Unit-II-Cost of Capital
Unit-II-Cost of Capital
Cost of capital
Meaning
Ko= Ke+Kp+Kd
Cost of Capital
Overall Cost of Capital (Ko)
Ko= Ke+Kp+Kd
K=ro + b + f
K- Cost of Capital
ro- Risk free rate of return- RBI – Treasury bond Rate
b- premium for the business risk
f- Premium for the financial risk
Cost of Capital
Overall Cost of Capital (Ko)
Solution
Ko= 15%= 8%+3%+4%
a) Ko= 9%+3%+4%=16%
b) Ko= 9%+4.5%+4%=17.5%
=10,000/90,000=0.11 or 11%
Cost of debt after tax
Kd= R(1-t)
= 11(1-.55)=4.95%
Computation of Cost of Debt (Kd)
=10,000/1,10,000=0.0909 or 9.1%
Kd= I+(P-NP)/n
(P+NP)/2
I – Amount of Interest
P-Par value of debt
NP-Net Proceeds= Par Value+/- Premium / Discount- Flotation cost
N- Number of years to maturity
Cost of Capital
Cost of Redeemable Debt(kd)
Kd= R(1-t)
= 10.30(1-.50)=5.15%
Cost of Capital
Cost of Redeemable Debt(kd)
Kp=D/NP
i)10% premium
Kp=D/NP
D-Rs10,000= (1,00,000X10%)
NP- Rs:1,00,000+10,000=1,10,000
ii) at 10 % discount:
Kp=D/NP
D-Rs10,000 = (1,00,000X10%)
NP- Rs:1,00,000-10,000=90,000
Kp=10,000/90,000=0.1111 or 11.11%
Cost of Capital
Computation of Cost of Preference Shares (kp)
D – 100X10%=Rs10
P- Rs100
Discount :NP= Rs100-(5%of 100)=95
Premium :NP=Rs100+(5%of 100)=105
Cost of Capital
Cost of redeemable Preference (Kp)
Kp= D+(P-NP)/n
(P+NP)/2
D – Amount of Dividend
P-Par value of Preference share capital
NP-Net Proceeds= Par Value+/- Premium / Discount- Flotation cost
n- Number of years to maturity
Cost of Capital
Cost of redeemable Preference (Kp)
Kp= D+(P-NP)/n
(P+NP)/2
D – Rs10,000=(1,00,000X10%)
P- Rs1,00,000
NP-Net Proceeds= Rs:1,00,000-2,000=RS:98,000
n- 10 years
F-1,00,000X2/100=2,000
10,000+(1,00,000-98,000)/10 = 10.30%
(1,00,000+98,000)/2
Sum: A company has 9 % redeemable preference
shares redeemable at the end of the 10th year from
the year of their issue. The underwriting costs came
to 3%. Calculate the effective cost of preference share
capital assuming par value of Preference Rs1,00,000
and which is issued at
a) 10% premium and
b) 10% Discount .
Cost of redeemable Preference (Kp)
a) 10% premium
Kp= D+(P-NP)/n
(P+NP)/2
D – Rs1,00,000 X 9/100=Rs:9,000
P- Rs1,00,000
NP-Net Proceeds= Rs1,00,000+(10%of 1,00,000)=1,10,000-3,300=1,06,700
n- 10 years
F- 1,10,000X3/100=3,300
9,000+(1,00,000-1,06,700)/10 =
(1,00,000+1,06,700)/2
Kp= 8.05%
a) 10% Discount :
Kp= D+(P-NP)/n
(P+NP)/2
D – Rs1,00,000 X 9/100=Rs:9,000
P- Rs1,00,000
NP-Net Proceeds= Rs1,00,000-(10% of 1,00,000)=90,000-2,700=87,300
n- 10 years
F- Rs90,000X3/100= 2,700
9,000+(1,00,000-87,300)/10
(1,00,000+87,300)/2
Kp= 10.96%
Cost of Capital
Cost of Equity share Capital (Ke)
Ke= D/NP or MP
Ke- Cost of equity capital
D-Dividend
NP- Net Proceeds=Par value+/-Premium/Discount-Flotation Cost.
MP- Market Price.
Cost of Equity share Capital (Ke)
ii) Dividend Price plus growth(D/P+g) Approach:
Ke =D/NP or MP + g
D-Dividend
NP- Net Proceeds=Par value+/-Premium/Discount-Flotation Cost.
MP- Market Price.
g- growth rate.
Cost of Equity share Capital (Ke)
iii) Earnings Price (E/P) Approach:
Ke= E/NP
Ke= D/NP
Ke- Cost of equity capital= ?
D-Dividend= Rs10X20/100= Rs2
NP- Rs10+(10X10%)=Rs11-(11X5/100)=Rs10.45
Ke= 2/10.45=19.13%
i) Dividend Price(D/P) Approach:
Ke= D/MP
Ke- Cost of equity capital= ?
D-Dividend= Rs10X20/100= Rs2
MP= Rs15/-
Ke= (4.50/90)+0.07
Ke= 0.05+0.07 =0.12 or 12%
Sum:The Xavier corporation , dynamic growth firm which pays no
dividends , anticipates a long-run level of future earnings of Rs 7 per
share . The current price of Xavier’s shares is Rs:55.55, flotation costs
for the sale of equity shares would average about 10% of the price of
the shares. What is the cost of new equity capital to Xavier.
• Earnings Price (E/P) Approach:
Ke= E/NP
Ke= 7/49.99=14%
Sum: The entire capital employed by a company consists of one lakh
equity shares of Rs:100 each. Its current earnings are Rs 10 lakhs per
annum. The company wants to raise additional funds of Rs 25 lakhs by
issuing new shares. The flotation cost are expected to be 10%. You are
required to calculate the cost of equity capital presuming that the
earnings of the company are expected to remain stable over the next
few years.
Earnings Price (E/P) Approach:
Ke= E/NP
Note: The compounded factor table value of 1.276 for the 4 years is 6%.
Dividend Price plus growth(D/P+g) Approach:
Ke =D/NP or MP + g
D- Rs14.10
NP- Rs150- (2% on 150)=Rs147
g- 3%
or
Trail and Error Method
Realized Yield Approach:
ke= Rf+β(km-Rf )
ke- Cost of Equity
Rf- Risk free rate of return
β- beta co-efficient (non-diversifiable assets)
Km-Required rate of return on the market portfolio of assets that can be
viewed as the average rate of return on all assets.
Cost of Equity Share Capital (Ke)
β- beta co-efficient
CAPM = Rf + β(Km-Rf)
= 10+ 1.5(12.5-10)
=10+1.5(2.5)
=10+3.75=13.75 %
Cost of Equity Share Capital (Ke)
Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM)
Sum: The market is giving an average return of 18% .The risk-free return
is 11%.
Required:
a) What return would be expected from an investment having a β-
factor of 0.9?
b) What β-factor would be necessary for an investment to yield a
return of 21.6%
Cost of Equity Share Capital (Ke)
Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM)
a) CAPM = Rf + β(Km-Rf)
CAPM= 11+ 0.9(18-11)
CAPM=11+0.9(7)
CAPM= 11+6.3=17.3%
Cost of Equity Share Capital (Ke)
Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM)
b) CAPM = Rf + β(Km-Rf)
CAPM= 11+ X(18-11)=21.6
CAPM= 11+x( 7) =21.6
CAPM = 11+7X=21.6
CAPM= 7X=21.6-11
CAPM= 7X=10.6
CAPM= X=10.6/7
X= β = 1.514 Check, CAPM= 11+ 1.514(18-11)=
= 11+1.514(7)
=11+10.598=21.598 %
Cost of Capital
Cost of Retained Earnings (kr)
Kr=(D/NP)+g)(1-t)(1-b)
(or)
Kr=Ke(1-t)(1-b)
D-Expected dividends
NP-Net proceeds
T- Tax rate
b- Cost of purchasing securities or brokerage cost.
Sum: A firm’s Ke (return available to shareholders) is 15%, average tax
rate of shareholders is 40% and it is expected that 2% is brokerage cost
that shareholders will have to pay while investing their dividends in
alternative securities. What is the cost of retained earnings?
Kr=Ke(1-t)(1-b)
Ke=15%
T- 40% or 0.40
b- 2% or 0.02
Kr=Ke(1-t)(1-b)
Ke=15%
NP-Net proceeds
T- 40% or 0.40
b- 2% or 0.02
Kr=15(1-0.40)(1-0.02)
=15(.60)(0.98)
= 15(0.588)=8.82%
Cost of Capital
Weighted Average Cost of Capital(WACC)
Sum: From the following capital structure of a company, calculate the overall cost of capital
(a) Book Value weights (b) Market Value Weights.
The after tax cost of different sources of finance is as follows:
Equity share capital: 14%, Retained earnings: 13%, Preference share capital: 10%, Debentures: 5%.
( Rs 10 /- per
share)
Retained Earnings 15000 0.15 13 1.95
Preference shares 10000 0.10 10 1.00
capital
Debentures 30000 0.30 5 1.5
1,00,000 1 10.75
Overall Cost of Capital(Ko)
(a) Overall Cost of Capital based on Book Value
=10,750/1,00,000*100=10.75%
Weighted Average Cost of Capital(WACC)
(b) Based on Market Value Weights
1,30,000 1 11.615 %
Weighted Average Cost of Capital(WACC)
Weighted Average Cost of Capital(WACC)
COST OF CAPITAL
WACC - Composite Cost - Problems
WACC - Composite Cost of Capital:
COST OF CAPITAL
WACC - Composite Cost - Problems
WACC - Composite Cost of Capital :
WMCC – Weighted Marginal Cost of
Capital
•Weighted Marginal Cost of Capital (WMCC): Marginal Weights
Marginal cost of capital is the cost of additional funds to be raised.
Formula:
Weighted Marginal Cost of Capital (WMCC) =
Conclusion: The weighted marginal cost of capital is 9.75% for the additional or
marginal capital of Rs.6,00,000
COST OF CAPITAL
WMCC – Marginal Cost of Capital
Weighted Marginal Cost of Capital (WMCC): Marginal Weights / Marginal Cost of Capital
COST OF CAPITAL
WMCC ( book Value Weights )
1 14.9
COST OF CAPITAL
WMCC ( Market Value Weights )
11.45 %
1
iii) WMCC ( Market Value Weights )
Sources Weights After Tax cost of Weighted Average Cost
Capital (%) of Capital (%)