Chapter 3,4,6,7,9,11,14
Chapter 3,4,6,7,9,11,14
FV = PV x (1+r)n
Example 2: If John closes out his account after 3
years, how much money will he have accumulated?
How much of that is the interest-on-interest
component? What about after 10 years?
Example 4 (Answer)
Calculator method:
PV =-300,000; N=5; I/Y=5; PMT=0; CPT
FV=$382,884.5
Spreadsheet method:
Rate = .05; Nper = 5; Pmt=0; PV=-$300,000;
Type =0; FV=$382,884.5
Time value table method:
FV = PV(FVIF, 5%, 5) =
300,000*(1.27628)=$382,884.5;
where (FVIF, 5%,5) = Future value interest factor
listed under the 5% column and in the 5-year row
of the future value of $1 table=1.276
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3.2 Present Value and
Discounting
• Involves discounting the interest that would have
been earned over a given period at a given rate of
interest.
• It is therefore the exact opposite or inverse of
calculating the future value of a sum of money.
• Such calculations are useful for determining today’s
price or the value today of an asset or cash flow
that will be received in the future.
• The formula used for determining PV is as follows:
PV = FV x 1/ (1+r)n
FV = PV x (1+r)n
FV of Cash Flow at T0 = $3,000 x (1.10)3 = $3,000 x 1.331 =
$3,993.00
FV of Cash Flow at T1 = $5,000 x (1.10)2 = $5,000 x 1.210 =
$6,050.00
FV of Cash Flow at T2 = $7,000 x (1.10)1 = $7,000 x 1.100 =
$7,700.00
FV of Cash Flow at T3 = $9,000 x (1.10)0 = $9,000 x 1.000 =
$9,000.00
Total = $26,743.00
ALTERNATIVE METHOD:
Using the Cash Flow (CF) key of the calculator, enter the
respective cash flows.
CF0=-$3000;CF1=-$5000;CF2=-$7000;
CF3=-$9000;
Next calculate the NPV using I=10%; NPV=$20,092.41;
Finally, using PV=-$20,092.41; n=3; i=10%;PMT=0;
CPT FV=$26,743.00
Example 3 Answer
Using the following equation:
1
1
n
1 r
PV PMT
r
Example 3 Answer—continued
Financial calculator
Mode BGN for annuity due
Mode END for an ordinary annuity
Spreadsheet
Type” =0 or omitted for an ordinary annuity
Type = 1 for an annuity due.
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4.4 Annuity Due and Perpetuity
(continued)
Example 4: Annuity Due versus Ordinary
Annuity
Let’s say that you are saving up for retirement
and decide to deposit $3,000 each year for the
next 20 years into an account which pays a rate
of interest of 8% per year. By how much will
your accumulated nest egg vary if you make
each of the 20 deposits at the beginning of the
year, starting right away, rather than at the end
of each of the next twenty years?
FV PMT
1 r 1
n
Perpetuity
A Perpetuity is an equal periodic cash flow
stream that will never cease.
The PV of a perpetuity is calculated by using
the following equation:
PMT
PV
r
Under which of the three options will Roseanne pay the least interest
and why? Calculate the total amount of the payments and the amount
of interest paid under each alternative.
Procedure:
1) Compute the amount of each equal periodic payment
(PMT).
2) Calculate interest on unpaid balance at the end of
each period, minus it from the PMT, reduce the loan
balance by the remaining amount,
3) Continue the process for each payment period, until
we get a zero loan balance.
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4.6 Amortization Schedules
(continued)
Example 9 Answer
Using the TVM keys of a financial calculator, enter:
PV=26,000,000; FV=0; N=30; PMT = -1,625,000;
CPT I = 4.65283%
4.65283% = rate of interest used to determine the 30-
year annuity of $1,625,000 versus the $26,000,000 lump
sum pay out.
Choice: If you can earn an annual after-tax rate of
return higher than 4.65% over the next 30 years,
go with the lump sum.
Otherwise, take the annuity option.
Year 0 1 2 3 18 19 20
Annual coupon = Coupon rate * Par value = .08 * $1,000 = $80 = PMT
YTM = r = 10%
Maturity = n = 20
Price of bond = Present Value of coupons + Present Value of par value
1
1
$80 1 0.10
20
0.10
=
Example 5 Answer
PV = $1200
Mode: P/Y=2; C/Y = 2
Input: N I/Y PV PMT FV
Key: 38 ? -120 40 1000
Output 6.19
Annual Accrued
Approximate yield interest capital gains
to maturity Average value of bond
M - Vd
INT
N
2 Vd M
3
– Junk bonds: is the label given to bonds that are rated below BBB.
These bonds are considered to be speculative in nature and carry higher
yields than those rated BBB or above (investment grade).
– Fallen angels: is the label given to bonds that have had their ratings
lowered from investment to speculative grade.
Stocks and
Stock Valuation
Learning Objectives
• In case of liquidation…
Shareholders have a claim on the residual assets
and cash flow of the company.
Known as “residual” rights.
1
1
1 1 0.12 4
Price = $40.00
4
$4.00
1 0.12
0.12
• Where,
• = Price of stock today;
• D = Dividend for each year;
• = the required rate of return for common stock (discount
rate).
• This formula, with modifications is generally applied to
three different situations:
– No growth in dividends.
– Constant growth in dividends.
– Variable growth in dividends.
• Where,
• = Price of the common stock; = Current annual common stock
dividend (constant); = Required rate of return for common stock.
• Assuming = $1,86 and = 12%, the price of the stock would be:
• Where,
• = Price of common stock today;
• = Dividend in year 1, ;
• = Dividend in year 2, , and so on;
• g = Constant growth rate in dividends;
• = Required rate of return for common stock (discount rate).
Answer
Quarterly dividend = $0.50
Quarterly rate of return = Annual rate/4= 12%/4 = 3%
PV = Quarterly dividend/Quarterly rate of return
Price = 0.50/.03 = $16.67
Capital
Budgeting
Decision Models
Learning Objectives
1. Explain capital budgeting and differentiate between short-term and
long-term budgeting decisions.
2. Explain the payback model and its two significant weaknesses and how
the discounted payback period model addresses one of the problems.
3. Understand the net present value (NPV) decision model and appreciate
why it is the preferred criterion for evaluating proposed investments.
4. Calculate the most popular capital budgeting alternative to the NPV,
the internal rate of return (IRR); and explain how the modified internal
rate of return (MIRR) model attempts to address the IRR’s problems.
5. Understand the profitability index (PI) as a modification of the NPV
model.
6. Compare and contrast the strengths and weaknesses of each decision
model in a holistic way.
0 (10,000) (10,000)
1 4,000 (6,000)
2 4,500 (1,500)
0
3 10,000 (recovered) 15%
Not used in
4 8,000 decision
Payback Period
= 2.15yrs. Reject, 2 years
Discounted
Payback =
2.35 years
Using the cash flows for the tanning bed given in Example 2
above, calculate its NPV and indicate whether the
investment should be undertaken or not.
Answer
NPV bed= -$10,000 + $4,000/(1.10) + $4,500/(1.10) 2 +
$10,000/(1.10)3 + $8,000/(1.10)4
=-$10,000 + $3,636.36 + $3719.01 + $7513.15
+ $5,464.11
=$10,332.62
Since the NPV > 0, the tanning bed should be purchased.
Example 4 Answer
Since these are mutually exclusive options, the one with the higher
NPV would be the best choice.
NPV bed = -$10,000 + $4,000/(1.10)+ $4,500/(1.10)2 +
$10,000/(1.10)3+$8,000/(1.10)4
=-$10,000 +$3636.36+$3719.01+$7513.15+
$5464.11
=$10,332.62
NPV booth = -$12,500 + $4,400/(1.10)+ $4,800/(1.10)2 +
$11,000/(1.10)3+$9,500/(1.10)4
=-$12,500 +$4,000+$3,966.94+$8,264.46+
$6,488.63
=$10,220.03
Thus, the less expensive tanning bed with the higher NPV
(10,332.62>10,220.03) is the better option.
Answer
PIA= (NPV + Cost)/Cost = ($17,092.41/$10,000) = $1.71
PIB = (NPV + Cost)/Cost = ($13,816.68/$7,000) = $1.97
PROJECT B, HIGHER PI
1. Payback period
– simple and fast, but economically unsound.
– ignores all cash flow after the cutoff date
– ignores the time value of money.
2. Discounted payback period
– incorporates the time value of money
– still ignores cash flow after the cutoff date.
3. Net present value (NPV)
– economically sound
– properly ranks projects across various sizes, time
horizons, and levels of risk, without exception for all
independent projects.
Software Software
Option A PVCF@10% Option B PVCF@10%
Year A B
0 -454,000 ($582,000)
1 $130,000 $143,333
2 $126,000 $168,000
3 $125,000 $164,000
4 $120,000 $172,000
5 $120,000 $122,000
The Cost of
Capital
Chapter 11
The Cost of
Capital
Learning Objectives
Below what rate would it make sense for Jim to consolidate all these
loans and refinance the whole amount?
Answer
Net price on preferred stock = $38;
Dividend on preferred = $4
Cost of preferred = Rp = $4/$38 = 10.53%
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11.2 (C) Equity Component
Re = (Div0*(1+g)/Po) + g
($2.27*(1.06)/$45.57)+.0611.28%
Re = [$2.27*(1.06)/(45.57*(1-.05)]+.06
11.56%
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11.2 (C) Equity Component
(continued)
Re = [D1/(P(1-F])+g[3.2/$30(.98)]+.0717.88%
WACC = .5396*17.88%
+ .0989*11.13%
+.3615*6.18%*(1-.35)
Financial Ratios
and Firm
Performance
Learning Objectives
A. Profitability ratios
1. Profit margin
2. Return on assets (investment)
3. Return on equity
B. Asset utilization ratios
4. Receivable turnover
5. Average collection period
6. Inventory turnover
7. Fixed asset turnover
8. Total asset turnover
Cogswell has better liquidity and short-term solvency than Spacely, but,
higher investment in current assets also means that lower yields are
being realized since current assets are typically low yielding.
So, we need to look at the other areas and inter-related effects of the
firm’s various accounting items.
Cogswell Cola has relatively less debt and a significantly greater ability to cover its
interest obligations by using either its EBIT (times interest earned ratio) or its net
cash flow (cash coverage ratio) than Spacely Spritzers.
• One of the first things we notice in looking over the five years
of data is how similar many of the ratios are from year to
year, showing remarkable consistency for these two
companies.
• We also can see that the gross margin of Coca-Cola is
consistently higher than that of PepsiCo.
• The debt to equity ratio of both firms is mostly falling over the
five-year period.
• We also can see that ROE has been very good for both
companies, although slightly better for PepsiCo.
• Finally, PepsiCo has very strong and growing earnings per
share over this period, outperforming Coca-Cola’s EPS, but
PepsiCo is also more expensive (higher current price per
share).
Industry
Ratio Average
Current Ratio 2.200
Quick Ratio (or Acid
Test Ratio) 1.500
Cash Ratio 0.135
Debt Ratio 0.430
Cash Coverage 10.600
Day’s Sales in
Receivables 29.000
Total Asset Turnover 2.800
Inventory Turnover 20.100
Day’s Sales in
Inventory 11.500
Receivables Turnover 32.000
Profit Margin 0.045
Return on Assets 0.126
Return on Equity 0.221
Industry
Trimark Average
Current Ratio 1.766 2.200
Quick Ratio (or Acid
Ratio Test) 1.048 1.500
Cash Ratio 0.108 0.135
Debt Ratio 0.371 0.430
Cash Coverage 37.189 10.600
Day’s Sales in
Receivables 16.512 12.000
Total Asset
Turnover 2.390 2.800
Inventory
Turnover 28.808 30.100
Day’s Sales in
Inventory 12.670 11.500
Receivables
Turnover 22.105 30.000
Profit Margin 0.053 0.045
Return on Assets 0.128 0.126
Return on Equity 0.203 0.221
Note: since we don’t have the accounting information for the average,
we have to figure out the industry’s equity multiplier by some
algebraic manipulation.
Equity multiplier
= 1/(1-debt ratio) 1.59 1.75
Despite a lower Total Asset Turnover ratio, Trimark’s
ROA (12.8%) is better than that of the industry (12.6%),
primarily due to its higher net profit margin. The
industry, however, has a higher ROE (22.1%) due to its
higher debt ratio and correspondingly higher equity
multiplier.
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Ratio Analysis