GENERAL PATHOLOGY AND

HISTOPATHOLOGIC TECHNIQUES
PRELIM EXAMINATION RATIONALE
1. Type of RNA that forms
association with proteins and
enzymes in the nucleus to form
ribosomes
A. mRNA
B. sRNA
C. tRNA
D. rRNA
2. Suicide bags of the cell
A. Peroxisomes
B. Rough ER
C. Lysosomes
D. Nuclear pores
3. Stratified Squamous epithelium:
1 Vagina 2 Esophagus 3 Skin
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. All of these
4. Lining epithelium of lung alveoli:

A. Simple Squamous
B. Simple Cuboidal
C. Stratified Squamous
D. Stratified Cuboidal
5. Lining epithelium of uterine tube:

A. Simple Squamous
B. Simple Cuboidal
C. Stratified Squamous
D. Stratified Cuboidal
ANSWER: Simple Columnar
6. Major Roles of pathologist except:

A. Examination
B. Teaching
C. Service
D. Research
7. Pathology comes from the ________
word pathos which means __________

A. Latin; Pain
B. Latin; Suffering
C. Greek; Pain
D. Greek; Suffering
8. The cause of disease

A. Etiology
B. Pathogenesis
C. Morphologic changes
D. Clinical Significance
9. Complete non-appearance
of an organ

A. Aplasia
B. Agenesia
C. Hypoplasia
D. Atresia
10. Degenerative changes:

1 Hypoplasia 2 Anaplasia 3 Metaplasia

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. All of these
11. Deficiency in thiamine hydrochloride
can cause

A. Pellagra
B. Beriberi
C. Scurvy
D. Rickets
12. Type of necrosis that shows chalky white
appearance due to release of fatty acids

A. Coagulation Necrosis
B. Liquefactive Necrosis
C. Fat Necrosis
D. Caseous Necrosis
13. Pathologic cell death

A. Necrosis
B. Necrobiosis
C. Apoptosis
D. Somatic Death
14. Karyorrhexis

A. Nuclear fragmentation
B. Nuclear shrinkage
C. Nuclear degeneration
D. Nuclear dissolution
15. Anatomical Pathology:
1 Surgical Pathology
2 Autopsy Pathology
3 Gross Pathology

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. All of these
16. The most abundant component of
connective tissue

A. Hyaline cartilage
B. Reticular fiber
C. Elastic Fiber
D. Collagen Fiber
17. The powerhouse of the cell

A. Nucleus
B. Golgi apparatus
C. Peroxisomes
D. Mitochondria
18. Skeletal muscle tissue:
1 Multinucleated
2 Branching
3 Striated

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. All of these
19. Blood in sputum

A. Hemoptysis
B. Hematemesis
C. Hemothorax
D. Hematoma
20. All matches are correct except for:

A. Tumor swelling
B. Calor heat
C. Dolor numbness
D. Rubor redness
21. Its importance is when the body
position is changed at scene of death

A. Livor mortis
B. Post-mortem clotting
C. Algor mortis
D. Rigor mortis
22. Mycobacterium Tuberculosis
infection can cause what type of
necrosis

A. Coagulation Necrosis
B. Gangrenous Necrosis
C. Fat Necrosis
D. Caseous Necrosis
23. Increase workload of the muscles
can cause what type of cellular change

A. Physiological Hyperplasia
B. Physiological Hypertrophy
C. Pathological Hypertrophy
D. Pathological Hyperplasia
24. Goblet cells are often seen in
this type of epithelium

A. Simple cuboidal
B. Simple columnar
C. Stratified cuboidal
D. Stratified columnar
25. This diagnostic procedure refers to
the excision and examination of solid
tissues from living subjects

A. Autopsy
B. Biopsy
C. Cytology
D. Necropsy
26. Transitional epithelium is seen in which of
the following structures?

A. Bowmans capsule
C. Respiratory mucosa
B. Small intestinal mucosa
D. Bladder mucosa
27. The lowering of the body temperature to
the level of the surrounding environment
after death is known as:

A. Livor mortis
B. Algor mortis
C. Putrefaction
D. Rigor mortis
28. The transformation of one adult cell type
to a more primitive cell type is referred to as:

A. Metaplasia
B. Atypical Hyperplasia
C. Neoplasia
D. Dedifferentiation
29. ________ is increased in tissue size due
to size increase of individual cells; whereas,
______ is increased in tissue size because of
the increase in number of cells making up the
tissue
A. Hypertrophy, Hyperplasia
B. Hyperplasia, Hypertrophy
C. Hypertrophy, Dysplasia
D. Hyperplasia, Atrophy
30. Mononuclear cell infiltration is a main
feature of which type of inflammation?

A. Acute inflammation
B. Chronic inflammation
C. Subchronic inflammation
D. Catarrhal inflammation
31. Fat necrosis usually occurs upon
degeneration of:

A. Brain
B. Heart
C. Liver
D. Pancreas
32. In an autopsy procedure, the
prosector is the:

A. Medical Technologist
B. Coroner
C. Diener
D. Pathologist
33. Primary signs of death

A. Circulatory failure
B. Respiratory failure
C. Nervous failure
D. All of the above
34. Liquefactive necrosis is associated
with which of the following organs?

A. Brain
B. Heart
C. Pancreas
D. Spleen
35. What are the causes of air embolism?
1. Decompression sickness in divers
2. IV infusion accidents
3. Car accident
4. Flying in an unpressurized airplane

A. 1 and 2
B. 2, 3 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
36. One of the following is NOT a practice of a
medical technologist:

A. Be a phlebotomist in a medical institution

B. Supervise medical technology interns
C. Interpret laboratory results
D. Perform HIV testing
37. What type of muscle tissue has
the least potential for mitosis?

A. Skeletal
B. Cardiac
C. Visceral
D. Smooth
38. The cooling of the body is inhibited by
which of the following instance?

A. Lean and malnourished individuals

B. Cold weather
C. Dehydrated individuals
D. Death followed by an increase temperature
39. Hypertrophy of skeletal muscle is
NOT characterized by which of the
following statements?

A. Increased microfilaments
B. Increased mitochondria
C. Increased RNA synthesis
D. Increased mitotic activity
40. A cellular change seen in
Barrets esophagus

A. Hyperplasia
B. Metaplasia
C. Dysplasia
D. Anaplasia
41. The epithelium of endothelial
blood vessels:

A. Simple Squamous
B. Simple Cuboidal
C. Stratified Squamous
D. Simple Columnar
42. It is due to edema fluid and
connective tissue proliferation

A. Compensatory hypertrophy
B. Pathological hyperplasia
C. False hypertrophy
D. Pathologic atrophy
43. The official results of the clinical laboratory
examination shall be signed properly by the:
1 Medical Technologist
2 Pathologist
3 Laboratory eTchnician
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. All of these
44. The personnel that is in charge of the
dissection in an autopsy

A. Prosector
B. Diener
C. Attending Physician
D. Coroner
45. The first demonstrable secondary
change observed after death

A. Livor mortis
B. Post-mortem clotting
C. Algor mortis
D. Rigor mortis
46. The heat and redness experienced in
inflammation is primarily due to

A. Increased capillary permeability

B. Vasodilation
C. Extravasation of fluid
D. Chemotaxis
47. Rate of cooling of the body after
death

A. o
7C per minute
o
B. 7 F per minute
o
C. 7 C per hour
o
D. 7 F per hour
48. True for predisposing factors:

1 The Blacks are more sensitive

to tuberculosis than Jews
2 Women has greater life expectancy than men
3 Geriatric patients are less susceptible to diseases

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. All of these
The shaft of the long bones is called the:

A. Cancellous bone
B. Spongy bone
C. Cortical bone
D. Trabecular bone
50. Gallstones

A. Pneumoliths
B. Choleliths
C. Rhinoliths
D. Broncholiths
51. Endogenous pigmentation:
1 Plumbism
2 Freckles
3 Albinism

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. All of these
52. Excessive uterine bleeding during
menstrual period

A. Menorrhagia
B. Metrorrhagia
C. Polymenorrhea
D. Intermenstrual
54. Diet deficiency in iron can cause:

A. Aplastic anemia
B. Thalassemia
C. IDA
D. Anemia of chronic disease
55. Tendons are examples of _______
connective that functions to connect
_________

A. Loose; bone to bone

B. Loose; bone to muscle
C. Dense; bone to bone
D. Dense; bone to muscle
56. Necrosis is irreversible.
Apoptosis is reversible.

A. Both statements are true

B. Both statements are false
C. First statement is true, second statement is false
D. First statement is false, second statement is true
57. A disease that arises without
apparent or known cause is referred
to as:
A. Idiopathic
B. Organic
C. Fulminating
D. Inorganic
58. Metabolic disturbances:
1 Gout
2 Pigmentations
3 Calculi

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. All of these
59. A type of shock when ventricular
rupture occurs

A. Hypovolemic shock
B. Cardiogenic shock
C. Septic shock
D. Hemorrhagic shock
60. Ascites is the accumulation of fluid in the
______cavity that can be treated through needle
aspiration called______

A. Pleural; thoracentesis
B. Peritoneal; thoracentesis
C. Pleural; paracentesis
D. Peritoneal; paracentesis
61. A condition in which the tissue is
deprived of adequate oxygen supply

A. Hypoxia
B. Ischemia
C. Hypoxemia
D. Infarction
62. Clinical pathology except:

A. Clinical Chemistry
B. Microbiology
C. Gross pathology
D. Blood Bank
63. Protein-synthesizing organelle:

A. Ribosomes
B. Nucleolus
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Lysosomes
64. Active hyperemia is the result of:

A. Arterial vasodilation
B. Arterial vasoconstriction
C. Venous vasodilation
D. Venous vasoconstriction
65. True for congenital disorders:
1 Result from the failure/abnormality in the
developmental process
2 The cause is not always genetic
3 Example is spina bifida

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. All of these
66. An inflammation that characterized
by extensive outpouring of a watery, low-
protein fluid from blood

A. Serous
B. Catarrhal
C. Fibrinous
D. Suppurative
67. Cells of certain tumor swell and
become converted into jellylike masses is
the result of:

A. Hydrophic degeneration
B. Mucoid degeneration
C. Pathologic calcification
D. Fatty metamorphosis
68. Pathology of female reproductive
system

A. Urologic pathology
B. Pulmonary pathology
C. Gynecologic pathology
D. Neuropathology
69. Livor Mortis:
1 Due to stasis and eventual settling of blood
2 If incised blood oozes
3 Discoloration doesnt disappear
after application of pressure

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. All of these
70. The breakdown of tissue by
bacterial action is called:

A. Denaturation
B. Autolysis
C. Putrefaction
D. Desiccation
71. Failure of an organ to reach its
matured size

A. Hypoplasia
B. Aplasia
C. Agenesia
D. Atresia
72. The most important predisposing
factor in susceptibility and resistance to
diseases

A. Age
B. Constitution
C. Environment
D. Nutrition
73. Signs
1 Fatigue
2 Low platelet count
3 Petechiae

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. All of these
74. A type of necrosis commonly encountered
when arterial supply is cut off and shows
tombstone formation appearance

A. Coagulation Necrosis
B. Liquefactive Necrosis
C. Fat Necrosis
D. Caseous Necrosis
75. An ____________ gland secretes
hormones and one example is ___________

A. Endocrine; lacrimal gland

B. Exocrine; pancreas
C. Endocrine; pancreas
D. Exocrine; thyroid gland
76. A specialized connective tissue that
serves as bodys thermal insulator,
protect organs, and serve as cushion.

A. Fat
B. Cartilage
C. Bone
D. Reticular tissue
77. Death of an organism as a whole

A. Necrosis
B. Necrobiosis
C. Apoptosis
D. Somatic Death
78. Fulminating refers to an acute diseases that quickly
proves fatal.
Sequelae are the remote aftereffects produced by a
disease.

A. Both statements are true

B. Both statements are false
C. First statement is true, second statement is false
D. First statement is false, second statement is true
79. Dry gangrene is due to ___________occlusion
and produces _______________

A. Arterial; offensive foul odor

B. Arterial; less foul odor
C. Venous; offensive foul odor
D. Venous, less foul odor
80. Post-mortem clot:
1 Occurs before death
2 Currant Jelly-like clot
3 Yellow/Chicken fat appearance

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. All of these
81. A type of atrophy that occurs due to
inactivity or diminished function that
leads to narrowing of blood vessels.

A. Vascular atrophy
B. Exhaustion atrophy
C. Pressure atrophy
D. Disuse atrophy
82. Syncope is a shock classified as:

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Hemorrhagic
D. Hypovolemic
83. A severe protein deficiency in
infants is called:

A. Kwashiorkor
B. Marasmus
C. Beriberi
D. Pellagra
84. It refers to the continuous abnormal
proliferation of cells without control,
serving no use or function

A. Metaplasia
B. Dysplasia
C. Anaplasia
D. Neoplasia
85. Cerebral infarction is the result of
what type of necrosis?

A. Coagulation Necrosis
B. Liquefactive Necrosis
C. Fat Necrosis
D. Caseous Necrosis
86. Four aspects of disease processes
except:

A. Etiology
B. Functional changes
C. Pathogenesis
D. Clinical Significance
87. Rigor Mortis starts at leg and arms.
The stiffening of the muscle starts at 3-6 hours
after death

A. Both statements are true

B. Both statements are false
C. First statement is true, second statement is false
D. First statement is false, second statement is true
88. Developmental defects:
1 Atrophy
2 Aplasia
3 Hypoplasia

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. All of these
89. Congestive heart failure is the result
of:

A. Arterial hyperemia
B. Venous hyperemia
C. Parietal thrombus
D. Obstructive thrombus
90. ________ is increased melanin content in
the localized areas of the skin.
It is an example of ________ pigmentation

A. Argyria; endogenous
B. Argyria; exogenous
C. Freckles; endogenous
D. Freckles; exogenous
91. Manifestations of patients with
secondary shock except:

A. Swallow breathing
B. Low body temperature
C. Low blood pressure
D. Slow pulse
92.Active Hyperemia:

A. Congestive heart failure

B. Inflammation
C. Anoxemia
D. Cyanosis
93. Which of the following is in correct order?

A. Algor mortis Rigor mortis Livor mortis

desiccation post-mortem clotting
B. Respiratory failure Livor mortis Algor Mortis
putrefaction Rigor mortis
C. Livor mortis post-mortem clotting putrefaction
desiccation autolysis
D. Circulatory Failure Rigor Mortis
post-mortem clotting desiccation putrefaction
94. Congenital disorder except:

A. Cleft palate
B. Hemophilia
C. Down syndrome
D. Spina bifida
95. Iodine deficiency can cause _______
which can result into________________

A. Hyperthyroidism; anemia
B. Hyperthyroidism; goiter
C. Hypothyroidism; anemia
D. Hypothyroidism; goiter
96. Clostridium perfringens infection can
cause what type of cell death

A. Caseous necrosis
B. Wet gangrene
C. Hypovolemic shock
D. Bacteremia
97. Necrosis of tissue due to restriction
of bloody supply needed for cellular
metabolism

A. Infarction
B. Ischemia
C. Gangrene
D. Hypoxia
98. Scurvy is the result due to the
deficiency of:

A. Ascorbic acid
B. Vitamin B1
C. Potassium
D. Nicotinic acid
99. Tissue derived from the 3 germ layers

A. Epithelial tissue
B. Connective tissue
C. Muscular tissue
D. Nervous tissue
100. Striated muscular tissue
1 Skeletal
2 Cardiac
3 Smooth

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2
C. 1 and 3
D. 2 and 3
101. The best time to collect specimen
for blood culture

A. Before the fever

B. During the fever
C. After the fever
D. Either A and C
102. Earliest enzyme marker to rise during
acute myocardial infarction

A. Myoglobin
B. Aspartate aminotransferase
C. Creatine Kinase
D. Lactate Dehydrogenase
103. Test for long term glucose
monitoring

A. Glycated Albumin
B. Fasting blood sugar
C. Fructosamine
D. Glycated hemoglobin
104. Test for long term glucose
monitoring

A. Glycated Albumin
B. Fasting blood sugar
C. Fructosamine
D. Glycated hemoglobin
105. Most common
complement protein deficiency
A. c1
B. c2
C. c3
D. c6
106. Football-shaped ova

A. Giant roundworm
B. Pinworm
C. Whipworm
D. Threadworm
BONUS:

MARTIN CLYDE G. PAGLINAWAN