Series : GE1FH SET~2

. - >
Roll No. Q.P. Code 30/1/2
- -
-
Candidates must write the Q.P. Code
on the title page of the answer-book.
> NOTE
(I) - (I) Please check that this question paper
27 contains 27 printed pages.
(II) - - (II) Q.P. Code given on the right hand side
- - of the question paper should be written
on the title page of the answer-book by
the candidate.
(III) - 38 (III) Please check that this question paper
contains 38 questions.
(IV) (IV) Please write down the Serial Number of
, - the question in the answer-book at the
given place before attempting it.

(V) - 15 (V) 15 minute time has been allotted to read

- this question paper. The question paper
will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From
10.15 10.15 10.15 a.m. to 10.30 a.m., the candidates
10.30 - will read the question paper only and
- will not write any answer on the
answer-book during this period.

J{UV (_mZH$)
MATHEMATICS (STANDARD)
3 80
Time allowed : 3 hours Maximum Marks : 80

30/1/2 # 1| P a g e P.T.O.
(i) - 38
(ii) - , , ,
(iii) 1 18 (MCQ) 19 20
1
(iv) 21 25 - (VSA) 2
(v) 26 31 - (SA) 3
(vi) 32 35 - (LA) 5
(vii) 36 38 4
2
(viii) - , 2 , 2 ,
2 3

(ix) = ,

(x)

20 (MCQ) , 1 20 1=20

1. , O P - PA
POB = 115 , APO :

(A) 25 (B) 65
(C) 90 (D) 35

30/1/2 # 2| P a g e
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
(i) This question paper contains 38 questions. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) This question paper is divided into five Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii) In Section A, Questions no. 1 to 18 are multiple choice questions (MCQs)
and questions number 19 and 20 are Assertion-Reason based questions of
1 mark each.
(iv) In Section B, Questions no. 21 to 25 are very short answer (VSA) type
questions, carrying 2 marks each.
(v) In Section C, Questions no. 26 to 31 are short answer (SA) type
questions, carrying 3 marks each.
(vi) In Section D, Questions no. 32 to 35 are long answer (LA) type questions
carrying 5 marks each.
(vii) In Section E, Questions no. 36 to 38 are case study based questions
carrying 4 marks each. Internal choice is provided in 2 marks questions in
each case study.
(viii) There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided
in 2 questions in Section B, 2 questions in Section C, 2 questions in
Section D and 3 questions in Section E.
(ix) Draw neat diagrams wherever required. Take = wherever required,
if not stated.
(x) Use of calculator is not allowed.

SECTION A
This section has 20 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) carrying 1 mark each. 20 1=20

1. In the given figure, PA is a tangent from an external point P to a circle

with centre O. If POB = 115 , then APO is equal to :

(A) 25 (B) 65
(C) 90 (D) 35

30/1/2 # 3| P a g e P.T.O.
 60
2. 20 cm cm

(A) 30

(B) 60

(C) 90

(D) 50

3. , 30 ?
(A) 4
(B) 10

(C) 16
(D) 8

4. 5 cm 20 cm2

(A) 10 cm
(B) 1 cm

(C) 5 cm
(D) 8 cm

5. x=1 y = 2, 2x 3y + a = 0 2x + 3y b=0
,
(A) a = 2b
(B) 2a = b
(C) a + 2b = 0
(D) 2a + b = 0

30/1/2 # 4| P a g e
2. A piece of wire 20 cm long is bent into the form of an arc of a circle of
radius cm. The angle subtended by the arc at the centre of the circle

is :

(A) 30

(B) 60

(C) 90

(D) 50

3. Three numbers in AP have the sum 30. What is its middle term ?

(A) 4
(B) 10
(C) 16
(D) 8

4. An arc of a circle is of length 5 cm and the sector it bounds has an area

of 20 cm2. Its radius is :

(A) 10 cm
(B) 1 cm
(C) 5 cm
(D) 8 cm

5. If x = 1 and y = 2 is a solution of the pair of linear equations 2x 3y + a = 0

and 2x + 3y b = 0, then :
(A) a = 2b
(B) 2a = b
(C) a + 2b = 0
(D) 2a + b = 0

30/1/2 # 5| P a g e P.T.O.
6. ,

(A) 3 (B) 5
(C) 2 (D) 4

7. + = 90 =2 , cos2 + sin2

(A) 0

(B)

(C) 1

(D) 2

8. 52

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

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6. Two polynomials are shown in the graph below. The number of distinct
zeroes of both the polynomials is :

(A) 3 (B) 5
(C) 2 (D) 4

7. If + = 90 and = 2 , then cos2 + sin2 is equal to :

(A) 0

(B)

(C) 1

(D) 2

8. A card is selected at random from a deck of 52 playing cards. The

probability of it being a red face card is :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

30/1/2 # 7| P a g e P.T.O.
9. , 3x2 + 6x + k + + = , k

(A) 8
(B) 8
(C) 4
(D) 4

10. tan2 :

(A) 1
(B) 0
(C) 1
(D) 2

11. - ?
(A) 1·4142387954012 . . . .
(B)
(C)
(D) 1·857142

12. HCF(98, 28) = m LCM(98, 28) = n , n 7m :

(A) 0
(B) 28
(C) 98
(D) 198

13. ,

(A) 60
(B) 30
(C) 120
(D) 90
30/1/2 # 8| P a g e
9. If and are the zeroes of polynomial 3x2 + 6x + k such that
+ + = , then the value of k is :

(A) 8
(B) 8
(C) 4
(D) 4

10. The value of tan2 is :

(A) 1
(B) 0
(C) 1
(D) 2

11. Which of the following is a rational number between and ?

(A) 1·4142387954012 . . . .
(B)
(C)
(D) 1·857142

12. If HCF(98, 28) = m and LCM(98, 28) = n, then the value of n 7 m is :

(A) 0
(B) 28
(C) 98
(D) 198

13. If the length of a chord of a circle is equal to its radius, then the angle
subtended by chord at the centre is :
(A) 60
(B) 30
(C) 120
(D) 90

30/1/2 # 9| P a g e P.T.O.
14. - - 70 125 5 8 ,
(A) 13
(B) 65
(C) 875
(D) 1750

15. 14 m 7m ,

(A) 15

(B) 30

(C) 45

(D) 60

16. ABC DEF , B= E, F= C AB = 3 DE ,

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

17. P( 4, 5) Q(4, 6) -
(A) x-

(B) y-

(C) -
(D) x- y-

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14. The greatest number which divides 70 and 125, leaving remainders 5 and
8 respectively, is :
(A) 13
(B) 65

(C) 875
(D) 1750

15. A ladder 14 m long leans against a wall. If the foot of the ladder is 7 m
from the wall, then the angle of elevation of the top of the wall is :
(A) 15
(B) 30
(C) 45
(D) 60

16. In triangles ABC and DEF, B= E, F= C and AB = 3 DE. Then,

the two triangles are :
(A) congruent but not similar
(B) congruent as well as similar
(C) neither congruent nor similar

(D) similar but not congruent

17. The mid-point of the line segment joining the points P( 4, 5) and Q(4, 6)
lies on :

(A) x-axis
(B) y-axis
(C) origin
(D) neither x-axis nor y-axis
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18. 15x 18x

(A) x

(B) 11x

(C) 17x

(D) 34x

19 20

(A) (R) (A), (B),

(C) (D)

(A) (A) (R) (R), (A)

(B) (A) (R) , (R), (A)

(C) (A) , (R)

(D) (A) , (R)

19. (A) ,

(R) r 3 r2

20. (A) 1 20 1

(R) E , P(E) = 1 , E

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18. Mode and Mean of a data are 15x and 18x, respectively. Then the median
of the data is :

(A) x

(B) 11x

(C) 17x

(D) 34x

Questions number 19 and 20 are Assertion and Reason based questions. Two
statements are given, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (A), (B),
(C) and (D) as given below.

(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the
correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not
the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.

(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

19. Assertion (A) : If we join two hemispheres of same radius along their
bases, then we get a sphere.

Reason (R): Total Surface Area of a sphere of radius r is 3 r2.

20. Assertion (A) : The probability of selecting a number at random from the
numbers 1 to 20 is 1.

Reason (R): For any event E, if P(E) = 1, then E is called a sure event.

30/1/2 # 13| P a g e P.T.O.

 5 - (VSA) , 2 5 2=10

21. x2 + ax + b 3:4 , 12a2 = 49b.

22. 26 m P
A B 10 m PA PB
-

23. ABC PQR AB = 6 cm, BC = 4 cm, AC = 8 cm

PR = 6 cm , (PQ + QR)

QT
, = 1= 2 , PQS TQR.
PR

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 SECTION B

This section has 5 Very Short Answer (VSA) type questions carrying 2 marks
each. 5 2=10

21. If the zeroes of the polynomial x2 + ax + b are in the ratio 3 : 4, then

prove that 12a2 = 49b.

22. A person is standing at P outside a circular ground at a distance of 26 m

from the centre of the ground. He found that his distances from the
points A and B on the ground are 10 m (PA and PB are tangents to the
circle). Find the radius of the circular ground.

23. (a) If ABC PQR in which AB = 6 cm, BC = 4 cm, AC = 8 cm and

PR = 6 cm, then find the length of (PQ + QR).
OR

(b) In the given figure, = and 1= 2, show that

PQS TQR.

30/1/2 # 15| P a g e P.T.O.

24. x cos 60 + y cos 0 + sin 30 cot 45 = 5 , x + 2y

25. (2a, a 7) (11, 9)

10 ,

6 - (SA) , 3 6 3=18

26. 3:4
2:3 ,

27. ,

144 , 180 192

, ,

28. 2

tan
29. : + = 1 + sec cosec

2
: + =
2
sin A cos A

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24. (a) If x cos 60 + y cos 0 + sin 30 cot 45 = 5, then find the value of
x + 2y.

OR

(b) Evaluate :

25. The coordinates of the centre of a circle are (2a, a 7). Find the value(s)
9) and has diameter
10 units.

SECTION C

This section has 6 Short Answer (SA) type questions carrying 3 marks each. 6 3=18

26. If the radii of the bases of a cylinder and a cone are in the ratio 3 : 4 and
their heights are in the ratio 2 : 3, find the ratio of their volumes.

27. Three sets of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics books have to be

stacked in such a way that all the books are stored subject-wise and the
height of each stack is the same. The number of Physics books is 144, the
number of Chemistry books is 180 and the number of Mathematics books
is 192. Assuming that the books are of same thickness, determine the
number of stacks of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics books.

28. Two dice are thrown at the same time. Determine the probability that the
difference of the numbers on the two dice is 2.

29. (a) Prove that : + = 1 + sec cosec

OR

(b) Prove that : + =

30/1/2 # 17| P a g e P.T.O.

30. ,O BCD C -
BAC + ACD = 90 .

31. y- (5, 6) ( 1, 4)

4 - (LA) , 5 4 5=20

32. ABCD BD, AE F ,

E BC DF EF = FB FA.

ABC , AD BC AD2 = BD DC ,
BAC = 90 .

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30. (a) In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle and BCD is tangent

to it at C. Prove that BAC + ACD = 90 .

OR

(b) Prove that opposite sides of a quadrilateral circumscribing a circle

subtend supplementary angles at the centre of the circle.

31. Find the ratio in which the y-axis divides the line segment joining the
points (5, 6) and ( 1, 4). Also find the point of intersection.

SECTION D

This section has 4 Long Answer (LA) type questions carrying 5 marks each. 4 5=20

32. (a) The diagonal BD of a parallelogram ABCD intersects the line

segment AE at the point F, where E is any point on the side BC.
Prove that DF EF = FB FA.

OR

(b) In ABC, if AD BC and AD2 = BD DC, then prove that

BAC = 90 .

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33. 68

( )

65 85 4

85 105 5

105 125 13

125 145 20

145 165 14

165 185 8

185 205 4

34. A B , 8% 9% ,
- 1,860 ,
, 20

35. 2- 12 36 ,

- 32
2 4
, 253

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33. The following frequency distribution gives the monthly consumption of
electricity of 68 consumers of a locality. Find the mean and mode of the
data :

Monthly Consumption Number of

(in units) Consumers

65 85 4

85 105 5

105 125 13

125 145 20

145 165 14

165 185 8

185 205 4

34. Vijay invested certain amounts of money in two schemes A and B, which
offer interest at the rate of 8% per annum and 9% per annum,
respectively. He received 1,860 as the total annual interest. However,
had he interchanged the amounts of investments in the two schemes, he
would have received 20 more as annual interest. How much money did
he invest in each scheme ?

35. (a) A two-digit number is such that the product of its digits is 12.
When 36 is added to this number, the digits interchange their
places. Find the number.
OR
(b) A student scored a total of 32 marks in class tests in Mathematics
and Science. Had he scored 2 marks less in Science and 4 marks
more in Mathematics, the product of his marks would have been
253. Find his marks in the two subjects.

30/1/2 # 21| P a g e P.T.O.

 3 4 3 4=12

1
36. ,
,

, 35 mm
5 , 10 ,

(i) 1
(ii) ACB 1
(iii) 2

(iii) 2

30/1/2 # 22| P a g e
 SECTION E
This section has 3 case study based questions carrying 4 marks each. 3 4=12
Case Study 1
36. A brooch is a decorative piece often worn on clothing like jackets, blouses
or dresses to add elegance. Made from precious metals and decorated
with gemstones, brooches come in many shapes and designs.

One such brooch is made with silver wire in the form of a circle with
diameter 35 mm. The wire is also used in making 5 diameters which
divide the circle into 10 equal sectors as shown in the figure.

Based on the above given information, answer the following questions :

(i) Find the central angle of each sector. 1
(ii) Find the length of the arc ACB. 1
(iii) (a) Find the area of each sector of the brooch. 2
OR
(iii) (b) Find the total length of the silver wire used. 2

30/1/2 # 23| P a g e P.T.O.

 2
37.
60 , 40
45

(i) CD h , BD 1
(ii) BC 1
(iii) CE [ = 1·73 ] 2

(iii) AC = 100 m , AE 2

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 Case Study 2
37. Amrita stood near the base of a lighthouse, gazing up at its towering
height. She measured the angle of elevation to the top and found it to be
60 . Then, she climbed a nearby observation deck, 40 metres higher than
her original position and noticed the angle of elevation to the top of
lighthouse to be 45 .

Based on the above given information, answer the following questions :

(i) 1
(ii) 1
(iii) (a) Find the height CE of the lighthouse [Use = 1·73] 2
OR
(iii) (b) Find distance AE, if AC = 100 m. 2

30/1/2 # 25| P a g e P.T.O.

 3
38.
,
300 ,
50 ,
350 , 400
10

(i) , 1

(ii) 8 1

(iii) 10 2

(iii) 6 ,
2

30/1/2 # 26| P a g e
 Case Study 3

38. A school is organizing a charity run to raise funds for a local hospital.
The run is planned as a series of rounds around a track, with each round
being 300 metres. To make the event more challenging and engaging, the
organizers decide to increase the distance of each subsequent round by
50 metres. For example, the second round will be 350 metres, the third
round will be 400 metres and so on. The total number of rounds planned
is 10.

Based on the information given above, answer the following questions :

(i) Write the fourth, fifth and sixth term of the Arithmetic Progression
so formed. 1
(ii) Determine the distance of the 8th round. 1
(iii) (a) Find the total distance run after completing all 10 rounds. 2
OR
(iii) (b) If a runner completes only the first 6 rounds, what is the
total distance run by the runner ? 2

30/1/2 # 27| P a g e P.T.O.

 Marking Scheme
Strictly Confidential
(For Internal and Restricted use only)
Secondary School Examination, 2025
MATHEMATICS (Standard) (Q.P. CODE 30/1/2)
General Instructions: -

1. You are aware that evaluation is the most important process in the actual and correct assessment
of the candidates. A small mistake in evaluation may lead to serious problems which may affect
the future of the candidates, education system and teaching profession. To avoid mistakes, it is
requested that before starting evaluation, you must read and understand the spot evaluation
guidelines carefully.
2. “Evaluation policy is a confidential policy as it is related to the confidentiality of the
examinations conducted, Evaluation done and several other aspects. It’s leakage to public in
any manner could lead to derailment of the examination system and affect the life and
future of millions of candidates. Sharing this policy/document to anyone, publishing in any
magazine and printing in News Paper/Website etc. may invite action under various rules of
the Board and IPC.”
3. Evaluation is to be done as per instructions provided in the Marking Scheme. It should not be
done according to one’s own interpretation or any other consideration. Marking Scheme should
be strictly adhered to and religiously followed. However, while evaluating, answers which are
based on latest information or knowledge and/or are innovative, they may be assessed for
their correctness otherwise and due marks be awarded to them. In class-X, while evaluating
two competency-based questions, please try to understand given answer and even if reply is
not from Marking Scheme but correct competency is enumerated by the candidate, due
marks should be awarded.
4. The Marking scheme carries only suggested value points for the answers.
These are in the nature of Guidelines only and do not constitute the complete answer. The
students can have their own expression and if the expression is correct, the due marks should be
awarded accordingly.
5. The Head-Examiner must go through the first five answer books evaluated by each evaluator on
the first day, to ensure that evaluation has been carried out as per the instructions given in the
Marking Scheme. If there is any variation, the same should be zero after deliberation and
discussion. The remaining answer books meant for evaluation shall be given only after ensuring
that there is no significant variation in the marking of individual evaluators.
6. Evaluators will mark (✓) wherever answer is correct. For wrong answer CROSS ‘X” be marked.
Evaluators will not put right (✓) while evaluating which gives an impression that answer is correct
and no marks are awarded. This is most common mistake which evaluators are committing.
7. If a question has parts, please award marks on the right-hand side for each part. Marks awarded
for different parts of the question should then be totalled up and written on the left-hand margin
and encircled. This may be followed strictly.
8. If a question does not have any parts, marks must be awarded on the left-hand margin and
encircled. This may also be followed strictly.

MS_X_Mathematics_041_30/1/2_2024-25
1
 9. If a student has attempted an extra question, answer of the question deserving more marks should
be retained and the other answer scored out with a note “Extra Question”.
10. No marks to be deducted for the cumulative effect of an error. It should be penalized only once.
80
11. A full scale of marks __________ (example 0 to 80/70/60/50/40/30 marks as given in Question
Paper) has to be used. Please do not hesitate to award full marks if the answer deserves it.
12. Every examiner has to necessarily do evaluation work for full working hours i.e., 8 hours every
day and evaluate 20 answer books per day in main subjects and 25 answer books per day in other
subjects (Details are given in Spot Guidelines). This is in view of the reduced syllabus and
number of questions in question paper.
13. Ensure that you do not make the following common types of errors committed by the Examiner
in the past:-
● Leaving answer or part thereof unassessed in an answer book.
● Giving more marks for an answer than assigned to it.
● Wrong totalling of marks awarded to an answer.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the inside pages of the answer book to the title page.
● Wrong question wise totalling on the title page.
● Wrong totalling of marks of the two columns on the title page.
● Wrong grand total.
● Marks in words and figures not tallying/not same.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the answer book to online award list.
● Answers marked as correct, but marks not awarded. (Ensure that the right tick mark is
correctly and clearly indicated. It should merely be a line. Same is with the X for incorrect
answer.)
Half or a part of answer marked correct and the rest as wrong, but no marks awarded.
14. While evaluating the answer books if the answer is found to be totally incorrect, it should be
marked as cross (X) and awarded zero (0) Marks.
15. Any un assessed portion, non-carrying over of marks to the title page, or totaling error detected
by the candidate shall damage the prestige of all the personnel engaged in the evaluation work as
also of the Board. Hence, in order to uphold the prestige of all concerned, it is again reiterated
that the instructions be followed meticulously and judiciously.
16. The Examiners should acquaint themselves with the guidelines given in the “Guidelines for spot
Evaluation” before starting the actual evaluation.
17. Every Examiner shall also ensure that all the answers are evaluated, marks carried over to the title
page, correctly totalled and written in figures and words.
18. The candidates are entitled to obtain photocopy of the Answer Book on request on payment of the
prescribed processing fee. All Examiners/Additional Head Examiners/Head Examiners are once
again reminded that they must ensure that evaluation is carried out strictly as per value points for
each answer as given in the Marking Scheme.

MS_X_Mathematics_041_30/1/2_2024-25
2
 MARKING SCHEME
MATHEMATICS (Subject Code–041)
(PAPER CODE: 30/1/2)

Q. No. EXPECTED OUTCOMES/VALUE POINTS Marks

SECTION A
This section has 20 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) carrying 1 mark each.
1.

Sol. (A) 25° 1

2.

Sol. (B) 60° 1

3.

Sol. (B) 10 1

MS_X_Mathematics_041_30/1/2_2024-25
3
 4.

Sol. (D) 8 cm 1
5.

Sol. (B) 2a = b 1
6.

Sol. (C) 2 1
7.

Sol. 1
(B)
2

MS_X_Mathematics_041_30/1/2_2024-25
4
 8.

Sol. 3
(D) 1
26
9.

Sol. (D) 4 1
10.

Sol. (C) −1 1
11.

Sol. (D) 1.857142 1

12.

Sol. (C) 98 1

MS_X_Mathematics_041_30/1/2_2024-25
5
 13.

Sol. (A) 60° 1

14.

Sol. (A) 13 1
15.

Sol. (D) 60° 1

16.

Sol. (D) similar but not congruent 1

17.

Sol. (B) y – axis 1

MS_X_Mathematics_041_30/1/2_2024-25
6
 18.

Sol. (C) 17x 1

19.

Sol. (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false. 1

20.

Sol. (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct 1
explanation of the Assertion (A).
SECTION B
This section has 5 Very Short Answer (VSA) type questions carrying 2 marks each.
21.

Sol. Let the zeroes are 3𝛼 and 4𝛼

3𝛼 + 4𝛼 = − a
⟹ 7𝛼 = −a ½
Also, 12𝛼 2 = b ½
𝐿𝐻𝑆 = 12a2 = 12 (−7𝛼)2 = 49 × 12(𝛼)2 = 49b = RHS 1

MS_X_Mathematics_041_30/1/2_2024-25
7
 22.

Sol.  OAP = 90 ½

In right  OAP,
(26)2 = OA2 + (10)2 1
⟹ OA = √576= 24 ½
 radius = 24 m
23 (a)

Sol. 6 4 8
= = ½
PQ QR 6
9
⟹ PQ = cm or 4.5 cm ½
2
and QR = 3 cm ½
∴ PQ + QR = 7.5cm ½
OR
23 (b)

Sol. In  PQR,  1 =  2  PR = PQ ½
QR QT QR QT ½
 = ⇒ =
QS PR QS PQ
Also,  1 =  1 ½
  PQS   TQR ½

MS_X_Mathematics_041_30/1/2_2024-25
8
 24 (a)

Sol. 1 1
x ( ) + y (1) + –1=5 1½
2 2
⟹ x + 2y = 11 ½
OR
24 (b)

Sol. 2
(√3)
2 2
1½
√3 √3
( ) +( )
2 2
= 2 ½
25.

Sol. radius = 5√2 units ½

(2a − 11)2 + (a − 7 + 9)2 = 50 ½
⟹ a2 − 8a + 15 = 0 ½
⟹ (a − 5)(a − 3) = 0
⟹ a = 5, 3 ½
SECTION C
This section has 6 Short Answer (SA) type questions carrying 3 marks each.
26.

Sol. Let radius of cylinder = r1

& height of cylinder = h1
Let radius of cone = r2
& height of cone = h2
𝑟1 3 ℎ1 2
= , =
𝑟2 4 ℎ2 3
𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑚𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑐𝑦𝑙𝑖𝑛𝑑𝑒𝑟 𝜋𝑟1 2 ℎ1 𝑟1 2 ℎ1 1
= 1 =3×( ) × ( )
𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑚𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑒 𝜋𝑟 2 ℎ 𝑟2 ℎ2
3 2 2
3 2 2
= 3× ( ) × ( ) 1
4 3
9
=8 1
Hence, required ratio is 9:8

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 27.

Sol. 144 = 24 × 32
180 = 22 × 32 × 5 1½
192 = 26 × 3
HCF = 22 × 3 = 12 ½
144
Number of stacks of Physics Books = = 12
12
180
Number of stacks of Chemistry Books = = 15 1
12
192
Number of stacks of Mathematics Books = = 16
12
28

Sol. Total outcomes = 36 1

Number of Outcomes with difference of the numbers on the two dice is 2 = 8 1
(1,3) (3,1) (4,2) (2,4) (5,3) (3,5) (4,6) (6,4)
8 2
P (difference of the numbers on the two dice is 2) = or 1
36 9
29 (a)

Sol. tan θ cot θ

LHS = +
1−cot θ 1−tan θ
sin θ cos θ
cos θ sin θ ½
= cos θ + sin θ
1− sin θ 1−cos θ
sin2 θ cos2 θ 1
= −
cos θ(sin θ−cos θ) sin θ (sin θ−cos θ)
1 sin3 θ − cos3 θ
= [ ] ½
(sin θ−cos θ) sin θ cos θ
(sin θ−cos θ)(sin2 θ+ sin θ cos θ+cos2 θ)
= ½
(sin θ−cos θ) sin θ cos θ
(1+ sin θ cos θ)
=
sin θ cos θ
= 1+ sec  cosec  = RHS ½
OR
29 (b)

Sol. sin A + cos A sin A – cos A

LHS = +
sin A – cos A sin A + cos A

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 (sin A + cos A)2 + (sin A − cos A)2
= 1
(sin A – cos A)(sin A + cos A)
sin2 A+cos2 A + 2 sin A cos A + sin2 A+cos2 A− 2 sin A cos A 1
=
sin2 A− cos2 A
1+ 1
= ½
sin2 A− (1− sin2 A)
2 ½
= = RHS
2sin2 A− 1
30 (a)

Sol. In  OAC,
OA = OC
  OCA =  OAC 1
Now,  OCD = 90 1
⟹ OCA +  ACD = 90 ½
⟹ OAC +  ACD = 90 ½
or  BAC +  ACD = 90
OR
30 (b)

Sol.

Correct Figure ½
 OAP   OAS 1
1=2
Similarly,  3 =  4 ,  5 =  6 ,  7 =  8 ½
Also,  1 +  2 +  3 +  4 +  5 +  6 +  7 +  8 = 360

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  2 ( 1 +  4 +  5 +  8) = 360 ½
  AOB +  COD = 180 ½
Similarly,  BOC +  AOD = 180
31.

Sol.

Let the ratio be k:1 and point on y- axis be P(0, y) ½

−k+5
0=
k+1
k=5 1
Hence, ratio is 5:1 ½
−4(5)−6 −26 −13
y= = = ½
5+1 6 3
13
Coordinates of point of intersection are P(0, − 3 ) ½

SECTION D
This section has 4 Long Answer (LA) type questions carrying 5 marks each.
32 (a)

Sol.

Correct figure 1
In  ADF and  EBF,
 DFA =  EFB
 ADF =  FBE
  ADF   EBF 2
DF FA
 = 1
FB EF
 DF ×EF = FB ×FA 1
OR

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 32 (b)

Sol.

Correct figure 1
AD = BD  DC
2

AD BD 1
=
DC AD
Also,  ADB =  ADC
1
  DBA   DAC
 DBA =  DAC 1
 BAD =  DCA
Adding both
 DBA +  DCA =  DAC +  BAD
∴  BAC = 90° 1
33.

Sol. Monthly Consumption 𝑥𝑖 − 135

𝑓𝑖 𝑥𝑖 𝑢𝑖 = 𝑓𝑖 𝑢𝑖
(in units) ℎ
65-85 4 75 -3 -12
85-105 5 95 -2 -10
105-125 13 115 -1 -13
125-145 20 135=a 0 0
145-165 14 155 1 14
165-185 8 175 2 16
185-205 4 195 3 12
Total 68 7
Correct Table 1½

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 7
Mean = 135 + × 20 1
68
½
= 137.06
Modal Class is 125-145 ½
20 −13
Mode = 125 + (
40−13−14
) × 20 1
= 135.77 ½
Hence, Mean = 137.06 units and Mode = 135.77 units
34.

Sol. Let Vijay invested ₹ x at 8% rate of interest & ₹ y at 9% rate of interest

ATQ,
8x 9y
+ = 1860 1½
100 100
or 8x + 9y = 186000 …………..(i)
9x 8y
+ = 1880 1½
100 100
or 9x + 8y = 188000 …………..(ii)
On solving (i) and (ii), we get
x = 12000 1
y = 10000 1
Hence, money invested in scheme A is ₹ 12000 and scheme B is ₹ 10000.
35 (a)

Sol. Let unit digit be y

and ten’s digit = x
hence, the two digit number = 10x + y, ½
ATQ
xy = 12 ….. (i) ½
10x + y + 36 = 10y + x 1
𝑥 − 𝑦 + 4 = 0 ……. (ii)
From (i) and (ii)
𝑥 2 + 4𝑥 − 12 = 0 1
(x + 6)(x − 2) = 0 ½
Hence, x = 2 ½
and y = 6 ½
∴ Number = 26 ½
OR

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 35 (b)

Sol. Let marks scored in Mathematics be 𝑥

and marks scored in Science be 𝑦
ATQ,
𝑥 + 𝑦 = 32 …… (i) 1
𝑎𝑛𝑑 (𝑥 + 4)(𝑦 − 2) = 253 ….. (ii) 1
from (i) and (ii)
𝑥 2 − 26𝑥 + 133 = 0 1
(𝑥 − 19)(𝑥 − 7) = 0 1
x = 19, 7 ½
𝑥 = 19 ⟹ 𝑦 = 13
x = 7 ⟹ 𝑦 = 25 ½
Hence, marks in Mathematics and Science are 19, 13 or 7, 25
SECTION E
This section has 3 case study based carrying 4 marks each.
36.

Sol. 3600
(i) central angle = = 36° 1
10

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 1 22 35
(ii) length of arc ACB = ×2× × = 11mm 1
10 7 2
1 22 35 35
(iii)(a) Area of each sector of the brooch = × × × 1
10 7 2 2
385
= mm2 or 96.25 mm2 1
4
OR
22 35 1
(iii) (b) length of silver wire used = 2 × × + 5 × 35
7 2
= 285 mm 1
37.

Sol. h
(i) = tan 45° = 1 ½
BD
⟹BD = h m ½
h 1
(ii) = sin 45° = ½
BC √2
⟹BC = √2h m ½

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 EC
(iii)(a) tan 60° =
AE
h+40 1
⟹√3 =
h
⟹ h = 20 (√3 + 1) = 20 × 2.73 = 54.6 m ½
∴ CE = 54.6 + 40 = 94.6 m ½
OR
AE
(iii)(b) cos 60° =
AC
1 AE
⟹ = 1
2 100
∴ AE = 50 m 1
38.

Sol. A.P formed is 300, 350, 400……

(i) a4 = 450
a5 = 500 1
a6 = 550
(ii) a8 = 300 +7 × 50 ½
= 650 m ½
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 10
(iii) (a) S10 = × (2 × 300 + 9 × 50) 1
2
= 5250 m 1
OR
6
(iii) (b) S6 = 2 × (2 × 300 + 5 × 50) 1
= 2250 m 1

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