250-583 Symantec ZTNA Complete R1 Technical Specialist Exam Free Dumps
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Share some 250-583 exam online questions below.
1.Why might Connector CPU pinning be recommended on multi-tenant boxes?
A. Prevents noisy neighbors affecting real-time traffic threads
B. Reduces SIEM export latency
C. Allows TLS version selection per core
D. Lowers license count per CPU socket
Answer: A
Explanation:
CPU isolation guards performance.
2.A Connector Service Token was exposed on a public Git repo.
What is the immediate containment step?
A. Revoke the token in Admin Console and rotate associated certificates
B. Disable SIEM streaming until new token propagates
C. Change Tenant Admin passwords
D. Purge all Policies referencing the Connector
Answer: A
Explanation:
Token revocation stops unauthorized connector registration.
3.Why is TLS 1.3 preferred for ConnectorCCloud communications?
A. Provides forward secrecy and faster handshakes
B. Allows static RSA key reuse
C. Enables clear-text JA3 fingerprinting
D. Supports GRE encapsulation natively
Answer: A
Explanation:
TLS 1.3 improves security and performance.
4.When integrating ZTNA with Cloud DLP, why should sensitive-data policies be enforced at the
application layer rather than the Site layer?
A. Reduces Connector CPU utilization
B. Enables granular data handling per application context
C. Avoids duplicate log entries in SIEM
D. Ensures RBAC inheritance across Collections
Answer: B
Explanation:
Application-level enforcement applies the most precise control to data transactions.
5.Why should Health Check notifications be integrated with external ITSM tooling?
A. Enables auto-creation of incident tickets for Connector failures
B. Suppresses redundant alerts in Admin Console
C. Extends DLP policy scope to managed services
D. Reduces the size of SIEM log indices
Answer: A
Explanation:
ITSM integration automates incident handling for operational alerts.
6.Which behavior is specific to agent-less access when the target application uses mutual TLS
authentication?
A. Connector presents a hosted client certificate on behalf of the user
B. Endpoint must install a browser plugin to handle client certs
C. Mutual TLS is unsupported; the session downgrades to plaintext
D. IDP injects X-509 into the SAML assertion
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Connector proxies client certificates for browser-only agent-less sessions.
7.During planning, which two factors influence the maximum number of applications that should be
attached to a single Site?
A. Connector throughput capacity
B. Broadcom’s 60-application best-practice guideline
C. IDP group-claim size limits
D. DNS zone-file length restrictions
Answer: A, B
Explanation:
Connector scale and Broadcom guidance dictate per-Site app count; IDP and DNS limits are
unrelated.
8.Which two SIEM Field Normalization best practices ease cross-product correlation?
A. Use vendor-agnostic ECS/CEF field names
B. Consistently lowercase user identifiers
C. Strip out policyId to reduce noise
D. Convert timestamps to local time zones
Answer: A, B
Explanation:
Standard fields and casing support analytics; stripping IDs or localizing times hurts correlation.
9.A Security-Operations KPI for ZTNA success is:
A. Mean time to remediate policy violations
B. Number of Sites per tenant
C. Count of TLS ciphers enabled
D. SIEM daily index growth
Answer: A
Explanation:
Remediation time indicates operational efficiency.
10.Which function does the Site Redundancy Score represent?
A. Measurement of active Connectors vs. policy-defined min count
B. Percentage of Sites using agentless apps only
C. Ratio of audit events to policy events
D. Time taken for DNS to propagate split-horizon changes
Answer: A
Explanation:
Score reflects connector redundancy health.
11.Which two actions are mandatory when onboarding a new Site to support agent-based access and
Cloud SWG policy enforcement?
A. Register at least one Connector behind the Site’s firewall
B. Map the Site to a dedicated Collection with RBAC-scoped admins
C. Disable SIEM streaming until onboarding is complete
D. Associate the Site’s DNS suffix with the enterprise IDP
Answer: A, D
Explanation:
A Connector enables traffic brokering, and DNS association ensures agent-based policy routing;
pausing SIEM or RBAC scoping is optional.
12.How does integrating DNS Security with ZTNA improve threat detection?
A. Blocks command-and-control domains before application handshake occurs
B. Eliminates the need for Cloud SWG inspection entirely
C. Replaces TIS risk scoring
D. Allows per-query DLP scanning
Answer: A
Explanation:
DNS Security stops malicious domains early in the flow.
13.A security team needs to correlate ZTNA authentication events with endpoint EDR alerts.
Which identifier will best link the two datasets?
A. Device UUID captured by the Symantec Agent
B. Internal IP assigned by the Connector
C. User’s email address in lower case
D. TLS session ticket value
Answer: A
Explanation:
Device UUID is common across ZTNA and EDR logs, enabling correlation.
14.A Cloud DLP fingerprint is updated.
What immediate ZTNA action is required?
A. No action?DLP updates propagate automatically to connected Sites
B. Re-publish all access policies
C. Restart all Connectors to reload fingerprints
D. Clear policy staging cache
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cloud service automatically syncs fingerprints.
15.If DNS tunneling detection is enabled, what is a likely enforcement reaction?
A. Connector terminates the session and raises high-severity alert
B. Session is throttled to 8 kbps
C. IDP token is revoked
D. Policy shadowing event logged as warning
Answer: A
Explanation:
Malicious tunneling triggers termination.
16.Which two statements describe the relationship between Collections and Sites?
A. A Collection can include applications from multiple Sites
B. A Site can belong to multiple Collections simultaneously
C. RBAC roles are assigned at the Collection level to manage access across Sites
D. An application must be placed in a Collection before it is attached to a Site
Answer: A, C
Explanation:
Collections span Sites and drive RBAC; an app is first created, then mapped to a Site.
17.What condition triggers Policy Shadowing warnings in the Admin Console?
A. A new rule duplicates but is lower priority than an existing rule
B. DLP fingerprints overlap
C. Connector logs exceed 1 GB/day
D. An application is unmapped to any Site
Answer: A
Explanation:
Overlapping rules can render lower ones ineffective.
