PHYSICS

Aakash
STUDY PACKAGE – 02
For – JEE / NEET
 ASSIGNMENT
Objective Type Question

1. Electrostatics
Choose the correct answer :
1. It is observed that when a soap bubble is given 7. If 50 Joule of work must be done to move electric
some positive charge its radius increases. What charge of 2C from a point, where potential is +10
will happen to the same soap bubble if it is given volt to another point, where potential is V volt, find
equal negative charge instead of positive charge? the value of V
(1) Its radius increases (1) 5 V (2) –15 V
(2) Its radius decreases (3) +35 V (4) +10 V
(3) Its radius remains same 8. Three point charges are placed at the three corners
of an equilateral triangle as shown in figure. The
(4) It gets burst statement which is true for net electric potential V
2. Kinetic energy of an electron accelerated by a and the net electric field intensity E at the centre
potential difference of 1000 V is of the triangle is
q
(1) 1.6 × 10–19 J
(2) 1.6 × 10–16 J
(3) 1.6 × 10–15 J O
(4) 1000 J
3. An electric dipole when placed in a uniform electric q –2q
field E will have maximum potential energy if the (1) E = 0, V = 0 (2) V = 0, E  0
dipole moment makes the following angle with E (3) V  0, E = 0 (4) V 0, E  0

3 9. A,B,C and D are four points on an imaginary circle

(1)  (2) in region containing uniform electric field as shown
2
in figure. Select the incorrect option

(3) Zero (4)
2
A
4. An electric dipole is placed in uniform electric field.
It may experience
E O B
(1) Resultant force and torque D
(2) Only resultant force
(3) Only torque C
(4) All of these
(1) VB > VA (2) VB > VC
5. A sphere of radius R is placed in uniform electric field
E. The net electric flux linked with the sphere is (3) VB < VD (4) VA > VD
(1) 4R2E (2) 2R2E 10. A positively charged ring is in y-z plane with its
centre at origin. A particle having charge –1 C,
(3) R2E (4) Zero held at origin is displaced slightly along x-axis, the
6. If an electric field is given by 10 iˆ  3 ˆj  4 kˆ . particle
Calculate the electric flux through a surface of area (1) Moves to infinity
1 unit lying in yz plane (2) Comes back to origin and stay their
(1) 10 units (2) 17 units (3) Execute SHM about origin
(3) 30 units (4) 40 units (4) Execute oscillations about origin but not SHM

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11. An isolated parallel plate capacitor has electric 16. A particle A of charge q is placed near a uniformly
energy U stored in it. If separation between the charged infinite plane sheet with surface charge
plates is decreased by 2%, then energy stored in density , then it experiencs a force F1 while when
the capacitor this particle is placed near a metal plate with
surface charge density , then it experiences a
(1) Decreases by 2% (2) Decreases by 4%
| F1 |
(3) Increases by 2% (4) Increases by 4% force F2. Then | F | is equal to
2
12. An uncharged parallel plate capacitor having a
(1) 1 (2) 2
dielectric of constant K is connected to a similar
air cored parallel capacitor charged to a potential 1
V. The common potential is (3) (4) 3
2
17. Charge distribution at three vertices of an
V V
(1) (2) equilateral triangle of side a is shown in the figure.
K 1 K 1 The net electric dipole moment of the system is
2V KV Y –4q
(3) (4) A
K K 1
13. The effective capacitance of the combination
between A and B is B C
2q 2q X
3 F
6 F (1) 3  2qa ˆj
A B
9 F (2)  2 3 qa ˆj

(3) 2 3 qa iˆ  2 3 qa ˆj
5 F
(4)  2 3 qa iˆ  2 3 qa ˆj
(1) 9 F (2) 4 F 18. A speed v is given to a particle A of charge q and
(3) 23 F (4) 12 F mass m so that it moves towards another particle
B of charge 4q and mass 4 m placed at rest
14. Three charges +q, Q and +q are placed in a
initially. Particle A approaches B upto a closest
l distance. The speed of particle B at this moment is
straight line of length l at 0,
and l respectively..
2
What should be Q in order to make the net force v
on +q to be zero? (1) v (2)
2
q
(1) –q (2)  v
4 (3) 4v (4)
5
q q
(3)  (4)  19. A charge q is placed inside a cube as shown in the
2 4
figure. O is the centre of the face ABCD and q is
15. A point charge Q is held at the centre of circle of
a
radius r. B and C are two points on the just above the point O at a distance . The flux
circumference of the circle. A is a point outside the 4
passing through ABCD is
circle as shown in figure. If WAB is the work done
in taking a positive charge q0 from A to B and so
on, then

B q
D a/4 C
Q O
A B
A
C q q
(1) (2) 
6 0 6 0
(1) WAB = WAC = 0 (2) WAB = WAC > 0
q q
(3) WAB = WAC < 0 (4) WAB  WAC (3)  6 (4) 
0 0

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 Electrostatics IIT - JEE/NEET

20. A point charge q and a dipole of dipole moment P 25. Two identical spheres A and B having charge Q are
is placed as shown in the figure. The force acting placed at a distance r apart. The force acting
on the dipole due to charge q is between them is F. An identical uncharged sphere
q C comes into contact with A. After that it comes
into contact with B and is then placed in middle of
P A and B. The net force acting on the C is
q
90°
–q 3F
(1) (2) F
8
(1) Rightward (2) Upward
(3) Leftward (4) Downward 3F
(3) (4) 3F
21. Select the incorrect statement regarding Gauss's 4
theorem
26. In the figure equipotential surfaces are shown. A
(1) Gauss's theorem is true for any closed surface particle of charge q and mass m is released from
(2) Gauss's theorem is based on the inverse rest from origin at t = 0. Co-ordinate of particle at
square dependence on distance contained in t = 1 sec is
the Coulomb's law
Y
(3) Gaussian surf ace can pass through a
continuous charge distribution
q free
(4) For a closed surface  E.d s 
0
, where 45° 45°
50V1 40V 30V 20V
qfree is free charge inside surface cm 0 X
22. A particle of charge q is coming from infinity along
axis of a uniformly charged ring of radius R and q ˆ ˆ q ˆ ˆ
charge Q. At a point x distance from centre of ring (1) 50 (i  j ) m (2) 50 (i  j ) m
m m
it experiences maximum force. Then x is equal to
q ˆ ˆ q
R (3) 10 (i  j ) m (4) 50 (iˆ  ˆj ) m
(1) R (2) m m
2
27. Select the incorrect statement regarding the
R electrostatics of conductors
(3) 0 (4)
2
(1) Inside a conductor, electrostatic field is zero
23. Two point charges q and 4q are located at a
distance 2a apart. A charge Q is placed along the (2) At the surface of a charged conductor,
line joining them as shown in figure so that force electrostatic field must be normal to the
on this becomes zero. The distance between surface at every point
charges q and Q is (3) The interior of a conductor can have no excess
q charge in the static situation
Q 4q
(4) Electrostatic potential is variable throughout the
2a volume of a conductor
a a
(1) (2) 28. An electric dipole with dipole moment
3 4 
P  ( 2iˆ  3 ˆj ) cm is kept in electric field E  4iˆ N/C.
2a a
(3) (4) The torque acting on it is
3 2
24. Charges q, 2q, 4q, 8q, ..... are placed along x-axis (1)  12kˆ (Nm) (2) 8k̂
at r, 2r, 4r, 8r, ..... from origin respectively. The net
electric field at origin is (3) 12kˆ (Nm) (4)  8k̂
q 29. Potential energy of dipole in above mentioned
(1) Infinite (2)
4 0 r 2 problem is

2q q (1) 8 J (2) 12 J
(3) 2 (4) 2
4 0 r 8 0 r (3) –8 J (4) –12 J

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 Electrostatics IIT - JEE/NEET

30. A parallel plate capacitor made from two square C

plates of side a and separation b (<< a) is (1) CV (2) V
4
charged by a battery of emf V. After disconnecting
C
the battery, a conductor of thickness slightly less (3) V (4) 2CV
than b is inserted as shown in figure. The potential 2
energy of the system is 34. On each side of a polygon of n sides a capacitor
x of capacitance C is placed as shown in figure.
Equivalent capacitance across A and B is
b

a
3
C C
0a 0a 2
(1) V2 (2) V2
2b( a  x ) 2(a  x ) A B
C
0a 2 2  0a 3 ( a  x ) 2 (n  1)C nC
(3) ( a  x ) V (4) V (1) (2)
2b 2b 2 n n 1
(3) (n – 1)C (4) nC
31. Consider the circuit shown in f igure. Both
capacitors are charged by battery of emf . 35. Four charges are placed at the vertices of a
Potential energy stored in system is U1. Now key square of side l as shown in figure. The work
is closed. New potential energy stored in system required to move –2q charge to infinity with no
U1 acceleration is
is U2. Then U is equal to –q +q
2
2C 2C

Key
 +q –2q
(1) 1 (2) 2
q2 q2
1 1 (1) (4  2 ) (2) ( 2  4)
(3) (4) 4 0 l 4 0 l
4 2
32. Consider the figure, equivalent capacitance 4q 2 2 q2
(3) (4)
between A and B is 4 0 l 4 0 l
36. Three very large conducting plates with charges
A C C C C C B
are placed as shown in figure. Charge on left side
surface of plate A is
5Q –3Q –2Q

V
A B C
4C
(1) C (2)
5
5C 2C d d
(3) (4)
4 3 (1) 2.5 Q (2) 0
33. Consider the circuit shown in the figure. Charge (3) 5 Q (4) –2 Q
C 37. Consider the data given in above question. Electric
stored in capacitor of capacitance is
2 field at right side of plate C is, where A is the
C surface area of each plate
C 2Q
C (1) 0 (2)   A
2 0

Q 3Q
V C (3)  A (4)  A
0 0

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 Electrostatics IIT - JEE/NEET

38. Two conductors of thickness d are inserted inside Q1 Q2

a parallel capacitor of thickness 3d and
capacitance C 0 . The capacitance of new
arrangement is
d d
(Q1 > Q2)

(Q1  Q2 ) 1 q2
(1) q (2)
C 2 C

(Q1  Q2 ) Q1  Q2
(3) q (4) q
3d 2C 2C

(1) C0 (2) 2C0 40. A conductor PQ as shown in figure is charged. A,

B, C and D are surface charge densities of points
C0 A, B, C and D respectively
(3) 3C0 (4)
3 A
39. Charges on plates of a parallel plate capacitor of P C Q
D
capacitance C are as shown in figure. A particle of
charge q mass m is released from rest near B
surface of plate with charge Q1. The gain in kinetic (1) A < B < C < D (2) A = B = C > D
energy of particle when it reaches another plate is
(neglect gravity) (3) A > C > B > D (4) A = B = C = D

  

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 Current Electricity IIT - JEE/NEET

2. Current Electricity

Choose the correct answer :

1. The effective resistance between C & D in given 5. During charging of an ideal secondary cell, the
circuit is C potential difference across the cell is
(1) R (1) V = E + Ir (2) V = E – Ir
R R
(2) 3R R (3) V = E (4) Zero
R R
6. Two identically shaped wires A and B are made of
2R
(3) different substances having differing electron
3 R densities, with nA > nB. If both carry identical
R R
currents then the wire has larger drift speed for the
R electrons is
(4) D
3
(1) A (2) B
2. The resistance of a rectangular block of copper of
dimensions 1 mm × 1 mm × 5 m between two square (3) Both (1) & (2) (4) None of these
faces is 0.08 . What is the resistivity of copper? 7. A wire has resistance 16 . It is bent in the form
(1) 1.6 × 10–7 -m (2) 1.6 × 10–6 -m of an equilateral triangle. The effective resistance
between the two points on any median of the
(3) 1.6 × 10–8 -m (4) Infinite triangle is
3. Choose the correct alternative (1) 16  (2) 8 
(1) Alloys of metal have lesser resistivity than that (3) 4  (4) 32 
of constituent metals
8. If galvanometer shows null deflection in the given
(2) Resistivity of semiconductor increases rapidly figure then the value of Y is
with increasing temperature
800 3V
(3) Alloys have lower temperature coefficients of
resistance than pure metals
(4) The path of electrons in metals between 12V Y G
successive collisions is straight line when current
100
flows through them
4. In the meter bridge shown, the resistance R has 200
a negative temperature coefficient of resistance.
(1) 100  (2) 200 
Neglecting the variation in other resistors, when
current is passed for some time, in the circuit, (3) 300  (4) 400 
balance point should shift towards 9. Two cells 6V, 1 and 4 volt, 2 are connected to
R X form a closed loop. The current, which cannot flow
through the loop is
G
10 2
(1) A (2) A
A B 3 3

5
(3) A (4) All of these
3
10. The temperature co-efficient of resistance of a wire
(1) A is 0.00125°C–1. At 300K its resistance is 2. The
resistance of the wire will be 2.5  at temperature
(2) B about
(3) First A then B (1) 120°C (2) 234°C
(4) It will remain at C (3) 310°C (4) 27°C

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 Current Electricity IIT - JEE/NEET

11. A wire is connected to a battery and drift velocity of 16. A plausible reason for the increase in resistivity of
electrons in the wire is v. Now, the wire is stretched most of the conductors with temperature is
to double its length and connected to same battery.
The drift velocity of electrons in the new wire will (1) The mass of the electron changes with
become/remain temperature

(1) v (2) 4v (2) The charge on each electron changes with

temperature
v
(3) (4) 2v (3) The electron density changes with temperature
2
(4) The time between collisions changes with
12. Two cells of e.m.f. E1 and E2 are joined in series
temperature
and the balancing length of the potentiometer wire
is 875 cm. If the terminals of E1 are reversed, the I1
balancing length obtained is 175 cm. Given 17. In the circuit shown, the ratio is equal to
I2
E2 > E1, the ratio E1 : E2 will be
(1) 2 : 3 (2) 5 : 1
I1 4
(3) 3 : 2 (4) 1 : 5
13. In the circuit shown, the potential drop across 6 
5V 2V
resistor is 12 V. The emf of the ideal battery is 3 3
6 5 2
4
I2 8
12

(1) 4.0 (2) 3.0

3 5
(3) 2.5 (4) 1.0
18. A resistance wire has a resistance R. Half of this
E wire is stretched to double its length and half is
(1) 8 V (2) 16 V twisted to double its thickness, then its new
resistance becomes
(3) 24 V (4) 32 V
14. In the circuit shown in the figure, the charge on the 17R 17R
(1) (2)
upper plate A is 8 16
R R/2
65R 65R
A (3) (4)
32 16
B
19. In the circuit shown, when R2 is decreased, reading
R/2 R of ammeter will
(1) Increase E A
R2
V (2) Decrease r R1
(1) Positive (2) Negative (3) Will not change
(3) Zero (4) Oscillating
(4) Can not be calculated
15. The correct relation for the resistance R of an
20. Two batteries of different e.m.f.'s and internal
ohmic conductor and strength of applied electric
resistance connected in series with each other and
field E on the above conductor is
with an external load resistor. The current is
(1) R  E 2.0 amp. When the polarity of one battery is
reversed, the current becomes 1.0 amp. The ratio
(2) ER = constant
of the e.m.f.'s of the two batteries is
(3) E + R = a constant
(1) 2.5 (2) 2.0
(4) R does not depend on E
(3) 3.0 (4) 1.0
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21. The emf of driver cell in a potentiometer circuit is 10 25. In a arrangement, 3n cells of emf  and internal
V. The length of potentiometer wire is 1 m and its resistance r are connected in series. Out of 3n
resistance is 9 . A cell of emf 5 V is balanced on cells, polarity of n cells is reversed.
5  r  r
m length of the wire. The internal resistance of
9
the driver cell is A
(1) 1  (2) 0.1 
Current in the circuit is
(3) 2  (4) 0.5 
22. In the circuit shown in the figure, the value of E is 2 2
(1) (2)
equal to r 3r

15   
(3) (4)
1A 3r r
R 10 
E 1 26. A part of a circuit is shown in figure. VB – VC is
I1 = A
2 equal to 12 V. I1 is equal to

(1) 20 V (2) 10 V
D

(3) 5 V (4) 30 V 2 I1
23. Consider the figure, cross-sectional area of A B
conductor at A and B is 2a and a respectively. 2 2A C 2 
2V 10 V
Current density at A and B are given by JA and JB
then JA /JB is (1) 1 A (2) 2 A
(3) 3 A (4) 4 A
A
B 27. In the circuit shown in the figure, current through
5  is

4

E C 5 B8 D
A
8 16 
1
(1) (2) 2
2
10 V
(3) 1 (4) 4
(1) 1 A (2) 2 A
24. The time constant of the circuit shown in the figure
is (3) Zero (4) 0.5 A
28. The potentiometer wire PQ is 100 cm long and its
R resistance is 2r. Where r is internal resistance of
the battery. PC is equal to
C
 R E r
R

R C Q
P
G No deflection
3RC
(1) (2) RC E r
2
2
5RC 2RC (1) 25 cm (2) 75 cm
(3) (4)
3 3 (3) 50 cm (4) 40 cm

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 Current Electricity IIT - JEE/NEET

29. The emf of a single battery which is equivalent to 32. In the circuit shown, the power consumed by 2V
a parallel combination of two batteries of emfs battery is
5 V and 10 V and internal resistances 1  and 2
1 3
 respectively connected as shown in figure is
5V
1

2V 8V
10 V (1) 5 W (2) 6 W
2
(3) 7 W (4) 8 W
33. In the circuit shown, the total power output is P when
(1) 5 V (2) 10 V S is closed. As the switch S is opened, the power
output becomes (all bulbs are identical)
(3) Zero (4) 15 V
Bulb Bulb Bulb
30. Two bars made of same material are connected as
shown in the figure. An electric current is passed
through the bars. Resistance of bar PQ is R1 while
resistance of QR is R2, then S

2l l
2r r 2 3
i (1) P (2) P
3 2
R
P Q 4 9
(3) P (4) P
(1) 2R1 = R2 (2) 2R2 = R1 9 4
34. Refer to the circuit shown. What will be the total
(3) 4R2 = R1 (4) R2 = 4R1 power dissipation in the circuit if P is the power
31. Consider the circuit. Key k is closed at t = 0. At dissipated in R1? It is given that R2 = 4 R1 and
this instant current flowing through circuit is I0 and R3 = 12 R1
after very long time current in circuit is I. Then I
I0 R2 R1
is equal to
I
R3
R
(1) 4 P (2) 7 P
C (3) 13 P (4) 17 P
35. Four equal resistances dissipate 80W of power
together when connected in parallel to a battery of
R E (K) negligible internal resistance. The total power
dissipated in these resistances when connected in
1 series across the same battery would be
(1) 2 (2)
2 (1) 5 W (2) 80 W
(3) 1 (4) 0 (3) 20 W (4) 2.5 W

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 Magnetic Effects of Current IIT - JEE/NEET

3. Magnetic Effects of Current

Choose the correct answer :

1. The radius of curvature of the path followed by a 5. A charged particle is moving in a circular path in
charge particle in magnetic field is proportional to a magnetic field region. The time period of
oscillation is independent of
(1) Charge of the particle
(2) Momentum of the particle (1) Magnetic field
(3) Energy of the particle (2) Charge of the particle
(4) Magnetic field density (3) Mass of the particle
2. A square loop of side a carries a current I. A (4) Velocity of the particle
uniform magnetic field B is along the z-axis. This
6. A charged particle is released from rest in a region
loop is placed in magnetic field in four different
of uniform electric and magnetic fields which are
manners as shown in figures.
parallel to each other. The particle will move in a
y y
(1) Circular path

x x (2) Helical path

I (3) Cycloidal path
a. b. (4) Straight line path
I
7. A vertical wire carrying a current in the upward
z z direction is placed in horizontal magnetic field
y y directed towards east. The wire will experience the
force in the direction of
x x (1) East (2) West
I
a (3) North (4) South
c. d.
I 8. A wire of radius R and uniform cross-section in
has steady current i is flowing. The variation of the
z z magnetic field as function of distance r from the
Which manner corresponds to stable equilibrium? axis of wire is correctly represented by
(1) a (2) b
B
(3) c (4) d
3. Magnetic field strength due to current carrying long
conductor is B at a distance r from the wire. The (1)
r
magnetic field at a distance from the wire is r=R r
4
B
(1) 2B (2) 4B
(3) 8B (4) 16B
4. A square frame of wire carrying current I is shown (2)
in figure. The magnetic field will be r
r=R
I B

(3)

r=R r
I B
(1) Zero at the centre of square frame
(2) Maximum at the centre of square frame
(3) Zero at all points inside the frame (4)
(4) Zero at all points outside the frame r=R r
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 Magnetic Effects of Current IIT - JEE/NEET

9. An uniform magnetic field B and a uniform electric 12. A proton moving with speed u along the positive x-
field E act in a region. If a charge particle enters axis at y = 0 enters a region of uniform magnetic
in this region then the charged particle may remain
field B  B0 kˆ . The proton exits from the region
undeflected in the region
after some time with the speed v at co-ordinate
E B
y, then
(1) q v Y
× × × × ×

E × × × × ×
q v × × × × ×
(2)
× × × × ×
q u
X
E × × × × ×
q v /3
(3) (1) v > u, y < 0
(2) v < u, y > 0
(3) v = u, y > 0
B
(4) v = u, y < 0
13. A moving coil galvanometer is converted into
E ammeter and voltmeter. Select the incorrect
statement

v (1) Current sensitivity depends upon number of

q turn of loops in galvanometer
(4)
(2) Voltage sensitivity depends upon number of
turn of loops in galvanometer
B
(3) Resistance of ideal ammeter is zero
10. For the arrangement shown in figure, the magnetic
induction at the centre C (4) Resistance of ideal voltmeter is infinity

90°
14. Two long parallel wires carrying currents I1 and I2
I in same direction separated by distance r, exert
force F on each other. Now current in one of them
R
C is increased to three times. The distance is also
2R increased to four times. The new value of force
between them is

3 0I  0I 4 3
(1) F (2) F
(1) (2) 3 4
16R 16R

3 9
5 0I 3 0I (3) F (4) F
(3) (4) 16 4
16R 18R
15. A circular coil of one turn carrying current produces
11. A thin wire carrying current i is placed along
magnetic field B at the centre of coil. What will the
positive z-axis. The unit vector of magnetic field at
new magnetic field at the centre if this coil is bent
a point (a, a, 0) is
into n turns?
1 ˆ 1 ˆ 1 ˆ 1 ˆ B
(1) i  j (2) i – j (1) nB (2)
2 2 2 2 n

1 ˆ 1 ˆ 1 ˆ 1 ˆ B
(3) – i  j (4) – i – j (3) n2B (4)
2 2 2 2 n2

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16. A circular loop of radius R carries a current I so 21. A straight wire carrying current I subtend an angle
that its magnetic moment is M. Now, the loop is of 120° at the centre of circle of radius R. The
changed to a square, keeping other conditions magnetic field at the centre O is
same. Its magnetic moment will become/remain
3  0I
4 (1) 
(1) M (2) M 2R


 3  0I R
(3) M (4) 2M (2)
2R

120°
4 O
I
17. A current is flowing in a regular hexagon wire of
side a. The magnetic field at the centre O is 2 2  0I
(3) 
R

I 2 2 0I
(4)
R
O
22. Particles P and Q having mass m and 2m
respectively and charge q and 2q respectively enter
a perpendicularly into a magnetic field with speed v
and 2v respectively. Time periods of rotation of P
2  0I 2  0I and Q are TP and TQ respectively. Then
(1) (2) 
a a (1) TP = TQ

3  0I 3  0I (2) 2TP = TQ
(3) (4) 
a a (3) TP = 2TQ
18. A uniform electric field and a uniform magnetic field (4) 4TP = TQ
are acting in the same direction. An alpha particle
23. A uniform magnetic field of strength 2 T is acting
is projected with its velocity pointing in the given
at an angle 60° from the plane of square coil of
direction, then
side 2 m and carrying current 10 A. The torque
(1) The -particle turns to left acting on the coil is
(2) The -particle turns to right
(1) 40 N-m (2) 40 3 N - m
(3) The velocity of -particle increases
(4) The velocity of -particle decreases
(3) 20 N-m (4) 20 3 N - m
19. An electron revolving in the Bohr’s first orbit of
hydrogen atom produces magnetic field B at the 24. A rectangular loop of dimensions a and b carrying
nucleus. If this electron jumps to second orbit and current I is shown in figure. The magnetic field at
revolves, then field at the nucleus is the centre O is

B B b
(1) (2)
2 8

B B
(3) (4) a I
16 32 O
20. The ratio of magnetic field at the centre of a
circular current carrying wire and the magnetic field
at the centre of a square formed with the same
length of wire when same current flows through it, 2 0I a2  b2 2 0I a2  b2
(1)  (2)
is r ab r ab
(1)  : 4 (2) 2 : 7
 0I a2  b2  0I a2  b2
(3)  2 : 8 2 (4) 2 : 4 (3) .  (4) .
2r ab 2r ab

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25. A charge particle q enters in a region of uniform m 2 m

magnetic field normally and exits from the other (1) (2)
3Bq 3 Bq
end of the magnetic field space. The deflection of
the charge particle in magnetic field is 2m m
(3) (4)
Bq Bq
B
O 28. What is the magnetic field at the centre O due to
current carrying conductor as shown in the figure?
 r v
Y

I
I
q O
R X
d

 dqB   dqB  Z
(1)   cos 1  (2)   cos 1 
 mv   2mv   0I  iˆ   0I  iˆ ˆj 
  ˆj  .  
(1) 4R   (2) 4R  2
   
 dqB   dqB 
(3)   sin 1  (4)   sin 1 
 mv   2mv   0I  iˆ kˆ   0I  iˆ 
(3) 4R . – –  (4) 4R . – ˆj 
  2  2 
26. A galvanometer of resistance 50  is connected to    
a battery of 3 volt with a resistance of 2950  in 29. A uniformly charged ring of radius R carrying
series. A full scale deflection of 30 divisions is charge q is rotating with angular speed . The
obtained in the galvanometer. In order to reduce magnetic field at the centre of ring is
this deflection to 20 divisions, the resistance in
series should be  0 q  0 q
(1) (2)
2R 4R
(1) 6050  (2) 5050 
 0 q
(3) 5550  (4) 4450  (3) (4) Zero
8 R
27. A particle of mass m and charge q enters a region
30. A particle with charge q and mass m is projected
of uniform magnetic field of strength B along the
with speed v at an angle 30° with magnetic field.
direction as shown in the figure. The speed of the
Then select the incorrect statement
particle is v. Then time spent by the particle in
magnetic field. mv
(1) Radius of helix is
2qB

× × × × 2m
(2) Time period of revolution of particle is
qB
× × × ×
3m
× × × × (3) Pitch of helix is
2qB
60°
× × × × (4) Axis of helix is along magnetic field

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 Magnetism IIT - JEE/NEET

4. Magnetism
Choose the Correct Answer:
1. The magnetism of the bar magnet is due to 8. At the magnetic poles of earth
(1) Earth’s magnetism (1) Angle of dip is zero
(2) Cosmic rays (2) Vertical component of earth’s field is zero
(3) The spin motion of electron (3) Horizontal component of earth’s field is zero

(4) Pressure of big magnet inside the earth (4) Net field of earth is zero

2. A bar magnet of magnetic moment M and pole 9. The true value of angle of dip at a place is 60°. The
strength m is broken in two equal part along the apparent angle of dip, when a magnetic needle is
magnetic axis. The magnetic moment and pole rotated through 30° from the magnetic meridian at
strength of each part are the same place, is

M m M 1  1 
(1) , (2) ,m (1) tan 1 (2) (2) tan  
2 2 2 2

m 1  3  1  4 
(3) M , (4) M, m (3) tan   (4) tan  
2 2 3
10. A bar magnet of magnetic moment M is bent in the
3. If a magnet is hanged freely in air then it stops in
form of quadrant of circular arc. The new magnetic
(1) Magnetic meridian (2) Geometric meridian moment is
(3) Angle of dip (4) Angle of declination 2M 2 2M
(1) (2)
4. At a certain place, horizontal component of earth’s  
field is 3 times the vertical component of earth’s 2M
field. The angle of dip at this place is (3) (4) M

(1) 30° (2) 45° 11. The angles of dip at two places are 30° and 60°
(3) 60° (4) 90° respectively. W hat is the ratio of horizontal
components of earth’s magnetic field at the two
5. The materials suitable for making electromagnets places, if vertical components at the two places
should have are same?
(1) High retentivity and high coercivity
1
(2) High retentivity and low coercivity (1) 3 (2)
3
(3) Low retentivity and high coercivity
(3) 2 (4) 3
(4) Low retentivity and low coercivity
6. Magnetic susceptibility of diamagnetic substances 12. A thin rectangular magnet suspended freely has a
depends upon the absolute temperature T as period of oscillation T in a uniform magnetic field.
Now it is broken in two equal parts perpendicular
(1) T1 (2) T–1 to magnetic axis and one piece is allowed to
(3) T–2 (4) T0 oscillate in the same f ield. If its period of

7. When a ferromagnetic material is heated above its T

oscillation is T  , then ratio is
Curie temperature, the material T

(1) Becomes permanently magnetized 1 1

(1) (2)
(2) Becomes diamagnetic 2 4

(3) Becomes paramagnetic 1

(3) 2 (4)
2
(4) Remains ferromagnetic
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13. A magnetic needle lying parallel to a magnetic 19. A magnet of magnetic moment 50 iˆ Am2 is placed
field requires W units of work to turn through 60°. along the x-axis in a uniform magnetic field
The external torque required to maintain the 
magnetic needle in this position is B  (0.5iˆ  3.0 ˆj )T . What is torque experienced by
(1) W (2) 2 W the dipole?
(1) 100 Nm (2) 25 Nm
3
(3) W (4) 3 W
2 (3) 150 Nm (4) 200 Nm
14. The pole strength of a bar magnet is 48 A-m and 20. Select the incorrect statement about paramagnetic
the distance between its poles is 25 cm. The substance
torque, by which it can be placed at an angle of
30° with the uniform magnetic field of strength 0.15 (1) W hen a rod of paramagnetic material is
suspended freely between two magnetic poles,
Wb/m2, will be
its axis becomes parallel to the magnetic field
(1) 0.90 N-m (2) 1.80 N-m
(2) In non-uniform magnetic field para magnetic
(3) 2.70 N-m (4) 3.6 N-m substance move from weaker to stronger part of
15. A long magnet is placed vertically on a table. A the magnetic field slowly
neutral point is located at a distance of 20 cm (3) In this substance the magnetic field lines are
from it. If horizontal component of earth’s magnetic closer than in air
field is 5 × 10–5 Wb/m2, then the pole strength of
the magnet is (4) Its susceptibility is directly proportional to
absolute temperature
(1) 10 A-m (2) 20 A-m
21. Two short bar magnets of magnetic moment M
(3) 40 A-m (4) 80 A-m
each are placed at a distance 2d apart. The
16. A magnetic needle is kept in a non uniform magnetic field midway between them at P is
magnetic field. It experiences
(1) Force and torque both S
(2) Neither force nor torque
(3) A force but not torque
(4) A torque but not force
S N P
17. In a vertical plane p1 making angle 30° with magnetic
meridian, apparent angle of dip is 60°. The apparent d d
N
angle of dip in vertical plane p2, which is perpendicular
to plane p1 is
(1) 30° (2) 45°  0 3M 0 M 5
(1) (2)
4 d 3 4 d 3
1  1 
(3) tan–1(3) (4) tan  
3
 0 2M 0 M
18. A bar magnet oscillates in a region of uniform (3) (4)
4 d 3 4 d 3
magnetic field with time period T. Now, a piece of
wood identical in all respects in terms of mass and 22. A magnet of moment of inertia I and magnetic
length is joined with bar magnet as shown. The new moment M is vibrating in a uniform magnetic field
time period of oscillation is of strength H, then time period of vibration T is

B (1) Directly proportional to I

N S 1
Wood (2) Directly proportional to
H
(1) T (2) 2 T
(3) Directly proportional to M
T
(3) (4) 2T
2 (4) Both (1) & (2)

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23. Select the correct statement 25. Two bar magnets of magnetic moment M each are
placed in two different manners as shown in figure
(1) The magnetization in a ferromagnetic material
depends only on the magnetic intensity H S N
(2) The magnetization in a ferromagnetic material
depends only on previous history of the
specimen N 60° S 60°
(3) The magnetization in a ferromagnetic material N S N S
depends not only on the magnetic intensity H (a) (b)
but also on the previous history of the specimen Net magnetic moments of system arranged in
(4) None of these figure(a) and figure(b) MA and MB respectively, then

24. The flux through a certain torroid changes from MA

MB
is equal to
0.65 mWb to 0.91 mWb, when the air core is
replaced by another material. What is the relative
permeability of the material? (1) 1 (2) 3
(1) 1.2 (2) 1.3
1
(3) 1.4 (4) 1.5 (3) 2 (4)
3

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 Electromagnetic Induction IIT - JEE/NEET

5. Electromagnetic Induction

Choose the correct answer :

1. The magnetic flux linked with a coil is given by a 8. A coil of inductance L is carrying a steady
equation  (in webers) = 8t 2 + 2t + 20. The current i. What is the nature of its stored energy?
induced emf in the coil at the end of third second (1) Magnetic (2) Electrical
will be
(3) Both (1) & (2) (4) Thermal
(1) 17 V (2) 68 V
9. A conductor ABC moves along its bisector with a
(3) 34 V (4) 65 V velocity of 2 m/s through a perpendicular magnetic
field of 1 Wb/m2, as shown in figure. If both sides
2. In electromagnetic induction, the induced charge in
of conductor are 2 m length each, then the
a coil is independent of
induced emf between points A and C is
(1) Resistance of coil (2) Change in flux × × A ×
(3) Time (4) None of these × × ×
3. The south pole of a magnet is brought near a × 30° × ×
metallic ring. The direction of the induced current v = 2 m/s
×B 30°× ×
in the ring will be
× × ×
(1) Clockwise (2) Anticlockwise
C
× × ×
(3) Towards north (4) Towards south
(1) Zero (2) 4 V
4. The magnitude of earth’s magnetic field at a place
(3) 8 V (4) 12 V
is B 0 and the angle of dip is . A horizontal
conductor of length l lying along the magnetic 10. A copper rod of length l is rotated about mid point
north-south, moves westwards with a velocity v. of rod, perpendicular to the magnetic field B with
The emf induced across the conductor is constant angular velocity . The induced emf
between the two ends is
(1) B0lv (2) Zero
1
(3) B0lv sin (4) B0lv cos (1) Bl 2 (2) Bl2
2
5. The average emf induced in a coil in which the
current changes from 5 ampere to 15 ampere in (3) 2Bl2 (4) Zero
0.1 second is 6 volt. What is the self inductance 11. A small square loop of wire of side l is placed
of the coil? inside a large circular loop of radius r. The loops
are coplanar and their centre coincide. The mutual
(1) 0.08 H (2) 0.16 H inductance of the system is proportional is
(3) 0.32 H (4) 1.12 H
l2 l
6. When the number of turns and the length of the (1) (2)
r r
solenoid are doubled while the area of cross-
r
section is halved, the inductance (3) (4) lr
l2
(1) Remains the same (2) Is halved
12. A wire of length 2 m is moving at a speed of
(3) Is doubled (4) Becomes four times 4 ms –1 perpendicular to its length and a
homogeneous magnetic field of 1.0 T. The ends of
7. The co-efficient of self inductance of a solenoid is the wire are joined to a circuit of resistance 2.
0.20 mH. If a rod of soft iron of relative permeability The rate at which work is being done to keep the
500 is inserted, then the coeff icient of self wire moving at constant speed is
inductance will become nearly
(1) 8 W (2) 32 W
(1) 100 mH (2) 0.004 mH
1
(3) 50 mH (4) 0.20 mH (3) W (4) 2 W
16

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13. A coil of wire of a certain radius has 40 turns and

Current
a self inductance of 64 mH. The self inductance of
a second coil of 60 turns will be

(1) 64 mH
(2) 32 mH
O Time
(3) 144 mH
(1) I decreases and the rate of change of current
(4) 128 mH
decreases
14. A conducting rod is moved with a constant velocity (2) I increases and the rate of change of current
v in a magnetic field. A potential difference appears increases
across the two ends
(3) The induced emf is proportional to the current
(1) If v | | l (4) The solenoid has resistance as well as
inductance
(2) If v | | B 18. Sliding contact in circuit shown in figure, is moved
to right continuously so that the resistance in the
(3) If l | | B circuit is continuously increasing. Value of
resistance at the instant shown is 8 . Now which
(4) None of these of the following is correct?

15. Two identical circular loops of metal wire are lying

on a table without touching each other. Loop A
carries a current which increases with time. In 5 mH
response, the loop B
(1) Remains stationary
(2) Is attracted by the loop A 16 V

(3) Is repelled by the loop A (1) Current in the circuit is 2.0 A

(4) Rotates about its centre of mass with centre (2) Current in the circuit is greater than 2.0 A
of mass fixed
(3) Current in the circuit is less than 2.0 A
16. The network shown in figure is a part of a
complete circuit. If at a certain instant, the current (4) Data is insufficient
i is 4 A and is increasing at a rate of 103 AS–1. 19. In the given circuit the current supplied by battery
Then (VB – VA) will be at t = 0 and t =  will be

i
A 1 12 V 5 mH B
16 V 8 2H
(1) 5 V
(2) 3 V 8
(3) – 6 V

(4) 12 V (1) 2 A, 1 A
17. A constant potential difference is applied across a (2) 2 A, zero
solenoid of inductance L. The variation of current
with time is shown in figure. Which of the following (3) Zero, 1 A
can be deduced from the shape of the graph? (4) Zero, zero
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20. A square loop of side 10 cm enters a magnetic v

field with 2 cm/s. The front edge enters the
magnetic field at t = 0, then which graph best
–3
depicts emf? (2) 2.4 × 10

t
10 cm × × × × × × × O 5 20
× × × × × × × B = 1.2 T
v
–3
× × × × × × × 2.4 × 10
40 cm O 5 20
(3) t
25
v

–3
v
(1) 2.4 × 10 2.4 × 10
–3

(4)
20 25 t
t
O 5 20 25 O 5

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 Alternating Currents IIT - JEE/NEET

6. Alternating Currents

Choose the correct answer :

1. An L-R circuit has a cell of emf E, which is 7. Two coils have a mutual inductance 0.05 H. The
switched on at time t = 0. The current in the current changes in the first coil according the
circuit after switched on at t = 0, will be equation I = I 0 sint, where I 0 = 5A and
 = 50 rad/s. The maximum value of emf in the
E second coil is
(1) Zero (2)
R (1) 1.25  (2) 12.5 
E E (3) 25.0  (4) 2.5 
(3) (4) 2 2
L L R RCV
8. The dimension of the quantity is
2. The ratio of secondary to the primary turns in a L
transformer is 5 : 4. If the power output be P, then (1) [MLTA–1] (2) [M0L0TA–2]
the input power neglecting all loses must be equal (3) [M0LTA0] (4) [M0L0T0A]
to
9. A capacitor of capacitance C and resistance R are
(1) 1.25 P (2) 0.8 P joined in series and connected by a source of
(3) P (4) 1.44 P frequency . Power dissipated in the circuit is

3. Power delivered by the source of the alternating  2 1  V 2R

circuit to a series LCR circuit becomes maximum (1)  R  2 2  (2)
  C   2 1 
when R  2 2 
 C 
1
(1) L = C (2) L 
C V 1
R2 
 C2
2
(3)  R 2  1  (4)
 1 
2
 2C 2  V2
(3) L   C  (4) L  C
  10. An inducter L and a capacitor C are connected in
the circuit as shown in the figure. The frequency of
4. A circuit consists of 3 ohm resistance and 4 ohm power suppy is equal to the resonant frequency of
reactance. The power factor of the circuit is the circuit. Which ammeter will read zero?
(1) 0.4 (2) 0.6
A1
(3) 0.8 (4) 1.0
C
5. The phase difference between the current and A2
voltage of LCR circuit in series combination at
resonance is ~ A3
 E = E0sin t
(1) 0 (2)
2 (1) A1 (2) A2
(3)  (4) –  (3) A3 (4) None of there
6. In an ac circuit, the current lags behind the voltage 11. For a series RLC circuit, R = X L = 2X C. The
 impedance of the circuit and phase difference
by . The components in the circuit are between V and i will be
3
(1) R and L 5R 5R  1
(1) , tan 1(2) (2) , tan 1 
(2) R and C 2 2 2

(3) L and C  1
(3) 5 X c , tan 12 (4) 5 R, tan 1 
(4) Only R 2

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 Alternating Currents IIT - JEE/NEET

12. Which of the following plots may represent the 16. With increase in frequency of an AC supply, the
variation of reactance of a series LC combination? impedance of an L–C–R series circuit
III (1) Remains constant
I
Reactance
(2) Increases
II
(3) Decreases
Frequency
IV (4) Decreases at first, becomes minimum and
then increases
(1) I (2) II 17. If an alternating voltage is given by e = e1 + e2 sin
t,then the root mean square value of the voltage
(3) III (4) IV
is given by
13. An electric bulbs of 100 W–300 V is connected
 150  2 e2 2 e12  e 2 2
with an AC supply of 500 V and    Hz. The (1) e1  (2)
  2 2
required inductance to save the electric bulb is
e1e 2
1 (3) e 12  e 2 2 (4)
(1) 2H (2) H 2
2
18. A direct current of 4A and an alternating current
1
(3) 4H (4) H having a maximum value of 4A flow through two
4 identical resistance. The ratio of heat produced in
14. In the circuit given below, the AC source has the two resistance will be
voltage 20 cos t with  = 2000 rad/s. The
amplitude of the current will be nearest to (1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 4 : 1
20V 0.1 6
~ 19. Figure shows two bulbs B1 and B2 resister R and
inductor L, when the switch S is turned off

5mH 4 50MF R
B1
S
(1) 2 A (2) 3.3 A L
B2
2 A
(3) 5 (4) 5A
15. In a series LCR circuit, the source frequency f is
varried, but the current is kept unchanged. Which
of the following curves shows changes of VC and
VL with frequency? (1) Both B1 and B2 die out promptly

VC VL (2) Both B1 and B2 die out with some delay

(i) V VL (ii) V VC
(3) B2 dies out promptly, but B1 with some delay
f f (4) B1 dies out promptly, but B2 with some delay

VC 20. If L and R denote inductance and resistance

(iii) V VL (iv) V VL
R
VC respectively, then the dimension of L is
f f
(1) (i) (2) (ii) (1) [M0L0T1] (2) [M0L1T–1]
(3) (iii) (4) (iv) (3) [M1L0T–1] (4) [M0L0T–1]

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 Electromagnetic Waves IIT -JEE/NEET

7. Electromagnetic Waves

Choose the correct answer :

1. Red light differs from blue light in its 9. Which of the following pairs of space and time
(1) Speed (2) Frequency varying electric and magnetic field E  B would
generate a plane electromagnetic wave travelling in
(3) Intensity (4) Amplitude
y-direction?
2. Which has the largest wavelength? (1) Ex, B y (2) Ez, Ex
(1) Radio wave (2) X-ray (3) Ey, Bx (4) Ey, Bz
(3) Ultraviolet ray (4) Infra-red ray 10. If an electromagnetic wave propagating through
vacuum is describe by
3. In an electromagnetic wave, the amplitude of
electric field is 1 V/m. What is average energy Ey = E0 sin (kx – t); Bz = B0 sin (kx – t), then
density of electric field? (1) E0k = B0 (2) E0B0 = k
(1) 2.2 × 10–12 J/m3 (2) 4.4 × 10–12 J/m3 
(3) E0 = B0k (4) E 0B0 
(3) 3 × 10–9 J/m3 (4) 12 × 10–12 J/m3 k
11. Out of the following, choose the ray which does
4. Electromagnetic wave is deflected by not travel with the velocity of light
(1) Electric field (1) X-ray (2) Microwave
(2) Magnetic field (3) -rays (4) -rays
(3) Both of (1) & (2) 12. In a plane electromagnetic wave, which of the
following have zero average value?
(4) Neither electric field nor magnetic field
(a) Magnetic field (b) Magnetic energy
5. The speed of electromagnetic waves depends upon (c) Electric field (d) Electric energy
(1) Electric field (1) (a), (c) (2) (b), (c)
(2) Magnetic field (3) (a), (d) (4) All of these
(3) Intensity 13. The ratio of amplitude B0 and E0 of the magnetic
and electric f ields associated with an
(4) Medium, in which it travels electromagnet wave is
6. Refractive index of a medium is given by 1
(1) (2) c
c
(1)  r r (2) 0 0
1
(3) c 2 (4)
1 1 c2
(3) (4)
r  r 00 14. The f igure giv es the magnetic f ield of an
electromagnetic wave at a certain point and at a
7. Displacement current is set up between the plates
certain instant. The wave transports energy in
of the capacitor when the potential difference
negative y-direction. Then the direction of electric
across the plates is
field at this point and instant is
(1) Maximum (2) Zero z
(3) Minimum (4) Varying

8. If E and B represent the electric and magnetic

field vectors of the electromagnetic waves, then the y
direction of propagation of the electromagnetic
waves is that of B
x
(1) E (2) B
(1) z-axis (2) – z-axis
(3) E  B (4) B  E (3) x-axis (4) – x-axis
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 Electromagnetic Waves IIT -JEE/NEET

15. The amplitude of electric field at a distance r from a 17. If ,  and t stand for permittivity, electric flux and
source of power P is (taking 100% efficiency) d
time respectively, then dimensions of . is
dt
P same as that
(1)
2r 2 c 0 (1) Speed (2) Current
(3) Charge (4) Potential difference
P
(2) 18. Ozone layer blocks the radiation of wavelength
4r 2c 0
(1) Less than 4 × 10–7 m
P (2) Between 4 × 10–7 m to 8 × 10–7 m
(3) (3) More than 8 × 10–7m
8r 2 c 0
(4) None of these
P 19. Choose the incorrect statement
(4)
2r 2 c 0 (1) EM waves are produced by accelerated charge
16. W hich of the following pairs of electric and (2) Heat radiations are a type of EM waves
magnetic field vector represent an electromagnetic (3) Speed of EM waves in vacuum is the same for
wave travelling along negative Z-axis? all intensities and frequencies
(4) Speed of EM waves is same in all media
(1) E  E 0 sin( t  kz )iˆ , B  B0 sin(  t  kz ) ˆj
20. A free proton is placed in path of an EM wave. The
proton starts moving
(2) E  E 0 sin(  t  kz ) ˆj , B  B0 sin( t  kz )iˆ (1) In the direction of the poynting vector
(2) Along the direction of electric field
(3) E  E 0 sin( t  kz )iˆ , B  B0 sin( t  kz ) ˆj
(3) Along the direction of magnetic field
(4) In a direction perpendicular to both electric and
(4) E  E 0 sin(  t  kz ) ˆj , B  B0 sin( t  kz )iˆ magnetic field

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 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments IIT - JEE/NEET

8. Ray Optics and Optical Instruments

Choose the correct answer :

6. A bird is at a height X above the water surface and
1. Magnification of a concave mirror a fish is at a depth Y below the surface. If the two
(1) Is always positive are in a vertical line and µ in the refractive index
of water w.r.t air, then distance of the fish as
(2) Is always negative observed by the bird is
(3) Can be positive as well as negative
Y Y
(4) Is always zero (1) X  (2) X 
 
2. An equiconvex lens (3) µX + Y (4) X + µY
(1) Is always convergent 7. Figure shows a right angle isosceles prism of
(2) Is always divergent glass of refractive index 1.414. The angle of
incidence i at AB for which the refracted ray
(3) May be convergent or divergent depending through diagonal face goes undeviated is
upon the surrounding medium
A
(4) Is neither convergent, nor divergent
3. In an astronomical telescope focal length of the
objective lens is 100 cm and that of eyepiece is 5 i
cm. The tubelength of the instrument in normal
adjustment is
B C
(1) 95 cm (2) 100 cm
(1) 0° (2) 30°
(3) 5 cm (4) 105 cm
(3) 45° (4) 90°
4. Light travels through a glass (refractive index µ)
8. The radii of curvature of the two surfaces of a lens
plate of thickness t. If T is the time taken by light
are 20 cm and 30 cm. The refractive index of lens
to travel the thickness of the plate then speed of
material is 1.5. If the lens is concavoconvex then
light in vacuum is given by
focal length of the lens is
t tT (1) 120 cm (2) 40 cm
(1) (2)
T  (3) 15 cm (4) 24 cm
9. A converging beam is incident on a convex lens of
t T glass placed in air. The image formed is
(3) (4)
T t
(1) Real, erect and enlarged
5. In a vessel two insoluble liquids are filled as shown (2) Real, erect and diminished
in the figure. The effective refractive index of the
combination for normal view is (3) Virtual, erect and diminished
(4) Virtual, erect and enlarged
10. An achromatic lens combination is to be made with
a lens of f ocal length f, dispersiv e power
4 4
µ1 =  and with a lens of dispersive power  . The
3 8 cm 3
focal length of the second lens should be
3
µ2 = 6 cm
2 4 3
(1) f (2) f
3 4
(1) 1.33 (2) 1.5
4 3
(3) 1.67 (4) 1.4 (3) f (4) f
3 4
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 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments IIT - JEE/NEET

11. A ray of light passes from vacuum into a medium 18. A beam is incident on a tube containing two convex
of refractive index µ. If the angle of incidence is lenses of focal length 15 cm and 20 cm as shown. If
found to be twice the angle of refraction, then the the diameter of incident beam is 10 cm, find the
angle of refraction is diameter of final beam

1   1   
(1) cos   (2) 2 cos  
2 2 

1   
(3) 2 sin–1 (–µ) (4) 2 sin  
2
12. A convex lens of focal length 40 cm and a concave
40 20
lens of focal length 36 cm are kept coaxially at 4 (1) cm (2) cm
cm apart. The power of the combination for parallel 3 3
rays is
50 25
(1) 2.5 D (2) 25 D (3) cm (4) cm
3 3
(3) 10 D (4) Zero
19. A glass slab of thickness 5 mm is placed over a
 4 table on which there are three letters of different colour
13. Upto what height should water     be filled
 3 red, yellow & violet. Which of the letter will shift the
into a vessel of height 28 cm such that it appears least?
half filled when viewed from the top?
(1) Red
(1) 16 cm (2) 13.5 cm
(2) Yellow
(3) 21 cm (4) 12 cm
(3) Violet
14. In which of the following phenomena, total internal
reflection does not take place? (4) Same shift for all

(1) Rainbow (2) Optical fiber 20. For what value of angle of incidence for a prism of

(3) Mirage (4) Looming refractive index 2 and angle of prism equal to 90°,
there will be no emergence from the other face?
15. The focal length of a concave lens is 50 cm, its
optical power is (1) 30°
(1) 1 D (2) –2 D (2) 60°
(3) 0.5 D (4) –4 D (3) 90°
16. A ray of light incident on an equilateral glass prism (4) For any value other than 90°
shows minimum deviation of 30°. Calculate the
speed of light through the glass prism 21. A cubical glass paper-weight of side ‘a’ is placed
over a physics paper. What should be the value of
(1) 2 × 108 m/s (2) 1 × 108 m/s refractive index so that the paper can not be seen
from the walls of the cube?
3
(3) 3  10 8 m/s (4)  10 8 m/s
2 (1) 3 (2) 2
17. Find the angle of incidence of the ray on the mirror
M2, so that the ray becomes parallel to mirror M2, 4 3
after reflection from M1 (3) (4)
3 2
M1
22. A plano convex lens is silvered at its convex surface.
The refractive index and the radius of curvature of
3
60° the lens are and 30 cm respectively. Then the
2
M2 effective focal length will be
(1) 60° (2) 45° (1) 20 cm (2) 10 cm
(3) 30° (4) 90° (3) 40 cm (4) 15 cm
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 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments IIT - JEE/NEET

23. The separation between the object and the screen 27. Two different letters, one red & other violet are covered
is 100 cm. There are two positions of the lens for with two hemispherical paper weights of refractive
which image is formed on the screen itself and the
indices 2 and radius R. If the letters are at the
separation between the two positions of the lens is
60 cm. The focal length of the lens is centre of the hemisphere then
(1) 10 cm (2) 13 cm (1) Red letter will shift more
(3) 16 cm (4) 18 cm (2) Both will shift by same distance
24. In the previous question, the magnification of the (3) Violet letter will shift more
object is 4 in one of the positions then what will be
(4) There will be no shift
magnification of the object in second position?
(1) +4 (2) –2 f
28. A thin rod of length is placed along the principal
3
1 1
(3)  (4)  axis of a concave mirror of focal length f, such that
2 4 its image which is real and elongated, just touches
25. The focal length of a lens in air is 20 cm. If lens is the rod. Then the magnification of the rod is

 4 3 2
placed in water     the new focal length will be (1) (2)
 3 2 3

(1) 5 cm (2) 80 cm 1
(3) (4) 2
(3) 60 cm (4) 120 cm 2
26. A lens is cut from the optical centre along the 29. A ray passes through an equilateral prism and suffers
principal axis and the two parts of the lens are placed minimum deviation. Find the angle between the ray
sideways as shown in figure. Then the new focal inside the prism and the base of the prism
length of the combination
(1) 60° (2) 30°
(3) 45° (4) 0°
30. The diameter of aperture of an astronomical telescope
is 1.22 m. What should be minimum separation
between two objects at distance 10 km from the
telescope to observe them distinctly (take
wavelength of light to be 5000 Å)?
(1) Remains the same (2) Becomes double
(1) 2 m (2) 50 cm
(3) Becomes half (4) Becomes triple (3) 5 mm (4) 5 cm

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 Wave Optics IIT - JEE/NEET

9. Wave Optics

Choose the correct answer :

1. Which of the following gives best monochromatic 8. In a Young’s double slit experiment, the intensity
source of light? at the central maximum is I. The intensity at a

(1) Candle (2) Bulb 

distance above the central maximum is (where
2
(3) Laser (4) Sun
 = fringe width)
2. Coherence is a measure of
I0 I0
(1) Waves being reflected (1) (2)
2 2
(2) Waves being refracted
(3) Waves being diffracted I0
(3) (4) Zero
(4) Capability of producing interference by waves 4

3. From Brewster’s law for polarization, it follows that 9. Unpolarized beam of light of intensity I0 is incident
the angle of polarization depends upon on two polarizers in contact. The angle between
the transmission axes of the two polarizers is .
(1) The wavelength of light
The intensity of the light finally emerging from the
(2) The frequency of light combination is
(3) The refractive index of the material (1) I0 cos2  (2) I0 cos4 
(4) The density of the material
 I0  2  I0  2
4. If waves are originating from a point source, then (3)   cos  (4)   cos 
2
  4
 
amplitude (A) at a distance (r) from the source are
related as 10. A thin transparent plate of refractive index µ and
(1) A  r (2) A  r2 thickness t is placed on the path of one of the
interfering beam in Young’s double slit experiment.
1 1 If D is distance of screen from the slits and d is
(3) A  (4) A  the separation between the slits, then fringe pattern
r r2
will shift
5. Diffraction occurs in which of the following waves?
(1) Longitudinal (2) Transverse D
(1) (  1) towards the slit which is covered
d
(3) Electromagnetic (4) All of these
6. In a Young’s double slit experiment, fourth bright D
fringe is formed at a distance x from central fringe. (2) (  1) towards the slit which is not covered
d
The distance between it and second dark fringe on
the same side of central maximum is
D
(3) (  1)t towards the slit which is covered
3x 11x d
(1) (2)
8 8
D
(4) (  1)t towards the slit which is not
13x 5x d
(3) (4)
8 8 covered

7. Two light beams of intensity I & 4I are used to 11. Optical path of a monochromatic light is same if it
interference experiment. What is the resultant goes through 4.5 cm of glass or 5.0 cm in a liquid,
intensity, when the two beams superimpose with a if the refractive index of the glass is 1.5, then
phase difference of ? refractive index of the liquid is
(1) 9I (2) I (1) 1.33 (2) 1.35
(3) 5I (4) 3I (3) 1.45 (4) 1.67

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 Wave Optics IIT - JEE/NEET

12. A diffraction pattern is obtained using a beam of 18. Five waves are expressed as
yellow light. What happens if the yellow light is
I. y1 = a1 sin t
replaced by red light?
II. y2 = a2 sin 2 t
(1) No change
 
(2) Diffraction bands become narrower III. y3 = a3 sin  t  
 2 
(3) Diffraction bands become broader
IV. y4 = a4 sin 2(t + )
(4) Diffraction bands disappear V. y5 = a5 sin (t + )
13. The central maximum of interference pattern The interference is not possible between
produced by light of wavelength 6000 Å is shifted
to the position of 5 the bright fringe by introducing (1) I & V (2) II & IV
a thin film of refractive index 1.5. The thickness of (3) II & V (4) I & III
the film is 19. Which of the following is incorrect about diffraction
(1) 6 mm (2) 6 µm at a single slit? (symbols hav e their usual
meanings)
(3) 12 mm (4) 12 µm
(1) If the intensity of central maximum is I, then
14. For what distance ray nature of light is a good intensities of I st, II nd and III rd maxima are
approximation when the aperture is 1 mm wide and respectively 4.96%, 1.68% and 0.83% of I
wavelength is 5000 Å?
(2) The position of first minima on either side of
(1) 2 m (2) 20 m D
central maximum is 
(3) 200 m (4) 1 m a
15. In a Young’s double slit experiment, the separation (3) For diffraction at a single slit, the width of slit
between the slits is doubled and the distance must be of the order of wavelength of light
between the plane of slits and screen is halved. used
The fringe width is (4) Width of each fringe in diffraction pattern is
(1) Halved (2) Doubled 2D
given by
a
(3) Quadrupled (4) Quartered
20. W hich of the f ollowing is incorrect about
16. White light containg radiations of wavelength 420 interference pattern in a Young’s double slit
nm to 700 nm is used in a Young’s double slit experiment?
experiment as shown in figure. Which wavelength
(1) The intensity of all bright fringes is same
is completely absent at P?
(2) The central maximum is that at which phase
P difference between interfering waves is zero
(3) For observing interference pattern, first
S1
1 mm diffraction must take place

0.5 mm (4) The beams producing interference must have

C zero phase difference
S2 21. Two coherent sources S1 and S2 are separated by
50 cm 1.5 . Interference fringes are observed on circular
screen as shown. The total number of minima
observed is (S1 and S2 are equidistance from O)
(1) 500 nm (2) 667 nm
(3) 600 nm (4) All of these
17. White light is incident normally on an oil film of S1 O S2
thickness 10–4 cm and refractive index 1.4. Which 1.5 
wavelengths will not be seen in the reflected
system?
(1) 7000 Å (2) 2300 Å (1) Four (2) Two
(3) 4000 Å (4) All of these (3) Six (4) Infinite

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 Wave Optics IIT - JEE/NEET

22. The maximum number of possible interference 27. Two thin transparent film of mica and glass are put
minima for slit separation equal to twice the in the path of two waves. If their thickness are
wav elength used in a Young’s double slit 3t and 2t respectively. What should be refractive
experiment is index of mica so that central maximum is found at
O (glass = 1.5)?
(1) Infinite (2) Zero
(3) Three (4) Four 3t
23. The ratio of intensities of two waves are given by
S1
4 : 1. The ratio of maximum amplitude to minimum
amplitude O
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 9 : 1
S2
(3) 3 : 1 (4) 4 : 1 2t
D
24. If two waves are represented by y1 = A sin t and
  (1)  = 1.25 (2) 1.5
y2 = A cost   the amplitude of resultant
 6 (3) 1.75 (4) 2
wave will be
28. Unpolarized light of intensity I0 passes through
(1) A (2) A 3 three polarizers such that transmission axes of the
first and second polarizer makes angle 60° with
(3) A 2 (4) Zero each other and the transmission axis of the last
25. What should be path difference between wave y1 polarizer is crossed with that of the first. The
and y2 to have constructive interference? intensity of final emerging light will be
y1 y2
I0 I0
(1) (2)
16 8
 = 1.2
3I 0 3I 0
(3) (4)
 = 1.5 32 8

 29. Diffraction espect are caries to notice in case of

(1) n (2) (2n  1) sound waves than in case of light wave because
2
sound waves
3
(3) (4) Both (2) & (3) (1) Are logitudinal
2
26. In Young’s double slit experiment, when two light (2) Are of longer wavelength
waves form third minimum, they have (3) Are of shorter wavelength

3 (4) Are mechanical waves

(1) Path difference 
2 30. When angle of incidence on a material is 53°, the
reflected light is completly polarised. The velocity
5 of the refracted ray inside the material is
(2) Path difference 
4
4 9
(3) Path difference  3 (1)  10 8 m/s (2)  10 8 m/s
3 4
5
(4) Path difference  (3) 1.5  10 8 m/s (4) 1  10 8 m/s
2

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 Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation IIT - JEE/NEET

10. Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation

Choose the correct answer :

1. Compton effect explains 7. The graph between stopping potential (V0) versus
frequency (v) of the light used in an experiment of
(1) Particle nature of light photoelectric effect is as shown in figure. Work
(2) Wave nature of light function of the metal surface is

(3) Diffraction of light

(4) Interference of light 1.656

2. For Bohr’s first orbit of circumference 2r, the V (in volts)
de-Broglie wavelength of the revolving electron will
be 14
1 2 3 4 5 v (in 10 Hz)
(1) 2r (2) r
(1) 0.212 eV (2) 0.207 eV
1 1 (3) 0.414 eV (4) 0.428 eV
(3) (4)
3r 4r
8. A hydrogen atom moving with a speed v absorbs
3. In Millikan’s oil drop experiment, an oil drop of a photon of wavelength 127 nm and stops then the
mass 1.6 × 10–6 kg is balanced by an electric field value of v is nearly
of 106 V/m. The charge in coulomb on the drop (1) 4.5 m/s
is (assuming g = 10 m/s2)
(2) 3.12 m/s
(1) 6.2 × 10–11
(3) 5.45 m/s
(2) 16 × 10–9
(4) 7.25 m/s
(3) 16 × 10–12
9. A proton and an electron are accelerated from rest
(4) 16 × 10–13
by the same potential difference. If  e and  p
4. For the production of characteristic K X-rays the denote the de-Broglie wavelengths of the electron
electron transition is from and proton respectively, then

(1) L to K (2) M to L (1) e = p (2) e > p

(3) M to K (4) N to L (3) e < p (4) e = 2p

5. The threshold wavelength of a photosensitive 10. If sodium and copper have work function 2.3 eV
surface is 0. The photoelectric effect will take and 4.6 eV respectively, then the ratio of their
place only if cutoff wavelength is
(1)  > 0 (2)  < 0 (1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
(3)  > 20 (4)  > 30 (3) 4 : 1 (4) 3 : 1
6. The number of photons emitted per second by a 11. A point source of monochromatic light is at a
3.2 mW monochromatic source of wavelength 6.21 distance of 0.2 m from the photoelectric cell, the
nm are stopping potential and saturation current are 0.6 V
and 18 mA respectively. It the same source is
(1) 3 × 10–12 placed 0.6 m away from the photoelectric cell then

5 16
(1) Stopping potential is 0.2 V
(2)    10
3
  (2) Stopping potential is 0.6 V

(3) 3 × 1016 (3) The saturation current is 9 mA

(4) 1014 (4) The saturation current is 15 mA

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 Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation IIT - JEE/NEET

12. There are n1 photons of frequency 1 in the beam of 18. What is de-Broglie wavelength of an electron in
light. In an equally energetic beam there are n2 second orbit of Bohr’s hydrogen atom, if r is radius
photons of frequency 2, then the correct relation is of first orbit of hydrogen atom?
(1) n1 = n2 (1) 2r (2) 4r
(2) n11 = n22 (3) r (4) 8r
(3) n12 = n21 19. Ratio of energy of two photons is 1 : 2. What is
(4) n122 = n212 the ratio of their momentum?

13. The work function of a metal with energy of incident (1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 :1
photon ‘7.4 eV’ and the stopping potential ‘4 V’ is
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 1
(1) 3 eV (2) 3.4 eV
20. The energy of a photon corresponding to the visible
(3) 4 eV (4) 7.4 eV light of maximum wavelength is approximately
14. If a metallic surface is illuminated by radiation of (1) 1.6 eV (2) 1.0 eV
frequency  > 0), then the maximum kinetic
energy of the emitted photoelectron is K. If the (3) 3.2 eV (4) 7.0 eV
same surface is again illuminated by a radiation of
frequency 3, then the kinetic energy of emitted 21. The energy of photon is equal to the kinetic energy
photoelectrons will be of a proton. The energy of photon is E. Let 1 be the
de-Broglie wavelength of proton and 2 be the
(1) Doubled 1
wavelength of photon. The ratio  is proportional
(2) Halved 2
to
(3) Tripled
(1) E0 (2) E1/2
(4) More than tripled
15. When a metallic surface is illuminated with light of (3) E–1 (4) E–2
wavelength , the stopping potential is x volts 22. What will happen to photocurrent if frequency of
when the same surface is illuminated by light of incident light is doubled keeping intensity constant?
x
wavelength 3. The stopping potential is , then (1) Photocurrent remains unchanged
4
the threshold wavelength for the metallic surface (2) Photocurrent increases
4 (3) Photocurrent decreases
(1) (2) 9
3
(4) Photocurrent may increase may decrease
8
(3) 6 (4) 23. Figure shows variation of photocurrent with applied
3
voltage for a metal surface for two different
16. Protons and -particles are accelerated through radiations. Let I1, I2 be the intensities and f1, f2 be
potential difference V1 and V2, such that their the frequency for curve 1 and curve 2 respectively
V1 (Assuming Efficency remains same)
de-Broglie wavelength becomes equal. Then is
V2
Photocurrent
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 4 : 1
(3) 8 : 1 (4) 1 : 2 1
2
17. de-Broglie wavelengths of two particles are in the
Anode potential
ratio of 1 : 3. If a magnetic field is applied
perpendicular to their velocity ratio of the radii of (1) f1 > f2 and I1 = I2
circular path described by them is 2 : 1. What is
ratio of magnitude of charge on each? (2) f1 = f2 and I1 > I2

(1) 2 : 3 (2) 1 : 6 (3) f1 > f2 and I1 > I2

(3) 3 : 2 (4) 6 : 1 (4) f1 > f2 and I1 < I2

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24. According to Einstein photoelectric equation the (1) 1 > 2

graph between the kinetic energy of photoelectrons
ejected and frequency of incident radiation for two (2) 1 < 2
different metal is (3) 1 = 2
(4) 1 = 22
Kinetic energy

Metal 1 Metal 2
25. The de-Broglie wavelength  associated with a
proton increases by 50% when its momentum is
decreased by P0. The initial momentum is

Frequency (1) 3P0 (2) 5P0

If 1 and 2 is work function of metal 1 and metal P0 P0

2 & respectively then (3) (4)
3 5

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 Atoms and Nuclei IIT - JEE/NEET

11. Atoms and Nuclei

Choose the correct answer :

1. The electron emitted in beta radiation originates 8. Radius of first Bohr’s orbit of hydrogen atom is r.
from What is the radius of 2nd Bohrs orbit?
(1) Inner orbits of atom (1) 8r (2) 2r
(2) Free electron in the nuclei
(3) 4r (4) 2 2r
(3) Decay of a neutron in a nucleus
9. In a hydrogen atom which of the f ollowing
(4) Proton escaping from the nucleus
transitions correspond to emission of photon of
2. Which of the following is a best projectile for highest wavelength?
fission reaction?
(1) n = 2 to n = 1
(1) -particle (2) Proton
(2) n = 1 to n = 2
(3) Neutron (4) -particle
3. The substance used as a moderator in a nuclear (3) n = 2 to n = 5
reactor is (4) n = 5 to n = 2
(1) Heavy water 10. The energy of 25 eV is required to remove one of
(2) Liquid sodium the electrons from the neutral helium atom. The
(3) Graphite energy required to remove both the electrons from
the helium atom
(4) Both (1) and (3)
(1) 2.2 eV (2) 52.2 eV
4. In a nuclear reaction which of the following
conservation is valid? (3) 25 eV (4) 79.4 eV
(1) Charge conservation 11. The radioactivity of certain radioactive element
(2) Energy-mass conservation th
 1
(3) Momentum conservation drops to   of its initial value in 30 second, its
8
(4) All of these half life is
5. The mass of a photon of wavelength  is
(1) 15 second (2) 5 second
h h (3) 4 second (4) 10 second
(1) (2)
c c
12. The relationship between disintegration constant 
and half life T1/2 of a radioactive substance is
hc h
(3) (4)
 c
loge (2)
6. The mass number of an atom A = 38 and its (1)   T (2)  = loge(2) T1/2
1/ 2
electronic configuration is 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p4. The
number of neutrons and protons in the nucleus will (3) T1/2 = loge(2) (4) T1/2 = loge5
be
13. A particle of mass 3m at decays two particles of
(1) 22, 18 (2) 18, 22 masses m and 2m having non-zero velocities. The
(3) 20, 20 (4) 22, 16 ratio of the de-Broglie wavelengths of the particles
7. The relation between magnetic moment  of a  1 
revolving electron around the nucleus with principal is   
 2
quantum number n is
1 1 1
(1)   n (2)   2 (1) (2)
n 2 4
1 (3) 2 (4) 1
(3)   (4)   n2
n3
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14. The half life of a radioactive material is T, then the 20. Which of following transition gives photon of
T maximum wavelength?
fraction of radioactive nuclei remain after time
2 (1) n = 2 to n = 4
is
(2) n = 3 to n = 2
1 3
(1) (2) (3) n = 3 to n = 4
2 4
1 2 1 (4) n = 6 to n = 5
(3) (4)
2 2 21. Angular momentum is L1 of an electron in ground
15. During mean life of a radioactive element, the state of hydrogen. What will be angular momentum
fraction that disintegrates is of e in second orbit of helium?

1 (1) L1 (2) 2L1

(1) e (2)
e (3) 3L1 (4) 9L1
(e  1) e 22. In Rutherford experiment correct angle of scattering
(3) (4) (e  1) of -particle for impact parameter equal to zero is
e
16. A radioactive nucleus emits an -particle and a (1) 90° (2) 270°
neutron simultaneously with same speed but in
(3) 0° (4) 180°
opposite direction in order to form a stable nuclei
If the speed of emitted particles is v and A is the 23. When metal of atomic number Z is used as target
mass number of radioactive nucleus, then speed to in a coolidge tube, let f be the frequency of K
stable nucleus is line. Corresponding values of Z and f are known for
a number of metals which of the following graph
3v 2v will give straight line?
(1) A  5 (2) A  5
1
4v 2v (1) f again Z (2) again Z
(3) A  5 (4) A  5 f

(3) f again Z (4) f again Z

17. A radioactive substance is being produced at a
constant rate a per second. Its decay constant is
24. X-ray cannot be diffracted by means of on ordinary
b. If N0 are the number of nuclei at time t = 0, then
grating due to
the maximum number of nuclei possible are
(1) Large wavelength
a a
(1) (2) N 0  (2) High speed
b b
b (3) High frequency
(3) N0 (4) N0 +
a (4) Low speed
18. The radioactivity of a sample is A at a time T1 and 25. In reaction 2He4 + ZXA  A+3
Z+2Y + K.
2A at a time T2. The mean life of the specimen is
T, the number of atoms that have disintegrated in K must be
the time (T2 – T1) is proportional to
(1) Electron (2) Positron
(1) 2T1 – T2 (2) T
(3) Proton (4) Neutron
1
(3) (4) T2 26. The binding energy of deutron 1H2 is 1.112 MeV per
T nucleon and -particle 2He4 has a binding energy
19. Let f1 be the frequency of maximum lyman series, of 7.047 MeV per nucleon. Then in the relation
f2 the frequency of first line of lyman series and f3 2
1H + 1H2  2He4 + Q
the frequency of series limit of balmer series. Then
which of following is correct? the energy Q released is
(1) f1 – f2 = f3 (2) f2 – f1 = f3 (1) 1 MeV (2) 11.9 MeV
(3) f1 + f2 = f3 (4) 2f3 = f1 + f2 (3) 23.8 MeV (4) 931 MeV

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27. Half lives of two radioactive substances A and B 29. The intensity of gama radiations from a given
are respectively 20 s and 40 s. Initially the samples source is I0. On passing through x of lead it is
of A and B have equal number of nuclei. After 80 I0
minutes the ratio of remaining numbers of A and B reduced to . The thickness of lead which will
8
nuclei is
I0
reduce it to is
(1) 1 : 16 (2) 4 : 1 2
1/ 4
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 1 : 1 x
(1) (x)1/3 mm (2)   mm
5
28. The activity of a sample of radioactive material is
A1 at time t and A2 at time 3t. If it is mean life is x x
(3)   mm (4)   mm
T, then 3 4
30. The probability of a radioactive atom to survive n
(1) A1 = 3A2 times longer than half life period is
(2) A1 – A2 = 2t 2 1
(1) (2)
n 2n
(3) A2 = A1e–2t/T
1 1
(4) A2 = A1–3t/T (3) (4)
2n n2

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 Electronic Devices IIT - JEE/NEET

12. Electronic Devices

Choose the correct answer :

1. In a common emitter amplifier the phase difference 7. Two identical capacitors A and B are charged to the
between input and output voltage is same potential V and are connected in two circuits
at t = 0 as shown in the figure. The charges on the
(1) Zero (2) /4 capacitors at time t = RC are respectively
(3) /2 (4)  A B
+ – + –
2. In which of the configurations of a transistor, the
power gain is highest? C C
R R
(1) Common base
(2) Common emitter (1) VC, VC (2) VC/e, VC
(3) Common collector (3) VC, VC/e (4) VC/e, VC/e
(4) Same in all the three 8. Two identical P-N junctions may be connected in
3. There is a gate with two inputs A and B, and one series with a battery in three ways as shown in the
output Y. Using the input and output wave forms adjoining figure. The potential drop across the
identify the gate P-N junctions are equal in

1 P N N P
A 0
1
B 0
First circuit
1
Y0 P N P N
(1) NAND (2) NOR
(3) EXCLUSIVE-OR (4) AND
Second circuit
4. An n-type semi-conductor has donor levels at
500 meV above the valence band, the frequency of N P N P
light required to create a hole is nearly
(1) 8 × 1013 Hz (2) 12 × 1013 Hz
Third circuit
(3) 22 × 1013 Hz (4) 15 × 1013 Hz
(1) First and second circuits
5. In a common emitter amplifier, when a signal of 40
mV is added to the input voltage the base current (2) Second and third circuits
changes of 100 µA and emitter current changes by
(3) Third and first circuits
2.1 mA, then the trans conductance is
(4) All of these
1 1 1 1
(1)  (2)  9. The relationship between  and  is given by
20 50

(3) 50 –1 (4) 15 –1 1

(1)  =  (2)  

6. Give the output of the given logic gate
A  
(3)   (4)  
B 1  1 
Y
10. The material suitable for making a solar cell is
(1) Y  A B  B (2) Y  A B  B A (1) Pbs (2) GaAs

(3) Y = 1 (4) Y  ( A  B )B (3) CdSe (4) Ge

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11. A diode can convert 16. In the given network, if VBE = 1V then, the input
resistance of the base-emitter junction is
(1) A.C. into D.C. but not D.C. into A.C.
(2) D.C. into A.C. but not A.C. into D.C.
200 k 103
(3) A.C. into D.C. and D.C. into A.C. +
C – 5V
(4) All of these
12. In semiconductor, which of the following relation is B E
correct at thermal equilibrium
(1) ni = ne = nn (2) ni2 = nenn
(1) 15 × 104  (2) 5 × 104 
ne
(3) ne = nn = 0 (4) ni  n (3) 20 × 105  (4) 4 × 104 
n
17. If the current amplification factor for a transistor
13. In the given circuit calculate the ratio of currents connected in common emitter configuration is 100
through the batteries if (1) key K1 is pressed, K2 and input resistance is 200 , then calculate the
open and then (2) key K2 is pressed, key K1 is power gain
opened
10  C
B
800  RL 0.8V
20  E
RB
+ – – +
K1 + 5V
–
8V
– +
(1) 4 × 104 (2) 5 × 103
K2
1 10V (3) 7 × 103 (4) 45 × 104
(1) (2) 4
2 18. Three diodes are connected as shown in figure
(3) 2 (4) 1
D1 D2 D3
14. In the given circuit calculate the current through
resistance R in the figure (R = 12 )
4V
+ – 12 
if diodes are ideal then choose correct statement
– + R (1) D1 is forward biased
6V (2) D2 is forward biased
1
(3) D3 is forward biased
(1) 0.92 A (2) 0.13 A (4) D3 is reverse biased
(3) 0.72 A (4) 0.42 A 19. In figure shown find current through diode
15. In the given circuit of the current amplification is 20
and the base current is 50 × 10–6 A then the potential 3 6
drop between the collector emitter junction is O
D
20  500  6 3
B C
10V
E 8V
20 
4 2
(1) A (2) A
(1) 6 V (2) 9.5 V 3 3

(3) 8 V (4) 12 V (3) 2 A (4) Zero

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20. Choose the correct statement from following 25. The combination of NOR gates shown here are
equivalent to
(1) p-type semiconductor is positively charged
(2) Phosphor is acceptor type impurity A
(3) Donor atom electrons have energy state that is Y
slightly below the lowest energy state of B
CB(Conduction Band)
(1) OR (2) AND
(4) None of these
(3) NAND (4) XOR
21. In diagram, the input is across the terminal P and
R and the output is across S and Q. Then output is 26. In the given circuit diode is ideal. The potential
difference across 2  resistance is
P
20 V
3
Vi S V0 Q
2
R (1) 10 V (2) 8 V
(1) Half wave rectified (2) Full wave rectified (3) 20 V (4) Zero

(3) Same as the input (4) Zero 27. In common base amplifier, the phase difference
between the input signal voltage and output voltage
22. Reading of Ammeter in following circuit is

6 (1) (2) 
4 4
3 
A (3) Zero (4)
2
28. In p-n-p transistor the collector current is 8 mA.
5V If 80% of holes emitted reach the collector, the
emitter current will be
5 5 (1) 9 mA (2) 11 mA
(1) A (2) A
6 7
(3) 10 mA (4) 2 mA

1 5 29. In a common emitter amplifier, input resistance is

(3) A (4) A 3  and load resistance is 24 . What is voltage
2 4
gain? (Take  = 0.8)
23. ‘A + AB’ Boolean equation is equal to (1) 16 (2) 24
(1) A (2) B (3) 32 (4) 8
(3) A + B (4) AB 30. A potential Barrier of 0.2 V exists across a p-n
junction. A uniform electric field of magnitude
24. How many NAND gates are required to make OR 106 V/m exists in depletion region. The width of
gate? depletion region is
(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) 4 × 10–7 m (2) 0.1 mm
(3) 3 (4) 4 (3) 2 × 10–7 m (4) 20 m

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 Communication Systems IIT - JEE/NEET

13. Communication Systems

Choose the correct answer :

1. Which of the following is an advantage of FM over 6. The area of the region covered by the T.V., broadcast
AM? by a T.V. tower of height 100 m is (in m2)

(1) Less noise (1) 8.4 × 108 (2) 1.28 × 109

(3) 1.92 × 108 (4) 8.4 × 109
(2) Larger bandwidth
7. An information signal of 150 MHz is to be sent
(3) More circuit complexity
across a distance of 40 km. Which mode of
(4) Can be transmitted to longer distance communication is suitable?

2. The process of changing some characteristic of a (1) Ground wave propagation

carrier wave in accordance with the intensity of (2) Space wave propagation
signal to be transmitted is called
(3) Sky wave propagation
(1) Amplification
(4) Satellite communication
(2) Rectification
8. In an AM wave for audio frequency of 3400 cycle/s,
(3) Modulation the appropriate carrier frequency will be

(4) None of these (1) 1000 Hz (2) 34000 MHz

3. Modulation is done in (3) 60000 Hz (4) 800,000 Hz

(1) Transmitter 9. For VHF television broadcasting, the frequency

employed is generally
(2) Radio receiver
(1) 54 - 72 MHz
(3) In communication channel
(2) 420 - 890 MHz
(4) None of these
(3) 540 - 1600 KHz
4. "Need for modulation" arises due to which of the
(4) 88 - 108 KHz
following reasons?
10. On a particular day, the maximum frequency
2
 1 reflected from the ionosphere is 10 MHz. The
(1) Power radiated by an antenna    maximum electron density in ionosphere is

(2) It allows multiple user-friendly communication (1) 106/m2 (2) 1012/m3
(3) 1.23 × 1012/m3 (4) 1/9 × 106/m3

(3) Height of antenna required    11. Line of sight communication is also known as
4
(4) All of these (1) Ground wave communication

5. A ground receiver station is receiving a signal at (2) Space wave communication

500 MHz transmitted from a ground transmitter at (3) Sky wave communication
a height of 300 m located at a distance of
500 km. It is coming via (4) Ionospheric communication

(1) Ground wave 12. If a carrier wave of 1000 kHz is used to carry the
signal, the length of transmitting antenna will be
(2) Space wave equal to
(3) Sky wave (1) 3 m (2) 30 m
(4) Satellite communication (3) 75 m (4) 3000 m

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13. In frequency modulation, the amount of frequency 17. Long distance short wave radio broadcasting uses
deviation depends on the
(1) Ground wave
(1) Frequency of audio signal
(2) Sky wave
(2) Amplitude of audio signal
(3) Direct wave
(3) Both the frequency and amplitude of audio
signal (4) Space wave
(4) None of these 18. Satellite communication is generally carried out for
14. The communication satellites are parked at a frequencies above
height of (from surface of earth)
(1) 1 MHz (2) 1 kHz
(1) 36 km (2) 360 km
(3) 20 MHz (4) 20 kHz
(3) 3600 km (4) 36000 km
19. The maximum value of modulation index in case of
15. The ‘Facsimile Transmission (FAX)’ involves amplitude modulation is
(1) Speech communication
(1) 0.1
(2) Telegraphy
(2) 1
(3) Exact reproduction of a document or static
picture (3) 100
(4) Taking photograph (4) Infinity
16. A device which converts on type of energy into 20. Digital signals
other is known as
(1) Do not provide a continuous set of values
(1) Attenuator
(2) Transmitter (2) Utilize binary systems

(3) Reciver (3) Ensures error and noise free communication

(4) Transducer (4) All of these

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ANSWERS

1. Electrostatics
1. (1) 2. (2) 3. (1) 4. (3) 5. (4) 6. (1) 7. (3)

8. (2) 9. (3) 10. (3) 11. (1) 12. (2) 13. (1) 14. (4)

15. (2) 16. (3) 17. (2) 18. (4) 19. (3) 20. (2) 21. (4)

22. (4) 23. (3) 24. (3) 25. (3) 26. (2) 27. (4) 28. (1)

29. (3) 30. (1) 31. (4) 32. (1) 33. (2) 34. (2) 35. (1)

36. (2) 37. (1) 38. (3) 39. (3) 40. (3)

2. Current Electricity
1. (3) 2. (3) 3. (3) 4. (1) 5. (1) 6. (2) 7. (3)

8. (3) 9. (3) 10. (2) 11. (3) 12. (1) 13. (3) 14. (2)

15. (4) 16. (4) 17. (4) 18. (3) 19. (2) 20. (3) 21. (1)

22. (1) 23. (1) 24. (3) 25. (3) 26. (3) 27. (3) 28. (2)

29. (3) 30. (1) 31. (1) 32. (1) 33. (1) 34. (1) 35. (1)

3. Magnetic Effects of Current

1. (2) 2. (3) 3. (2) 4. (1) 5. (4) 6. (4) 7. (3)

8. (2) 9. (4) 10. (3) 11. (3) 12. (3) 13. (2) 14. (2)

15. (3) 16. (3) 17. (3) 18. (3) 19. (4) 20. (3) 21. (1)

22. (1) 23. (1) 24. (1) 25. (2) 26. (4) 27. (2) 28. (3)

29. (2) 30. (3)

4. Magnetism
1. (3) 2. (1) 3. (1) 4. (1) 5. (4) 6. (4) 7. (3)

8. (3) 9. (1) 10. (2) 11. (1) 12. (3) 13. (4) 14. (1)

15. (2) 16. (1) 17. (3) 18. (4) 19. (3) 20. (4) 21. (2)

22. (4) 23. (3) 24. (3) 25. (2)

5. Electromagnetic Induction
1. (3) 2. (3) 3. (1) 4. (3) 5. (2) 6. (1) 7. (1)

8. (1) 9. (2) 10. (4) 11. (1) 12. (2) 13. (3) 14. (4)

15. (3) 16. (2) 17. (4) 18. (2) 19. (1) 20. (3)

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 IIT - JEE/NEET Answers

6. Alternating Current
1. (1) 2. (3) 3. (2) 4. (2) 5. (1) 6. (1) 7. (2)

8. (4) 9. (2) 10. (3) 11. (2) 12. (4) 13. (3) 14. (1)

15. (1) 16. (4) 17. (1) 18. (2) 19. (2) 20. (4)

7. Electromagnetic Waves
1. (2) 2. (1) 3. (1) 4. (4) 5. (4) 6. (1) 7. (4)

8. (3) 9. (2) 10. (1) 11. (4) 12. (1) 13. (1) 14. (2)

15. (1) 16. (2) 17. (2) 18. (1) 19. (4) 20. (2)

8. Ray Optics and Optical Instruments

1. (3) 2. (3) 3. (4) 4. (1) 5. (4) 6. (1) 7. (4)

8. (1) 9. (2) 10. (3) 11. (1) 12. (4) 13. (1) 14. (1)

15. (2) 16. (4) 17. (3) 18. (1) 19. (1) 20. (4) 21. (2)

22. (2) 23. (3) 24. (4) 25. (2) 26. (3) 27. (4) 28. (1)

29. (4) 30. (3)

9. Wave Optics
1. (3) 2. (4) 3. (3) 4. (3) 5. (4) 6. (4) 7. (2)

8. (4) 9. (3) 10. (3) 11. (2) 12. (3) 13. (2) 14. (1)

15. (4) 16. (2) 17. (1) 18. (3) 19. (4) 20. (4) 21. (3)

22. (4) 23. (3) 24. (1) 25. (4) 26. (4) 27. (3) 28. (3)

29. (2) 30. (2)

10. Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation

1. (1) 2. (1) 3. (3) 4. (3) 5. (2) 6. (4) 7. (3)

8. (2) 9. (2) 10. (1) 11. (2) 12. (2) 13. (2) 14. (4)

15. (2) 16. (3) 17. (3) 18. (4) 19. (3) 20. (1) 21. (2)

22. (3) 23. (3) 24. (2) 25. (1)

11. Atoms and Nuclei

1. (3) 2. (3) 3. (4) 4. (4) 5. (2) 6. (4) 7. (1)

8. (3) 9. (4) 10. (4) 11. (4) 12. (1) 13. (4) 14. (3)

15. (3) 16. (1) 17. (1) 18. (2) 19. (1) 20. (4) 21. (2)

22. (4) 23. (3) 24. (3) 25. (4) 26. (3) 27. (3) 28. (3)

29. (3) 30. (2)

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 Answers IIT - JEE/NEET

12. Electronic Devices

1. (4) 2. (2) 3. (3) 4. (2) 5. (1) 6. (3) 7. (2)

8. (2) 9. (3) 10. (2) 11. (1) 12. (2) 13. (4) 14. (4)

15. (2) 16. (2) 17. (1) 18. (4) 19. (2) 20. (3) 21. (4)

22. (3) 23. (1) 24. (3) 25. (2) 26. (4) 27. (3) 28. (3)

29. (3) 30. (3)

13. Communication Systems

1. (1) 2. (3) 3. (1) 4. (4) 5. (4) 6. (2) 7. (2)

8. (4) 9. (1) 10. (3) 11. (2) 12. (3) 13. (2) 14. (4)

15. (3) 16. (4) 17. (2) 18. (3) 19. (2) 20. (4)

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