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Jee Mock

The document is a mock examination paper for JEE Mains Chemistry, consisting of various multiple-choice questions covering topics such as chemical formulas, reactions, quantum numbers, and thermodynamics. Each question has four answer options and is worth four marks. The paper is designed to test the knowledge and understanding of chemistry concepts for students preparing for the JEE Mains exam.
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
1 views11 pages

Jee Mock

The document is a mock examination paper for JEE Mains Chemistry, consisting of various multiple-choice questions covering topics such as chemical formulas, reactions, quantum numbers, and thermodynamics. Each question has four answer options and is worth four marks. The paper is designed to test the knowledge and understanding of chemistry concepts for students preparing for the JEE Mains exam.
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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academiae chemiae

dbanerjee-9830581292

JEE MAINS MOCK 2


JEE main - Chemistry
Time Allowed: 1 hour Maximum Marks: 240

1. A compound was found to contain nitrogen and oxygen in the ratio 28 g and 80 g respectively. The formula of [4]
compound is

a) N2O3 b) N2O5

c) NO d) N2O4

2. A gaseous hydrocarbon gives upon combustion 0.72 g. of water and 3.08 g. of CO2. The empirical formula of [4]
the hydrocarbon is:

a) C7H8 b) C2H4

c) C6H5 d) C3H4

3. Which of the following reaction is CORRECT according to the law of conservation of mass? [4]

a) 2CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → 2CO2(g) + 2H2O(g) b) C3H8(g) + O2(g) → CO2(g) + H2O(g)

c) Mg(s) + O2(g) → MgO d) P4(s) + 5O2(g) → P4O10(S)

4. Out of first 100 elements, number of elements having electrons in 3d-orbitals are: [4]

a) 10 b) 60

c) 100 d) 80
5. An electron, a proton and an alpha particle have kinetic energies of 16E, 4E and E respectively. What is the [4]
qualitative order of their de-Broglie wavelengths?

a) λe > λp = λα b) λp > λe > λα

c) λα < λe > λp d) λp = λα = λe

6. The number of electrons with the azimuthal quantum number l = 1 and l = 2 for 24Cr in ground state are [4]

respectively :

a) 16 and 4 b) 12 and 5

c) 16 and 5 d) 12 and 4
7. In which of the following all the given characteristics are present? [4]
Vacant orbitals involved in hybridisation
Octet of underlined atom is completed
Geometry of underlined atom is tetrahedral

a) Si2H6 b) I2Cl6

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c) B2H6 d) Al2Cl6

8. Which of the following statement(s) is in correct about P4O6 and P4O10? [4]

a) Both oxides have closed cage like structure. b) P-O-P bond length of P4O6 is greater than
P4O10.

c) Both P4O6 and P4O10 molecules have d) Each oxide contains six equivalent P-O-P
pπ − dπ bonds. bonds.

9. How many bonding pairs and lone pairs surround the central atom in the I ion?

3
[4]

a) Bonding Pairs-2, Lone Pairs-3 b) Bonding Pairs-2, Lone Pairs-2

c) Bonding Pairs-3, Lone Pairs-2 d) Bonding Pairs-4, Lone Pairs-3


10. Three moles of an ideal gas expanded spontaneously into vacuum. The work done will be: [4]

a) Infinite b) Zero

c) 9 joules d) 3 joules
11. The combustion of benzene (l) gives CO2(g) and H2O(l). Given that heat of combustion of benzene at constant [4]

volume is -3263.9 kJ mol-1 at 25° C; heat of combustion (in kJ mol-1) of benzene at constant pressure will be (R

= 8.314 JK-1 mol-1)

a) -452.46 b) -3267.6

c) 4152.6 d) 3260

12. At 27oC latent heat of fusion of a compound is 2930 J/mol. Entropy change during fusion is: [4]

a) 9.07 J/mol K b) 0.977 J/mol K

c) 9.77 J/mol K d) 10.77 J/mol K


13. 12 g of a nonvolatile solute dissolved in 108 g of water produces the relative lowering of vapour pressure of 0.1. [4]
The molecular mass of the solute is:

a) 20 b) 80

c) 40 d) 60
14. The van’t Hoff factor i for a compound which undergoes dissociation in one solvent and association in other [4]
solvent is respectively:

a) greater than one and less than one b) less than one and less than one

c) less than one and greater than one d) greater than one and greater than one
15. Which of the following alloys is used in making electrical instruments? [4]

a) Duralumin b) Hardened lead

c) Manganin d) Spiegeleisen
16. The correct order of acidic nature is: [4]

a) H2SO4 > HClO4 > H3PO4 b) HClO4 > H2SO4 > H3PO4

c) H2SO4 > H3PO4 > HCiO4 d) HClO4 > H3PO4 > H2SO4

2 / 11
17. The pH of a saturated solution of Mg(OH)2 (Ksp of Mg (OH)2 = 8.9 × 10-12) is: [4]

a) 11.4168 b) 7.0

c) 9.4168 d) 10.4168
18. Which of the following are Lewis acids? [4]

a) PH3 and BCl3 b) BCl3 and AlCl3

c) PH3 and SiCl4 d) AlCl3 and SiCl4

19. The order of the oxidation state of the phosphorus atom in H3PO2, H3PO4, H3PO3 and H4P2O6 is: [4]

i. H3PO4 > H4P2O6 > H3PO3 > H3PO2

ii. H3PO3 > H3PO2 > H3PO4 > H4P2O6


iii. H3PO2 > H3PO3 > H4P2O6 > H3PO4
iv. H3PO4 > H3PO2 > H3PO3 > H4P2O6

a) only iii b) only iv

c) only ii d) only i
20. It is true that: [4]

a) A zero-order reaction is a single-step b) A zero-order reaction is a multistep reaction


reaction

c) A first-order reaction is always a single step d) A second-order reaction is always a


reaction multistep reaction
21. From the following data, the activation energy for the reaction is (cal/mol): [4]
H2 + I2 ⟶ 2HI

T, K 1
, K-1 log10 K
T

769 1.3 × 10-3 2.9

667 1.5 × 10-3 1.1

a) 4 × 104 b) 8 × 104

c) 2 × 104 d) 3 × 104

22. The rate of a reaction doubles when its temperature changes from 300 K to 310 K. Activation energy of such a [4]

reaction will be (R = 8.314 J K-1 mol-1 and log 2= 0.301)

a) 53.6 kJ mol-1 b) 48.6 kJ mol-1

c) 60.5 kJ mol-1 d) 58.5 kJ mol-1

23. If Eδ−
1
− E
δ+
2
bond has given polarity, which of the following is/are correct about polarity? (Electronegativity of [4]
E1 = 2.4, Q = 3.1, R = 2.6 respectively)

a) R b)
δ+ δ− δ− δ+
− E Q − R
2

c) Q δ+
− E
δ−
2
d) E
δ−
1
δ+
− E
2

3 / 11
24. Which of the following is correct option? [4]
p. Same number of electron in d-subshell (Mn, Cr)

q. Same value of Zeff (Li+, B+)

r. Same value of σ, shielding constant (Li+, Be2+)


s. Same value of electronegativity (P, H)
t. ame value of electron affinity (F, Cl)

a) (p) (r), (t) b) (p), (r), (s)

c) All are correct statement d) (r), (s), (t)


25. The elements with atomic number 10, 18, 36, 54 and 86 are [4]

a) Light metals b) Rare-earths

c) Inert gases d) Halogens


26. The magnetic moment of a complex ion is 2.83 BM. The complex ion is: [4]

a) [Cu(CN) b)
2− 3+
4] [Cr( H2 O) ]
6

c) [V(H 2 O)6 ]
3+
d) [MnCl4 ]
2−

27. Find the correct statements about potassium hexacyanidomanganate(II). [4]

i. Valence electronic configuration of Mn2+ is t . 5

2 g

ii. Valence electronic configuration of Mn2+ is t3


2 g
2
eg .
iii. Geometry of complex is tetrahedral.
iv. Geometry of complex is octahedral.
v. Complex is optically inactive.
vi. Spin-only magnetic moment is 1.73 BM.
vii. Spin-only magnetic moment is 5.92 BM.

a) i, iv, vii b) i, iv, v, vi

c) ii, iii, iv, vii d) i, iii, vii


28. 1L, 0.02 M solution of [Co(NH3)5SO4]Br is mixed with 1L, 0.02 M solution of [Co(NH3)5SO4]Br. The resulting [4]

solution is divided into two equal parts (X) and treated with excess AgNO3 solution and BaCl2 solution
respectively as shown below:
1 L Solution (X) + AgNO3 solution (excess) → Y
1 L Solution (X) + BaCl2 solution (excess) → Z

The number of moles of Y and Z respectively are

a) 0.02,0.02 b) 0.01,0.02

c) 0.01,0.01 d) 0.02,0.01
29. When is Prussian blue precipitates formed? [4]

a) when ferrous ammonium sulphate reacts b) when ferrous sulphate reacts with
with FeCl3 Na4[Fe(CN6)]

c) when ferrous sulphate reacts with FeCl3 d) when ammonium sulphate reacts with FeCl3

4 / 11
30. Which of the following is least stable? [4]

a) C H b)
+ +

3 − C H2 − C H2 C H3 − C − C H3
|
CH
3

c) d)
C H3 +

| + C H3 − C H − C H2 − C H3

C H3 − C − C H − C6 H5
|
CH
3

31. The decreasing order of stability of following anions is [4]

a) Q > S > R > P b) Q > R > S > P

c) S > R > Q > P d) P > Q > R > S


32. In ethene, the p-orbitals of π-bond are mutually ________ and are ________ to the plane of the molecule. [4]

a) parallel, perpendicular b) perpendicular, parallel

c) parallel, parallel d) oblique, perpendicular


33. Draw the product of following reaction with stereochemistry: [4]

BH3

−−−−−−−→

H2 O2 , OH

a) b)

c) d)

34. Which one of the following aromatic compounds fails to undergo Friedel-Crafts reactions? [4]

a) C6H5 - CH3 b) C6H5 - NO2

c) C6H5Cl d) C6D6

35. In which of the following molecules, all atoms are coplanar ? [4]

a) b)

c) d)

[4]

5 / 11

OH

36. −→
− Major product:
Δ

a) b)

c) d)

[4]
37.

Find out the structure of A:

a) b)

c) d)

alc. KOH
[4]
38. −−−−−→ Major product:

a) b)

c) d)

39. The major product obtained on the monobromination (with Br2/FeBr3) of the following compound A is [4]

a) b)

c) d)

[4]

6 / 11
40.

Predict reactants X and Y.

a) X = CH3COOC2H5 b) X = CH3COCH2CH3
Y = CH3CH2COOH Y = CH3(CH2)2CH2Cl

c) X = CH3(CH2)3COOH d) X = CH3(CH2)2CHO
Y = CH3COCH3 Y = CH3CH2CH = CH2

41. Which one of the following compounds will not be soluble in sodium bicarbonate? [4]

a) o - Nitrophenol b) Benzene sulphonic acid

c) 2,4,6 - Trinitrophenol d) Benzoic acid


42. Which of the following process is not required for the conversion of 4-nitroaniline to 1, 2, 3-tribromobenzene? [4]

a) Bromination b) Diazotization

c) Hydrolysis d) Reduction
43. The major product Z obtained in the following reaction scheme is: [4]

NaN O2 /H C l C u2 Br2 H NO3

−−−−−−−→ X −−−−→ Y −−−−→ Z


273−278 K H2 SO4

a) b)

c) d)

Hydrolysis Red hot Conc. HNO3 +Conc.H2 SO 4 Fe+conc.HCl NaNO2 +dil.HCl


[4]
44. CaC2 −−−−−→ A −−−−→ B −−−−−−−−−−−−−→ C −−−−−−→ D −−−−−−−−→ E
Cu tube 0−5

C
Compound D is ________.

a) aniline b) benzoyl chloride

c) benzylamine d) benzenediazonium chloride


45. An aldose is converted into its next higher homologue by: [4]

a) Killiani synthesis b) Amadori rearrangement

c) Ruffs method d) Wohl’s method


46. Identify the structure of aniline yellow. [4]

a) b)

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c) d)

47. Which of the following is true? [4]


i. Alcohol give red colour with cerric ammonium nitrate
ii. Aldehyde and ketone give orange red colour with 2,4-DNP
iii. RCOOH give CO2 with NaHCO3
iv. All of these

a) (ii) b) (iii)

c) (iv) d) (i)
48. The brisk effervescence of compound X is observed when it reacts with an aqueous NaHCO3 solution. [4]
Compound Y reacts with chloroform in an alkaline medium forming a foul-smelling compound. Compounds X
and Y are ________ and ________ respectively.

a) b)
and and

c) d) CH3CH2OH and CH3CH(NH2)CH3

and

49. The first ionisation potential of Na is 5.1 eV. The value of electron gain enthalpy of Na+ will be: [4]

a) -2.55 eV b) -5.1 eV

c) -10.2 eV d) +2.55 eV
50. The incorrect statement among the following is: [4]
a. actinoids are highly reactive metals, especially when finely divided.
b. actinoid contraction is greater than lanthanoid contraction.
c. most of the trivalent Lanthanoid ions are colorless in the solid state.
d. lanthanoids are good conductors of heat and electricity.

a) Statement (d) is incorrect. b) Statement (b) is incorrect.

c) Statement (c) is incorrect. d) Statement (a) is incorrect.


51. Identify the incorrect statement from the following. [4]
i. The overall decrease in atomic and ionic radii from lanthanum to lutetium is called lanthanoid contraction.
ii. Zirconium and Hafnium have identical radii of 160 pm and 159 pm, respectively as a consequence of
lanthanoid contraction.
iii. Lanthanoids reveal only +3 oxidation state.

iv. The lanthanoid ions other than the f0 type and the f14 type are all paramagnetic.

8 / 11
a) Option (iii) b) Option (i)

c) Option (ii) d) Option (iv)


52. The incorrect statement(s) among (i) - (iii) is (are): [4]
i. W(VI) is more stable than Cr(VI).
ii. in the presence of HCl, permanganate titrations provide satisfactory results.
iii. some lanthanoid oxides can be used as phosophorus.

a) (ii) only b) (i) and (ii) only

c) (i) only d) (ii) and (iii) only


53. Of the following, which is the product formed when cyclohexanone undergoes aldol condensation followed by [4]
heating?

a) Option (i) b) Option (ii)

c) Option (iv) d) Option (iii)


54. The major product of given reaction is [4]

a) RCOOH b) RCHO

c) RCONH2 d) RCH2NH2

55. The pathway which is useful to make the following compound is ________. [4]

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a) iii and iv b) ii and iii

c) i, ii and iv d) i and iv
56. The correct order of increasing electron affinity of the following is: [4]

a) O < S < Cl < F b) S < O < Cl < F

c) S < O < F < Cl d) O < S < F < Cl


57. Which of the following is not a halide? [4]

a) Thiocyanate ion b) Cyanide ion

c) All of these d) Cyanate ion


58. Match the following: [4]

Cell Cell potential

i. Dry cell a. 1.1 V

ii. Cu-Zn Daniel cell b. 1.5 V

iii. Lead accumulator c. 1.35 V

iv. Mercury cell d. 2 V

a) i - b, ii - a, iii - d, iv - c b) i - b, ii - c, iii - d, iv - a

c) i - c, ii - a, iii - d, iv - b d) i - d, ii - c, iii - b, iv - a

59. Cu2+ + 2e ⟶ Cu; log [Cu2+] vs Ered graph is of the type as shown in figure where OA = 0.34 V then electride [4]

potential of the half cell of Cu|Cu2+ (0.1M) will be:

a) 0.34 - 0.0591 V b) -0.34 + V


0.0591

c) 0.34 + 0.0591 V d) 0.34 V

60. For the following electrochemical cell at 298 K, Pt(s) | H2 (g, 1 bar) | H+ (aq, 1 M) || M4+(aq), M2+(aq) | Pt(s) [4]
2+
[M (aq)]

Ecell = 0.092 V when 4+


= 10x
[M (aq)]

10 / 11
Given: E = 0.151 V; 2.303 = 0.059 V
0 RT
4+ 2+
M /M F

The value of x is:

a) -1 b) -2

c) 2 d) 1

11 / 11

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