ALGEBRA 01

MODULE 1.1
SOLUTIONS
17. If a, b and c be three real numbers such that a +
2b + 4c = 0. Then, the equation ax2 + bx + c = 0.

A. has its roots lying within - 1 < x < 0

B. has both the roots complex
C. has its roots lying within 2 < x < 6
D. has one of its roots equal to ½

Ans. D.
18. Two or more equations are equal if and
only if they have the same

A. solution set
B. degree
C. order
D. variable set

Ans. A
27. What is the logarithm of negative
number.

A. zero
B. rational
C. Irrational
D. complex

Ans. D.
42. Which of the following best describe 8 +
0i?

A. irrational number
B. real number
C. Imaginary
D. surd

Ans. B
64. Considered as the “counting numbers”.

A. Integers
B. Rational numbers
C. Irrational numbers
D. Natural numbers

Ans. D.
67. A statement of truth which follows with
little or no proof from the theorem.

A. Corollary
B. Axiom
C. Postulate
D. Conclusion

Ans. A
90. The sum and product of conjugate
numbers are:

A. complex numbers
B. real numbers
C. rational numbers
D. pure imaginary number

Ans. B.
 ALGEBRA 02
MODULE 1.2
(MATHEMATICS
 29. When a logarithm is expressed as an
integer plus a decimal (between 0 and 1),
the integer is called:

A. Briggsian logarithm
B. Napierian logarithm
C. Mantissa
D. Characteristic

Ans. D
56. A number containing a non-terminating
but repeating decimal is a/an:

A. integer
B. rational number
C. natural number
D. irrational number

Ans. B
61. The logarithm of a number to the
base e (2.7182….) is called:

A. Napierian logarithm
B. Characteristic
C. Mantissa
D. Briggsian logarithm

Ans. A
71.The mantissa of a logarithm is a

A. positive value only

B. positive value, negative value or zero
C. negative value only
D. positive value or zero

Ans.D
72. For 0 < x < 1, ln x is:

A. positive
B. zero
C. negative
D. between 0 and 1

Ans. C
73. The cologarithm of a number is the
______ of the logarithm of a number.

A. positive
B. absolute value
C. negative
D. reciprocal

Ans. C
ALGEBRA 03
MODULE 1.3
SOLUTIONS
37. A value not exact but might be accurate
enough for some specific consideration.

A. interpolation
B. Eigen value
C. assumption
D. approximation

Ans. D
 PLANE
TRIGONOMETRY
PSE MODULE 2.1
7. A triangle inscribed in a given triangle
whose vertices are the feet of the three
perpendiculars to the sides from same
point inside, the given triangle.
A. Inscribed triangle
B. Primitive triangle
C. Pedal triangle
D. Obtuse triangle
Ans. C
10. A right triangle whose length of sides
may be expressed as ratio of integral units.

A. Pedal triangleI
B. Isosceles triangle
C. Scalene triangle
D. Primitive triangle

Ans. D
11.The triangle with minimum perimeter
but maximum area inscribed in another
triangle is known as

A. Pedal triangle
B. Euclid’s triangle
C. Primitive triangle
D. None of the above

Ans. A
13. Given the sides of a triangle as 3 m and 5
m. The third side is

A. between 3 m and 8 m
B. from 3 m to 7 m
C. greater than 8 m
D. from 2 m to 8 m

Ans. B
18. The angle which the line of sight to
the object makes with the horizontal is
above the eye of an observer.
A. Angle of depression
B. Angle of elevation
C. Acute angle
D. Bearing

Ans. B
19. The intersection of the medians of the
triangle is called:

A. Midpoint
B. Centerpoint
C. Incenter
D. Orthocenter

Ans.A
20. The angle which the line of sight to
the object makes with the horizontal is
below the eye of an observer.
A. Angle of depression
B. Angle of elevation
C. Acute angle
D. Bearing

Ans. A
21.The line in which the midpoint, orthocenter,
cimcumcenter and the ninepoint center lie.

A. bisector
B. perpendicular bisector
C. euler’s line
D. median

Ans. C
22. What is the intersection of the angle
bisectors of a triangle?

A. incenter
B. circumcenter
C. orthocenter
D. midpoint

Ans. A
23. A triangle with no side equal is known as

A. acute triangle
B. oblique triangle
C. equilateral triangle
D. scalene triangle

Ans. D
 24. If two triangles have congruent bases,
then the ratio of their areas equals the ratio of

A. their perimeter
B. their sides
C. the lengths of their altitudes
D. none of the above

Ans. C
25. Which of the following cannot be an
oblique angle?

A. Acute
B. Obtuse
C. Reflex
D. Right

Ans. D
26. Which of the following is not a secondary
part of a triangle?

A. Altitudes
B. Medians
C. Exterior angles
D. Sides

Ans. D
27. Which is true regarding the signs of the
natural functions for angles between 90
and 180.
A. The tangent is positive
B. The cotangent is positive
C. The cosine is negative
D. The sine is negative

Ans. C
29. Which of the following is not a property
of a triangle?
A. The sum of the three angles is always equal
to two right angles.
B. The sum of two sides is less than the third
side.
C. If the two sides are equal, the angles
opposite are unequal.
D. The altitudes of the triangle meet in a point.

Ans. B
30. It refers to the angle between any two
radii.
A. central angle
B. polar angle
C. azimuth
D. normal

Ans. A
32. It refers to a geometric figure which is
drawn around and enclosing another
geometrical figure.

A. circumscribed
B. inscribed
C. escribed
D. secant

Ans. A
33. It refers to a continuous curve whose
endpoints coincide.

A. Circle
B. Continuous curve
C. Convergence
D. Closed curve

Ans. D
34. It refers to a single line which forms a
tangent to two or more separate curves.

A. Common secant
B. Common tangent
C. Chord
D. Axis

Ans. B
44. Any lines segment joining a vertex of a
triangle to a point on the opposites side

A. median
B. secant line
C. cevian
D. euclidian line

Ans. C
69. The trigonometric function equal to one
minus the cosine function

A. versed sine
B. co-versed sine
C. arcsine
D. arcsine

Ans. A
86. Any lines segment joining a vertex of
a triangle to a point on the opposites side
A. median
B. secant line
C. cevian
D. euclidian line

Ans. C
87. The perpendicular bisector of a line
segment

A. mediator
B. divider
C. altitude
D. orthobisector

Ans. A
PLANE & SOLID
GEOMETRY
PSE MODULE 3.1
(SOLUTION)
12.What is the distance between two
points of a sphere is the smaller arc of
the great circle between them?

A. spherical arc
B. spherical polygon
C. spherical distance
D. spherical angle

Ans. C
13.The ____ of a polygon of n sides is
the excess of the sum of the polygon
over (n - 2) 180

A. spherical distance
B. remainder
C. spherical excess
D. spherical polygon

Ans. C
15. If two dihedral angles have a common
edge and a common face between them,
they are:
A. common dihedral angles
B. adjacent dihedral angles
C. coplanar dihedral angles
D. polyhedral angles

Ans. A
17. A polyhedron is said to be ___, If
every section of the polyhedron is a
convex polygon.
A. concave
B. convex
C. maximum
D. minimum

Ans.B
18. Polyhedrons are classified according to
their

A. Bases
B. Sides
C. Faces
D. Vertices

Ans. C
19. The _____ of a circle of a sphere is the
spherical distance to any point of it from
it’s nearer pole.
A. polar distance
B. poles
C. oblique
D. chordal distance

Ans.A
20. The volume of a right circular cone is
equal to one - third the product of its
base by its altitude
A. axiom
B. postulate
C. theorem
D. corollary

Ans.C
21. If two points of a straight line lie in a
plane, every point of the line lies on the
plane.
A. Axiom
B. Postulate
C. Theorem
D. Corollary

Ans. B
63. The portion of a sphere lying between
two semi - circles of great circles.

A. zone
B. lune
C. sector
D. segment

Ans. B
 64. The portion of a sphere included
between two parallel planes.

A. spherical wedge
B. spherical pyramid
C. spherical segment
D. spherical sector

Ans. C
65. The portion of a sphere generated by
the revolution of a circular sector about
any diameter of the circle of which the
sector is a part.
A. spherical wedge
B. spherical pyramid
C. spherical segment
D. spherical sector

Ans. D
67. The intersection of sphere and a plane
passing through the center.

A. great circle
B. small circle
C. poles of a circle
D. half circle

Ans. A
68. The portion of a sphere bounded by a
spherical polygon and the planes of its
sides.
A. spherical wedge
B. spherical segment
C. spherical pyramid
D. spherical sector

Ans.C
PROBABILITY & STATISTICS
PSE MODULE 4.1 (SOLUTION)
16. What is the term that describes a
possible outcome of an experiment?
called?

A. a sample space
B. a random point
C. an event
D. a finite set

Ans.C
26. In probability theory, what is the set of
all possible outcomes of an experiment
called?
A. a set of random events
B. a cumulative distribution
C. a fuzzy set
D. a sample space*
 27. How can the values of a random
variable defined over a sample space be
described?
A. always continuous
B. strictly nonzero
C. always numerical*
D. defined only over a finite horizon
 28. If two random variables are
independently distributed, what is their
relationship?
A. They are not identically distributed.
B. They are mutually exclusive.
C. They are uncorrelated.*
D. (A) or (B)
 32. Which of the following properties of
probability is not valid?
A. The probability of an event is always positive and less
than or equal to one.
B. If E0 is an event which cannot occur in the sample
space, the probability of E0 is zero.
C. If events E1 and E2 are mutually exclusive, then the
probability of both events occurring is zero.
D. If events E1 and E2 are events from the same sample
space, then P(E1 + E2) = P(E1) + P(E2) – P(E1E2).

Ans. D
40. If the variable X has a Poisson distribution with
parameter λ, what is the expected value of X?

A. λ 2
B. λ(1- λ)
C. λ −1
D. λ

Ans. D
47. It is the characteristic of a population which is
measurable.

A. Sample
B. Frequency
C. Parameter
D. Distribution

Ans. A
53. The standard deviation is the ___ of the
variance.
A. square
B. square root
C. reciprocal
D. cube

Ans. B
57. The number 1 followed by 100 zeros or
10100 is called

A. myriad
B. petallion
C. google
D. centennial numbers

Ans. C
 91. The ____is stated in the magnitude of the
absolute or relative error of the approximated value.

A. precision
B. accuracy
C. mistake
D. error

Ans. B
ANALYTIC GEOMETRY
01
PSE MODULE 5.1
(SOLUTION)
 7. The equation y a a x 1 2 = + is an
algebraic expression for which of the
following choices?
A. a cosine expansion
B. projectile motion
C. potential energy
D. a straight line

Ans. D
 13. The intercept form of the algebraic
straight line equation is:

A. x/a + y/b = 1
B. y = mx + b
C. Ax + By + C = 0
D. a/x + b./y = 1

Ans. A
18. A vertical line passing through the origin
has an equation

A. x = 0
B. y = 0
C. x = x1
D. y = y1

Ans. A
24. If an equation is unchanged by the
substitution of – y for y, its curve is
symmetric with respect to the

A. x – axis
B. origin
C. y – axis
D. 45 deg. Line

Ans. A
25. If an equation is unchanged by the
substitution of –x for x, its curve is
symmetric with respect to the
A. x – axis
B. origin
C. y – axis
D. 45 deg. Line

Ans. C
 26. If an equation is unchanged by the
substitution of – x for x and – y for y
simultaneously, its curve is symmetric with
respect to the
A. x – axis
B. origin
C. y – axis
D. 45 deg. Line

Ans. B
28. Which of the following best decribes the
given lines 4x – y + 3 = 0 and 8x – 2y + 8 = 0 ?

A. Coincident lines
B. Parallel lines
C. Perpendicular lines
D. Intersecting lines

Ans. B
30. What is the equation of the line having x
and y -intercepts are 2 and 4 respectively?

A. 2x + y = 4
B. x + 2y = 4
C. x – 2y = 4
D. 2x – y = 4

Ans. A
 34. Which of the following is the equation of
straight line with slope of 3 and y-intercept of 1?

A. 3x – y + 1 = 0
B. 3x + y + 1 = 0
C. 5x + 3y + 1 = 0
D. 3x – y – 1 = 0

Ans. A
38. What is the equation of a straight line with
a slope of 2 and x-intercept of 1.

A. 2x – y – 2 = 0
B. 2x + y + 2 = 0
C. y + 2x – 2 = 0
D. y – 2x – 2 = 0

Ans. A
43. A line passes through ( 1, - 3 ) and ( - 4, 2 ) . Write
the equation of the line in slope –intercept form .

A. y – 4 = x
B. y = x – 4
C. y = – x – 2
D. y – 2 = x

Ans. C
52. What is the equation of line through
(7,–3) and perpendicular to the line
whose inclination is arctan 2/3?
A. 3x + 2y – 15 = 0
B. 3x – 2y – 15 = 0
C. 3x + 2y + 15 = 0
D. 3x – 2y + 15 = 0

Ans. A
64. If the constant B in the equation of the
line Ax + By + C = 0 is zero, then the line is

A. vertical
B. 45o with the axis
C. horizontal
D. along the origin

Ans. A
 71. The values of the abscissas of the
points where the curve crosses the x-axis

A. assymtotes
B. y – intercepts
C. x – intercepts
D. abscissa

Ans. C
72. The x – intercepts are found by setting
•  

Ans. C
80. If all the y – terms have even exponents
the curve is symmetric with respect to the

A. x – axis
B. origin
C. y – axis
D. 45 deg. Line

Ans. A
81. If all the x – terms have even exponents
the curve is symmetric with respect to the

A. x – axis
B. origin
C. y – axis
D. 45 deg. Line

Ans. C
82. A straight line is said to be a/an ______ of a curve
if the curve approaches such a line more and more
closely but never really touches it except as limiting
position at infinity.
A. Skew
B. Intersection
C. Tangent
D. assymptote

Ans. D
 83. If the line is parallel to and at a directed
distance x1, from the y – axis, the equation is

A. x = x1
B. y = y1
C. y = x1
D. x = y1

Ans. A
85. If the line is parallel to and at a directed
distance y1 from the x – axis, its equation is

A. x = x1
B. y = x1
C. y = y1
D. x = y1

Ans. C
87. If in two linear equations, the x – coefficient of the first is equal
to the y – coefficient of the second and the y - coefficient of the
first is numerically equal but of opposite sign to the x - coefficient
of the second or vice –versa, the lines represented are

A. parallel
B. intersecting
C. perpendicular
D. vertical

Ans. C
89. If m1 and m2 are the respective slopes of
two parallel lines, then

A. m1 - m2 = 0
B. m1m2 = 1
C. m1 + m2 = 0
D. m1m2 = -1

Ans. A
92. The rectangular coordinate system used
to represents a complex number.

A. Complex plane
B. Cartesian plane
C. Argand diagram
D. Venn-Euler diagram

Ans. C
93. The points (x, 1), (y, 2), (y, 2), (z, 3) are
collinear. Which of the following is true?

A. z – x = y – x
B. z – y = y – x
C. z – y = z – x
D. x + y = y + z

Ans. B
 94. A line with equation x = x1 has a
slope of
•  

Ans. B
95. The _____ of the points is the perpendicular
bisector of the line joining them.

A. altitude
B. divider
C. axis or line of symmetry
D. median

Ans. C
97. Which of the following best decribes the
given lines 4x – y + 3 = 0 and 8x – 2y + 6 = 0 ?
A. Coincident lines
B. Parallel lines
C. Perpendicular lines
D. Intersecting lines

Ans. A
 100. What is the equation of a line though
point A ( 0, 7 ) parallel to the line 9x + y – 3 = 0.

A. 9x + y – 7 = 0
B. 9x + y – 48 = 0
C. 9x + y – 40 = 0
D. 9x + y – 63 = 0

Ans. A
 ANALYTIC
GEOMETRY 02
PSE MODULE 5.2
(SOLUTION)
2. What conic section is 2 2x 8xy + 4x =12 − ?

A. Hyperbola
B. Ellipse
C. Parabola
D. Circle

Ans. A
38. What conic section is 2x2 – 8xy + 4x = 12 ?

A. Hyperbola
B. Ellipse
C. Parabola
D. Circle

Ans. A
39. The locus of a point which moves at a constant
distance from a fixed point called its center.

A. Circle
B. Ellipse
C. Parabola
D. Hyperbola

Ans. A
40. An equation of the second degree in which the xy – term
is missing and only one square term is present represents a
_______ with its axis parallel to a coordinate axis.

A. Circle
B. Ellipse
C. Parabola
D. Hyperbola

Ans.C
 41. A solid generated by the rotation of a circle
about a line in its plane not intersecting it.

A. Torus
B. Paraboloid of revolution.
C. Sphere
D. Hyperbola of revolution

Ans. A
42. The sum of the focal distances of any point on the
ellipse is constant and is equal to the length of the

A. minor axis
B. latus rectum
C. major axis
D. directrix

Ans. C
 43. The eccentricity of an equilateral or
rectangular hyperbola is

A. 2 sq. rt. of 2
B. 2 sq. rt. of 3
C. sq rt of 2
D. sq rt of 3

Ans.C
 44. The parabola 8x2 + 64x – 32y + 63 = 0
opens
A. upward
B. to the right
C. downward
D. to the left

Ans. A
 45. The length of the transverse axis of a
hyperbola
A. is always greater that the conjugate axis
B. is always less than the conjugate axis
C. may be greater than or less than but never
equal to the conjugate axis
D. may be greater than, equal to, or less than
the conjugate axis

Ans. D
47. The diagonals (prolonged) of the rectangle of sides
2a and 2b and parallel to the transverse and conjugate
axes respectively are _______ of the hyperbola

A. transverse and conjugate axes

B. asymptotes
C. lines
D. intersections

Ans. B
 48. The parabola whose vertex is at origin,
axis on y – axis focus at (0, p) directrix y = -p
and opening upward has the equation.
•  

Ans. A
62. What do you call a line through focus
perpendicular to the directrix is?
A. axis of the conic
B. focal length
C. latus rectum
D. directrix

Ans. A
63. Conic sections are classified according
to the value of which of the following?
A. latus rectum
B. focus
C. directrix
D. eccentricity

Ans. D
78.The conic section whose eccentrically
is 1 (e = 1)
A. circle
B. ellipse
C. parabola
D. hyperbola

Ans. C
80. The conic section whose ccentricity is
greater than 1 (e >1)

A. circle
B. ellipse
C. parabola
D. hyperbola

Ans. D
79. The conic section whose eccentricity is
less than 1 (e < 1)

A. circle
B. ellipse
C. parabola
D. hyperbola

Ans. B
81. The conic section whose eccentricity
approaches zero (e→0)
A. circle
B. ellipse
C. parabola
D. hyperbola

Ans. A
82. The locus of points which are equidistant
from a fixed point and a fixed line.

A. circle
B. ellipse
C. parabola
D. hyperbola

Ans. C
84. The axis of the hyperbola passes through
the foci, vertices and center is called

A. conjugate axis
B. tranverse axis
C. latus rectum
D. directrix
Ans. B
85. The vertical line passing through the
origin has an equation
•  

Ans. A
 86. A horizontal line passing through the
origin has an equation
•  

Ans. B
 88. A solid generated by the rotation of a
ellipse about its minor axis.

A. elliptic spheroid
B. prolate spheroid
C. hyperbolic spheroid
D. oblate spheroid

Ans.D
DIFFERENTIAL
CALCULUS 01
PSE MODULE 6.1
(SOLUTION)
1. If the second derivative of the equation of a
curve is equal to the negative of the equation
of that same curve, the curve is

A. an exponential
B. a tangent
C. a sinusoid
D. a parabola

Ans. C
4. What is the derivative of ln cos x?

A. sec x
B. – sec x
C. – tan x
D. tan x

Ans. C
5. If the first derivative of the equation of a
curve is a constant, the curve is a ________.

A. circle
B. hyperbola
C. straight line
D. sine wave

Ans. C
14. Evaluate the limit ln x / x as x
approaches positive infinity.
A. 1
B. Infinity
C. 0
D. –1

Ans. C
 19. If y = cos x, dy/dx is:

A. sin x
B. – tan x cos x
C. 1 / sec x
D. sec x sin x

Ans.B
29. The set of first elements of the ordered
pair in the relation or function.

A. Domain
B. Function
C. Range
D. Abscissa

Ans. A
 31. An interval that includes the two end
point is

A. open - closed interval

B. closed - open interval
C. closed - open interval
D. closed interval

Ans. D
  

A. relative minimum
B. relative inflection
C. relative maximum
D. relative maximum

Ans. D
34. Refers to a quantity which does not change its
value in a general relationship between variables.

A. modulus
B. argument
C. absolute value
D. constant

Ans. D
 35. An infinite change in an independent
variable or in a dependent variable due to a
small change in independent variable.

A. integral
B. approximations
C. differential
D. error

Ans. C
 36. The critical points of a graph occur
where the derivative of the function is

A. one
B. Infinity
C. zero
D. indeterminate

Ans. C
37. What is the second derivative of
y = x ln x ?
•  

Ans. D
 38. At point of inflection.
A. y’ = 0
B. y’’ is negative
C. y’’ = 0
D. y’’ is positive

Ans. C
39. The _____ derivative of the function is the
rate of change of the slope of the graph.

A. First
B. Third
C. Second
D. Fourth

Ans. C
42. The operation of finding the derivative of
function.

A. Derivation
B. Approximation
C. Differentiation
D. Iteration

Ans. C
 44. At the maximum point of y = f(x)

A. the curve is concave upward

B. the curve is concave downward
C. y’’ is positive
D. y’’ is zero

Ans. B
45. At the minimum point of y = f(x)

A. the curve is concave upward *

B. the curve is concave downward
C. y’’ is negative
D. y’’ is zero

Ans. A
46. The biggest rectangle inscribed in a
circle is
A. square
B. rhombus
C. rectangle
D. parallelogram

Ans. A
 48. A method used for finding a root of an
equation by successive approximations in the
form of the iterations.
A. Cardan’s method
B. L’Hospital’s method
C. Ferrari’s method
D. Newton-Raphson method

Ans. D
56. The other term of derivative is
A. differential coefficient
B. summation
C. approximations
D. differential error

Ans. A
59. An equation which defines one
variable purely in terms of another.

A. explicit function
B. algebraic function
C. implicit function
D. transcendental function

Ans. A
66. A function f(x) is called _______ of f(x) if f
’(x) = f(x)

A. explicit function
B. derivative
C. implicit function
D. antiderivative

Ans. D
67. At a point where y’ = 0, if y changes
from positive to negative as x increases,

A. y is minimum
B. x is minimum
C. y is maximum
D. x is maximum

Ans. C
68. In mathematics, a quantity larger
than any that can be specified.
A. Maximum
B. infinity
C. boundary
D. indeterminate

Ans. B
 69. A point at which the curve changes from concave
upward to concave downward or vice-versa is called as

A. critical point
B. point of intersection
C. point of inflection
D. point of tangency

Ans. C
 70. The operation of finding the
derivative of function.
A. Derivation
B. Approximation
C. differentiation
D. iteration

Ans. C
71. The derivative of a function is identical to
the _______ of the graph of the function.
A. Tangent
B. slope
C. secant
D. normal

Ans. B
72. The curve Spiral of Archimedes has an
equation of
•  

Ans. C
 75. If the derivative of a function is a
constant , then the function is_____.
A. sinusoidal
B. logarithmic
C. linear
D. quadratic

Ans. C
78. The first derivative of ln (cos x ) is:

A. – csc x
B. sec x
C. tan x
D. – tan x

Ans. D
79. What is the limit of ( 1 + 1/x)x as x
approaches infinity.
•  

Ans. C
 87. In mathematics, a quantity larger
than any that can be specified.
A. Maximum
B. infinity
C. boundary
D. indeterminate

Ans. B
88. A set of all numbers or points lying
between two endpoints.
A. Difference
B. Boundary
C. Interval
D. internal points

Ans. C
96. What is the limit of ( 1 + 1/n)n as n
approaches 0.
A. 0
B. e
C. 1
D. infinity

Ans. C
99. A point at which the curve changes from
concave upward to concave downward or
vice-versa is called as

A. critical point
B. point of intersection
C. point of inflection
D. point of tangency

Ans. C
100. If a is a simple constant, what is
the derivative of a y = x?
•  

Ans. C
DIFFERENTIAL
CALCULUS 02
PSE MODULE 6.2
(SOLUTION)
81. The biggest rectangle inscribed in a circle is

A. square
B. rhombus
C. rectangle
D. parallelogram

Ans. A
  

A. undefined
B. indeterminate
C. one
D. zero

Ans. C
INTEGRAL CALCULUS 01
PSE MODULE 7.2
(SOLUTION)
17. Many integrals may be evaluated by introducing
a new variable of integration in place of the original
variable, the two variables being connected by some
suitable formulas. This process is called

A. integration by parts
B. partial derivatives
C. integration by substitution
D. the chain rule

Ans. C
18. The variable inside the integral is called
variable of integration or integration
variable. It is sometimes referred to as
A. calculus variable
B. dummy variable
C. limits variable
D. limits range

Ans. B
19. The area of the surface generated by rotating
any plane curve about a certain axis in its plane id
equal to the product of the length of the arc and
the distance traveled by its centroid.

A. Varignon’s theorem
B. First proposition of Pappus
C. Method of section
D. Second proposition of Pappus

Ans. B
 20. The volume of any solid revolution is equal to the
generating are times the circumference of the circle
described by the centroid of the area. This is known as

A. First proposition of Pappus

B. Cavalieri’s theorem
C. Second proposition of
Pappus
D. Simpson’s Rule

Ans. C
21. When a catenary (y = cosh x) is rotated about
its axis of symmetry, it generates a solid called

A. paraboloid
B. conoid
C. catenoid
D. hyperboloid

Ans. C
22. Calculus was invented by

A. Newton
B. Leibniz
C. Gauss
D. Newton and Leibniz

Ans. D
 23. Varignon’s theorem is used to
determine :
A. location of centroid
B. mass moment of inertia
C. moment of inertia
D. moment of area

Ans. A
24. Catenary is the shape assumed by perfectly
flexible uniform cable hanging between
supports. It is a graph of

A. parabola
B. y = sinh x
C. y = cosh x
D. x = cosh y

Ans. C
25. ______ is also known as the composite
function rule.

A. L’Hospital rule
B. Trapezoidal rule
C. Simpson’s rule
D. Chain rule

Ans. D
27.Which of the following is determinate?
•  

Ans.C
28. A collective term for maxima or minima,
whether absolute of relative is called

A. infinitium
B. extrema
C. domain
D. none of the above

Ans. B
29. If the second derivative of the equation
of a curve is equal to the negative of the
equation of that same curve, the curve is

A. a paraboloid
B. a sinusoid
C. a cissoid
D. an exponential

Ans. B
DIFFERENTIAL
EQUATION 01
PSE MODULE 8.1
(SOLUTION)
2. The solution of the differential equation xdy
– y dx represents which of the following?

A. straight line passing through the origin

B. parabola whose vertex is at the origin
C. circle with center at the origin
D. rectangular hyperbola

Ans. A
11. Any function of y/x is homogeneous
of degree
A. 0
B. 2
C. 1
D. 3

Ans.A
26. If the unknown function depends only on one
independent variable, the differential equation is:

A. ordinary differential equation

B. partial differential equation
C. single differential equation
D. complete differential equation

Ans. A
27. If the unknown function depends on
two or more independent variables, the
differential equation is:

A. ordinary differential equation

B. composite differential equation
C. compound differential equation
D. partial differential equation

Ans. D
29. The absolute value of a nonzero
number is
A. always positive & negative
B. always positive or negative
C. always positive
D. always negative

Ans. C
30. The only additive identity element
is
A. 0
B. -1
C. 1
D. 0

Ans. A
31. The only multiplicative identity element
is

A. 0
B. -1
C. 1
D. 0

Ans. C
 32. Which of the following are possible
solutions to the homogenous D.E. of the
highest order?
A. when the roots of the auxiliary equation are real
and distinct
B. when the roots of the auxiliary equation are real
and equal
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. when the auxiliary equation has no roots

Ans. C
33. Which of the following best described a
linear differential equation?

A. The dependent variable (say y) and its

derivative occur to the first degree only
B. No products of y and/or any of its derivatives
are present
C. No transcendental functions of y and/or its
derivatives occurs
D. All of the above

Ans. D
34. A function f(x,y) is called a homogeneous
function of the nth degree if

•  

Ans.C
35. All number multiplied by ____equals unity.

A. its identity
B. conjugate
C. its reciprocal
D. multiplicand

Ans.C
36. If the roots of an equation are zero,
then, the solution is called:

A. Extranous solutions
B. Trivial solutions
C. Conditional solutions
D. Ambiguous solutions

Ans.B
37. The degree of a polynomial or
equation is the
A. maximum sum of exponents
B. maximum exponent of the variable involved
C. exponent of the first variable
D. exponent of the variable

Ans.A
38. Equations whose members are equal only for
certain or possibly no value of the unknown.

A. conditional equation
B. identical equation
C. equivalent equation
D. inequalities

Ans.A
39. In order for a system of n + 1 linear equations in
n unknowns the determinant formed from the
coefficients of the unknowns and the terms free of
the unknowns must vanish. The determinant
formed is called ____ of the arbitrary constants.

A. eliminant
B. multiplier
C. Solution
D. identity

Ans.A
40. An equation in which all terms are of the
same degree

A. linear
B. quadratic
C. cubic
D. homogeneous

Ans. D
41. When an equation involves one or more
derivatives with respect to a particular
variable, then that variable is called:

A. dependent variable
B. parameter
C. independent variable
D. function

Ans. C
42. The general solution of an ordinary
differential equation of order n contains
_____ arbitrary constants.
A. n
B. n + 1
C. n – 1
D. 2n

Ans. A
43. An equation is called _____ if it is in the
form F(x)G(y)dx + f(x)g(y)dy = 0

A. linear
B. separable
C. B. non-linear
D. homogeneous

Ans. B
44. The differential equation
y’ – xy – x 2 = 0 is
A. variable separable D.E
B. Exact D.E
C. Unexact D.E
D. homogeneous D.E.

Ans. C
45. An equation which involve differentials
or one or more derivatives
A. Mathematical equation
B. Differential equation
C. Differential calculus
D. Derived equation

Ans. B
DIFFERENTIAL
EQUATION 02
PSE MODULE 8.2
(SOLUTION)
41. It is a differential equation in the form y’
+ P(x)y = Q(x)yn

A. Riccati’s equation
B. Bernoulli’s equation
C. Bradner’s equation
D. Mackay’s equation

Ans. B
 50. Which of the following equations is
correct?

A. all exact equations are separable equations

B. all separable equations are exact equations
C. all linear differential equations are
homogenous equations
D. all homogenous equations are linear
differential equations

Ans.B
 ADVANCED
MATHEMATICS
PSE MODULE 9.1
(SOLUTION)
 26. A series wherein the terms are
regularly increasing powers of a variable .

A. Taylor Series
B. Macclaurin Series
C. Power Series
D. Alternating Series

Ans. C
27. Refers to a function which are not
algebraic .
A. composite functions
B. onto functions
C. one to one functions
D. transcedental functions

Ans. D
 28. A family of curves whose equations are
the solutions of a given differential equation

A. integral curves
B. differential curves
C. trigonometric curves
D. algebraic curves

Ans.A
29. The process of the continuous summing of
change in a function , f(x) over an interval of
the variable x is ;
A. differentiation
B. integration
C. Summation
D. interval addition

Ans.A
35. It is a differential equation of the form; y’ =
f(x) + g(x)y + h(x)y2

A. Riccati equation
B. Bernoulli equation
Ans.A
C. Linear differential equation
D. Mackay equation

Ans.A
42. A method of integrating a function of one
variable by expressing it as simple or more
easily integrated function of another variable.

A. Integration by substitution
B. Integration by parts
C. Integration by rational fraction
D. Indefinite Integration

Ans. A
 ENGINEERING
ECONOMICS 01
PSE MODULE 10.1
(SOLUTION)
 14. A bank is advertising 9.5% accounts that
yield 9.84% annually. How often is the interest
compounded?

A. Annually
B. Quarterly
C. Bi-monthly
D. Semi-monthly

Ans. B
15. It is defined to be the capacity of a
commodity to satisfy human want.

A. Discount
B. Luxury
C. Necessity
D. Utility

Ans. B
16. It is the amount which a willing buyer will pay to
a willing seller for a property where each has equal
advantage and is under no compulsion to buy or sell.

A. Fair value
B. Market valueAns. B
C. Book value
D. Salvage value

Ans. B
73. The difference between what a negotiable
paper is worth in the future and its present
worth is known as:

A. Book value
B. Sunk value
C. Salvage value
D. Discount

Ans. D
74. Those cost that arise at the result of a change in
operations or policy or it is the ratio of a small
increment cost and a small increment of output.

A. Increment cost
B. Marginal cost
C. Differential cost
D. Promotion cost

Ans. C
 89. A condition where only few individuals
produce a certain product and that any action
of one will lead to almost the same action of
the others.

A. Oligopoly
B. Semi-monopoly
C. Monopoly
D. Perfect competition

Ans. A
 90. Grand total of the assets and
operational capability of a corporation.

A. Authorized capital
B. Investment
C. Subscribed capital
D. Money market

Ans. A
91. The worth of the property equals to the
original cost less depreciation.

A. Scrap value
B. Face value
C. Market value
D. Book value

Ans. D
 92. Liquid assets such as cash and other assets
that can be converted quickly into cash, such as
accounts receivable and merchandise are called

A. total assets
B. fixed assets
C. current assets
D. none of the above

Ans. C
93. The provision in the contract that
indicates the possible adjustment of
material cost and labor cost.
A. Secondary clause
B. Escalatory clause
C. Contingency clause
D. Main clause

Ans. B
94. Decrease in the value of a physical
property due to the passage of time.

A. Inflation
B. Depletion
C. Recession
D. Depreciation

Ans. D
 95. An association of two or more
individuals for the purpose of operating a
business as co-owners for profit.
A. Sole proprietorship
B. Company
C. Partnership
D. Corporation

Ans. B
 96. We may classify an interest rate,
which specifies the actual rate of
interest on the principal for one year as
A. nominal rate
B. rate of return
C. exact interest rate
D. effective rate

Ans. D
98. These are products or services that are desired by
human and will be purchased it money is available
after the required necessities have been obtained.

A. Utilities
B. Necessities
C. Luxuries
D. Product goods and Services

Ans. C
 ENGINEERING
MECHANICS 01
PSE MODULE 11.1
(SOLUTION)
16. Which statement about area moments
of inertia is false?
•  

Ans.D
24. Which of the following is the sum of
the external forces acting on the system
for it to be in equilibrium?
A. equal to unity
B. equal to a maximum
C. equal to zero
D. undefined

Ans. C
 36. The mass moment if inertia of a cylinder
about its central axis perpendicular to a circular
cross section is

A. directly proportional to its radius

B. directly proportional to its length
C. independent of its radius
D. independent of its length

Ans. B
37. For a system to be in equilibrium:

A. the force polygon must close.

B. all forces must be concurrent, if not
acting parallel
C. it must satisfy the 3 static equations
D. all of the above

Ans. D
38. The _____ exerted by a force on a body is
the measure of its effectiveness in turning the
body about a certain pivot.

A. Couple
B. moment arm
C. torque
D. all of the above

Ans. C
39. The moment of inertia of any plane figure
can be expressed in units of length to the

A. First power
B. Second power
C. Third Power
D. Fourth Power

Ans. D
46. Moment of inertia of any plane figure is
expressed in units of length to the _______.

A. first power
B. third power
C. second power
D. fourth power

Ans. D
47. A branch of mechanics which
deals with bodies at rest.
A. Statics
B. Kinetics
C. Dynamics
D. Kinematics

Ans. A
48. A couple consists of two forces, ____ in
magnitude, parallel and oppositely directed.

A. directly proportional
B. unequal
C. equal
D. inversely proportional

Ans. C
ENGINEERING MECHANICS
02 & 3 PSE MODULE
11.2(SOLUTION)
 28. In the ballistic balance, a bullet is fired into a
block of mass M, whichvcan swing freely. Which of
the following is true for the system after impact?

A. Both mechanical energy and momentum are conserved.

B. Mechanical energy is conserved; momentum is not
conserved.
C. Momentum is conserved; mechanical energy is not
conserved.
D. Neither mechanical energy nor momentum is conserved.

Ans. B
87. One Joule of work is done by a force of
one Newton acting through a distance of:

A. one meter
B. one inch
C. a foot
D. one cm

Ans. A
88. The first derivative of kinetic
energy with respect to time is:

A. power
B. work
C. momentum
D. force

Ans. A
90. The first derivative of kinetic energy
with respect to velocity is:
A. power
B. work
C. momentum
D. force

Ans. C
 POWER & INDUSTRIAL PLANT ENGINEERING

THERMODYNAMICS 02
PSE MODULE 12.2 (SOLUTION)
 32. When two bodies, isolated from other
environment, are in thermal equilibrium with a
third body, the two are in the thermal equilibrium
with each other. What is this law?

A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics

B. Second law of thermodynamics
C. First law of thermodynamics
D. Third law of thermodynamics

Ans. A
33. Which of the following is the measure of
the randomness of them molecules of a
substance?

A. Enthalpy
B. Internal energy
C. Entropy
D. Heat

Ans. C
 34. What is true about the polytropic
exponent n, for a perfect gas undergoing
an isobaric process ?
•  

Ans. D
 36. For an irreversible process, what is
true about the total change in entropy of
the system and surroundings?
A. ds = dQ/T
B. ds = 0
C. ds > 0
D. ds < 0

Ans. C
37. A system in which there is no exchange of
matter with the surrounding or mass does
not cross its boundaries.

A. Open system
B. Isolated system
C. Closed system
D. Nonflow system

Ans. C
 38. If an initial volume of saturated
steam is expanded isothermally to
twice the initial volume, the pressure
A. decreases
B. halves
C. increases
D. doubles

Ans. A
39. A surface that is impervious to heat is

A. isothermal surface
B. adiabatic surface
C. isochoric surface
D. isobaric surface

Ans. B
40. A fully irreversible steady flow adiabatic
process with no work being done is

A. isobaric process
B. isothermal process
C. throttling process
D. isentropic process

Ans. C
41. The ratio of the volume at the end of heat
addition to the volume at the start of heat
addition is called__________.

A. compression ratio
B. volumetric ratio
C. air-fuel ratio
D. cut-off ratio

Ans. D
 43. Dry air can be approximated as ___%
oxygen and ____% nitrogen by mole numbers.

A. 30 % and 70 %
B. 21 % and 79 % *
C. 70 % and 30 %
D. 79 % and 21 %

Ans. B
 44. When H2O in the products of combustion
is in liquid form, the heating value is known as

A. higher heating value

B. lower heating value
C. low and medium heating value
D. average heating value

Ans. A
 45. An adiabatic process
A. allows heat transfer into the system but not out
of the system.
B. B. allows heat transfer out of the system but not
into the system.
C. may be reversible.
D. is one in which enthalpy remains unchanged.

Ans. C
 46. Which of the following has a pressure
higher than the saturation pressure
corresponding to the existing temperature.

A. Saturated liquid
B. Superheated vapor
C. Compressed liquid
D. Saturated vapor

Ans. C
 47. Which of the following represents the
highest pressure and highest temperature at
which liquid and vapor can co-exist in
equilibrium?
A. Triple
B. Critical point
C. Boiling point
D. Melting point

Ans. B
48. At critical point, the latent enthalpy of
vaporization is

A. minimum
B. maximum
C. zero
D. indeterminate

Ans. C
49. How many independent properties are
required to completely fix the equilibrium
state of a pure gaseous compound?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 2
D. 4

Ans. C
 51. Which of the following is true for
water at a reference temperature where
enthalpy is zero?
A. Internal energy is negative
B. Entropy is non – zero
C. Specific volume is zero
D. Vapor pressure is zero

Ans. A
52. How is the quality x of a liquid – vapor
mixture defined?
A. The fraction of the total volume that is
saturated vapor
B. The fraction of the total volume that is
saturated liquid
C. The fraction of the total mass that is saturated
vapor
D. The fraction of the total mass that is saturated
liquid

Ans. C
53. How does an adiabatic process compare
to an isentropic process?
A. Adiabatic: Heat transfer = 0 , Isentropic: Heat
transfer = 0
B. B. Adiabatic: Heat transfer = 0 , Isentropic:
Heat transfer = 0
C. Adiabatic: Reversible, Isentropic: Not
reversible
D. Both: Heat transfer = 0; Isentropic: Reversible*

Ans. D
 54. Which of the following is true for any
process?

•  

Ans. D
55. In any non quasi-static thermodynamic
process, the overall entropy of an isolated
system will
A. increase and then decrease
B. decrease and then increase
C. increase only
D. decrease only

Ans. C
56. Which of the following statements about
entropy is false?
A. Entropy of a mixture is greater than that of
its components under the same condition
B. An irreversible process increases entropy of
the universe
C. Net entropy change in any closed cycle is zero
D. Entropy of a crystal at 0 °F is zero

Ans. D
57. Equilibrium condition exist in all
except which of the following?
A. In reversible processes
B. In processes where driving forces are
infinitesimals
C. In a steady state flow process
D. Where nothing can occur without an
effect on the system’s surrounding

Ans. C
 58. The properties that are dependent upon
the mass of the system and are total values
such as total volume and total internal energy.
A. Intensive properties
B. Extensive properties
C. Specific properties
D. State properties

Ans. B
 59. The properties that are independent of
the mass of the system such as temperature,
pressure, density and voltage.

A. Intensive properties
B. Specific properties
C. Extensive properties
D. State properties

Ans. A
60. The device that measure temperature by
the electromotive force called thermocouple
was discovered by :

A. Galileo
B. Celsius
C. Fahrenhiet
D. Seebeck

Ans. D
61. The triple point of a substance is the
temperature and pressure at which:
A. the solid and liquid phases are in equilibrium
B. the liquid and gaseous phases are in
equilibrium
C. the solid, liquid and the gaseous phases are
in equilibrium
D. the solid does not melt, the liquid does not
boil and the gas does not condense

Ans. D
 65. Which of the following properties are
intensive properties?
I. Temperature II. pressure
III. Composition IV. Mass
A. I only
B. IV only
C. I, II, and III
D. I and IV

Ans. C
66. Which of the following thermodynamic
relations is incorrect?

A. TdS = dU + pdV
B. Tds = dH – Vdp
C. U = Q – W
D. H = U –pV

Ans. D
 POWER & INDUSTRIAL PLANT ENGINEERING

THERMODYNAMICS 03
PSE MODULE 12.3 (SOLUTION)
5. Which of the following is true for water at a
reference temperature where enthalpy is
zero?
A. Internal energy is negative
B. Entropy is non – zero
C. Specific volume is zero
D. Vapor pressure is zero

Answer: A
 7. Which of the following is the basis for
Bernoulli’s law for fluid flow?

A. The principle of conservation of mass

B. The principle of conservation of energy
C. The continuity equation
D. Fourier’s law

Answer: B
 12. How is the quality x of a liquid – vapor
mixture defined?
A. The fraction of the total volume that is saturated
vapor
B. The fraction of the total volume that is saturated
liquid
C. The fraction of the total mass that is saturated
vapor
D. The fraction of the total mass that is saturated
liquid

Answer: C
  

A. compressed liquid
B. indeterminate – may be saturated liquid
C. indeterminate wet -vapor or saturated vapor.
D. superheated

Ans. A
 17. How does an adiabatic process
compare to an isentropic process?
A. Adiabatic: Heat transfer = 0 , Isentropic: Heat
transfer = 0
B. Adiabatic: Heat transfer = 0 , Isentropic: Heat
transfer = 0
C. Adiabatic: Reversible, Isentropic: Not reversible
D. Both: Heat transfer = 0; Isentropic: Reversible

Answer: D
18. Which of the following is true for any
process?

•  

Answer: D
20. Which of the following is not an advantage
of a superheated, closed Rankine cycle over an
open Rankine cycle ?
A. Lower equipment cost
B. Increased efficiency
C. Increased turbine life
D. Increased boiler life

Answer: D
24. A substance is oxidized when which of
the following occurs?

A. It turns red
B. It loses electrons
C. It gives off heat
D. It absorbs energy

Answer: B
28. The Fahrenheit scale was introduced by
Gabriel Fahrenheit of Amstermdam, Holland
in what year?
A. 1592
B. 1742
C. 1730
D. 1720

Answer: D
 30. The National Bureau of Standards uses,
among others, the liquid – vapor equilibrium
of Nitrogen at
A. –196 °C
B. 196 °C
C. 253 °C
D. –253 °C

Answer: A
33. The Clapeyron’s equation is applicable to :

A. 1 system in equilibrium
B. a change of state
C. a change of state when two phases are
in equilibrium
D. a change of state when water and water
vapor are involved

Answer: C
 34. The vapor pressure is related to the
enthalpy of vaporization by the :

A. Clausius - Claypeyron’s equation

B. Dalton’s law
C. Raoult’s law
D. Maxwell’s equation

Answer: A
38. The National Bureau of Standards
uses, among others, the liquid – vapor
equilibrium of hydrogen at
A. –196 °C
B. 196 °C
C. 253 °C
D. –253 °C

Answer: D
 39. The properties that are dependent upon
the mass of the system and are total values
such as total volume and total internal energy.
A. Intensive properties
B. Extensive properties
C. Specific properties
D. State properties

Answer: B
40. The Centigrade scale was introduced
by Anders Celsius in what year?
A. 1542
B. 1740
C. 1730
D. 1720

Answer: B
41. The solid - liquid equilibrium of Zinc is at
what temperature?

A. 231.9 °C
B. 419.505 °C
C. 444.60 °C
D. 630.5 °C

Answer: B
 42. The solid – liquid equilibrium of
Tungsten is at what temperature?

A. 3730 °C
B. 3370 °C
C. 3073 °C
D. 3037 °C

Answer: B
44. Which of the following statements regarding
Rankine cycle is not true ?
A. Use of a condensable vapor in the cycle increases the
efficiency of the cycle
B. The temperatures at which energy is transferred to
and from the working liquid are less separated than
in a Carnot cycle
C. Superheating increases the efficiency of a Rankine
cycle
D. In practical terms, the susceptibility of the engine
materials to corrosion is not a key limitation on the
operating efficiency
Answer: D
45. Equation of state for a single component
can be any of the following except________.
A. the ideal gas law
B. any relationship interrelating 3 or more state
functions
C. relationship mathematically interrelating
thermodynamic properties of the material
D. A mathematical expression defining a path
between states

Answer: D
46. In any non quasi-static thermodynamic
process, the overall entropy of an isolated
system will ___________.

A. increase and then decrease

B. decrease and then increase
C. increase only
D. decrease only

Answer: C
47. Which of the following statements about
entropy is false?
A. Entropy of a mixture is greater than that of
its components under the same condition
B. An irreversible process increases entropy of
the universe
C. Net entropy change in any closed cycle is zero
D. Entropy of a crystal at 0 °F is zero

Answer: D
 48. Equilibrium condition exist in all except
which of the following?

A. In reversible processes
B. In processes where driving forces are
infinitesimals
C. In a steady state flow process
D. Where nothing can occur without an effect
on the system’s surrounding

Answer: C
49. The liquid - vapor equilibrium of Oxygen
is at what temperature?

A. 197.82 °C
B. –197.82 °C
C. 182.97 °C
D. –182.97 °C

Answer: D
50. The solid - liquid equilibrium of Mercury
is at what temperature?
A. 38.87 °C
B. –38.87 °C
C. 37.88 °C
D. –37.88 °C

Answer: B
51. The solid - liquid equilibrium of silver
is at what temperature?
A. 630.5 °C
B. 960.8 °C
C. 1063 °C
D. 1774 °C

Answer: B
52. The solid - liquid equilibrium of Gold is at
what temperature?

A. 630.5 °C
B. 960.8 °C
C. 1063 °C
D. 1774 °C

Answer: C
53. The solid - liquid equilibrium of Platinum
is at what temperature?

A. 630.5 °C
B. 960.8 °C
C. 1063 °C
D. 1774 °C

Answer: D
54. The emf is a function of the temperature
difference between the junction, a
phenomenon called :
A. Seebeck effect
B. Stagnation effect
C. Primming
D. Electromotive force

Answer: A
55. The RMS velocity of hydrogen gas at
N.T.P. is approximately _______.

A. 3838 m/s
B. 1839 m/s
C. 4839 m/s
D. 839 m/s

Answer: B
56. For steam nozzle, which of the following
ratios will have the value less than unity?

A. (Pressure at inlet)/(Pressure at outlet)

B. Specific volume at inlet/(Specific volume at
outlet)
C. Temperature of steam at inlet/(Temperature
of steam at outlet)
D. None of the above

Answer: B
 57. Which is not correct for calculating air
standard efficiency?
A. All processes are reversible
B. Specific heat remains unchanged at all
temperatures
C. No account of the mechanism of heat
transfer is considered
D. Gases dissociate at higher temperatures

Answer: D
 58. The Beattie-Bridgeman equation of
state is quite accurate in cases of :

A. all pressures above atmospheric pressure

B. densities less than about 0.8 times the critical
density
C. near critical temperature
D. none of the above

Answer: B
59. Which of the following statement about
Van der Waals equation is correct?

A. It is valid for all pressures and temperatures

B. It represents a straight line on PV versus V
plot
C. It has three roots of identical value at the
critical point
D. The equation is valid for diatomic gases only

Answer: C
 60. Solubility of a gas in a liquid at small
concentration can be represented by which law ?

A. Henry’s law
B. Clausius – Clapeyron’s equation
C. Dalton’s law
D. Roult’s law

Answer: A
61. A compound pressure gauge is used to
measure:

A. complex pressures
B. variable pressures
C. average pressures
D. positive and negative pressures

Answer: D
62. Which of the engine is used for fighter
bombers?

A. Turboprop
B. Turbojet
C. Ramjet
D. Pulsejet

Answer: B
63. The reaction of inertia in an accelerated
body is called :

A. Kinetic reaction
B. Endothermic reaction
C. Kinematic reaction
D. Dynamic reaction

Answer: A
 65. All processes below are irreversible
except one. Which one?

A. Magnetization with hysteresis

B. Elastic tension and release of a steel bar
C. Inelastic deformation
D. Heat conduction

Answer: B
 66. The combination of conditions that best describes a
thermodynamic process is given by which of the following?
I. Has successive states through which the system passes
II. When reversed leaves no change in the system
III. When reversed leaves no change in the system or the
surroundings
IV. States are passes through so quickly that the surroundings do
not change
A.I and II
B.I and III
C.I and IV
D.I only
Answer: D
67. During stagnation process, the kinetic energy of
a fluid is converted to enthalpy which results in an:

A. increase in the fluid specific volume

B. increase in the fluid pressure
C. increase in the fluid temperature and
pressure
D. increase in the fluid temperature

Answer: C
 68. Critical properties refer to
A. extremely important properties, such as
temperature and pressure
B. B. heat required for phase change and
important for energy production
C. property values where liquid and gas phase are
indistinguishable
D. properties having to do with equilibrium
conditions, such as the Gibbs and Helmholtz
functions.

Answer: C
 69. For a saturated vapor, the relationship
between temperature and pressure is given by:

A. the perfect gas law

B. Van der Waal’s equation
C. the steam table
D. a Viral equation of state

Answer: C
70. Properties of non - reacting gas mixtures
are given by :

A. geometric weighting
B. volumetric weighting
C. volumetric weighting for molecular weight
and density, and geometric weighting for all
other properties except entropy
D. arithmetic average

Answer: C
71. The relationship between the total volume
of a mixture of non – reacting gases and their
partial volume is given by :
A. gravimetric fractions
B. Amagat’s law
C. Dalton’s law
D. mole fractions

Answer: B
 72. Which of the following is the best definition
of enthalpy?
A. The ratio of heat added to the temperature
increases in a system
B. The amount of useful energy in a system*
C. The amount of energy no longer available to
the system
D. The heat required to cause a complete
conversion between two phases at a constant
temperature

Answer: B
 74. Which of the following statements is not
true for real gases?
A. Molecules occupy a volume not negligible in
comparison to the total volume of gas
B. Real gases are subjected to attractive forces
between molecules (e.g., Van der Waal’s
forces)
C. The law of corresponding states may be used
for real gases
D. Real gases are found only rarely in nature*

Answer: D
75. The stagnation state is called the isentropic
stagnation state when the stagnation process
is____________.

A. reversible as well dynamic

B. isotropic
C. adiabatic
D. reversible as well as adiabatic

Answer: D
76. The entropy of a fluid remains constant
during what process?

A. polytropic stagnation process

B. unsteady stagnation process
C. combustion process
D. isentropic stagnation process

Answer: D
 78. All of the following processes are
irreversible except_________.

A. stirring of a viscous fluid

B. an isentropic deceleration of a moving
perfect fluid
C. an unrestrained expansion of a gas
D. phase changes

Answer: B
 79. All of the following processes are
irreversible except _______.

A. chemical reactions
B. diffusion
C. current flow through an electrical
resistance
D. an isentropic compression of a perfect gas

Answer: D
 80. All of the following processes are
irreversible except:

A. magnetization with hysteresis

B. elastic tension and release of a steel bar
C. inelastic deformation
D. heat conduction

Answer: B
81. Which of the following state(s) is/are necessary
for a system to be in thermodynamic equilibrium?

A. Chemical equilibrium
B. Thermal equilibrium
C. Mechanical equilibrium
D. Chemical, mechanical, and thermal
equilibrium

Answer: D
83. The liquid - vapor equilibrium of Sulfur is
at what temperature?

A. 231.9 °C
B. 419.505 °C
C. 444.60 °C
D. 630.5 °C

Answer: C
84. The solid - liquid equilibrium of Antimony
is at what temperature?

A. 630.5 °C
B. 419.505 °C
Answer: A
C. 444.60 °C
D. 231.9 °C

Answer: A
86. According to Pettlier Thomson effect:
A. It is impossible to construct a heat engine that operates in
a cycle and receives a given quantity of heat from a high
temperature body and does an equal amount of work
B. It is impossible to construct a device that operates in a
cycle and produces no effect other than the transfer of
heat from a cooler body to hotter body
C. When two dissimilar metals are heated at one end and
cooled at other, e.m.f. that is developed is proportional to
difference of temperatures at two ends
D. Work can’t be converted into heat

Answer: D
88. The properties that are independent of the mass
of the system such as temperature, pressure,
density and voltage.

A. Intensive properties
B. Extensive properties
C. Specific properties
D. State properties

Answer: A
89. The properties for a unit mass and are
intensive by definition such as specific
volume.
A. Intensive properties
B. Extensive properties
C. Specific properties
D. Thermodynamic properties

Answer: C
 90. The ratio of the gas constant to
Avogadro’s number is:

A. Maxwell’s constant
B. Boltzmann’z constant
C. Napier’s constant
D. Joule’s constant

Answer: B
92. The device that measure temperature by
the electromotive force called thermocouple
was discovered by :

A. Galileo
B. Fahrenhiet
C. Celsius
D. Seebeck

Answer: D
 93. The triple point of a substance is the
temperature and pressure at which_________.

A. the solid and liquid phases are in equilibrium

B. the liquid and gaseous phases are in
equilibrium
C. the solid, liquid and the gaseous phases are
in equilibrium
D. the solid does not melt, the liquid does not
boil and the gas does not condense

Answer: D
 94. According to Clausius statement
A. Heat flows from hot substance to cold
substance, unaided
B. Heat cannot flow from cold substance to hot
substance
C. Heat can flow from cold substance to hot
substance with the aid of external work
D. A and C *

Answer: D
97. The properties of fluid at the stagnation
in state are called _____.

A. stagnation property
B. stagnation phase
C. stagnation state
D. stagnation vapor

Answer: C
 98. A specific property

A. defines a specific variable (e.g.,

temperature)
B. is independent of mass
C. is an extensive property multiplied by mass
D. is dependent of the phase of the substance

Answer: A
 100. The device that measures
temperature by the electromotive force.
A. Thermometer
B. Thermocouple
C. electro-thermometer
D. thermoseebeck

Answer: B
FLUID MECHANICS 01
PSE MODULE 13.1
(SOLUTION)
 48. Which of the following refers to the
measure of the fluid’s resistance to flow when
acted upon by an external force?

A. Specific gravity
B. Coefficient of resistance.
C. Specific volume
D. Viscosity

Ans. D
49. Which of the following statements is NOT
correct?
A. Steady flow do not change with time at any
point
B. Bernoulli’s equation only holds on the same
streamline
C. The Reynolds number is the ratio of the
viscous force to the inertial force
D. For a fluid at rest, the pressure is equal in all
directions
Ans. C
50. Density in terms of viscosity is

A. kinematic viscosity / dynamic viscosity

B. dynamic viscosity / kinematic viscosity
C. kinematic viscosity x dynamic viscosity
D. none of the above

Ans. B
51. Liquids and gases take the following
characteristic(s) of their contents.

A. Volume
B. Shape and volume
C. Shape
D. Neither shape nor volume

Ans. C
 52. Which of the following statements
about a Newtonian fluid is most accurate?
A. Shear stress is proportional to strain
B. Viscosity is zero
C. Shear stress is multi – valued
D. Shear stress is proportional to rate of
strain

Ans. D
 53. The normal stress is the same in all
directions at a point in fluid:
A. independent of the motion of one fluid layer
relative to an adjacent layer
B. when there is no motion of one fluid layer
relative to an adjacent layer
C. only if the fluid is frictionless
D. only if fluid is frictionless and incompressible

Ans. B
 54. Under which condition, the specific
weight of water is 1000 kg/m3 ?

A. at normal pressure of 760 mm

B. at 4°C temperature
C. at mean sea level
D. all of these

Ans. D
55. A vena contracta in a fluid jet issuing through a
hole in a plate is located approximately :

A. 10 diameters downstream of the hole

B. at jet’s minimum diameter
C. at the orifice minimum diameter
D. at the orifice maximum diameter

Ans. B
 56. For partially submerged objects to be
stable, where does the metacenter be located?

A. Above the center of gravity

B. Below the center of gravity
C. To the left of the center of gravity
D. To the right of the center of gravity

Ans. A
 57. A hydrometer scale for measuring the
relative density (specific gravity) of liquids.

A. Beckman scale
B. Beaufort scale
C. Baume scale
D. Buckley scale

Ans. C
58. It refers to the fractional change in the volume
of a fluid per unit change in pressure in a constant
temperature process. Which one?

A. Proportional limit
B. Compressibility
C. Bulk modulus
D. Capillarity

Ans. B
59. An instrument which is used to determine
the specific gravity of a substance?

A. Hydrometer
B. Odometer
C. Calorimeter
D. None of these

Ans. A
 67. Which of the following statements is
TRUE about a fluid?

A. It has a very regular molecular structure

B. It is a liquid only
C. It cannot sustain a shear force at rest
D. It can strain

Ans. C
68. Which of the following is an
absolute property of liquid?

A. Density
B. specific weight
C. specific gravity
D. weight density

Ans. A
69. Which of the following is not a unit of
viscosity?

A. SSU ( Saybolt Second Universal )

B. Stokes
C. Poise
D. Baume’

Ans. D
71. What do you call the pressure which the
fluid exerts on an immersed object or
container walls?
A. Normal pressure
B. Standard liquid pressure
C. Hydrostatic pressure
D. Gage pressure

Ans. C
72. Viscosity for a fluid is define as the constant
of proportionality between shear stress and
what other variable?

A. The spatial derivative of velocity

B. The time derivative of pressure
C. The time derivative of density
D. The spatial derivative of density

Ans. A
73. SI unit of viscosity Pa-s is :

A. 10 times poise
B. 1 / 9.81 times poise
C. 9.81 times poise
D. 1 / 10 times poise

Ans. A
76. The hydraulic radius of noncircular pipe is :

A. the square root of the flow area

B. the ratio of the area to the wetted
perimeter
C. the radius of a pipe of equivalent area
D. none of the above

Ans. B
77. Absolute viscosity of a fluid varies with the
pressure and temperature and is defined as a
function of

A. density and angular deformation rate

B. density and shear stress
C. shear stress and angular deformation rate
D. density, shear stress and angular
deformation rate

Ans. C
78. According to Archimedes’ principle, the buoyant
force on a submerged object is equal to which of the
following?
A. Weight of the fluid not being displaced
B. Weight of the displaced fluid
C. Weight of the object above the fluid surface
D. Weight of the fluid displaced and the total
weight of the object

Ans. B
 79. On a stationary floating object, the buoyant
force acts upward through the centroid of the
displaced volume. What do you call this centroid?

A. Center of pressure
B. Center of buoyancy
C. Center of volume
D. Center of mass

Ans. B
80. In tubes having very small diameters, liquids are observed
to rise or fall relative to the level of the surrounding liquid.
What do you call this phenomenon?

A. Fluidity
B. Surface tension
C. Capillarity
D. Viscosity

Ans. C
81. The following are the basic components of
a fluid element in motion. Which one is NOT
included?
A. Translation
B. Rotation
C. Twist
D. Volume distortion

Ans. C
82. Which of the following is the dominating
cause of viscosities of liquids?

A. molecular cohesion
B. molecular adhesion
C. molecular randomness
D. molecular spacing

Ans. A
83. This principle states that where the velocity of
a fluid is high, the pressure is low, and where the
velocity is low, the pressure is high. Which one?

A. Bernoulli’s principle
B. Archimedes principle
C. Stoke’s principle
D. Torricelli’s principle

Ans. A
 84. Viscosity for a fluid is define as the
constant of proportionality between shear
stress and what other variable?
A. The spatial derivative of velocity
B. The time derivative of pressure
C. The time derivative of density
D. The spatial derivative of density

Ans. A
 86. Which of the following devices is used
for measuring the absolute pressure of the
atmosphere?
A. Venturi tube
B. Bolometer
C. Barometer
D. Manometer

Ans. C
87. A load from a faucet comes out in separate
drops. Which of the following is the main cause
of this phenomenon?

A. Gravity
B. Surface tension
C. Viscosity of the fluid
D. Air tension

Ans. B
90. Kinematic viscosity can be expressed
in which of the following units?

•  

Ans. A
91. Which of the following does not affect
the rise and fall of liquid in a small-
diameter capiliary tube?
A. Adhesive forces
B. Cohesive forces
C. surface tension
D. viscosity of liquid

Ans. D
94. Which of the following statements concerning
buoyancy are false?
I. Buoyance is the tendency of a fluid to exert a supporting force on a
body placed in that fluid.
II. Buoyancy is the ability of a body to return to its original position after
being titled on its horizontal axis.
III. The buoyant force is measured by multiplying the specific weight of
the oblect by the displaced volume of the fluid.
IV. Buoyant forces occur both when an object floats in a fluid and when
an object sinks in a fluid.
V. The buoyant force acts vertically upward through the centroid of the
displaced volume.
A. I,II and III C. I and V
B. III,IV and V D. II and III
Ans. D
FLUID MECHANICS 02
PSE MODULE 13.2
(SOLUTION)
 15. Which of the following statements is
correct for oils of high viscosity index?
A. Oil will immediately reacts in small
temperature change
B. It continuously increase its viscosity even if
there is no change in temperature
C. It has fixed viscosity
D. slight change in its viscosity with extreme
temperature change

Ans. D
16. One could expect the possibility of Reynolds
number similarity in all of the following cases
except:

A. Pumps
B. Turbines
C. Fans
D. weirs

Ans. D
 30. Under which of the following
conditions is Bernoulli’s equation valid?
A. all points evaluated must be on the
same streamline
B. the fluid must be incompressible
C. the fluid must be inviscid
D. all of the above

Ans. D
 37. Under what conditions is mass
conserved in fluid flow?

A. The fluid is baratropic

B. The flow is isentropic
C. The flow is adiabatic
D. It is always conserved

Ans. D
38. One could expect the possibility of
Froude number similarity in all of the
following cases except :
A. surface ships
B. surface wave motion
C. flow over weirs
D. closed - pipe turbulent pipe flow

Ans. D
39. One could expect the possibility of Froude
number similarity in all of the following cases
except :
A. motion of a fluid jet
B. flow over spillways
C. surge and flood waves
D. subsonic air foils

Ans. D
40. The fact that a fluid’s velocity increases
as the cross sectional area of the pipe
through which it flow decreases is due to:
A. Bernoull’s equation
B. the continuity equation
C. the momentum equation
D. the perfect gas law

Ans. B
41. When a falling object reaches a speed at
which the drag force equals its weight, it has
achieved:

A. Mach one
B. a laminar boundary
Ans. D layer
C. a turbulent boundary layer
D. terminal velocity

Ans. D
42. How does the Reynolds number of a 1/15
scale model relate to the Reynolds number of
a dimensionally similar prototype?
A. They are both equal
B. The Reynolds number of the prototype is 15
times lower
C. The Reynolds number of the prototype is 15
times lower
D. The Reynolds number of the model is a
function of the velocity ratio.

Ans. A
57. The coefficient if discharge is the
ratio of the:
A. area of vena contracta to the orifice area
B. actual discharge to the theoretical
discharge
C. actual velocity to the theoretical velocity
D. effective head to the actual head

Ans. B
58. The coefficient of velocity is equal to the :
A. Product of the coefficient of discharge and
the coefficient of contraction
B. Actual velocity divided by the theoretical
velocity
C. Sum of the coefficient of discharge and the
coefficient of contraction
D. Difference of the coefficient of discharge and
the coefficient of contraction

Ans. B
 59. In parallel pipe system originating and
terminating in common junctions,

A. mass flows through each branch are equal

B. pressure drops through each branch are
equal
C. lengths of each branch are equal
D. flow areas of each branch are equal

Ans. B
60. Venturi meters, pitot static gauges, orifice meters,
flow nozzles, and differential manometers all depend
upon the relationship between:

A. flow velocity and friction

B. flow velocity and pressure
C. friction and pressure
D. pressure and mass flow

Ans. B
61. Expansion factors take into account the:
A. area of the vena contracta
B. small effect of friction and turbulence of
the orifice
C. changes in diameters of a converging pipe
D. effects of compressibility

Ans. D
62. The matching of scale model and full - scale
results for a fluid dynamic phenomena with a
free surface requires equality of :

A. Reynolds number
B. Froude number
C. Weber number
D. Cauchy number

Ans. B
 63. The matching of scale model and full - scale
prototype results for a fluid dynamic phenomena
involving surface tension requires equality of :

A. Reynolds number
B. Froude number
C. Weber number
D. Cauchy number

Ans. A
64. All of the following are forms of drag
on a body moving through a fluid
except:
A. skin friction
B. profile drag
C. wake drag
D. d’ Alembert’s paradox drag

Ans. D
65. Which of the following refers to the measure
of a fluid’s sensitivity to changes in viscosity with
changes in temperature?

A. Viscosity index
B. Viscosity ratio
C. Coefficient of viscosity
D. Viscosity factor

Ans. A
66. Which of the following ratios
describes Reynolds number?
A. Inertial forces / Viscous forces
B. Drag forces / Buoyant forces
C. Buoyant forces / Inertial forces
D. Viscous forces / Drag forces

Ans. A
67. What is the classification of the fluid flow if
the fluid travels parallel to the adjacent layers
and the paths of the individual particles do not
cross each other?
A. Steady flow
B. Uniform flow
C. Laminar flow
D. Turbulent flow

Ans. C
 68. What is the reciprocal of absolute
viscosity?

A. Viscosity gradient
B. Fluidity
C. Compressibility
D. Viscosity index

Ans. B
69. A vena contracta in a fluid jet issuing
through a hole in a plate is located
approximately:
A. 10 diameters downstream of the hole
B. at jet’s minimum diameter
C. at the orifice minimum diameter
D. at the orifice maximum diameter

Ans. B
70. Which of the following is the other name
of velocity gradient?

A. strain rate
B. shear rate
C. rate of shear formation
D. All of these

Ans. D
71. Alcohol finds use in manometers as :
A. it provides a suitable meniscus for the inclined
tube
B. its density being less can provide longer length
for a pressure difference, thus more accuracy
can be obtained
C. A and B above are correct
D. Cheap and easily available

Ans. C
POWER CYCLES / ICE
PSE MODULE 14.1
(SOLUTION)
 45. Which of the following is the
measure of the randomness of the
molecules of a substance?
A. Enthalpy
B. Internal energy
C. Entropy
D. Heat

Ans. C
46. Both Stirling and Ericsson engines are

A. internal combustion engines

B. external combustion engines
C. Carnot engines Ans. B
D. Brayton engines

Ans. B
47. If an initial volume of saturated steam
is expanded isothermally to twice the
initial volume, the pressure
A. Decreases
B. halves
C. increases
D. doubles

Ans. A
49. In Stirling engine, the heat is added during

A. isothermal process
B. isobaric process
C. isometric process
D. isentropic process

Ans. A
 50. Heat exchanger used to provide heat
transfer between the exhaust gases and the
air prior to its entrance to the combustor.
A. Evaporator
B. Regenerator
C. Combustion chamber
D. Heater

Ans. B
51. A constant volume combustion gas
turbine operates on

A. Ericsson cycle
B. Brayton cycle
C. Joule cycle
D. Atkinson cycle

Ans. D
52. Exhaust stroke of gasoline engine is also
known as

A. Supercharging
B. Scavenging
C. Choking
D. Knocking

Ans. B
 53. The ideal cycle based on the concept that the
combustion process is both diesel and gasoline in the
combination of heat transfer processes that is
constant pressure and constant volume.
A. Ericsson cycle
B. Brayton cycle
C. Dual cycle
D. Rankine cycle

Ans. C
 54. Otto cycle consists of
A. Two isentropic and two constant volume
processes
B. Two isentropic and two constant pressure
processes
C. Two adiabatic and two isothermal processes
D. Two isothermal and two constant volume
processes

Ans. A
55. When H2O in the products of
combustion is in liquid form, the
heating value is known as
A. higher heating value
B. lower heatingAns.value
A

C. low and medium heating value

D. average heating value

Ans. A
58. The products of complete combustion of
gaseous hydrocarbons.

A. Carbon dioxide and water

B. Carbon monoxide
C. Carbon monoxide, water and ammonia
D. Water, carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide

Ans. A
 65. Ericsson cycle has________.
A. Two isothermal and two constant pressure
processes
B. Two isothermal and two constant volume
processes
C. Two isothermal and two constant entropy
process
D. Two adiabatic, one constant volume and
constant pressure processes

Ans. A
 67. A Stirling cycle has
A. Two adiabatic and two constant volume
processes
B. Two adiabatic and two constant pressure
processes Ans. D
C. Two isothermal and two constant pressure
processes
D. Two isothermal and two constant volume
processes

Ans. D
  

A. thermodynamic efficiency is increased.

B. more work is done during the isentropic
compression.
C. more work is done during the isothermal
expansion.
D. more work is done during the reversible
adiabatic expansion.
Ans. A
74. An inventor proposes to develop electrical power
by withdrawing heat from the geyser fields of
northern California and converting it all to work in
power turbines. This scheme will not work because:

A. the geyser fields have only a limited lifetim

B. the salinity of the steam is too great
C. it violates the first law of thermodynamics
D. it violates the second law of thermodynamics

Ans. D
 76. All of the following mechanism can
supply heat to a thermodynamic system
except

A. conduction
B. natural convection
C. adiabatic expansion
D. radiation

Ans. C
85. Which of the following is an automatic
device used for keeping constant air
pressure?

A. relief valve
B. unloader
C. strainer
D. barometer

Answer: B
86. What is the other term of the
diameter of the circular cylinder ?
A. bore
B. stroke
C. swept volume
D. clearance

Answer: A
37. What do you call the maximum
distance traveled by the piston ?
A. bore
B. stroke
C. swept volume
D. clearance

Answer: B
 87. Which of the following is the
product of the cylinder area and stroke.
A. bore
B. stroke
C. swept volume
D. clearance

Answer: C
88. The ratio of the clearance volume
to the swept volume.

A. fractional clearance
B. compression ratio
C. expansion ratio
D. cut off ratio

Answer: A
89. The piston is at maximum reach from
the crankshaft to which of the following?

•  

Answer: A
 90. The piston is closest to the
crankshaft to which of the following?
•  

Answer: B
91. Which of the following engines where
the expanding combustion gases act on
one end of the piston ?
A. single acting engine
B. double acting engine
C. single expansion engine
D. double expansion engine

Answer: A
 92. Which of the following types of
engine where the expanding combustion
gases act on both ends of the piston?
A. single acting engine
B. double acting engine
C. single expansion engine
D. double expansion engine

Answer: B
 93. It is a device used for atomizing or cracking
fuel oil and through which the fuel oil is injected
into the working cylinders of Diesel engines.

A. atomizer
B. fuel spray nozzle
C. injector
D. cracker

Answer: A
94. In standard Diesel, thermal efficiency
was not much higher than about what
percent ?
A. 35 %
B. 30 %
C. 40 %
D. 50 %

Answer: A
95. A closed heat exchanger that transfers
heat from compressed air to cooler air.

A. regenerator
B. intercooler
C. aftercooler
D. reheater

Answer: C
96. Which of the following is used to improve
cold weather starting ?

A. poppet valve
B. glow plug
C. check valve
D. spark plug

Answer: B
97. The rated power that the manufacturer
claims the engine is able to provide on a
continuous basis without incurring damage.
A. brakepower
B. continuous duty rating
C. intermittent rating
D. power rating

Answer: B
98. How hot are the exhaust gases?

A. 400 to 700 F
B. 300 to 600 F
C. 200 to 500 F
D. 500 to 800 F

Answer: A
99. What is the peak power rating that can be
produced on an occasional basis?

A. brakepower
B. continuous duty rating
C. intermittent rating
D. power rating

Answer: C
100. Which of the following is the value of a
property that includes the effect of friction?

A. brake value
B. friction value
C. indicated value
D. actual value

Answer: A
 GAS TURBINES AND
FUELS & COMBUSTION
PSE MODULE 15.1 (SOLUTION)
6. Which of the following compressors is
generally used for gas turbines?

A. lobe type
B. centrifugal type
C. axial flow type
D. reciprocating type

Answer: C
7. What type of gas turbine is used in air
craft?
A. Open cycle type
B. Closed cycle type with reheating
C. Closed type with reheating and regeneration
D. Open cycle type with reheating, regeneration
and intercooling

Answer: A
 10. In a gas turbine combined cycle
plant, a waste heat boiler is used to :
A. heat air from intercooler
B. gases from regenerator
C. recover heat from exhaust gases
D. none of the above

Answer: C
 11. Overall efficiency of a gas turbine is
_____________.

A. equal to Carnot cycle efficiency

B. equal to Rankine cycle efficiency
C. less than Diesel cycle efficiency
D. more than Otto or Diesel cycle efficiency

Answer: C
 13. Brayton cycle cannot be used in
reciprocating engines even for same adiabatic
compression ratio and work output because :
A. Otto cycle is highly efficient
B. Brayton cycle is less efficient
C. Brayton cycle is for slow speed engines only
D. large volume of low pressure air cannot be
efficiently handled in reciprocating engines

Answer: D
 15. Which of the following turbine has least
weight per bhp developed?

A. Simple open cycle gas turbine

B. Open cycle gas turbine with inter-cooling and
reheating
C. Open cycle gas turbine with inter - cooling,
reheating and regenerating
D. Closed cycle gas turbine

Answer: A
19. A constant volume combustion gas
turbine operates on :
A. Ericsson cycle
B. Brayton cycle
C. Joule cycle
D. Atkinson cycle

Answer: D
20. Combustion turbines or gas turbines
are the preferred combustion engines
in application much above _________.
A. 8 MW
B. 9 mW
C. 10 MW
D. 7 MW

Answer: C
21. Large units gas turbine regularly operate :

A. in 100 to 200 MW range

B. over 150 MW
C. in 50 t0 100 MW range
D. below 150 MW

Answer: A
 23. What is the residue left after
combustion of a fossil fuel?

A. Charcoal
B. Ash
C. Scraper
D. All of the choices

Answer: B
25. A theorem that states that the total property of a
mixture of ideal gases is the sum of the properties
that the individual gases would have if each occupied
the total mixture volume alone as the same
temperature.
A. Gibbs theorem
B. Dalton’s theorem
C. Boltzmann’s theorem
D. Maxwell’s theorem

Answer: A
27. What fuel gas obtained by the destructive
distillation of soft coal ?

A. Gas scrub
B. Coal gas
C. Alcogas
D. Water gas

Answer: B
 32. All of the following are true of non-
stoichiometric reactions except _______.

A. there is an excess of one or more reactants

B. the percentage yield measures the efficiency of
the reaction
C. non - stoichiometric reactions are rare in the
combustion process*
D. in combustion, air is often the excess reactant
to assure complete combustion of fuel

Answer: C
  

A. 1 to 26
B. 2 to 54
C. 2 to 26
D. 1 to 54

Answer: A
35. A mixture of hydrogen and carbon
monoxide made by passing steam over
hot coke.
A. Water gas
B. Water vapor
C. hydrocarbon
D. Air

Answer: A
 49. Which of the following chemical
reactions in which heat is absorbed?

A. Heat reaction
B. Endothermic reaction
C. Exothermic reaction
D. Combustion reaction

Answer: B
 53. Rare gases such as helium, argon,
krypton, xenon and radon that are non -
reactive are called _____.
A. Non - reactants
B. Stop gases
C. Inert gases
D. Residual gases

Answer: C
55. A chemical reaction in which
heat is given off.

A. Heat reaction
B. Endothermic reaction
C. Exothermic reaction
D. Combustion reaction

Answer: C
 67. Naphthenes and olefins are types of
hydrocarbons with chemical formula of_____.

•  

Answer: A
  

A. Diolefins
B. Aromatics
C. Asphaltics
D. Paraffins

Answer: A
73. A fuel gas obtained by the destructive
distillation of soft coal is called ________.

A. Gas scrub
B. Coal gas
C. Alcogas
D. Water gas

Answer: B
 74. Removing of impurities from a gas by
bubbling it through a liquid purifying agent is
called _______.

A. Gas scrubbing
B. Gas purifying
C. Gas liquefying
D. Gas bubbling

Answer: A
78. A finely divided carbon deposit by the
smoke or flame is called________.

A. Fly ash
B. Soot
C. Residue
D. All of the choices

Answer: B
80. What kind of bonding do common gases
that exist in free state as diatomic molecules
experiences?
A. Ionic bonds
B. Covalent bonds
C. Metallic bonds
D. Nuclear bonds

Answer: B
82. The process of separating two or more
liquids by means of the difference in their
boiling point.
A. Engler distillation
B. Fractional distillation
C. Gas scrubbing
D. Fractional crystallization

Answer: B
84. What is the chemical formula of an
Aromatic type of hydrocarbon fuels ?

•  

Answer: A
86. At atmospheric condition, hydrocarbon
molecules with a low number of carbon
atoms, 1 to 4 are________.

A. Liquids
B. Atomic
C. Gases
D. Light oils

Answer: C
87. Hydrocarbons with 5 to 15 carbon atoms
are_____________.

A. more or less volatile light oils

B. referred to as heavy oils
C. mixtures of many kinds of hydrocarbons
D. commercial fuels

Answer: A
  

A. Diolefins
B. Aromatics
C. Asphaltics
D. Paraffins

Answer: C
 97. The residual oil left after the distillation of
gasoline and kerosene from crude petroleum;
yellow to brown oil, used as a diesel fuel and for
enriching water gas.
A. Diesel oil
B. Gasoline oil
C. LPG
D. Gas oil

Answer: D
99. The general chemical formula of
a paraffin fuel is_____________.
•  

Answer: C
  

A. 1 to 26
B. 2 to 54
C. 2 to 26
D. 1 to 54

Answer: B
FLUID MACHINERIES
PSE MODULE 16.1
(SOLUTION)
 3. In case of axial flow compressors for minimum fluid
friction and blade tip clearance losses, the blades of an
axial flow compressor are designed for

A. 80% reaction
B. 85% reaction
C. 60% reaction
D. 53% reaction

Answer: D
 4.For a six compression of air set, the
minimum work conditions are_____.
A. pressure rise per stage will be equal
B. work done in successive stages will be in
geometrical progression
C. cylinder volumes will be same
D. temperature rise in the cylinders will be the
same

Answer: D
 6. Most permanent installations use piston
compressors available as stock items of what
pressure ?

A. 150 psi
B. 200 psi
C. 250 psi
D. 300 psi

Answer: A
7. A condenser’s water - circulating pump is belt-
driven by an electric motor with an adjustable
pitch motor sheave. This sheave
A. permits adjustment of pump speed
B. prevent overload and/or burnout of the
pump and motor
C. prevents excessive wear on the belt and
motor shaft bearings
D. facilitates belt replacement

Answer: C
8. A single suction pump having its suction nozzle on
the opposite side of the casing from the stuffing box
and having the face of the suction nozzle
perpendicular to the longitudinal axis of the shaft.

A. Centrifugal pump
B. End suction pump
C. In line pump
D. Horizontal pump

Answer: B
 10. An underground formation that contains
sufficient saturated permeable material to yield
significant quantities of water.

A. Aquifer
B. Wet pit
C. Ground water
D. Well water

Answer: A
 16. Choking is___________________.

A. change of mass flow rate in proportion to

pressure ratio
B. change of mass flow rate in inverse
proportion to pressure ratio
C. fixed mass flow rate irrespective of pressure
ratio
D. all of the above

Answer: C
 17. Most plant air systems to operate the tools and
machines which require 70 to 90 psig are maintained
at _______.

A. 90 to 110 psig
B. 110 to 130 psig
C. 130 to 150 psig
D. 70 to 90 psig

Answer: B
18. The capacity of portable air compressors
used for construction, mining, road building,
and painting ranges from ________.

•  

Answer: A
 19. The power of portable air compressors
used for construction, mining, road building,
and painting ranges from
•  

Answer: B
20. Most permanent installations use piston
compressors available as stock items in size
ranging from
•  

Answer: B
21. A timber, concrete or masonry enclosure having
a screened inlet kept partially filled with water by an
open body of water such as pond, lake, or steams.

A. Aquifer
B. Wet pit
C. Ground water
D. Well water

Answer: B
 29. Stalling of the blades of axial flow
compressor is________.

A. an unsteady periodic and reversal of flow

B. the fixed mass flow rate irrespective of
pressure ratio
C. the reduction in lift force at higher angle of
incidence
D. all of the above

Answer: C
30. Most plant air systems to operate the
tools and machines which require 70 to
90 psig are maintained at _______.
A. 90 to 110 psig
B. 110 to 130 psig
C. 130 to 150 psig
D. 70 to 90 psig

Answer: B
 56. An axial flow compressor is suitable
for_______________.

A. high volume flow rates with small pressure

rise
B. low volume flow rates with low pressure rise
C. high volume flow rates with high pressure
rise
D. low volume flow rates with high pressure rise

Answer: A
57. A single suction pump having its suction nozzle
on the opposite side of the casing from the stuffing
box and having the face of the suction nozzle
perpendicular to the longitudinal axis of the shaft.

A. Centrifugal pump
B. End suction pump
C. In line pump
D. Horizontal pump

Answer: B
 58. A pump with the shaft normally in a
horizontal position.

A. Centrifugal pump
B. End suction pump
C. In line pump
D. Horizontal pump

Answer: D
70. In air compressor performance curve a
surge line represents what?

A. Limit of compressor efficiency

B. Limit of compressor discharge
C. Limit of stable operation
D. Lower critical speed of shaft

Answer: C
 71. Which of the following is a
displacement compressor?

A. Reciprocating air compressor

B. Vane blower
C. Centrifugal blower
D. Axial flow compressors

Answer: B
 75. Stalling of the blades of axial flow
compressor is:

A. an unsteady periodic and reversal of flow

B. the fixed mass flow rate irrespective of
pressure ratio
C. the reduction in lift force at higher angle of
incidence
D. all of the above

Answer: C
76. In an axial flow compressor, the pressure
rise takes place in_____

A. fixed blades only

B. moving blades only
C. both fixed and moving blades
D. none of the above

Answer: C
 77. An axial flow compressor is suitable
for :
A. high volume flow rates with small pressure rise
B. low volume flow rates with low pressure rise
C. high volume flow rates with high pressure rise
D. low volume flow rates with high pressure rise

Answer: A
78. Which of the following is a positive
displacement rotary compressor?

A. Roots blower
B. Centrifugal compressor
C. Axial flow compressor
D. None of the above

Answer: A
 80. Water which is available from a well,
driven into water bearing subsurface strata
(aquifer)

A. Aquifer
B. Wet pit
C. Ground water
D. Well water

Answer: C
 81. The most common means of
throttling the leakage between the inside
and outside of the casing_____.
A. packing
B. gland
C. seal gage
D. mechanical seal

Answer: A
82. For supersonic flow, the pressure of fluid
must decrease as the fluid flow area of the
duct
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remain the same
D. none of these

Answer: A
84. Centrifugal blowers can supply ________.

A. large volumes of air at low pressures

B. small volumes of air at high pressures
C. large volumes of air at high pressures
D. small volumes of air at low pressures

Answer: A
85. Which of the following is a safety
device on a compressor?

A. Relief valve
B. Strainer
C. Over speed shut down
D. Over pressure shut down

Answer: A
 87. Which of the following is a
displacement compressor?
A. Reciprocating air compressor
B. Vane blower
C. Centrifugal blower
D. Axial flow compressors

Answer: B
88. The capacity of portable air compressors
used for construction, mining, road building,
and painting ranges from ________.

•  

Answer: A
 89. The power of portable air compressors
used for construction, mining, road building,
and painting ranges from_____.

•  

Answer: B
 94. A centrifugal pump whose drive unit is
supported by the pump having its suction and
discharge flanges on approximately the same
center.
A. Horizontal split case pump
B. End suction pump
C. In line pump
D. Vertical shaft turbine pump

Answer: C
95. A centrifugal pump characterized by a
housing which is split parallel to the shaft.

A. Horizontal split case pump

B. End suction pump
C. In line pump
D. Vertical shaft turbine pump

Answer: A
96. Axial fans are best suitable for application
of________.

A. Large flow, low head

B. Low flow, high head
C. High head, medium flow
D. Low flow, low head

Answer: A
 97. Of the following axial fan types ,
which of the following is most efficient?

A. Propeller
B. Vane axial
C. Tube axial
D. Radial

Answer: A
98. Which of the following fans that is more
suitable for high pressure application?
A. Propeller type fans
B. Backward curved centrifugal fan
C. Tube-axial fans
D. All of these

Answer: A
99. Which of the following types of pump
that does not belong to the group?

A. Direct Acting Steam Pump

B. Centrifugal Pump
C. Screw Rotary Pump
D. Diaphragm Pump

Answer: B
100. How do you call the formation and collapse
of vapor bubbles that occurswhen pump inlet
suction pressure falls to or below the vapor
pressure of the liquid?
A. sublimation
B. water hammer
C. oxidation
D. cavitation

Answer: D
DIESEL & HYDRO POWER
PSE MODULE 17.1
(SOLUTION)
3. What temperature is required to
ignite the fuel oil?

A. 800 to 1000 F
B. 700 to 900 F
C. 900 to 1100 F
D. 1000 to 1200 F

Answer: A
5. An engine in which the fuel is burned
directly within the working cylinder.

A. internal combustion engine

B. external combustion engine
C. compression ignition engine
D. spark ignition engine

Answer: A
 9. An engine in which the fuel is burned
outside of the power cylinder.

A. internal combustion engine

B. external combustion engine
C. compression ignition engine
D. spark ignition engine

Answer: B
13. An engine where the ignition is caused by heat
of compression.

A. internal combustion engine

B. external combustion engine
C. compression ignition engine
D. spark ignition engine

Answer: C
 16. At what temperature will self
igniting cartridges ignite?
A. About 200 F
B. About 190 F
C. About 210 F
D. About 250 F

Answer: B
21. What temperature should be the maximum
to which lubricating oil is permitted to rise?

A. not more than 100 F

B. not more than 200 F
C. not more than 300 F
D. not more than 400 F

Answer: A
 23. What air pressure is needed for air
starting a Diesel engine?

A. 250 psi
B. 150 psi
C. 350 psi
D. 450 psi

Answer: A
 25. The portion of the piston which extends
below the piston pin and serves as a guide for
the piston and connecting rod.

A. piston skirt
B. piston ring
C. piston scoring
D. piston seizure

Answer: A
26. Rings located in the grooves of the piston
usually near the top and near the bottom.

A. piston skirt
B. piston ring
C. piston scoring
D. piston seizure

Answer: B
28. A device which automatically governs
or controls the speed of an engine.

A. servomotor
B. governor
C. indicator
D. speedometer

Answer: B
32. A combination of liquids which do not mix
– or combine chemically.

A. emulsion
B. deposition
C. evaporation
D. separation

Answer: A
 36. What air pressure is required to
produce the required ignition temperature?

A. 350 to 500 psi

B. 250 to 400 psi
C. 450 to 600 psi
D. 150 to 300 psi

Answer: A
37. In a four stroke Diesel engine , drawing
air into the cylinder is what stroke?

A. first stroke
B. second stroke
C. third stroke
D. fourth stroke
Answer: A
 38. Clearing a cylinder of exhaust gases by
forcing into it a current of air which provides
clean air for the next compression stroke.

A. scavenging
B. supercharging
C. choking
D. knocking

Answer: A
39. Increasing the total amount of charging
air in the working cylinder of the engine.
A. scavenging
B. supercharging
C. choking
D. knocking

Answer: B
57. One could expect the possibility of
Reynolds number similarity in all of the
following cases except:

A. pumps
B. fans
C. turbines
D. weirs
Answer: D
58. One could expect the possibility of
Froude number similarity in all of the
following cases except :
A. surface ships
B. surface wave motion
C. flow over weirs
D. closed - pipe turbulent pipe flow

Answer: D
61. The following are all examples of
indirect (secondary) miscellaneous
methods to measure flow except :
A. turbine and propeller meters
B. magnetic flow meters
C. positive displacement meters
D. hot - wire anemometers

Answer: C
68. A vena contracta in a fluid jet issuing
through a hole in a plate is located
approximately :
A. 10 diameters downstream of the hole
B. at jet’s minimum diameter
C. at the orifice minimum diameter
D. at the orifice maximum diameter

Answer: B
69. One could expect the possibility of
Froude number similarity in all of the
following cases except :

A. motion of a fluid jet

B. flow over spillways
C. surge and flood waves
D. subsonic airfoils

Answer: D
78. The fact that a fluid’s velocity increases as
the cross sectional area of the pipe through
which it flow decreases is due to :

A. Bernoull’s equation
B. the continuity equation
C. the momentum equation
D. the perfect gas law

Answer: B
81. Compressing air in a four stroke cycle is

A. first stroke
B. second stroke
C. third stroke
D. fourth stroke

Answer: B
 83. Which of the following strokes is
produced by the burning gases.

A. first stroke
B. second stroke
C. third stroke
D. fourth stroke

Answer: C
 86. In parallel pipe system originating and
terminating in common junctions:

A. mass flows through each branch are equal

B. pressure drops through each branch are
equal
C. lengths of each branch are equal
D. flow areas of each branch are equal

Answer: B
 87. The following are examples of indirect
(secondary) measurements to measure flow
rates using obstruction meters except:

A. pitot static meters

B. static pressure probes
C. weight and mass scales
D. direction - sensing probes

Answer: C
89. Which of the following strokes expels the
burned gases?

A. first stroke
B. second stroke
C. third stroke
D. fourth stroke

Answer: D
 90. The fuel is supplied by one pump and
switched to each cylinder by a multi outlet
rotating valve or distributor.
A. distributor system
B. injector system
C. non injector system
D. non distributor system

Answer: A
93. When a falling object reaches a speed at
which the drag force equals its weight, it
has achieved :
A. Mach one
B. a laminar boundary layer
C. a turbulent boundary layer
D. terminal velocity

Answer: C
 94. The coefficient of discharge is the
ratio of the :

A. area of vena contracta to the orifice area

B. actual discharge to the theoretical
discharge
C. actual velocity to the theoretical velocity
D. effective head to the actual head

Answer: B
96. Binding of the piston and the cylinder wall as
a result of the lubrication having been destroyed
by excessive temperature and friction.

A. piston skirt
B. piston ring
C. piston scoring
D. piston seizure

Answer: D
98. Grooves in the cylinder wall or piston or in
both. It is caused by the piston scraping the
cylinder wall in its movement without proper
lubrication.
A. piston skirt
B. piston ring
C. piston scoring
D. piston seizure

Answer: C
 100. The coefficient of velocity is equal to the
:
A. product of the coefficient of discharge and the
coefficient of contraction
B. actual velocity divided by the theoretical velocity
C. sum of the coefficient of discharge and the
coefficient of contraction
D. difference of the coefficient of discharge and the
coefficient of contraction

Answer: B
STEAM POWER PLANT
PSE MODULE 18.1
(SOLUTION)
1. The turbine work and the pump work in a
Rankine cycle are 1200 kJ/kg and 20 kJ/kg
respectively. What is the efficiency of the
cycle if the heat generated by the generator
is 3000 kJ/kg ?
A. 36.77 %
B. 39.33 %
C. 35.45 %
D. 38.32 %

Ans. B
 3. What is the average fuel - oil
temperature range of the oil in the
discharge line to the boiler?

A. 180 – 200°F
B. 240 – 260°F
C. 160 – 180°F
D. 140 – 160°F

Answer: A
5. What is the highest pressure under
which distinguishable liquid and vapor
phases can exist in equilibrium?
A. Maximum pressure
B. Atmosphere
C. Critical pressure
D. Peak pressure

Answer: C
 8. Flows through the nozzles and
diffusers with increasing fluid velocity
will create an equivalent_________.
A. decrease in the static enthalpy of fluid
B. increase in the static enthalpy of fluid
C. decrease in the internal energy of fluid
D. decrease in the dynamic enthalpy of
fluid

Answer: A
13. A converging – diverging nozzle is
the standard equipment in ______.
A. subsonic aircraft
B. supersonic aircraft
C. hypersonic aircraft
D. trisonic aircraft

Answer: B
15. An increase in stagnation pressure will
increase the mass flux through the :
A. diverging nozzle
B. converging nozzle
C. converging - diverging nozzle
D. none of these

Answer: B
17. Is the locus of states which have the
same value of stagnation enthalpy and
mass flux are called ________.
A. Fanno Line
B. Straight Line
C. Willan’s Line
D. Cross Cut Line
Answer: A
 19. Combination of mass and momentum
equations into a single equation and plotted
in h-s plane yield a curve called _________.
A. Fair Line
B. Freh Line
C. Cutting Line
D. Rayleigh Line

Answer: D
 25. An inventor proposes to develop electrical
power by withdrawing heat from the geyser
fields of northern California and converting it all
to work in power turbines. This scheme will not
work because______.
A. the geyser fields have only a limited lifetime
B. the salinity of the steam is too great
C. it violates the first law of thermodynamics
D. it violates the second law of thermodynamics

Answer: D
28. In a condensing steam engine_____.
A. condensed steam is supplied
B. steam condenses inside cylinder
C. steam condenses as soon as it leaves
the cylinder
D. exhaust steam is condensed in a
condenser

Answer: D
31. For back pressure valves, abrupt changes in
fluid properties occur in a very thin section of
converging - diverging nozzle under supersonic
flow conditions, creating________.

A. sound wave
B. tidal wave
C. shock wave
D. none of these

Answer: C
 34. The flow through the nozzle
is______________.
A. isentropic
B. isobaric
C. polytropic
D. isovolumic

Answer: A
35. If the reservoir is sufficiently large, the
nozzle inlet velocity is_______

A. maximum
B. positive
C. negative
D. zero

Answer: D
 39. Which of the following shows the
relationship of the steam consumption
and the load of steam turbine -generator?

A. Dalton’s line
B. Willan’s line
C. Jonval’s line
D. Rankine line

Answer: B
41. Mechanism designed to lower the
temperature of air passing through it
_______.
A. Air cooler
B. Air spill over
C. Air defense
D. Air cycle

Answer: A
 43. A liquid boils when its vapor
pressure equals

A. the gage pressure

B. the critical pressure
C. the ambient pressure
D. one standard atmosphere

Answer: C
45. The lowest permissible water level of a
boiler without internal furnace is ___ the
height of the shell.
•  

Answer: B
46. In case of steam engine the cut off ratio is
the ratio of _______.

A. pressure at cut off to supply pressure

B. pressure at cut off to exhaust pressure
C. pressure at cut off to mean effective
pressure
D. fraction of piston stroke which the piston
has traveled when cut of occurs

Answer: D
 48. The isentropic efficiency of a
turbine is given by_____.________
A. the ratio of actual to ideal energy extracted
B. the ratio of actual of ideal energy inputted
C. the ratio of ideal to actual energy extracted
D. none of the above

Answer: A
 BOILERS & OTHER
STEAM PLANT ACCESSORIES
PSE MODULE 19.1 (SOLUTION)
 3. Regardless of the type of fuel oil used
the fuel oil must be ______ before it enters
the boilers furnace.

A. pressurized
B. treated
C. atomized
D. measured

Answer: C
5. Excess fuel oil in the fuel oil system
returns to the_____________.

A. combustion chamber
B. fuel oil tank
C.burner
D.suction line

Answer: B
8. Which of the following boiler does not use
tubes?

A. cast iron sectional

B. water tube
C.scotch marine
D.firebox

Answer: A
10. Which of the following will make a boiler
work more efficiently?

A. more fuel is added

B. fire tubes are decrease in size
C. the heating surface is increased
D. all of the above

Answer: C
13. When the o s & y (outside screw &
yoke) valve is open the stem is in the
_______ position.
A. floating
B. up
C. locked
D. down

Answer: B
15. The MAWP on a low pressure steam
boiler is ____ psi.

A. 10
B. 20
C. 15
D. 30
Answer: C
16. The ASME code states that boilers with
over ____ square feet heating surface must
have two or more safety valve.

A. 200
B. 400
C.400
D.500
Answer: D
17. The range of the pressure gauge should
be ______ times the MAWP (Maximum
Allowable Working Pressure) of the boiler.
•  

Answer: C
 18. The thermostatic steam trap opens and
closes by a(n) _________.

A. float
B. electric sensor
C. inverted bucket
D. flexible bellows

Answer: D
20. The ASME code only allows ______ safety
valve on boiler.

A. deadweight
B. spring-loaded pop-type
C. lever
D. none of the above

Answer: B
22. Live steam is prevented from entering the
Bourdon tube of the pressure gauge by which
of the following?

A. automatic nenreturn valve

B. os&y valve
C. inspector’s test cock
D. siphon

Answer: D
24. The ________ regulates the high and low
fire of the burner.

A. aquastat
B. pressure control
C. vaporstat
D. modulating pressure control

Answer: D
31. What causes false water level
readings in the gauge glass ?
A. Priming
B. Foaming
C. Carryover
D. Blowing down

Answer: B
37. The operating range of the boiler
is controlled by__________.

A. squastat
B. pressure control
C. vaporstat
D. modulating pressure control

Answer: B
44. The boiler bottom blowdown line should
discharge to a(n)_________.

A. sewer
B. atmospheric tank
C. blowdown tank
D. return tank or open sump

Answer: C
46. What pressure gauge that reads more
pressure than is actually in the boiler.

A. broken
B. uncalibrated
C. slow
D. fast

Answer: D
 47. Which of the following is added to boiler
so that water changes scale- forming salts into
a non-adhering sludge?

A. Oxygen
B. Slag
C. Minerals
D. Chemicals

Answer: D
49. The feedwater _______ valve opens and
closes automatically.

A. return
B. check
C.bypass
D. equalizing

Answer: B
50. The range of pressure on the
vacuum switch is usually:

A. 2 to 6 psi
B. 2” to 8”
C. 6 to 12 psi
D.8” to 12”

Answer: B
53. According to the ASME code, safety
valves on low pressure boilers should be
tested by hand at least:

A. once a month
B. once a year
C. once a shift
D. twice a year

Answer: A
55. When open the os&y valve offers
_____ to the flow of steam.

A. no resistance
B. velocity
C. throttling action
D. full resistance

Answer: A
57. The safety valve on a low pressure
boiler opens when pressure in the
boiler exceeds how many psi?
A. 5
B. 15
C. 10
D. 30
Answer: B
58. The feedwater to a boiler is 92% condensate
and 8% make-up containing 270 ppm solids.
What weight of solids enter the boiler per hour
at 22,680 kg per hr steam evaporation.

A. 0.49 kg solids/hr
B. 0.59 kg solids/hr
C. 0.39 kgsolids/hr
D. 0.69 kgsolids/hr

Ans. A
60. Condensate in the steam lines can
result in ________________.

A. carryover
B. foaming
C. priming
D. water hammer

Answer: D
62. In the float the thermostatic trap the float
rises to discharge______.

A. condensate
B. feedwater chemicals
C. steam
D. water and steam

Answer: A
64. What valve should be used for
throttling flow of material?
A. Gate
B. Check
C.Globe
D.Non-return
Answer: C
66. The _______ steam trap is the most common
steam trap used.

A. thermostatic
B. inverted bucket
C. return
D. nonreturn; float

Answer: A
67. To prevent a vacuum from forming
when taking the boiler off-line, which of
the following must be opened when
pressure is still on the boiler?
A. safety valve
B. boiler vent
C.main steam stop valve
D.man hole cover
Answer: B
 69. As the steam pressure increases the
steam temperature___________.

A. decreased
B. remains the same
C. increases
D. fluctuates

Answer: C
71. What pressure gauge that can read
whether vacuum pressure or not.
A. compound
B. B. suction
C.duplex
D.vacuum

Answer: A
72. A 4-ft boiler drum is made of 1 1/4 -inch
plate with a tensile strength of 45,000 psi.
With a jont efficiency of 80%, what is the
bursting pressure?
A. 1875 psi
B. 1279 psi
C. 1948 psi
D. 1645 psi

Ans. A
73. Safety valves are designed to pop
open and stay until there is a ____ psi
drop in pressure.
A. 0 to 1
B. 5 to 15
C. 2 to 4
D. over 15
Answer: C
75. If the desired cut-in pressure of the boiler
is 6 psi and the desired cut- out pressure is 10
psi, the pressure setting must be ___ psi.

A. 2
B. 6
C. 4
D. 8 differential

Answer: C
77. When steams gives up its heat in a heat
exchanger it turns to________.

A. low pressure steam

B. makeup water
C. condensate
D. exhaust steam

Answer: C
78. What velocity can be expected when
60,000 lb/hr 150 psi steam at 3.015
ft3/lb is transported in an 8-inch pipe?
A. 3,459 ft/min
B. 2,124 ft/min
C. 6,742 ft/min
D. 8,637 ft/min

Ans. D
79. The feedwater ______ valve should be
located as close to the shell of the boiler
as practical.

A. check
B. nonreturn
C. stop
D. regulating

Answer: C
  

A. 2019 Btu
B. 1290 Btu
C. 2039 Btu
D. 1048 Btu

Ans. D
81. Steam header valves should be
_______ valves.
A. globe
B. check
C. gate
D. o s & y gate

Answer: C
82. What is the efficiency of a plant
of heat rate 12,000 Btu/kW-hr?

A. 28.44 %
B. 32.26 %
C. 43.25 %
D. 25.45%

Ans. A
 83. The purpose of the safety valve is
prevent the pressure in the boiler from:
A. exceeding its MAWP (max allowable
working pressure)
B. causing a boiler explosion
C. dropping below its MAWP(max allowable
working pressure)
D. relieving water pressure

Answer: A
84. What is the efficiency of a plant of heat
rate 10,000 Btu/hp?

A. 28.44 %
B. 32.26 %
C. 43.25 %
D. 25.45%

Ans. D
85. The term applied when a safety valve
opens and closes rapidly.

A. Feathering
B. Chattering
C. Pressuring
D. Huddling

Answer: B
 87. The best time to blow down the boiler
to remove sludge and sediment is when the
boiler is at______________.

A. its highest load

B. half its load
C. its lightest load
D. anytime

Answer: C
89. After the total force of the steam
has lifted the safety valve off its seat,
the steam enters the _______.
A. huddling chamber
B. steam holding tank
C. combustion chamber
D. main steam line

Answer: A
 90. The water column is located at the
NOWL(Normal Operating Water Level) so the
lowest visible part of the gauge glass is ____
above the highest surface.

A. 2” to 3”
B. just
C. 4” to 5”
D. never
Answer: A
91. Blowback of a safety valve is to
prevent ___________.

A. burner cycling
B. premature popping
C. chattering
D. feathering

Answer: C
 92. The water in the boiler is heated,
turns to steam, and leaves the boiler
through the _____________.
A. feedwater line
B. main steam line
C. main header
D. main branch line
Answer: B
 93. A ______ valve should be located
between the boiler and the valve on the
feedwater line.

A. stop; check
B. stop; regulator
C. check; stop
D. check; regulator
Answer: A
 94. Top test the vacuum pump, the
operator puts the selector switch in the
_______ position.

A. float
B. float or vacuum
C. vacuum
D. continuous

Answer: D
95. The _______ shuts off the burner in the
event of low water.

A. low water alarm

B. low water fuel cut-off
C. feed water regulator
D. automatic low water feeder

Answer: B
96. Water is supplied to the condensate
return tank by the _____ pump.
A. vacuum
B. feedwater
C. condensate
D. return

Answer: A
 97. What maintains a constant
water level in the boiler?
A. gauge glass
B. automatic city water makeup feeder
C. water column
D. feedwater regulator

Answer: D
 98. The low water fuel cut-off should be
tested:

A. daily
B. semiannually
C. monthly
D. annually

Answer: A
99. The burner should be _______ when
the low water fuel cut-off is blown down.

A. off
B. tagged out
C. firing
D. tested

Answer: C
100. Which of the following valves must
be used as boiler main steam stop valve?

A. globe
B. check
C.gate
D. OS & Y gate (outside screw & yoke)

Answer: D
NON-CONVENTIONAL POWER PLANTS
NUCLEAR, CHIMNEY, MACHINE
FOUNDATION
&VARIABLE LOAD PROBLEMS
PSE MODULE 20.1 (SOLUTION)
 2. The steam turbine foundation should be
designed to support the machine load plus how
many percent for impact, condenser load, floor
loads and dead loads?

A. 15
B. 25
C. 20
D. 30
Answer: B
6. A flash steam cycle can be used if the
hot water temperature is approximately
_______.

A. 165 C or higher
B. 145 C to 200 C
C. 150 C or higher
D. below 200 C
Answer: A
19. The minimum vertical distance from
the floor or soil level to the top edge of
the foundation must be around
____________
A. 150 mm
B. 200 mm
C. 100 mm
D. 120 mm

Answer: D
27. To eliminate transmission of vibration, the
foundation should be isolated from floor slabs
or building footings at least how many mm
around its perimeter?
A. 15
B. 25
C. 20
D. 30

Answer: B
 30. Chimneys that rely on natural draft are
sometimes referred to as____.

A. natural chimney
B. normal chimney
C. gravity chimney
D. stack

Answer: C
31. Force draft fans create a positive pressure
of _____________.

A. 0.5 to 2.5 kPa

B. 2.0 to 4.0 kPa
C. 1.0 to 3.0 kPa
D. 0.2 to 2.2 kPa

Answer: A
 32. Fans that are used to draw combustion
products through the furnace bed, stack, and
pollution control system by injecting air into
the stack after combustion.

A. Natural draft
B. Induced draft
C. Forced draft
D. Balanced draft

Answer: C
34. For a diesel engine’s foundation,
in pouring a concrete mixture, it
should be poured______________.
A. one time
B. three times
C. two times
D. four times

Answer: A
48. Concrete foundation should have steel
bar reinforcements placed vertically and
horizontally to avoid __________.
A. breaking
B. melting
C. thermal cracking
D. vibration

Answer: C
 53. The machine foundation must have a
factor of safety of

A. 4
B. 6
C. 5
D. 7

Answer: C
55. There shall be no foundation bolts
less than _____.

A. 12 mm in diameter
B. 16 mm in diameter
C. 18 mm in diameter
D. 20 mm in diameter

Answer: A
62. Foundations bolt length should be at least
how many times the anchor bolt diameter?

A. 16 times
B. 20 times
C. 18 times
D. 30 times
Answer: C
 70. The diesel engine foundation safe soil
bearing pressure is:

A. 4,890 kg/cm2
B. 4,490 kg/cm2
C. 4,500 kg/cm2
D. 4,125 kg/cm2

Answer: A
 71. As a good practical rule, the
foundation depth may be taken as how
many times of the engine stroke?
A. 2.2 to 3.2
B. 3.2 to 4.2
C. 2.5 to 3.5
D. 3.5 to 4.5

Answer: B
72. To secure the belts embedded within
the foundation, the distance of the edges
of the foundation from the bedplate must
be _________.
A. 120 mm to 300 mm
B. 100 mm to 280 mm
C. 150 mm to 330 mm
D. 200 mm to 380 mm
Answer: A
73. The weight of the machine foundation is
how many times of the weight of the
engine?

A. 4 to 5 times
B. 2 to 3 times
C. 3 to 5 times
D. 4 to 6 times

Answer: C
74. For stability, the total combined engine,
driven equipment, and foundation center of
gravity must be kept __________.

A. below the foundations top

B. above the foundations top
C. 120 mm above the foundations top
D. none of the above

Answer: A
75. The weight of steel bar reinforcements
should be how many times the weight of
the foundation?

A. 1/2 % to 1 %
B. 3 % to 5 %
C. 1 % to 1.5 %
D. 3.2 % to 4.2 %
Answer: A
76. Foundation bolts of specified size should be
used and surrounded by a pipe sleeve with an
inside diameter of at least how many times the
diameter of the anchor bolt?

A. 3
B. 5
C. 4
D. 6
Answer: A
77. For foundations of steam turbine, the
conrete mixture should be _________.

A. 1:2:4
B. 1:2:3
C. 1:3:5
D. 1:3:4

Answer: A
78. Forced draft fans are run at relatively high
speeds in the range of :

A. 1200 to 1800 rpm

B. 1500 to 2000 rpm
C. 1000 to 1600 rpm
D. 900 to 1500 rpm

Answer: A
 79. In order to keep combustion products
inside the combustion chamber and stack
system, balanced draft system may actually
operate with a slight
A. negative pressure
B. positive and negative pressures
C. positive pressure
D. absolute pressure

Answer: A
80. The static pressure drop due to friction
through the boiler and stack.

A. draft loss
B. stack effect
C. available draft
D. fan boost

Answer: A
 81. The difference between the theoretical
draft and the draft loss.

A. draft loss
B. stack effect
C. available draft
D. fan boost

Answer: C
 82. In a balanced system, the
available draft is ________.

A. unity
B. 100
C. zero
D. infinite

Answer: C
83. The total pressure supplied by the fan at
maximum operating conditions.

A. net rating or fan boost

B. draft loss
C. available draft
D. stack effect

Answer: A
4. Generally the higher the chimney _________

A. the smaller the stack effect

B. the greater the stack effect
C. stack effect is zero
D. stack effect approaches unity

Answer: B
85. Modern stacks are seldom built higher
than _______.

A. 60 m
B. 40 m
C. 50 m
D. 30 m

Answer: A
86. Most stacks are built of height
less than ________.

A. 60 m
B. 40 m
C. 50 m
D. 30 m

Answer: D
 87. For realistic problems, the achievable
stack effect probably should be considered
to be______.
A. 75 % of the ideal
B. equal to the ideal
C. 80 % of the ideal
D. half the ideal

Answer: C
 88. Guyed stacks seldom exceed
_________.

A. 1.83 m in diameter
B. 1.45 m in diameter
C. 2.83 m in diameter
D. 2.45 m in diameter

Answer: A
89. The angle between the stack and
the guy wire is usually :

A. 30 degrees
B. 60 degrees
C. 45 degrees
D. 75 degrees

Answer: B
 90. Guyed stacks height seldom
exceed ________.

A. 30.48 m
B. 43.80 m
C. 34.80 m
D. 48.30 m

Answer: A
 91. Foundations should be isolated from
floor slabs or building footings by at least
how many mm to eliminate transmission
of vibration.
A. 25 mm
B. 35 mm
C. 15 mm
D. 45 mm
Answer: A
92. Foundation bolts of specified size should be
used and surrounded by a pipe sleeve with an
inside diameter of at least how many times the
diameter of the anchor bolt?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 4
D. 6
Answer: A
93. Foundation bolts of specified size should be
used and surrounded by a pipe sleeve with a
length of at least how many times the
diameter of the bolt?
A. 18
B. 15
C. 14
D. 16

Answer: A
94. Foundation should be designed to support
the machine load plus how many percent for
impact, condenser load, floor loads, and dead
loads?

A. 25
B. 15
C. 34
D. 36

Answer: A
95. Guys are usually applied in how
many sets?
A. 1 to 3
B. 3 to 5
C. 2 to 4
D. 4 to 6

Answer: A
 96. Solar energy arrives at the outside of
the earth’s atmosphere at an average rate
of ________.

A. 1.354 kW/m2
B. 2.354 kW/m2
C. 1.543 kW/m2
D. 2.543 kW/m2

Answer: A
 97. How many percent of solar energy
survives absorption and reflection?

A. 40 to 70 %
B. 50 to 80 %
C. 30 to 60 %
D. 20 to 50 %

Answer: A
 98. Practical and economic issues limit
tower electric systems to approximately :

A. 100 to 200 MW
B. 100 to 300 MW
C. 150 to 250 MW
D. 50 to 400 MW

Answer: B
99. Thermal efficiency of a geothermal power
plant is approximately:

A. 30 %
B. 35 %
C. 22 %
D. 15 %

Answer: C
 100. Fans located before the furnace
that are used to supply air for burning.

A. Natural draft
B. Induced draft
C. Forced draft
D. Balanced draft

Answer: C
 HEAT TRANSFER
PSE MODULE 21.1(SOLUTION)
 2. In heat exchanger design, one transfer
unit implies:
A. one fluid which is exchanging with another fluid of
the same chemical composition
B. the section of heat exchanger which will cause
temperature drop of one degree centigrade
C. the section of heat exchanger where heat transfer
surface area has been one square meter
D. condition when the change in temperature of one
steam is numerically equal to the average driving
force

Answer: D
 4.What is thermal diffusivity ?

A. a mathematical formula
B. a physical property of the material
C. a configuration for heat conduction
D. a dimensionless parameter

Answer: B
5.Which of the following is a unit of thermal
diffusivity?

•  

Answer: A
19. All heat transfer processes require a
medium of energy exchange except:

A. conduction
B. forced convection
C. natural convection
D. radiation

Answer: D
 21. It refers to the ratio of the internal thermal
resistance of a solid to the boundary layer
thermal resistance (or external resistance of the
body).
A. Biot number
B. Nusselt number
C. Prandtl number
D. Reynolds number

Answer: A
 25. Least value of Prandt’l number can be
expected in case of ____________.

A. liquid metals
B. salt solution
C. sugar solution
D. water

Answer: A
 27. The statement that the emissivity and
absorptivity of a surface is surrounded by its
own temperature are the same for both
monochromatic and total radiation is called :

A. Lambert’s law
B. D’ Alambart’s
C. Kirchhoff’s law
D. Law of emissivity
Answer: C
 28. What is the usual value of
transmissivity for opaque materials?

A. 0
B. 1
C. Indeterminate
D. Infinity

Answer: A
31. What do you call the first stage of crystal
formation?

A. nucleation
B. separation
C. foaming
D. vortexing

Answer: A
 33. How do you classify a body that has an
emissivity factor of 0.7?

A. Gray body
B. White body
C. Black body
D. Theoretical body

Answer: A
 37. Which of the following is used as
entrainer in acetic acid – water
separation?

A. methyl alcohol
B. butyl acetate
C. Phosphorous
D. hexane

Answer: B
 38. “The boiling point of a solution is a
linear function of water at the same
pressure.” The above statement is called
________.
A. Dubring’s rule
B. Fick’s rule
C. Petit and Dulong’s law
D. Reynolds law

Answer: A
40. How much is the part of light that is
absorbed by the body that transmits
and reflects 80% and 10% respectively?
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 30%
D. 5%
Answer: A
41. In sugar mills can just is evaporated
in :
A. zigzag tube evaporators
B. long vertical tube evaporators
C. short vertical tube evaporators
D. horizontal tube evaporator

Answer: C
42. What do you call a substance that is able to
absorb liquids or gases and is usually used for
removing liquids(or gases) from a given
medium or region?

A. Absorbent
B. Adsorbent
C. Liquifier
D. Adhesive

Answer: A
 44. Dritus Boelter equation can be
applied in case of fluids flowing in

A. transition region
B. laminar region
C. turbulent region
D. any of the above

Answer: C
46. Which of the following requires the
greatest amount of heat per kilogram
for a given increase in temperature?
A. Ice
B. Steam
C. Water
D. Copper

Answer: C
 49. According to Prevost theory of heat
exchange :

A. It is impossible to transfer heat from low

temperature source to high temperature source
B. Heat transfer by radiation needs no medium
C. All bodies above absolute zero emit radiation
D. Heat transfer in most of the cases occurs by
combination of conduction, convection and
radiation

Answer: C
 50. A fur coat on an animal will help the
animal to remain :

A. warm in winter
B. warm in summer
C. cool in winter
D. cool in summer

Answer: A
REFRIGERATION
PSE MODULE
22.1(SOLUTION)
20. What does the term “tonnage” refer to
in regard to refrigeration cycles?
A. the rate at which heat is removed from a
refrigeration cycle
B. the coefficient of performance of a
refrigeration cycle
C. the energy efficiency rating of a
refrigeration cycle
D. the enthalpy change of a refrigeration cycle
Ans. A
21. What is the specific volume of refrigerant
HFC-134a with an enthalpy of 570 kJ/kg and a
pressure of 0.6 MPa?

•  

Ans. B
 22. Refrigerant HFC-134a is ideally throttled
from an enthalpy of 480 kJ/kg at the evaporator
pressure of 0.2 MPa to a pressure of 0.02 MPa.
What is the final enthalpy?
A. 370 kJ/kg
B. 410 kJ/kg
C. 450 kJ/kg
D. 480 kJ/kg

Ans. D
 77. Large leaks in a Freon system cannot always be
detected with a halide torch because it changes color
with the slightest amount of Freon present. A large
leak can be detected easier by applying _________.
A. sheets of litmus paper to all joints and watch for color
change
B. a soapsuds solution, mixed with a little glycerin to hold
the solution together, and watch for bubbles
C. a thin layer of mineral oil to all joints and watch for
bubbles
D. a lighted candle at the joints and watch for leaky spots
blowing candle flame

Answer: B
78. How do you call the combination of two
refrigerants which cannot be separated by
distillation process?
A. Hydrocarbon
B. Methane
C. Azeotropes
D. Zeotropes

Answer: C
79. Which of the following is also known as
refrigerant (R-600) ?

A. Methane
B. Dichloro methane
C. Butane
D. chloromethane

Answer: C
80. The purpose of relief valves on
refrigeration machines is to_____.
A. by-pass the compressor when dehydrating
B. prevent overloading in the iceboxes
C. prevent excessive pressure in case of stoppage
on the discharge side of the system
D. by-pass the compressor when dehydrating and
prevent overloading in the iceboxes

Answer: C
81. The cooling-water side of the condenser
should be opened for inspection
every________.

A. six months
B. two years
C. year
D. three months

Answer: D
 82. Sweating of the crankcase is caused
by which of the following ?

A. too much oil in the system

B. insufficient superheat
C. too much superheat
D. expansion valve hung up

Answer: A
 83. Which of the following is the usual
cause of slugging?

A. too much refrigerant in the system

B. too much oil in the system
C. expansion valve not operating properly
D. too much cooling water to condenser

Answer: C
84. hat operates low-pressure cutout switch?

A. bellows
B. spring tension
C. a magnet
D. water pressure

Answer: A
 85. The purpose of the low-pressure cutout
switch is to_______.

A. cut out the compressor at a set pressure

B. maintain a preset suction pressure to the
compressor
C. maintain liquid refrigerant at the suction of
the compressor
D. cut compressor in and out at a preset pressure

Answer: D
86. If the cooling water to the condenser
suddenly fails?
A. an alarm will ring to notify the engineer
B. the compressor will shut down
C. the expansion valve will close
D. the solenoid valve will close

Answer: B
  

A. R134a
B. R12
C. R11
D. R22

Answer: A
88. A Freon unit will tend to short-cycle when
operating under ______.

A. normal conditions
B. heavy foads
C. light loads
D. all of the above

Answer: C
 89. Air is remove from the system
by_______.
A. opening the purge valve
B. increasing the amount of cooling water
C. running the refrigerant through an
aerator
D. running the refrigerant through a
deaerator

Answer: A
 90. Short-cycling means that the
machine_______.

A. runs to slow
B. stops and starts frequently
C. runs too fast
D. grounds out frequently

Answer: B
91. If any of the electrically controlled devices in
a Freon system malfunction, which of the
following valve will also automatically shut off?

A. King valve
B. Condenser cooling-water inlet valve
C. Expansion valve
D. Solenoid valve

Answer: D
92. The dehydrating agent in a Freon system
is usually______.

A. sodium chloride
B. calcium chloride
C. activated alumina
D. slaked lime

Answer: C
93. If the compressor short-cycles on
the low-pressure cutout, the trouble
might be _____________.

A. too much frost on the evaporator coils

B. dirty traps and strainers
C. lack of refrigerant
D. any of the above
94. Which of the following would
cause a high head pressure?

A. suction valve not open enough

B. too much cooling water
C. insufficient cooling water
D. icebox door left open

Answer: C
 95. If frost forms on the cylinders, the
cause would be______.

A. charging valve left open

B. expansion valve not open wide enough
C. expansion valve open too wide
D. dehydrator not working properly

Answer: C
  

A. R134a
B. R12
C. R11
D. R22

Answer: D
97. If a compressor runs continuously,
the cause might be a_____.
A. clogged scale trap
C. defective thermal bulb
B. stuck high-pressure switch
D. stuck low-pressure switch

Answer: D
98. Low suction pressure is caused
by_______.
A. expansion valve causing flooding back
B. solenoid valve not functioning properly
C. leaky compressor suction valves
D. air in the system

Answer: B
 99. If the compressor discharge temperature is
higher than the receiver temperature then _______.

A. Add more refrigerant to the system.

B. Decrease the amount of cooling water to the
condenser.
C. Increase the amount of cooling water to the
condenser.
D. Remove some of the refrigerant from the system.

Answer: B
 100. The boiling point of NH3 at
atmospheric pressure is

A. + 28 °C
B. + 28 °F
C. – 28 °C
D. – 28 °F

Answer: D
AIR CONDITIONING
PSE MODULE
23.1(SOLUTION)
22. When air contains all of the water
vapor it can hold, it is said to be
A.simulated
B.saturated
C.loaded
D.moisture

Ans. B
23. What is the instrument used
to register relative humidity?
A. hygrometer
B. perometer
C. hydrometer
D. manometer
Ans. A
 24. Humidity is a measure of
which of the following?

A. water vapor content

B. latent heat
C. temperature
D. any of the above

Ans. A
25. In an air-conditioning system, before the
air is circulated to the required area, it is:

A. cooled
B. dehumidified
C. filtered
D. all of the above

Ans. D
26. The temperature at which water
vapor in the atmosphere begins to
condense is known as the:
A. vapor point
B. moisture point
C. dew point
D. none of the above
Ans. C
27. Saturation temperature is the
same as;
A. dew point
B. steam temperature
C. vapor temperature
D. humidity

Ans. A
28. When the bypass factor is B, the
coil efficiency for sensible cooling of
air is equal to:
A. 1 + B
B. 1 – B / B
C. 1 – B
D. 1 + B / B

Ans. C
29. The psychrometric chart in air conditioning
determines the_______.

A. wet bulb and dry bulb temperatures

B. psychrometric temperature requirements
C. saturation temperature and relatives humidity
D. moist air conditions

Ans. D
GOOD LUCK ☺