1. What is the primary goal of virtual memory?

a) To increase CPU clock speed

b) To allow execution of processes not completely in memory

c) To replace physical memory entirely

d) To reduce the size of programs

2. Virtual memory abstracts main memory into:

a) A smaller, fragmented space

b) A large, uniform storage array

c) A non-addressable storage area

d) A fixed-size cache

3. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of virtual memory?

a) Programs can be larger than physical memory

b) Increased CPU utilization

c) Reduced I/O operations

d) Elimination of all disk storage

4. What must be in physical memory to be executed?

a) Entire program

b) Instructions being executed

c) All data structures

d) Kernel modules

5. The portion of a process in main memory is called:

b) Resident set

c) Page table

d) Cache block

6. What happens when an address is needed but not in main memory?

a) The process terminates

b) An interrupt is generated

c) The CPU skips the instruction

d) The OS reboots

7. Virtual memory allows:

a) Only one process in memory at a time

b) Processes to be larger than physical memory

c) Programs to run without an OS

d) Infinite storage speed

8. What is "swap space"?

a) A CPU register

b) Disk area for overflow data/code

c) A type of cache

d) Network storage

9. Thrashing occurs when the system spends most time:

a) Executing instructions
 b) Swapping process pieces

c) Idle

d) Booting

10. The principle of locality refers to:

a) Random memory access

b) Frequent access to same/recent storage locations

c) Equal distribution of memory usage

d) Non-contiguous memory allocation

11. Virtual memory requires support from:

a) Hardware only

b) Software only

c) Both hardware and software

d) Neither

12. What is the main benefit of virtual memory for programmers?

a) Faster CPU clock cycles

b) Freedom from memory size constraints

c) Elimination of all errors

d) Direct hardware access

13. Which is NOT a use of virtual memory?

a) Process creation

b) File sharing
 c) Replacing RAM entirely

d) Shared libraries

14. Real memory refers to:

a) Disk storage

b) Main memory (RAM)

c) Virtual addresses

d) Cache memory

15. The "blocked state" of a process occurs when it is waiting for:

a) CPU allocation

b) An event (e.g., I/O completion)

c) User input

d) A system reboot

16. Which term describes mapping logical addresses to disk storage?

a) Paging

b) Virtual memory

c) Caching

d) Interrupt handling

17. What is the primary drawback of virtual memory?

a) Increased programming complexity

b) Potential performance degradation

d) Limited address space

18. Which characteristic is fundamental to virtual memory?

a) Fixed-size memory partitions

b) Logical address translation at runtime

c) Static program loading

d) No disk usage

19. What is loaded during process execution in virtual memory?

a) Entire process

b) Only the kernel

c) Required portions of the process

d) No code

20. Virtual memory is implemented using:

a) Only segmentation

b) Only paging

c) Paging and/or segmentation

d) No specific mechanism

21. What triggers the OS to load a missing page?

a) System call

b) Page fault interrupt

c) CPU overheating

d) User command
22. Which of the following is a benefit of virtual memory?

a) Reduced disk space usage

b) Simplified programming

c) Elimination of RAM

d) Fixed program sizes

23. What is "overlaying" in memory management?

a) A virtual memory technique

b) A manual technique to fit large programs in limited memory

c) A disk scheduling algorithm

d) A type of cache

24. The "locality of reference" principle helps:

a) Avoid thrashing

b) Increase disk size

c) Reduce CPU speed

d) Eliminate interrupts

25. Which component manages page movement between disk and memory?

a) CPU

b) OS software

c) Disk controller

d) Compiler
26. Virtual memory allows more processes to run by:

a) Reducing process size

b) Sharing all memory

c) Using disk space as an extension of RAM

d) Increasing CPU cores

27. What is the main trade-off of virtual memory?

a) Speed vs. cost

b) Performance vs. complexity

c) Size vs. power consumption

d) Compatibility vs. security

28. Which is NOT a part of virtual memory implementation?

a) Page table

b) Swap space

c) CPU cache

d) Disk storage

29. What happens after a disk I/O completes for a blocked process?

a) Process terminates

b) Process moves to ready state

c) Process remains blocked

d) OS reboots

30. Virtual memory is primarily a:

b) Software abstraction

c) Network protocol

d) Power-saving mode

31. Which scheduling policy is least relevant to virtual memory?

a) FCFS

b) SSTF

c) Priority scheduling

d) SCAN

32. What is the role of the MMU (Memory Management Unit)?

a) Translate logical to physical addresses

b) Manage disk space

c) Schedule processes

d) Handle interrupts

33. Which is a disadvantage of virtual memory?

a) Increased disk I/O

b) Limited address space

c) No multiprogramming support

d) Fixed process sizes

34. What is the "resident set" of a process?

a) All its pages on disk

c) Its kernel code

d) Cache lines

35. Which statement about virtual memory is true?

a) It eliminates physical memory

b) It simplifies programming

c) It requires no hardware support

d) It slows down all processes

36. What is the purpose of the "swap area"?

a) Store unused CPU registers

b) Hold overflow pages from main memory

c) Replace cache memory

d) Store OS kernel only

37. Which is NOT a benefit of virtual memory?

a) Larger programs than RAM

b) Faster disk access

c) More concurrent processes

d) Shared memory between processes

38. What is "thrashing"?

a) High CPU utilization

b) Excessive page swapping

d) Low disk usage

39. The "principle of locality" predicts that:

a) Programs access memory randomly

b) Recent/frequent accesses are likely to recur

c) All memory is equally used

d) Disk is faster than RAM

40. Virtual memory is essential for:

a) Single-tasking systems

b) Multiprogramming systems

c) Systems without disks

d) Systems with unlimited RAM

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1. The main mass-storage system in modern computers is:

a) CPU cache

b) Secondary storage (HDD/NVM)

c) RAM

d) BIOS

2. Which is NOT a type of tertiary storage?

a) Magnetic tape

b) Optical disk
 c) Cloud storage

d) SSD

3. HDDs and NVM devices are examples of:

a) Primary storage

b) Nonvolatile storage

c) Volatile storage

d) CPU registers

4. The physical structure of an HDD includes all EXCEPT:

a) Platters

b) Read/write heads

c) Actuator arm

d) GPU

5. The time to position the head at the correct track is called:

a) Rotational delay

b) Seek time

c) Transfer time

d) Access time

6. Rotational latency refers to:

a) Time for the disk to spin up

b) Time for the sector to reach the head

c) Time to transfer data

d) Time to move the arm

a) Seek time + rotational delay

b) Transfer time + seek time

c) Rotational delay + transfer time

d) All three

8. Disk bandwidth is calculated as:

a) Total bytes transferred / total time

b) Total time / total bytes

c) Seek time × rotational delay

d) Number of tracks × sectors

9. Which scheduling algorithm is called the "elevator algorithm"?

a) FIFO

b) SSTF

c) SCAN

d) C-SCAN

10. C-SCAN differs from SCAN by:

a) Servicing requests in both directions

b) Only servicing requests in one direction

c) Using random scheduling

d) Prioritizing large files

a) FIFO

b) SSTF

c) PRI

d) LIFO

12. The "arm" in an HDD is responsible for:

a) Spinning the disk

b) Moving read/write heads

c) Storing data

d) Cooling the system

13. A "cylinder" in an HDD refers to:

a) A single track

b) Same track across all platters

c) A sector

d) The outer edge of the disk

14. Which is NOT a stage of disk I/O transfer?

a) Wait for device

b) Wait for channel

c) Seek

d) Compress data

15. The disk controller manages:

b) Communication between disk and OS

c) User input

d) Network traffic

16. Which scheduling algorithm is fair but may have high seek time?

a) FIFO

b) SSTF

c) SCAN

d) C-SCAN

17. SSTF may cause:

a) Starvation of distant requests

b) Equal seek times

c) No rotational delay

d) Faster disk rotation

18. The "spindle" in an HDD is responsible for:

a) Moving the arm

b) Spinning the platters

c) Reading data

d) Writing data

19. Which algorithm services requests in one direction only?

a) SCAN
 b) C-SCAN

c) FIFO

d) SSTF

20. Disk formatting involves:

a) Creating tracks and sectors

b) Increasing disk speed

c) Reducing seek time

d) Deleting all data

21. Which is NOT a disk performance parameter?

a) Seek time

b) Rotational delay

c) CPU clock speed

d) Transfer rate

22. The "swap space" is managed by:

a) Disk scheduler

b) OS

c) CPU

d) User programs

23. RAID systems are used for:

a) Improving disk reliability/performance

b) Replacing RAM
 c) Cooling HDDs

d) Increasing CPU cores

24. Which is a nonvolatile storage device?

a) HDD

b) RAM

c) CPU cache

d) DRAM

25. The "track" on a disk is:

a) A circular path on a platter

b) A linear path

c) A single byte

d) A memory address

26. Which algorithm services requests during arm movement in both

a) SCAN

b) C-SCAN

c) SSTF

d) FIFO

27. The "sector" is:

a) A division of a track

b) A full platter
 c) The arm mechanism

d) The disk controller

28. Which scheduling policy is best for uniform service distribution?

a) SCAN

b) SSTF

c) FIFO

d) LIFO

29. The "bandwidth" of a disk refers to:

a) Data transfer rate

b) Rotational speed

c) Seek time

d) Disk size

30. Which algorithm has the lowest service variability?

a) C-SCAN

b) SSTF

c) FIFO

d) Random

31. The "platter" in an HDD is:

a) A magnetic disk

b) The read/write head

c) The actuator arm

32. Which is NOT a disk scheduling algorithm?

a) SCAN

b) SSTF

c) FCFS

d) Round-Robin

33. The "seek distance" affects:

a) Seek time

b) Rotational delay

c) Transfer rate

d) Disk capacity

34. Which algorithm is most similar to an elevator?

a) SCAN

b) C-SCAN

c) SSTF

d) FIFO

35. The "disk queue" holds:

a) Pending I/O requests

b) Data being written

c) OS kernel

d) CPU instructions
36. Which is a disadvantage of SSTF?

a) High seek time

b) Starvation

c) Low throughput

d) No rotational delay

37. The "read/write head" is used to:

a) Access data on the platter

b) Spin the disk

c) Cool the HDD

d) Power the system

38. Which algorithm is load-sensitive?

a) FSCAN

b) C-SCAN

c) SSTF

d) FIFO

39. The "actuator" controls:

a) Arm movement

b) Disk rotation

c) Data transfer

d) Power supply
40. Which is NOT a mass-storage device?

a) HDD

b) SSD

c) RAM

d) Magnetic tape

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### **Model Answers**

*(Answers are in order for each set of 40 questions.)*

**Lecture 6 Answers:**

1-b, 2-b, 3-d, 4-b, 5-b, 6-b, 7-b, 8-b, 9-b, 10-b, 11-c, 12-b, 13-c, 14-b, 15-b,
16-b, 17-b, 18-b, 19-c, 20-c, 21-b, 22-b, 23-b, 24-a, 25-b, 26-c, 27-b, 28-c,
29-b, 30-b, 31-d, 32-a, 33-a, 34-b, 35-b, 36-b, 37-b, 38-b, 39-b, 40-b.

**Lecture 7 Answers:**

1-b, 2-d, 3-b, 4-d, 5-b, 6-b, 7-a, 8-a, 9-c, 10-b, 11-b, 12-b, 13-b, 14-d, 15-b,
16-a, 17-a, 18-b, 19-b, 20-a, 21-c, 22-b, 23-a, 24-a, 25-a, 26-a, 27-a, 28-a,
29-a, 30-a, 31-a, 32-d, 33-a, 34-a, 35-a, 36-b, 37-a, 38-a, 39-a, 40-c.

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