7meceebl S 2082-04-03 M
7meceebl S 2082-04-03 M
MECEE BL
Model Entrance Exam
(Model- IV)
(Set- A)
Date: 2082/04/03
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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set–A (2082-04-03)
14. a) Anadromous migration
Explanation: Migration of fish from saltwater to freshwater for spawning is termed
as anadromous migration.
15. a) Microgametocyte
Explanation: In Plasmodium, exflagellation (formation of male gametes with
flagella) happens inside the microgametocyte within the mosquito gut.
16. c) 72 hours
Explanation: Quartan malaria (P. malariae) shows fever spikes every 72 hours, on
the fourth day, giving it the name quartan.
17. b) 14, 15, 16
Explanation: The clitellum in earthworms is a glandular band involved in cocoon
formation for reproduction, spanning segments 14–16.
18. c) Liver
Explanation: Chloragogen cells store glycogen and detoxify wastes, similar to the
liver in vertebrates.
19. c)
20. b) Smooth muscles
Explanation: The muscularis layer beneath the serosa in the alimentary canal of frog
contains smooth muscles that generate peristalsis for food movement.
21. a) Both are present
Explanation: Frogs have both renal and hepatic portal systems - the renal drains hind
limbs to the kidneys, and the hepatic drains the gut to the liver.
22. a) Inspiration
Explanation: The sternohyal muscle lowers the floor of the buccal cavity in frogs,
drawing air in for lung ventilation and aids in inspiration.
23. c) Stratified non-keratinized squamous epithelium
Explanation: Inner lining of vagina consists of stratified squamous epithelium that
lacks keratin to stay moist and resist friction.
24. a) Lactic acid
Explanation: Muscle fatigue occurs when lactic acid builds up due to anaerobic
respiration during prolonged muscular activity.
25. c) Adipose tissue
Explanation: Camel humps and whale blubber are stores of adipose tissue, which
stores fat for energy and insulation.
26. b) Mesoderm in origin
Explanation: Connective tissues develop from the mesoderm germ layer during
embryogenesis.
27. c) Spleen and kidneys
Explanation: Both spleen and kidneys develop from mesoderm, not endoderm.
Endoderm mainly forms gut and associated glands.
28. b) It cannot penetrate human egg
Explanation: Acrosome is the structure located in apex of head region in sperm. Its
function is to dissolve the zona pellucida of egg and aids in sperm penetration.
Without it, sperm cannot penetrate egg.
29. c) Parotid gland
Gland produces about 60–70% of saliva, which is highest among three salivary
glands.
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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set–A (2082-04-03)
30. a) Mouth
Explanation: Saliva released from salivary gland consists of an enzyme called
amylase that starts breakdown of starch to maltose. So the digestion of starch begins
in human mouth.
31. c) 37
Explanation: Thoracic cage consist of bone from ribs (12 pairs), sternum (1) and
thoracic vertebrae (12) which in total constitute 37 bones.
32. c) Loop of Henle
Explanation: The counter-current multiplier effect in the loop of Henle concentrates
urine by creating an osmotic gradient.
33. c) Oxytocin
Explanation: There are only two hormones namely oxytocin and antidiuretic
hormone released from posterior pituitary. (neurohypophysis)
34. c) Medulla oblongata
Explanation: The medulla oblongata houses the cardiac center, which controls heart
rate and blood vessel diameter.
35. b) Sertoli cells
Explanation: Sertoli cells in testes produce inhibin, which provides negative
feedback on FSH to regulate sperm production.
36. b) Dopamine
Explanation: Dopamine is a neurotransmitter linked to pleasure, reward pathways,
and addiction reinforcement.
37. b) Cones only
Explanation: Fovea centralis has the sharpest vision and consists of cones only, rods
are absent.
38. c) It is caused by Mycobacterium cholerae
Explanation: Cholera is caused by Vibrio cholera, a gram negative bacteria and except
this all other options are correct for cholera.
39. b) Oncogene
Explanation: An oncogene is a mutated gene that drives uncontrolled cell growth,
potentially leading to cancer.
40. c) IgE
Explanation: When there is parasitic infection in human body, body responds to it
by producing high amount of IgE immunoglobulin.
Botany
41. c)
42. d) Fungi absorb nutrients through osmotrophic nutrition, while bacteria can use
multiple modes including phagotrophy and absorption.
43. c) Kelps are large marine brown algae and belong to the class Phaeophyceae.
44. c) Oospores are thick-walled sexual spores formed by oomycetes during sexual
reproduction.
45. d) Bryophytes have a protective sterile layer around their gametangia to prevent
desiccation.
46. a) In Dryopteris, the rhizome is the main persistent and important structure for
vegetative propagation.
47. b)
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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set–A (2082-04-03)
48. c) In Asparagus, cladophylls are modified stems that perform photosynthesis and
resemble leaves.
49. a) Cyathium inflorescence has a central female flower surrounded by many male
flowers within a cup-shaped structure.
50. a) In monocots, perianth is often undifferentiated into calyx and corolla, appearing as
similar-looking structures.
51. d) Bamboo belongs to the grass family Poaceae, which also includes wheat.
52. c) Mesarch xylem arrangement, where protoxylem is surrounded by metaxylem, is
found in the stem of ferns and leaves of angiosperms.
53. b) Root hairs are single-celled extensions of root epidermis and lack cuticle to facilitate
absorption.
54. a) Overuse of fertilizers creates a hypertonic environment, leading to exoosmosis and
plant cell dehydration.
55. a) Carbon dioxide is the most limiting factor in photosynthesis under natural
conditions.
56. d) Bacteria generate 38 ATP molecules from one glucose molecule through aerobic
respiration.
57. b) Water is not a product of anaerobic respiration; instead, it produces ethanol or lactic
acid and less ATP.
58. c) Abscisic acid induces dormancy in seeds by inhibiting germination-promoting
hormones.
59. d) ATP, the energy currency of the cell, is stored and generated in mitochondria.
60. b) Mitosis produces daughter cells with the same no of chromosomes as the parent cell.
61. c) Middle lamella contains pectin, which helps cement adjacent plant cells together.
62. b) The nucleolus is the site where ribosomal RNA is synthesized and ribosome
subunits are assembled.
63. c) Chromatin is made of DNA wrapped around histone proteins, forming
nucleosomes.
64. a) During prophase, chromatin condenses, and cellular viscosity increases due to
structural changes.
65. b) Anticodons are found in tRNA, which helps match amino acids to the mRNA codons
during protein synthesis.
66. a) Mendel used garden pea (Pisum sativum) for his inheritance experiments.
67. b) Linked genes tend to stay together during inheritance, showing the tendency to be
inherited together.
68. b) UV light is a common mutagen that can cause mutations by damaging DNA.
69. c) The endosperm formed is triploid (AAA) due to the fusion of two polar nuclei (AA)
and one sperm nucleus (A).
70. c) Barbara McClintock discovered transposons or "jumping genes" in maize.
71. d) Scrub forests are dominated by shrubs and small trees, especially in dry or degraded
areas.
72. c) An ecological niche defines the role and position a population occupies in its
environment.
73. d) Snakes feed on secondary consumers like frogs or rats, placing them as secondary
consumers.
74. b) Chitwan National Park is widely known for its population of Bengal tigers.
75. d) Sunlight is the primary source of energy for all ecosystems, driving photosynthesis.
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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set–A (2082-04-03)
76. d) Etiolation occurs in darkness where plants show elongated stems and pale color due
to lack of chlorophyll.
77. b) The tigellum helps the embryo orient during seed germination and guides
development of shoot and root.
78. d) The pollen sac, or microsporangium, is the site where microspores (pollen grains)
develop.
79. d) Mycorrhizae enhance nutrient uptake, especially phosphorus, improving overall
soil fertility.
80. c) Geitonogamy is genetically similar to self-pollination but ecologically it occurs
between different flowers on the same plant.
Chemistry
81. b) Lithuim aluminium hydride is a most useful organic reducing agent. It reduces functional
groups but does not attack double bonds.
82. a) Polarity of bond depends on difference in electronegativity of the two concerned atoms. H 2O
is more polar than H2S because oxygen (in O–H) is more electronegative than sulphur (in S–
H).
83. d) Lithium with lead is used to make white metal.
84. a) Be(OH)2 is amphoteric while Ca(OH)2, Sr(OH)2 and Ba(OH)2 are all basic.
85. a) During setting of cement, silicates and aluminates of calcium are hydrated. Hydration is an
exothermic process. Therefore setting of cement is exothermic process.
86. d) Compounds of B and H2 called boranes with general formula BnHn+4 and BnHn+6
87. a) Gallium (Ga) is soft, silvery metal. Its melting point is 30ºC. This metal expands by 3.1%
when it solidifies and hence, it should not be stored in glass or metal containers.
88. a) Smog is a kind of air pollution. It is basically formed of smoke and fog hence called smog.
Ozone and peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN) are amongst the main components of smog.
89. a) NO and freons are responsible for ozone depletion.
90. b) Extraction of Zn from ZnS (Zinc blende) is achieved by roasting followed by reduction with
carbon.
2ZnS + 3O2 →2ZnO + 2SO2
ZnO + C →Zn + CO
91. b) Pig iron contains 4% carbon and many impurities in smaller amount.
92. c) Ca3P2 + 6H2O →3Ca(OH)2 + 2PH3 ; i.e., 2 moles of phosphine are produced from one mole
of calcium phosphide.
93. b) 2Ag +2H2SO4 →2H2O +SO2 + Ag2SO4 .
Au, Pt does not react. Pb forms insoluble PbSO4
94. c)
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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set–A (2082-04-03)
97. b) In elimination reactions one or two molecules are lost from the substrate to form a multiple
bond. Dehydration of ethanol is an example of elimination reaction.
98. d) Kjeldahl method is not applicable to any of the given compounds. As nitrogen of these
compounds does not change to ammonium sulphate on heating with conc. H 2SO4.
99. a) Complete combustion of all organic compounds leads to the formation of CO 2 + H2O.
100. a) They are chain isomers of each other.
101. c) Alkenes combine with hydrogen under pressure and in presence of a catalyst (Ni, Pt or Pd)
and form alkanes.
Ni
102. d) Addition – CH= CH+3H2 → CH3 – CH3
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Substitution – CH = CH + Na → CH = C-Na+ + 2 H2
hot Cu tube
Polymerization – 3CH = Ch → C6 H6
Polymerization Benzene
103. c) In preparation of an alkyl chloride by the action of dry HCl, the catalyst generally used is
anhydrous ZnCl2.
104. a) Chlorobenzene is prepared commercially by Raschigs process in which benzene is treated
with HCl in presence of oxygen.
Enzymes
105. d) Starch → Alcohol
106. b) Reaction of sodium ethoxide with ethyl iodide to produce diethyl ether is known as
Williamson synthesis. It is a nucleophilic substitution reaction.
107. d) Phenyl cyanide is reduced into benzaldehyde in the presence of SnCl 2 /HCl reagent. This
reaction is known as Stephen’s reaction.
SnCl2 H2 O / H+
C6H5C ≡ N + 2[H] → C6H5CH = NH → C6H5CHO + NH3
HCl
108. c) Acidic KMnO4 and K2Cr2O7 oxidise toluene to benzoic acid but CrO2Cl2 oxidises it to
benzaldehyde.
109. b) LiAlH4 in presence of ether can be used to convert acetic acid into ethanol.
110. b) Basic nature of amines arises due to presence of lone pair of e – s on the N-atom, which can
be shared with an electron deficient species.
111. b)
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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set–A (2082-04-03)
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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set–A (2082-04-03)
125. a) pOH = -log [OH-]
pH = pOH = 14
For 10-4KOH, [OH-] = 10-4
pOH = - log [OH-] = - log 10-4 = 4
pH = 14 = pOH = 10
126. a) Oxidation number of carbon in CH4 is +4.
127. a) For deposition of silver, reaction is
Ag+ + e- → Ag
1 mol of Ag will be deposited by
= 1F = 96500C = 9.65 × 104C
Since 1 equivalent weight of Ag is also equal to weight of its 1 mol. hence 1
equivalent weight of Ag will be deposited by = 9.65 × 10 4C
128. c) The rate of reaction at particular instant of time is called as instantaneous rate of
reaction.
129. d) Mist is a colloid (aerosol) in which liquid is dispersed in gas.
130. c) In XeF4, four F atoms are present at the corners of a square plane and lone pairs are present
at axial positions. In such arrangement, all the individual bond moments cancel out.
Physics
131. d) |B|= 72 + (24)2 = 625 = 25
^
3^i + 4 j
Unit vector in the direction of A will be Å = 5
3^i + 4^j
So required vector = 25 = 15^i + 20^j
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132. c) aR = g-g=0
s = uR t
400 = (50-0) t
t = 8 sec
h = ut – ½ gt2
= 50 × 8 – ½ × 10 × 82
= 400 – 320 = 80m
133. c) At the highest point of the path. Potential energy is maximum, so the kinetic energy
will be minimum.
134. c) Sand is used to increase the friction.
135. b) vmax = rg = 0.5 × 40 × 9.8 = 14m/s
136. c) The period of a satellite in a circular orbit around a planet is independent of the mass
of the satellite.
137. b) I = mR2
m1 I1 R2 2 1 1 2
m2 = I2 × (R1) = 2 × (2) = 1: 2
138. b) The air pushed down by the wings of the parrot while flying will go out of the wire
cage .Due to which the weight of the wire cage will decrease.
139. b)
140. c) Remains the same because time period of simple pendulum T is independent of
mass of the bob .
n cv +n cv
141. a) Cvmix = 1 1 2 2
n1 +n2
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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set–A (2082-04-03)
3 5
1× R+1× R
2 2
=
1+1
= 2R
142. c) To keep correct time, modern watches are fitted with a balance wheel made of invar.
143. d) When water is heated from 0ºC to 10º C, its volume decreases upto 4ºC (density of
water is maximum at 4ºC). From 4ºC to 10ºC, density of water decreases. Therefore,
volume of water increases.
144. b) Q = mc; if = 1K then Q = mc = thermal capacity
145. a) In thermodynamic processes.
Work done = Area covered by PV diagram with V-axis
From graph it is clear that (Area)iso > (Area)adi
30 10 log10 I
I 30 I 30
0 I0 = 10
3
I60
I30 = 10
3
= 1000
v v vibration
154. c) n' = n v – v = 90 v = 100
s sec
v – 10
155. b) Standing stationary waves can be obtained in an air column even if the interfering
waves are of different amplitudes.
156. a) The space around stationary charge has localized electric field only.
1 q1q2
157. d) F= F r–2
4o r2
oA
158. b) C= d
159. a) I = Ven A since VA = constant
Hence, A steady current is independent of cross sectional area.
160. a) Since no charge accumulates at junction. The total charge entering the junction =
total charge leaving the junction.
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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set–A (2082-04-03)
161. a) i = 2n – c = 2 × 300 – 10 = 590ºC
v2 (250)2
162. b) R = P = 1000 = 62.5
163. a) F = ILB sin90º = ILB
f o I1I2 52
164. b) =
l 2 r = 2 × 10 –7 ×
0.1 = 5 × 10 N
–5
MAT
181. a) +37, +40, +43, +46, ………………….
182. b) Sum of alphabetical positions of letters
183. a) Great-grandfather
184. b) North
185. c) Except 363, all others are square +1
186. c) second covers first.
187. a) Number of cuts made to cut a roll into 10 pieces = 9. Therefore, Required number of
rolls = (45 x 24)/9 = 120.
188. a)
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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set–A (2082-04-03)
189. a)
190. c) H
191. c) Saturday
192. b) 6×2–8÷2+3
193. b) The figure rotates 45oACW; the circle changes colour (turns black if initially white
and vice-versa). The 'L'-shaped element shifts to the other side of the main figure.
194. b) All women and doctors are humans and some women are doctors.
195. d) Let the quantity of groceries x and y as costing Rs 15 and Rs 20 respectively then
5x+20y=16.50(x+y) ⟹ x:y =7:3
196. a)
197. b)
198. b)
199. b)
200. c)
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