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FLT2P2qcab Test8qcabfh Gyssxvhrwx Tyjcseybcdrdbuu Tuj

This document is a question paper for a Civil Engineering examination scheduled for June 9, 2024, allowing three hours for completion and a maximum of 300 marks. It consists of eight questions divided into two sections, with specific instructions for candidates on how to answer, including language requirements and assumptions. Candidates must attempt five questions, including two compulsory ones, and the paper covers various topics such as fluid mechanics, water treatment, and hydraulic design.
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
3 views62 pages

FLT2P2qcab Test8qcabfh Gyssxvhrwx Tyjcseybcdrdbuu Tuj

This document is a question paper for a Civil Engineering examination scheduled for June 9, 2024, allowing three hours for completion and a maximum of 300 marks. It consists of eight questions divided into two sections, with specific instructions for candidates on how to answer, including language requirements and assumptions. Candidates must attempt five questions, including two compulsory ones, and the paper covers various topics such as fluid mechanics, water treatment, and hydraulic design.
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 62

Test No.

13

Date : 09/06/2024

62

62

13
Civil Engineering
Time Allowed : Three Hours Maximum Marks : 300

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions :

Answer must be written in ENGLISH only.

There are EIGHT questions divided in TWO sections.

Condidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all.

Questions no. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining THREE are to be attempted choosing at
least ONE question from each section.

The number of marks carried by a question / part is indicated against it.

Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated
clearly on the cover of this Question-cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be
given for answers written in a medium other than the authorized one.

Wherever any assumptions are made for answering a question, they must be clearly indicated. Diagrams
/ figures, wherever required, shall be drawn in the space provided for answering the question itself.

Unless otherwise mentioned, symbols and notations carry their usual standard meanings. Attempt of questions
shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if
attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be
clearly struck off.
[CE], ESE Conventional FLT-2 |Paper-2||Test-13| 09th June 2024 (5)

Section-A
1. (a) For a three-dimensional flow field described by V = (y2 + z2)i + (x2 + z2)j +
(x2 + y2)k
find at (1, 2, 3) (i) the components of acceleration, (ii) the components of Candidates
rotation. must not
write on
[12 Marks] this margin

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[CE], ESE Conventional FLT-2 |Paper-2||Test-13| 09th June 2024 (6)

Candidates
must not
write on
this margin

1. (b) Design and sketch the shape of an ogee spillway using the data given below:
Upstream head of water, H = 20 m
Slope of upstream face = 1 : 1.5 (H : V)
k = 1.939, n = 1.81
[12 Marks]

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[CE], ESE Conventional FLT-2 |Paper-2||Test-13| 09th June 2024 (7)

Candidates
must not
write on
this margin

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[CE], ESE Conventional FLT-2 |Paper-2||Test-13| 09th June 2024 (8)

1. (c) (i) In a water treatment plant, the pH values of incoming and outgoing
waters are 7.2 and 8.4 respectively. Assuming a linear variation of pH
with time, determine the average pH value of water.
[6 Marks]
Candidates
must not
write on
this margin

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[CE], ESE Conventional FLT-2 |Paper-2||Test-13| 09th June 2024 (9)

1. (c) (ii) Determine the additional number of rain gauges required in a


catchment area from following data
(a) Number of existing rain gauges = 8
(b) Mean annual rainfall at the gauges = 1000, 950, 900, 850, 800,
Candidates
700, 600, and 400 mm
must not
(c) Permissible error = 6% write on
this margin
[6 Marks]

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[CE], ESE Conventional FLT-2 |Paper-2||Test-13| 09th June 2024 (10)

1. (d) A low rate trickling filter has a diameter of 40 m and a depth of 1.5 m.
Assuming the waste removal rate constant as 1.90d–1 and filter media
constant n = 0.67, and using the Eckenfelder equation, determine treatment
efficiency of the trickling filter for a wastewater flow of 2 MLD having 200
mg/L BOD5. Candidates
[12 Marks] must not
write on
this margin

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[CE], ESE Conventional FLT-2 |Paper-2||Test-13| 09th June 2024 (11)

Candidates
must not
write on
this margin

1. (e) A trapezoidal channel with one side vertical and the other sloping at two
horizontal to one vertical, carries a discharge of 28 m3/sec at a mean velocity
of 1.5 m/sec. Determine the longitudinal slope and channel dimensions for
the best hydraulic efficiency, if Manning’s n = 0.014.
[12 Marks]

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[CE], ESE Conventional FLT-2 |Paper-2||Test-13| 09th June 2024 (12)

Candidates
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[CE], ESE Conventional FLT-2 |Paper-2||Test-13| 09th June 2024 (13)

2. (a) A river discharges 1000 cum/sec of water at high flood level of RL 103 m. A
weir is constructed for flow diversion with a crest length of 255 m and total
length of concrete floor as 40 m. The weir has to sustain the under seepage
as a maximum static head of 2.4 m. The silt factor and the safe exit gradient
for the river bed material are 1.1 and 1/6 respectively. Determine the depth Candidates
of cutoff required at the downstream end of the concrete floor. Take the level must not
of downstream concrete floor as R.L. 100 m. Check for exit gradient. write on
this margin
[20 Marks]

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[CE], ESE Conventional FLT-2 |Paper-2||Test-13| 09th June 2024 (14)

2. (b) (i) An opening in a dam is closed by a plate 1 m square which is hinged


at the upper horizontal edge as shown in figure. The plate is inclined
at an angle of 60° to the horizontal and its top edge is 2 m below the
water surface in the reservoir. If this plate is pulled by means of a
chain attached to the centre of the lower edge, find the necessary pull Candidates
T in the chain. The line of action of the chain makes an angle of 45° must not
with the plate. Weight of the plate is 1.962 kN. write on
this margin
Water surface in
reservoir

Dam

T
2m
Chain
Hinge
1m

45° Plate Opening


(1 m × 1 m)
60°

[10 Marks]

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[CE], ESE Conventional FLT-2 |Paper-2||Test-13| 09th June 2024 (15)

Candidates
must not
write on
this margin

2. (b) (ii) A log of wood of square section 0.36 m × 0.36 m and specific gravity 0.8
floats in water. One edge is depressed and released causing the log to
roll. Estimate the period of roll.
[10 Marks]

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[CE], ESE Conventional FLT-2 |Paper-2||Test-13| 09th June 2024 (16)

Candidates
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[CE], ESE Conventional FLT-2 |Paper-2||Test-13| 09th June 2024 (17)

2. (c) (i) A shallow river has width of 1200 m and conveys a discharge of 2830
m3/s at a mean velocity of 0.90 m/s. It is proposed to construct a river
model to a horizontal scale of 1 : 800 and a vertical scale of 1 : 40. If
manning’s n for the river bed material is 0.025, what should be its
value in the model? Verify whether the flow in the model in turbulent. Candidates
Assume kinematic viscosity as 1.1 centistoke. must not
write on
[10 Marks] this margin

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[CE], ESE Conventional FLT-2 |Paper-2||Test-13| 09th June 2024 (18)

Candidates
must not
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2. (c) (ii) What are the causes of meandering in a river?


[10 Marks]

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[CE], ESE Conventional FLT-2 |Paper-2||Test-13| 09th June 2024 (19)

3. (a) Design an anaerobic contact process to treat 1.0 MLD flow of wastewater
having 30°C temperature and 1500 mg/L COD. assume the following
conditions of operations:
Design SRT equal to 2.5 times minimum SRT
Candidates
Reactor MLVSS, X = 3500 mg/L
must not
Reactor temperature = 35°C write on
this margin
Kinematic constants: biomass yield coefficient, Y = 0.04
Microbial decay coefficient, Kd = 0.015d–1
Maximum substrate utilization rate, constant, k = 4.60d–1
Substrate concentration at one half, specific substrate utilization, Ks = 90
mg COD/L
[20 Marks]

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[CE], ESE Conventional FLT-2 |Paper-2||Test-13| 09th June 2024 (20)

Candidates
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write on
this margin

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[CE], ESE Conventional FLT-2 |Paper-2||Test-13| 09th June 2024 (21)

3. (b) (i) Two pipes each 300 mm long are available for connecting to a reservoir
from which a flow of 0.085 m3/s is required. If the diameters of the two
pipes are 0.30 m and 0.15 m respectively, determine the ratio of the
head loss when the pipes are connected in series to the head loss when
they are connected in parallel. Neglect minor losses. Candidates
[10 Marks] must not
write on
this margin

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[CE], ESE Conventional FLT-2 |Paper-2||Test-13| 09th June 2024 (22)

Candidates
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write on
this margin

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[CE], ESE Conventional FLT-2 |Paper-2||Test-13| 09th June 2024 (23)

3. (b) (ii) Calculate the diameter, the speed and specific speed of a propeller
turbine runner to develop 6250 kW under a head of 5 m, given that
speed ratio (Ku) based on outer diameter = 2.10, flow ratio (  ) = 0.65;
diameter of boss = 0.35 times external diameter of the runner; overall
efficiency 0 = 85%. Candidates
must not
[10 Marks] write on
this margin

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[CE], ESE Conventional FLT-2 |Paper-2||Test-13| 09th June 2024 (24)

3. (c) (i) A filter unit is 4.5 m by 9.0 m. After filtering 10,000 cubic metre per
day in 24 hour period, the filter is back washed at a rate of 10 l/sq m/
sec for 15 min. Compute the average filtration rate, quantity and
percentage of treated water used in washing, and the rate of wash
water flow in each trough. Assume 4 troughs. Candidates
[10 Marks] must not
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this margin

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[CE], ESE Conventional FLT-2 |Paper-2||Test-13| 09th June 2024 (25)

3. (c) (ii) A rectangular channel section has critical flow and at the same time
the wetted perimeter is minimum. If these two conditions are satisfied
simultaneously, then what will be the relation between the width of
the channel and minimum specific energy?
[10 Marks] Candidates
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write on
this margin

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[CE], ESE Conventional FLT-2 |Paper-2||Test-13| 09th June 2024 (26)

4. (a) (i) What is the return period that a highway engineer must use in his
design of a critical underpass drain if he is willing to accept only:
(i) 10% risk that the flooding will occur in the next 5 years?
(ii) 20% risk that the flooding will occur in the next 2 years?
Candidates
[8 Marks] must not
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this margin

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[CE], ESE Conventional FLT-2 |Paper-2||Test-13| 09th June 2024 (27)

4. (a) (ii) Route the following hydrograph through a river reach for which K =
22.0 hr and x = 0.25. At the start of the inflow flood, the outflow
discharge is 40 m3/s. (Take t = 12 hr)
Data of a inflow hydrograph through a river
Candidates
Time must not
0 12 24 36 48 60 72 84 96 108 120 132 144 write on
 hr  this margin
Inflow
40 65 165 250 240 205 170 130 115 85 70 60 54
 m3 / s 
[12 Marks]

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[CE], ESE Conventional FLT-2 |Paper-2||Test-13| 09th June 2024 (28)

Candidates
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this margin

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[CE], ESE Conventional FLT-2 |Paper-2||Test-13| 09th June 2024 (29)

4. (b) (i) The bed slope of a regime channel is 1 in 5800. Determine the channel
section and discharge. The average particle size in 0.323 mm. Use
Lacey theory.
[10 Marks]
Candidates
must not
write on
this margin

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[CE], ESE Conventional FLT-2 |Paper-2||Test-13| 09th June 2024 (30)

Candidates
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[CE], ESE Conventional FLT-2 |Paper-2||Test-13| 09th June 2024 (31)

4. (b) (ii) Explain the functions of the distributary head regulator and the cross
regulator.
[10 Marks]

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[CE], ESE Conventional FLT-2 |Paper-2||Test-13| 09th June 2024 (32)

4. (c) A centrifugal pump lifts water from a sump to an overhead reservoir. The
static lift is 40 m out of which 3 m is the suction lift. The suction and
delivery pipes are both of 35 cm diameter. The friction loss in suction pipe
is 2.0 m and in delivery pipe it is 6.0 m. The impeller is 0.5 m in diameter
and has a width of 3 cm at the outlet. The speed of the pump is 1200 rpm. Candidates
The exit blade angle is 20°. If the manometric efficiency is 85%, determine must not
the pressures at the suction and delivery ends of the pump and the discharge. write on
this margin
Assume that the inlet and outlet of the pump are at the same elevation.

Delivery Lift
= 37 m
Static Lift
= 40 m
Pump
Suction Lift
=3m

Sump
[20 Marks]

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[CE], ESE Conventional FLT-2 |Paper-2||Test-13| 09th June 2024 (33)

Candidates
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this margin

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[CE], ESE Conventional FLT-2 |Paper-2||Test-13| 09th June 2024 (34)

Section-B
5. (a) A highly sensitive volcanic clay was investigated in the laboratory and found
to have the following properties:

(i)  wet  12.50 kN / m3 Candidates


must not
(ii) G = 2.75 write on
this margin
(iii) e = 9.0
(iv) w = 311%
In rechecking the above values, one was found to be inconsistent with the
rest. Find the inconsistent value and report it correctly.
[12 Marks]

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[CE], ESE Conventional FLT-2 |Paper-2||Test-13| 09th June 2024 (35)

Candidates
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[CE], ESE Conventional FLT-2 |Paper-2||Test-13| 09th June 2024 (36)

5. (b) (i) The radius of a horizontal curve is 240 m. The design speed is 80
kmph. Assuming the co-efficient of lateral friction as 0.15. Calculate:
(i) the superelevation if full lateral friction is assumed to develop.
(ii) the equilibrium superelevation if the pressure on inner and outer
Candidates
wheel should be equal.
must not
write on
Also calculate the co-efficient of friction needed if no superelevation in
this margin
provided.
[6 Marks]

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[CE], ESE Conventional FLT-2 |Paper-2||Test-13| 09th June 2024 (37)

Candidates
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this margin

5. (b) (ii) What are the merits and demerits of flexible pavements?
[6 Marks]

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[CE], ESE Conventional FLT-2 |Paper-2||Test-13| 09th June 2024 (38)

5. (c) The results obtained from a series of CU tests on a soil gave the following
results:
cCU  c 'CU  0
CU  15;  'CU  30 Candidates
must not
A sample of this soil was in a CU test under a cell pressure of 150 kN/m2. write on
this margin
Determine
(a) deviator stress at failure
(b) pore water pressure at failure
(c) minor principal effective stress at failure
(d) major principal effective stress at failure
(e) the magnitude of Af
[12 Marks]

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[CE], ESE Conventional FLT-2 |Paper-2||Test-13| 09th June 2024 (39)

Candidates
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5. (d) (i) Define the term gate capacity. Explain the factors on which the gate
occupancy time depends.
[8 Marks]

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[CE], ESE Conventional FLT-2 |Paper-2||Test-13| 09th June 2024 (40)

5. (d) (ii) Determine the capacity of 12 gates that serve three classes of aircraft
using the following aircraft mix and average gate occupancy time:

Aircraft Average Occupancy


Mix  % 
Class Time  min 
Candidates
1 15 25 must not
write on
2 35 45 this margin
3 50 60
Assume that each gate is available for all aircrafts.
[4 Marks]

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[CE], ESE Conventional FLT-2 |Paper-2||Test-13| 09th June 2024 (41)

5. (e) An area of 150 km × 105 km is to be surveyed using aerial photogrammetry.


From the data given below determine number of photographs required to
cover complete area; height of flight, spacing of flight lines, ground exposure
distance and exposure interval:
Size of photograph = 23 cm × 23 cm Candidates
must not
Average scale of photograph = 1 : 25000 write on
this margin
Average elevation of terrain = 335 m
Longitudinal overlap = 65%
Side overlap = 28%
Ground speed of aircraft = 270 km/hr
Focal length of camera = 200 mm
Least count of intervalometer = 0.5 sec
[12 Marks]

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[CE], ESE Conventional FLT-2 |Paper-2||Test-13| 09th June 2024 (42)

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6. (a) Design a valley curve at the junction of a downward gradient of 1 in 30 and


a level stretch from head-light consideration. The stopping sight distance is
180m. Treating the curve as a square parabola, set out the curve. (starting
point is at the R.L = 10.00m.)
[20 Marks]

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[CE], ESE Conventional FLT-2 |Paper-2||Test-13| 09th June 2024 (43)

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[CE], ESE Conventional FLT-2 |Paper-2||Test-13| 09th June 2024 (44)

6. (b) (i) The following consecutive readings were taken with a level and 5 metre
levelling staff on continuously sloping ground at a common interval of
20 metres: 0.385; 1.030; 1.925; 2.825; 3.730; 4.685; 0.625; 2.005; 3.110;
4.485. The reduced level of the first point was 208.125 m. Rule out a
page of a level field book and enter the above readings. Calculate the Candidates
reduced levels of the points by rise and fall method and also the must not
gradient of the line joining the first and the last point. write on
this margin
[12 Marks]

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[CE], ESE Conventional FLT-2 |Paper-2||Test-13| 09th June 2024 (45)

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6. (b) (ii) In levelling between two points A and B on opposite banks of a river,
the level was set up near A and the staff readings on A and B were
1.285 and 2.860 m respectively. The level was then moved and set up
near B and the respective readings on A and B were 0.860 and 2.220.
Find the true difference of level between A and B.
[8 Marks]

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[CE], ESE Conventional FLT-2 |Paper-2||Test-13| 09th June 2024 (46)

6. (c) (i) Design a friction pile group to carry a load of 3000 kN including the
weight of the pile cap at a site where the soil is uniform clay to a depth
of 20 m, underlain by rock. Average unconfined compressive strength
of the clay is 70 kN/m2. The clay may be assumed to be of normal
sensitivity and normally loaded, with liquid limit 60%. A factor of Candidates
safety of 3 is required against shear failure. must not
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[12 Marks] this margin

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[CE], ESE Conventional FLT-2 |Paper-2||Test-13| 09th June 2024 (47)

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6. (c) (ii) What are the limitations of plate load test?


[8 Marks]

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[CE], ESE Conventional FLT-2 |Paper-2||Test-13| 09th June 2024 (48)

7. (a) The length of a runway under standard conditions is 2100 m. The airport is
to be provided at elevation of 410 m above the mean sea level. The airport
reference temperature is 32°C. The construction plan provides the following
data:
Candidates
End to end of runway  m  Grade  per cent 
must not
0 ot 320 1.00 write on
this margin
300 to 900 –0.50
900 to 1500 0.50
1500 to 1800 1.00
1800 to 2100 0.50
2100 to 2700 0.40
2700 to 3000 0.10
Determine the length of runway. Apply corrections for elevation and
temperature as per ICAO and for gradient as per FAA specifications.
[20 Marks]

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[CE], ESE Conventional FLT-2 |Paper-2||Test-13| 09th June 2024 (50)

7. (b) (i) Permeability tests were performed on a soil sample, under different
void ratio and different temperatures and the following results were
obtained.

Void ratio Temperature


Test No. k  cm / s  Candidates
 e ºC must not
write on
1 0.65 25 0.4  10 –4
this margin
2 1.02 40 1.9  10 –4
Estimate the coefficient of permeability at a temperature of 20°C for
a voids ratio of 0.80.
Given the following physical properties of water:

At 20°C,  = 10.09 × 10–4 and w = 0.998 g/cm3

At 25°C,  = 8.95 × 10–4 g sec/cm2 and w = 0.997 g/cm3

At 40° C,  = 6.54 × 10–4 g sec/cm2 and w = 0.992 g/cm2


[10 Marks]

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[CE], ESE Conventional FLT-2 |Paper-2||Test-13| 09th June 2024 (51)

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7. (b) (ii) A clay layer has s thickness of 5 m and is subjected to a pressure of 60


kN/m2. If the layer has a double drainage and undergoes 50%
consolidation in one year, determine the coefficient of consolidation
taking Tv = 0.197. Also if the coefficient of permeability is 0.025 m/
year, determine the settlement in one year and rate of flow of water
per unit area in one year.
[10 Marks]

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7. (c) (i) A footing, 2 m square, rests on a soft clay soil with its base at depth
of 1.5 m from ground surface. The clay stratum is 3.5 m thick and is
underlain by a firm sand stratum. The clay soil has the following
properties:

wL  30%; w n  40%; G s  2.70; u  0; c u  0.5 kg / cm 2


It is known that the clay stratum is normally consolidated. using
Skempton’s equation, determine the net safe bearing capacity of the
footing. Compute the settlement that would result if this load intensity
were allowed to act on the footing. Natural water table is quite close to
the ground surface.

1.5 m
Soft clay
2.5 m
wL = 30%
3.5 m 2m×2m
wn = 40%
Gs = 2.70
u = 0°
A A 2
cu = 0.5 kg/cm

Sand

[12 Marks]

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[CE], ESE Conventional FLT-2 |Paper-2||Test-13| 09th June 2024 (54)

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[CE], ESE Conventional FLT-2 |Paper-2||Test-13| 09th June 2024 (55)

7. (c) (ii) List the demerits of dynamic pile formula.


[8 Marks]

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8. (a) An anchored bulkhed 5.1 anchor rods 1 m below the top and depth of
embedment is 1.5 m. Determine the factor of safety against failure. Angle of
internal friction of sand is 30° and the sand is wet throughout having a unit
weight of 16 kN/m3. Comment if the depth of embedment is adequate. If not,
obtain the depth of embedment using a factor of safety of 2.
A
1m
B Fa

5.1 m

C
Pa
D = 1.5 m Pp
1.7 m
0.5
D
[20 Marks]
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[CE], ESE Conventional FLT-2 |Paper-2||Test-13| 09th June 2024 (56)

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[CE], ESE Conventional FLT-2 |Paper-2||Test-13| 09th June 2024 (57)

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8. (b) For a BG main line curve of 2°, a 1 in 12 turnout takes off in similar flexure
for a loop. The turnout is immediately followed by a reverse curve. Find out
the permissible cant on the main line and the speed that can be permitted.
Take speed on turnout track as 15 kmph and permissible deficiency in cant
as 75 mm.
[20 Marks]

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[CE], ESE Conventional FLT-2 |Paper-2||Test-13| 09th June 2024 (58)

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8. (c) (i) Write a note on various types of sensors used for remote sensing in
India.
[8 Marks]

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[CE], ESE Conventional FLT-2 |Paper-2||Test-13| 09th June 2024 (59)

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8. (c) (ii) Adjust the following angles closing the horizon:


A  110 20' 48" wt. 4
B  92 30' 00" wt.1
C  56 12' 00" wt. 2
D  100 57' 04 " wt. 3
[12 Marks]

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[CE], ESE Conventional FLT-2 |Paper-2||Test-13| 09th June 2024 (61)

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