,000= Rs. 89,00,000
89,00,000
And expected average dividend payout will be: 1,55,00,000 x 100 = 100 = 57.42%
66,00,000
Pure Residual 15,00,000 18,00,000 17,00,000 17,00,000 22,00,000 89,00,000
Dividend (A – C)
Fixed Dividend 15,50,340 18,37,440 16,07,760 17,22,600 21,81,960 89,00,100
Payout (57.42%)
SFM - COMPILER 429
0.7+1.05+0.95+1.10+1.4+1.7
Portfolio Beta = 6 = 1.15
430 SFM - COMPILER
(iii) Where portfolio was margined out 40% with cost of borrowings at 4% the
position expected return and risk will be as follow:
R P = 1.40(0.1158) + (-0.4)(0.04) = 0.14612
Risk = σP = 1.4σm = 1.4 x 0.1183 = 0.16562 = 16.56%
Solution
Expected Return as per CAPM
Re = Rf + β (RM – Rf)
Accordingly,
ReABC = Rf + 1.2 (Rm – Rf) = 19.8
ReXYZ = Rf + 0.9 (Rm – Rf) = 17.1
19.8 = Rf + 1.2 (Rm – Rf) Equation 1
17.1 = Rf + 0.9 (Rm – Rf) Equation 2
By deducting (2) from (1)
2.7 = 0.3 (Rm – R f)
Rm – Rf = 9
Rf = Rm – 9
Substituting Rf = Rm – 9 in Equation 1
19.8 = (Rm – 9) + 1.2 (Rm – Rm + 9)
19.8 = Rm – 9 + 10.8
Rm = 18%
Rf = Rm – 9 = 18 – 9 = 9%
Security Line Market = = Rf + β (Market Risk Premium) = 9% + β x 9%
432 SFM - COMPILER
2012
Question 26 : May 2012 - RTP
Assuming that two securities X and Y are correctly priced on SML and
expected return from these securities are 9.40% (Rx) and 13.40% (Ry)
respectively. The Beta of these securities are 0.80 and 1.30 respectively.
Mr. A, an investment manager states that the return on market index is
9%.
You are required to determine,
(a) Whether the claim of Mr. A is right. If not then what is correct return on
market index.
(b) Risk Free Rate of Return
Solution
A Security market line exhibits relationship between expected returns
(Calculated on the basis of CAPM) of investments and their Betas. (By
expected return we mean, the total return an investor should get considering
the risk he has undertaken)
To Draw the line, Betas are taken on X-axis and the expected returns on Y -
axis
Accordingly, lets calculate Expected Returns as per CAPM
Expected Return = Rf + β (RM – Rf)
Rf = Risk Free Rate
β = Beta
Rm = Market Return
Thus,
Expected Return for x = 9.40 = Rf + 0.80 (Rm – Rf) Equation 1
Expected Return for y = 13.40 = Rf + 1.30 (Rm – Rf) Equation 2
Solving Equation 1 from Equation 2, we get Rf = 3% and Rm = 11%
(i) Thus, claim of Mr. A is not correct. The correct rate is 11%.
(ii) Risk Free Rate of Return is 3%.
(2) 10 days later-being the 1st day of rebalancing if NIFTY falls to 5122.96.
(3) 10 days further from the above date if the NIFTY touches 5539.04.
For the sake of simplicity, assume that the value of her equity
component will change in tandem with that of the NIFTY and the risk free
securities in which she is going to invest will have no Beta.
Solution
5326 - 4793.40
Maximum decline in one month = 5326 x 100 = 10%
(1) Immediately to start with
Investment in equity = Multiplier x (Portfolio value – Floor value)
= 2 (3,00,000 – 2,70,000) = Rs.60,000
Indira may invest Rs.60,000 in equity and balance in risk free securities.
(2) After 10 days
Value of equity = 60,000 x 5122.96/5326 = Rs.57,713
Value of risk free investment = Rs.2,40,000
Total value of portfolio = Rs.2,97,713
Investment in equity = Multiplier x (Portfolio value – Floor value)
= 2 (2,97,713 – 2,70,000) = Rs.55,426
Revised Portfolio:
Equity = Rs.55,426
Risk free Securities = Rs.2,97,713 – Rs.55,426 = Rs.2,42,287
(3) After another 10 days
Value of equity = 55,426 x 5539.04/5122.96 = Rs.59,928
Value of risk free investment = Rs.2,42,287
Total value of portfolio = Rs.3,02,215
Investment in equity = Multiplier x (Portfolio value – Floor value)
= 2 (3,02,215 – 2,70,000) = Rs.64,430
Revised Portfolio:
Equity = Rs.64,430
Risk Free Securities = Rs.3,02,215 – Rs.64,430 = Rs.2,37,785
The investor should off-load Rs.4502 of risk free securities and divert to
Equity.
10.5 - 3
With inclusion of stocks of Economy A: 15.6 = 0.481
Hence the expected return from ABC = 12.55% and XYZ is 12.1%
Variance for ABC = 167.75 and XYZ = 126.98
SD = Variance
SD ABC = 12.95%
438 SFM - COMPILER
SD XYZ = 11.27%
Covariance = -77.71
Mr. FedUp wants to invest an amount of Rs. 520 lakhs and had
approached his Portfolio Manager. The Portfolio Manager had advised Mr.
FedUp to invest in the following manner:
Security Moderate Better Good Very Good Best
Amount in Lakhs 60 80 100 120 160
Beta 0.5 1.00 0.80 1.20 1.50
You are required to advise Mr. FedUp in regard to the following, using
Capital Asset Pricing Methodology:
(i) Expected return on the portfolio, if the Government Securities are at 8%
and the NIFTY is yielding 10%.
(ii) Advisability of replacing Security 'Better' with NIFTY.
Solution
(i) Calculation of Expected Return on each Stock by CAPM Model
According to CAPM, Expected Return = RF + β (RM – Rf)
Moderate = 8 + 0.5 (10 – 8) = 9%
Better = 8 + 1 (10 – 8) = 10%
Good = 8 + 0.8 (10 – 8) = 9.60%
Very Good = 8 + 1.2 (10 – 8) = 10.40%
Best = 8 + 1.5 (10 – 8) = 11%
2013
Question 32 : May 2013 - RTP
The following information is available in respect of Security X
Equilibrium Return 15%
Market Return 15%
7% Treasury Bond Trading at $140
SFM - COMPILER 439
Cov (r,m)
β =
σ2m
225
1 =
σ2m
σ2m = 225
σm = √225
= 15
Cov (r,m)
(ii) Cor. =
σm σr
225
0.75 =
15σr
σr = 20%
Standard Deviation of Security Return = 20%
F= Rs. 5,900X1.01598
= Rs. 5,994.28
(iv) When total portfolio is to be hedged:
Value of Stop position Requiring Hedging
= Value of Future Contract x Portfolio Beta
SFM - COMPILER 441
1,88,54,860
= 5,994 x 200 x 0.849 = 13.35 contracts
(vi) With the help of above information and using CAPM, we can calculate β
Expected Return on Stock = Rf + β (RM – Rf
15.3% = 8% + β[12.75% - 8%]
β = 1.54
0.6+0.8 + 0.6 + 1
(ii) Average β = 4 = 0.50(Alternatively we can also calculate
wt average beta also)
(ii) Calculation of Rf
Average Return = Rf + β (RM – Rf)
14% = Rf + 0.5(16.84 – Rf)
14 = Rf + 8.42 – 0.5Rf
Therefore Rf = 11.16%
(iv) Calculation of Expected return of each security by CAPM
Gold = 11.16 + 0.6 (16.84 – 11.16) = 14.568
Silver = 11.16 + 0.8 (16.84 – 11.16) = 15.704
Bronze = 11.16 + 0.6 (16.84 – 11.16) = 14.568
GOI = 11.16 + 1 (16.84 – 11.16) = 16.84
2014
Question 40 : May 2014 – RTP
XYZ Ltd. has substantial cash flow and until the surplus funds are
utilized to meet the future capital expenditure, likely to happen after several
months, are invested in a portfolio of short-term equity investments, details
for which are given below:
Investme No. of shares Beta Market price Expected
nt per share (Rs.) dividend Yield
I 60,000 1.16 4.29 19.50%
II 80,000 2.28 2.92 24.00%
III 1,00,000 0.90 2.17 17.50%
IV 1,25,000 1.50 3.14 26.00%
The current market return is 19% and the risk free rate is 11%. Required to:
a. Calculate the risk of XYZ’s short-term investment portfolio relative to
that of the market;
b. Whether XYZ should change the composition of its portfolio.
Solution
Investmen No of Marke Market Weigh Dividen Dividen Β Weighte
t shares t Price Value t d Yield d d
Β
I 60,000 4.29 2,57,400 23.39% 19.50% 50,193 1.16 0.27
II 80,000 2.92 2,33,600 21.23% 24.00% 56,064 2.2 0.48
III 1,00,00 2.17 2,17,000 19.72% 17.50% 37,975 8 0.18
IV 0 3.14 3,92,500 35.66% 26.00% 1,02,050 0.9 0.53
1,25,00 1.5
0
11,00,50 100 2,46,282 1.46
0
2,46,282
Return on the Portfolio = 11,00,500 x 100 = 22.38%
βd = W1 x βe + W2 x β0
0.85 = W1 x 1.15 + (1 - W1) x 0
W1 = 0.85/1.15 = 0.739
So, W2 = 1 – 0.739 = 0.261
Thus, Rs.3.695 crores (Rs.5 crores x 0.739) shall remain invested in portfolio
and remaining Rs.1.305 crores shall be invested in risk free securities (say
Treasury bills)
(b) By using Index Futures
No. of Stock Index Futures to be short
Value of Spot Position to be hedged
= Existing Beta x Value of one Future Contract
1.305
= 1.15 x 21000 x 150
= 1.15 x 4.14
= 4.76 or say 5 contracts
Thus, instead of swapping Rs.1.305 crore to risk free securities, the
portfolio manager Mr. A can also reduce beta to 0.85 by selling 4.76 or 5
stock index futures.
(ii) Increasing beta to 1.45
(a) β shall be increased by investing additional amount in equity shares.
βd = W1 x βe + W2 x β2
1.45 = W1 x β1 + W2 x β2
1.45 = W1 x 1.15 + (1 - W1) x 0
W1 = 1.45/1.15 = 1.26
This can be achieved by:
(i) Holding on Rs.5 crore worth of shares
(ii) Selling short Risk Free Securities of Rs.1.30 crores (0.26 X Rs.5
crores) i.e. borrowing Rs.1.30 crores and using proceeds to buy Rs.
1.30 crores of additional shares.
(b) Increasing beta by using Index Futures i.e. buying Index futures of
Rs.1.495 crores (1.15 x Rs.1.30 crores).
2015
Question 44 :May 2015 - RTP – Similar to - Question 35 - Nov 2013
- RTP
Question 45 :May 2015 – RTP – Similar to – Question 36 – Nov
2013 – RTP
Question 46 : May 2015 - Paper – 8 Marks
Mr Sharma is holding the following securities:
Particulars of Cost Dividends Market Price BETA
securities Rs. Rs. Rs.
Equity Shares:
Gold Ltd 10,000 1725 9,800 0.6
Silver Ltd 15,000 1000 16,200 0.8
Bronze Ltd 14,000 700 20,000 0.6
GOI Bonds 36,000 3,600 34,500 1.0
Average Rate of Return is 15.7%, calculate:
1. Expected rate of return in each, using the Capital Asset Pricing Model
(CAPM)
2. Risk free rate of return.
Solution
(i) Expected Rate of Return on market portfolio
Securities Cost Dividends Market price Capital
/Interest Rs. Gains
Rs. Rs.
450 SFM - COMPILER
Equity Shares:
Gold Ltd. 10,000 1,725 9,800 (200)
Silver Ltd. 15,000 1,000 16,200 1,200
Bronze Ltd. 14,000 700 20,000 6,000
GOI Bonds 36,000 3,600 34,500 (1,500)
Total 75,000 7,025 5,500
Dividend + Capital Gains 7,025 + 5,500
Return = Total Investment x 100 = 75,500 x 100 = 16.7%
0.6+0.8+0.6+1
(ii) Average β = 4 = 0.50(Alternatively we can also calculate wt
average beta also)
(ii) Calculation of Rf
Average Return = Rf + β (RM – Rf)
15.7% = Rf + 0.5(16.7 – Rf)
15.7 = Rf + 8.35 – 0.5Rf
Therefore Rf = 14.7%
(iv) Calculation of Expected return of each security by CAPM
Gold = 14.7 + 0.6 (16.7 – 14.7) = 15.9 %
Silver = 14.7 + 0.8 (16.7 – 14.7) = 16.3 %
Bronze = 14.7 + 0.6 (16.7 – 14.7) = 15.9 %
GOI = 14.7 + 1 (16.7 – 14.7) = 16.7 %
Question 47 : May 2015 - Paper – 8 Marks
Following are the details of a portfolio consisting of three shares
Share Portfolio Beta Expected return Total
Weight in % Variance
A 0.20 0.40 14 0.015
B 0.50 0.50 15 0.025
C 0.30 1.10 21 0.100
Standard Deviation of Market Portfolio Returns = 10%
You are given the following additional data :
Covariance (A,B) = 0.030
Covariance (A,C) = 0.020
Covariance (B,C) = 0.040
Calculate the following
i) The portfolio Beta
ii) Residual variance of each of the three shares
iii) Portfolio variance using sharpe index Model
Portfolio variance (on the basis of Modern portfolio theory given by
Markowitz)
Solution
(i) Portfolio Beta = 0.2 x 0.4 + 0.5 x 0.5 + 0.3 x 0.1 = 0.66
(ii) Residual Variance of each of the three shares
SFM - COMPILER 451
Solution
(i) Sensitivity of each stock with market is given by its beta.
Standard deviation of market Index = 15%
Variance of market Index = 0.0225
Beta of stocks = σi r/σm
A = 20 × 0.60/15 = 0.80
B = 18 × 0.95/15 = 1.14
C = 12 × 0.75/15 = 0.60
(ii) Covariance between any 2 stocks = β β 1 2σ2m
Covariance matrix
Stock/Beta 0.80 1.14 0.60
A 400.000 205.200 108.000
B 205.200 324.000 153.900
C 108.000 153.900 144.000
Computation of Beta
Year X Y XY 𝐘𝟐
2002-2003 25.62 12.62 323.32 159.26
2003-2004 20.07 21.79 437.33 474.80
2004-2005 17.05 5.32 90.71 28.30
62.74 39.73 854.36 662.36
62.74 39.73
̅
X= = 20.91, ̅
Y= = 13.24,
3 3
ƩXY−n̅̅̅̅
XY ̅
Β =
ƩY2 −nƩY2
454 SFM - COMPILER
851.36−3(20.91)(13.24)
=
662.36−3(13.24)2
851.36−830.55 20.81
= = = 0.15
662.36−525.89 136.47
Solution
The co-efficient of determination (r2) gives the percentage of the variation in
the security’s return that is explained by the variation of the market index
return. In the X company stock return, 18 per cent of variation is explained by
the variation of the index and 82 per cent is not explained by the index.
According to Sharpe, the variance explained by the index is the systematic
risk. The unexplained variance or the residual variance is the unsystematic
risk.
Company X:
Systematic risk = β2i × Variance of market index
= (0.71)2 × 2.25 = 1.134
Solution
Sharpe Ratio S = (R p – R f )/ σp
Treynor Ratio T = (R p – R f )/ βp
Where,
R p = Return on Fund
R f = Risk-free rate
σp = Standard deviation of Fund
βp = Beta of Fund
A 1.6
B 1.0
C 0.9
D 2.0
E 0.6
Required:
(i) If the company invests 20% of its investment in the first two mutual
funds and an equal amount in the mutual funds C, D and E, what is
the beta of the portfolio?
(ii) If the company invests 15% of its investment in C, 15% in A, 10% in E
and the balance in equal amount in the other two mutual funds, what
is the beta of the portfolio?
(iii) If the expected return of market portfolio is 12% at a beta factor of 1.0,
what will be the portfolios expected return in both the situations given
above?
Solution
With 20% investment in each MF Portfolio Beta is the weighted average of the
Betas of various securities calculated as below:
(i)
Investment Beta (β) Investment (Rs.Lacs) Weighted Investment
A 1.6 20 32
B 1.0 20 20
C 0.9 20 18
D 2.0 20 40
E 0.6 20 12
100 122
σ2m = 196
σm = √196
= 14
Cov (r,m)
(iv) Cor. =
σm σr
196
0.80 = Cor. =
14σr
σr = 17.50%
Standard Deviation of Security Return = 17.50%
Question 58 Nov 2016 – Paper – 5 Marks
Mr. A has invested in three Mutual Fund (MF) schemes as per the details
given below:
Particulars MF ‘A’ MF ‘B’ MF ‘C’
Date of Investment 01-11-2015 01-02-2016 01-03-2016
Amount of Investment 1,00,000 2,00,000 2,00,000
Net Asset Value at entry date 10.30 10.00 10.10
Dividend Received upto 31-3-2016 2,850 4,500 NIL
NAD as on 31-3-2016 10.25 10.15 10.00
Assume 1 year = 365 days.
Show the amount of rupees upto two decimal points.
You are required to find out the effective yield (upto three decimal points) on
per annum basis in respect of each of the above three Mutual Fund (MF)
schemes upto 31-3-2016.
458 SFM - COMPILER
Solution
Particulars MF ‘A’ MF ‘B’ MF ‘C’
a) Investments 1,00,000 2,00,000 2,00,000
b) Opening NAV 10.30 10.00 10.10
c) No. of Units (a/b) 9,708.74 20,000 19,801.98
d) Unit NAV on 31-3-2016 10.25 10.15 10.00
e) Total NAV on 31-3-2016 (c/d) 99,514.59 2,03,000 1,98,019.86
f) Increase/Decrease of NAV(a-d) (485.41) 3,000 (1980.14)
g) Dividend Received 2,850 4,500 NIL
h) Total Yield (f+g) 2,364.59 7,500 1,980.20
i) Number of Days 152 60 31
j) Effective yield p.a. (h/a×365/i×100) 5,678% 22.813% (-)11.657%
αi =y
̅ − βx̅
Return on B (Y) Return on B (X) XY 𝐗𝟐 ̅)
(X – 𝑿 ̅)𝟐
(X – 𝐗 ̅)
(Y – 𝐘 ̅)𝟐
(X – 𝐘
10 8 80 64 1.50 2.25 1.50 2.25
12 10 120 100 3.50 12.25 3.50 12.25
9 9 81 81 2.50 6.25 0.50 0.25
3 -1 -3 1 1 56.25 -5.50 30.25
34 26 278 246 77.00 45.00
̅
Y = 34/4 = 8.50
̅ = 26/4 = 6.50
X
Ʃxy−nx̅̅
y 278−4(6.50)(8.50) 278−221 57
β = = = = = 0.74
Ʃx2 −n(x̅)2 246−4(6.50)2 246−169 77
α = ̅
Y - βx
̅
= 8.50 – 0.74(6.50)
SFM - COMPILER 459
= 3.69
Hence the characteristic line is -3.69 + 0.74 (Rm)
Ʃ(x−x̅)2 77
Total Risk of Market = σm2 = = = 19.25%
n 4
45
Total Risk of Stock = = 11.25(%)
4
2
Systematic Risk = β𝑖 σ2m = (0.74)2 × 19.25 = 10.54(%)
Unsystematic Risk is = Total Risk – Systematic Risk
= 11.25 – 10.54
= 0.71(%)
Solution
Let portfolio standard deviation be σp
Market Standard Deviation = σm
Coefficient of correlation = r
σp 𝑟
Portfolio beta (βp ) = σ , ( Beta for A = 2.30 x 0.8869/1.2 = 1.7, etc)
m
A 1.70 17.24
B 1.00 14.30
C 0.80 13.46
D 1.30 15.56
E 0.86 13.71
Car AC
0.6 x 0.3
= 0.90
0.2
Window AC
0.7 x 0.35
= 1.225
0.2
Beta of Split AC/ Window AC is
0.85 x 0.50
= 2.125
0.2
SFM - COMPILER 463
(3×8)+(1×12)
Return = = 9%
4
Therefore: 75% A E
25% C _
Risk 6 5
Return 9% 9%
For the same 9% return the risk is lower in E. Hence, E will be
preferable.
464 SFM - COMPILER
Solution
If it is assumed 50% investment in each of the two securities then Return and
Risk of Portfolio shall be computed as follows:
Year Return Deviation Deviation Return Deviation Deviation Product of
of L (𝐑 𝐋 -̅̅̅̅
𝐑 𝐋 ) (𝐑 𝐋 -̅̅̅̅
𝐑 𝐋 )𝟐 of K ̅̅̅̅
(𝐑 𝐊 -𝐑 ̅̅̅̅ 𝟐 deviations
𝐊 ) (𝐑 𝐊 -𝐑 𝐊 )
2012 10 1 1 11 3 9 3
2013 04 -5 25 -6 -14 196 70
2014 05 -4 16 13 5 25 -20
2015 11 2 4 8 0 0 0
2016 15 6 36 14 6 36 36
Ʃ = 45 Ʃ = 82 Ʃ = 40 Ʃ = 266 89
45 40
̅̅
R̅̅L = 5 = 9 ̅̅̅̅
RK = 5 = 8
∑N ̅̅̅ ̅̅̅
i=1[R1 −R1 ][R2 −R2 ] 89
Covariance = = = 17.8
N 5
45
RL = =9
5
2
(RL −̅̅̅̅
RL )
σL =√
N
82
σL =√ = 4.05
5
2
(RK −̅̅̅̅
RK )
σK =√
N
SFM - COMPILER 465
266
σ𝐾 =√ = 7.26
5
Portfolio Return
Rp = 0.50 x 9 +0.50 x 8
= 8.50%
Solution
D −P
a) Return on market portfolio = ( 1P 1 ) – 1
0
146+1270
Rm = ( 1125
)–1 = 25.87%
0.8+0.7+0.5+0.994
b) Average β = = 0.7475
4
= Rf + β (Rm-Rf)
= 16+0.7475(25.87-16)
= 23.38%
23.896+22.909+20.935+25.7714
iii. Average Return = = 23.378%
4
Yield 53 25.5
*Market Value 01.04.10 220 290
% return 24.09% 8.79%
*Weight in portfolio (1,000x220): (500x290) 60.3 39.7
Weighted average (Expected) return 18.02%
(*The market value on 31.03.10 is used as the base for
calculating yield for 10-11)
N Ltd.
Exp. Exp. Exp. Exp. Prob. (1) x (2) Dev. Square (2) x (3)
Market Gain div. Yield (1) Factor (2) 𝑃𝑛 of Dev.
( )
value PN (3)
290 0 3.5 3.5 0.2 0.8 -22 484 96.80
310 20 3.5 23.5 0.5 11.75 -2 4 2.00
330 40 3.5 43.5 0.3 13.05 18 324 97.20
25.5 σ2N = 196
Standard Deviation (𝛔𝐍 ) 14
Share of company M Ltd. is more risky as the S.D. is more than company N
Ltd.
̅
𝐗 28 𝝈𝟐 = 38.5 ̅
𝐗 21.25 𝝈𝟐 = 42.18 37.5
σ = 6.20 σ = 6.49
𝐂𝐎𝐕𝐑𝐌 = 37.5
𝐂𝐎𝐕𝐑𝐌 𝟑𝟕.𝟓
𝛃𝐑 = 𝛔𝟐 𝐌
= 𝟒𝟐.𝟏𝟖 = 0.889
470 SFM - COMPILER